21572
$\text{How many } Mn = O \text{ (manganese-oxygen double bonds) bonds are present in the compound } Mn_2O_7?$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $5$...
3
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21571
$\text{Match List-I (Complexes) with List-II (Colour) and choose the correct option:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I} & \text{List-II} \\ \hline (i) \; \text{Fe}_4[\text{Fe(CN)}_6]_3 & (A) \; \text{Red} \\ (ii) \; [\text{Fe(SCN)}]^{2+} & (B) \; \text{Green} \\ (iii) \; \text{FeSO}_4 \cdot 7\text{H}_2\text{O} & (C) \; \text{Prussian blue} \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B)$, $(i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(C)$...
1
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21570
$\text{How many of the following elements do not belong to the Lanthanoids?}$ $\text{Eu, Er, Lu, Cm, Yb, Tb}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $4$...
4
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21569
$\text{Calculate the Bohr Magneton (B.M.) value for the compound with the least oxidizing ability in the following list:}$ $[\text{VO}_2^+, \text{MnO}_4^-, \text{and Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-}]$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $0$...
2
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21568
$\text{On treating a compound with warm dil. } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4, \text{ gas X is evolved which turns } \text{K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ paper acidified with dil. } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ to a green compound Y. Determine X and Y respectively:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$X = \text{SO}_2, Y = \text{Cr}_2\text{O}_3$, $X = \text{SO}_3, Y = \text{Cr}_2\text{O}_3$...
3
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21567
$\text{Match List-I with List-II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I} & \text{List-II} \\ \text{(Types of alloy)} & \text{(Composition)} \\ \hline \text{(A) Bronze} & \text{(I) Cu, Ni} \\ \text{(B) Brass} & \text{(II) Fe, Cr, Ni, C} \\ \text{(C) UK silver coin} & \text{(III) Cu, Zn} \\ \text{(D) Stainless Steel} & \text{(IV) Cu, Sn} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)$, $(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)$...
2
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21566
$\text{Which of the following oxidation reactions are carried out by both } \text{K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ and } \text{KMnO}_4 \text{ in acidic medium?}$ $\text{A. } \text{I}^- \rightarrow \text{I}_2$ $\text{B. } \text{S}^{2-} \rightarrow \text{S}$ $\text{C. } \text{Fe}^{2+} \rightarrow \text{Fe}^{3+}$ $\text{D. } \text{I}^- \rightarrow \text{IO}_3^-$ $\text{E. } \text{S}_2\text{O}_3^{2-} \rightarrow \text{SO}_4^{2-}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{B, C and D only}$, $\text{A, D and E only}$...
3
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21565
$\text{Match the transition metal ion in List-I with its corresponding spin-only magnetic moment (in B.M.) in List-II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I} & \text{List-II} \\ \text{(Transition metal ion)} & \text{(Spin only magnetic moment (B.M.))} \\ \hline \text{(A) } \text{Ti}^{3+} & \text{(I) } 3.87 \\ \text{(B) } \text{V}^{2+} & \text{(II) } 0.00 \\ \text{(C) } \text{Ni}^{2+} & \text{(III) } 1.73 \\ \text{(D) } \text{Sc}^{3+} & \text{(IV) } 2.84 \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{A})-(\text{III}), (\text{B})-(\text{I}), (\text{C})-(\text{II}), (\text{D})-(\text{IV})$, $(\text{A})-(\text{III}), (\text{B})-(\text{II}), (\text{C})-(\text{IV}), (\text{D})-(\text{II})$...
2
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21564
$\text{How many } f \text{ electrons are present in the ground-state electronic configuration of Np (Z = 93)?}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$18$, $14$...
1
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21563
$\text{Which of the following pairs consists of transition metal ions that are colourless?}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Sc}^{3+}, \text{Zn}^{2+}$, $\text{Ti}^{4+}, \text{Cu}^{2+}$...
1
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21562
$\text{In a neutral or a faintly alkaline solution, } \text{MnO}_4^- \text{ oxidises thiosulphate to:}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{S}_2\text{O}_7^{2-}$, $\text{S}_2\text{O}_8^{2-}$...
4
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21561
$\text{The electronic configuration of Platinum (atomic number: 78) is:}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$[\text{Xe}]4f^{14}5d^96s^1$, $[\text{Kr}]4f^{14}5d^{10}$...
1
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21560
$\text{Which of the following statements are correct?}$ $\text{(A) The electronic configuration of Cr is } [\text{Ar}]3d^5 4s^1.$ $\text{(B) The magnetic quantum number may have a negative value.}$ $\text{(C) In the ground state of an atom, the orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energies.}$ $\text{(D) The total number of nodes is given by } n-2.$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(A), (C) and (D) only}$, $\text{(A) and (B) only}$...
4
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21559
$\text{Which of the following pairs of ions of lanthanoids corresponds to half-filled and completely filled 'f' orbitals respectively, based on their electronic configurations?}$ $\text{[Given: Atomic no. Eu, 63; Sm, 62; Tm, 69; Tb, 65; Yb, 70; Dy, 66]}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Eu}^{2+} \text{ and Tm}^{2+}$, $\text{Sm}^{2+} \text{ and Tm}^{3+}$...
3
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21558
$\text{Which of the following metal in the 3d transition metal series possesses the highest } \text{M}^{2+}/\text{M} \text{ standard electrode potential?}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Chromium (Cr)}$, $\text{Iron (Fe)}$...
3
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21557
$\text{The most common oxidation state of Lanthanoid elements is } +3. \text{ Which of the following is likely to deviate easily from } +3 \text{ oxidation state?}$ $1. \text{Ce(At. No. 58)}$ $2. \text{La(At. No. 57)}$ $3. \text{Lu(At. No. 71)}$ $4. \text{Gd(At. No. 64)}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Ce(At. No. 58)}$, $\text{La(At. No. 57)}$...
1
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21556
$\text{Match the following ions from List-I with their corresponding electron}$ $\text{configuration from List-II and select the correct option.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I (Ion)} & \text{List-II (electron configuration)} \\ \hline \text{a. } \text{Mn}^{2+} & \text{(i) } 3d^3 4s^1 \\ \text{b. } \text{V}^{+} & \text{(ii) } 3d^5 4s^0 \\ \text{c. } \text{Cr}^{+} & \text{(iii) } 3d^6 4s^0 \\ \text{d. } \text{Fe}^{2+} & \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{a} \rightarrow \text{(i)}, \text{b} \rightarrow \text{(ii)}, \text{c} \rightarrow \text{(iii)}, \text{d} \rightarrow \text{(iii)}$, $\text{a} \rightarrow \text{(iv)}, \text{b} \rightarrow \text{(ii)}, \text{c} \rightarrow \text{(i)}, \text{d} \rightarrow \text{(i)}$...
3
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21555
$\text{Which of the following statements are correct?}$ $\text{(A) } \text{Mn}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ is an oil at room temperature.}$ $\text{(B) } \text{V}_2\text{O}_4 \text{ reacts with acid to give } \text{VO}^{2+}. $ $\text{(C) } \text{CrO is a basic oxide.}$ $\text{(D) } \text{V}_2\text{O}_5 \text{ does not react with acids.}$ $\text{Choose the correct option:}$ $1. \text{ A, B, and C only}$ $2. \text{ B, C and D only}$ $3. \text{ A only}$ $4. \text{ B and C only}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A, B, and C only}$, $\text{B, C and D only}$...
1
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21554
$\text{An element from the d-block of the } 4^{\text{th}} \text{ period has a spin-only magnetic moment of } 3.9 \text{ BM in its } \text{Z}^{3+} \text{ ionic form. What is the minimum atomic number } (\text{Z}) \text{ of this element?}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$29$, $23$...
3
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21553
$\text{What is the difference in the spin-only magnetic moment (in B.M.)}$ $\text{between manganese (Mn) in } \text{KMnO}_4 \text{ and manganese species in the}$ $\text{product (X) of the given reaction?}$ $\text{KMnO}_4 \xrightarrow{\text{H}^+} \text{X (product having Mn)}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $4$...
4
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21552
$\text{Which of the following f-block metals have a half-filled f-subshell?}$ $\text{(a) Samarium (Sm)}$ $\text{(b) Gadolinium (Gd)}$ $\text{(c) Europium (Eu)}$ $\text{(d) Terbium (Tb)}$ $\text{[Atomic numbers : Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Gd = 64, Tb = 65]}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(a) and (b)}$, $\text{(b) and (c)}$...
2
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21551
$\text{When } \text{K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ is used in an acidic medium during titration, the oxidation number of Cr in the product side is-}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$+6$, $+2$...
3
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21550
$\text{During the qualitative analysis of } \text{SO}_3^{2-} \text{ using acidified } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4, \text{ SO}_2 \text{ gas evolved which turns } \text{K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ solution:}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Green}$, $\text{Black}$...
1
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21549
$\text{How many of the following ions/elements has/have the same value of spin magnetic moment?}$ $\text{V}^{3+}, \text{Cr}^{3+}, \text{Fe}^{2+}, \text{Ni}^{2+}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $3$...
1
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21548
$ ext{Ce}^{3+}, ext{La}^{3+}, ext{Pm}^{3+} ext{ and } ext{Yb}^{3+} ext{ have ionic radii in the increasing order as:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$ ext{La}^{3+} < ext{Ce}^{3+} < ext{Pm}^{3+} < ext{Yb}^{3+}$, $ ext{Yb}^{3+} < ext{Pm}^{3+} < ext{Ce}^{3+} < ext{La}^{3+}$...
2
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21547
$\text{The common oxidation states associated with cerium (Ce) are:}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$+3, +4$, $+2, +3$...
1
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21546
$\text{The radius of La}^{3+} \text{ (Atomic number of La = 57) is } 1.06 \, \text{Å. Which one of the following given values will be closest to the radius of Lu}^{3+} \text{ (Atomic number of Lu = 71)?}$ $1. \; 1.60 \, \text{Å}$ $2. \; 1.40 \, \text{Å}$ $3. \; 1.06 \, \text{Å}$ $4. \; 0.85 \, \text{Å}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$1.60 \, \text{Å}$, $1.40 \, \text{Å}$...
4
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21545
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is:}$ $1.\ \text{VOSO}_3\ \text{is a reducing agent.}$ $2.\ \text{Cr}_2\text{O}_4\ \text{is an amphoteric oxide.}$ $3.\ \text{RuO}_4\ \text{is an oxidizing agent.}$ $4.\ \text{Red color of ruby is due to the presence of } \text{Co}^{3+}.$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{VOSO}_3\ \text{is a reducing agent.}$, $\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_4\ \text{is an amphoteric oxide.}$...
4
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21544
$\text{The correct order of the following elements with respect to their density is:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Cr} < \text{Zn} < \text{Co} < \text{Cu} < \text{Fe}$, $\text{Zn} < \text{Cu} < \text{Co} < \text{Fe} < \text{Cr}$...
3
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21543
$\text{The calculated magnetic moments (spin only value) for species}$ $[\text{FeCl}_4]^{2-}, \ [\text{Co} \ (\text{C}_2\text{O}_4)_3]^{3-} \ \text{and} \ \text{MnO}_4^{2-} \ \text{respectively are:}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$5.82, \ 0 \ \text{and} \ 0 \ \text{BM}$, $4.90, \ 0 \ \text{and} \ 1.73 \ \text{BM}$...
2
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21542
$\text{Which of the following lanthanide have half-filled and fully filled f-orbital respectively?}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Eu}^{2+}, \text{Tb}^{3+}$, $\text{Yb}^{3+}, \text{Tb}^{2+}$...
3
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21541
$\text{Which of the following oxidizing agents is the strongest?}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Ti}^{3+}$, $\text{Cr}^{3+}$...
4
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21540
$\text{Which of the following group of transition metals is called coinage metals?}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Cu, Ag, Au}$, $\text{Ru, Rh, Pd}$...
1
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21539
$\text{Which of the following explains the primary cause of lanthanoid contraction?}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Greater shielding of 5d electrons by 4f electrons.}$, $\text{Poor shielding of 5d electrons by 4f electrons.}$...
4
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21538
$\text{In context with the transition elements, which of the following statements is incorrect?}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{In addition to the normal oxidation state, the zero oxidation state is also shown by these elements in complexes.}$, $\text{In the highest oxidation states, the transition metal shows basic character and forms cationic complexes.}$...
2
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21537
$\text{What is the outer electronic configuration of Gadolinium (Gd) with atomic number 64?}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$4f^3\ 5d^5\ 6s^2$, $4f^8\ 5d^0\ 6s^2$...
4
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21536
$\text{The pair that has similar atomic radii is:}$ $\text{1. Mo, and W}$ $\text{2. Mn, and Re}$ $\text{3. Ti, and Hf}$ $\text{4. Sc, and Ni}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Mo, and W}$, $\text{Mn, and Re}$...
1
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21535
$\text{The lanthanide ion among the following that would show colour is:}$ $1.\ \text{La}^{3+}$ $2.\ \text{Gd}^{3+}$ $3.\ \text{Sm}^{3+}$ $4.\ \text{Lu}^{3+}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{La}^{3+}$, $\text{Gd}^{3+}$...
3
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21534
$\text{The lanthanoid that does not show } +4 \text{ oxidation state is:}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Dysprosium (Dy)}$, $\text{Europium (Eu)}$...
2
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21533
$\text{The correct electronic configuration and spin only magnetic moment (BM) of Gd}^{3+} (Z = 64), \text{ respectively, are:}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$[\text{Xe}] 5f^7 \text{ and } 8.9$, $[\text{Xe}] 4f^7 \text{ and } 7.9$...
2
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21532
$\text{The incorrect statement is:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Manganate and permanganate ions are paramagnetic.}$, $\text{Manganate ion is green in color and permanganate ion is purple in color.}$...
1
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21531
$\text{The electrode potential of } \text{M}^{2+} / \text{M} \text{ of 3d-series elements shows positive value of:}$ $1. \text{ Zn}$ $2. \text{ Fe}$ $3. \text{ Co}$ $4. \text{ Cu}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Zn}$, $\text{Fe}$...
4
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21530
$\text{The major components in "Gun Metal" are:}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Cu, Zn and Ni}$, $\text{Cu, Sn and Zn}$...
2
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21529
$\text{In a mildly alkaline medium, thiosulphate ion is oxidized by } \text{MnO}_4^- \text{ to } 'A'. \text{ The oxidation state of sulphur in } 'A' \text{ is:}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$+4$, $+2$...
4
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21528
$\text{If dichromate ion is treated with base, the oxidation number of Cr in the product formed will be:}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$+6$, $+4$...
1
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21527
$\text{Which of the following lanthanoids do not form MO}_2 \text{ [where M is a lanthanoid metal]?}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Pr}$, $\text{Dy}$...
4
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21526
$\text{In which of the following order the given complex ions are arranged correctly with respect to their decreasing spin only magnetic moment?}$ $\text{(i) [FeF}_6\text{]}^{3-}$ $\text{(ii) [Co(NH}_3\text{)}_6\text{]}^{3+}$ $\text{(iii) [NiCl}_4\text{]}^{2-}$ $\text{(iv) [Cu(NH}_3\text{)}_4\text{]}^{2+}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(i) > (iii) > (iv) > (ii)$, $(i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)$...
1
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21525
$\text{The major components of German Silver are:}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Ge, Cu and Ag}$, $\text{Zn, Ni and Ag}$...
3
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21524
$\text{In basic medium } \text{CrO}_4^{2-} \text{ oxidizes } \text{S}_2\text{O}_3^{2-} \text{ to form } \text{S}_2\text{O}_3^{2-} \text{ to form } \text{SO}_4^{2-} \text{ and itself changes into } \text{Cr(OH)}_4^{-}.$ $\text{The volume of } 0.154 \text{ M } \text{CrO}_4^{2-} \text{ required to react with } 40 \text{ mL of } 0.25 \text{ M } \text{S}_2\text{O}_3^{2-} \text{ is:}$ $\text{(Rounded-off to the nearest integer)}$
2
222
JEE MCQ NEW
$178$, $173$...
2
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21523
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: CeO}_2 \text{ can be used for the oxidation of aldehydes and ketones.}$ $\text{Statement II: Aqueous solution of EuSO}_4 \text{ is a strong reducing agent.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is false but statement II is true}$, $\text{Statement I is true but statement II is false}$...
3
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21522
$\text{For a first-order reaction, A} \rightarrow \text{B; } t_{1/2} \text{ is 30 minutes. The time in minutes required for 75 \% completion of the reaction is:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$50 \text{ min.}$, $60 \text{ min}$...
2
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21521
$\text{For a reaction, } \text{N}_2\text{O}_5 (g) \rightarrow 2\text{NO}_2 (g) + \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_2 (g) \text{ in a constant volume container, no products were present initially. The final pressure of the system when 50\% of the reaction gets completed is:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{7}{2} \text{ times of initial pressure}$, $5 \text{ times of initial pressure}$...
4
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21520
$\text{Consider the given elementary reaction:}$ $\text{A (g) + B (g)} \rightarrow \text{C (g) + D (g)}$ $\text{If the volume of the reaction mixture is suddenly reduced to } \frac{1}{3} \text{ of its initial volume, the reaction rate will become 'x' times the original reaction rate. The value of x is:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{9}$, $9$...
2
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21519
$\text{Given below are two graphs:}$ $\text{Graph I:}$ \quad t_{1/2} \quad \text{vs} \quad [R]_0 \quad \text{is valid for first order reaction.}$ $\text{Graph II:}$ \quad \log \frac{[R]}{[R]_0} \quad \text{vs} \quad \text{time with slope} \quad = \frac{-k}{2.303} \quad \text{is valid for first order reaction.}$ $\text{In the light of the above two graphs, choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both graph I and graph II are not correct.}$, $\text{Graph I is not correct but graph II is correct.}$...
4
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21518
$\text{The activation energy of one of the reactions in a biochemical process is } 532611 \text{ J mol}^{-1}. \text{ When the temperature falls from } 310 \text{ K to } 300 \text{ K, the change in rate constant observed is }$ $k_{300} = x \times 10^{-3} k_{310}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$ $\text{[Given: } \ln 10 = 2.3, R = 8.3 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1} ]$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 5...
1
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21517
$\text{Ratio of the times required to reach 99\% completion } (t_{99}) \text{ and 90\% completion } (t_{90}) \text{ for a first-order reaction is:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $4$...
1
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21516
$\text{Given two first-order reactions, with the ratio of their half-lives:}$ $\frac{t_{1/2}}{t'_{1/2}} = \frac{2}{5}.\text{Calculate the ratio of their fractional half-lives:}$ $\frac{t_{1/2/3}}{t'_{4/5}} = ?$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
0.273, 0.468...
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21515
$\text{A reaction follows 1}^{\text{st}} \text{ order kinetics with rate constant } (k) = 20 \text{ min}^{-1}. \text{ Calculate the time required to reach the concentration to } 1/32 \text{ times of initial concentration.}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.17325 \text{ min}$, $1.7325 \text{ min}$...
1
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21514
$\text{For a first-order reaction, a half-life } (t_{1/2}) \text{ is 50 min. The time } t_{3/4} \text{ (in minutes) of the reaction is:}$ $1.\ 75$ $2.\ 100$ $3.\ 125$ $4.\ 50$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$75$, $100$...
2
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21513
$\text{Consider the following first-order reactions:}$ $A \rightarrow C; \ t_{1/2} = 15 \ \text{min}, \ B \rightarrow D; \ t_{1/2} = 5 \ \text{min}$ $\text{The initial concentrations of A and B are 1 molar and 8 molar respectively.}$ $\text{The time when the concentration of A and B becomes equal is 'X' minutes.}$ $\text{The value of 2X is:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$40 \ \text{min}$, $50 \ \text{min}$...
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21512
$\text{For first-order kinetic rate constant } 2.011 \times 10^{-3} \text{ sec}^{-1}. \text{ The time taken for the decomposition of the substance from } 7 \text{ g to } 2 \text{ g will be:}$ $\text{(Use log } 7 = 0.845 \text{ and log } 2 = 0.301)$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$647 \text{ sec}$, $598 \text{ sec}$...
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21511
$\text{H}_2 \text{ gas is absorbed on the metal surface like gold, tungsten, etc. This follows }$ $\text{_______ order reaction:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Third}$, $\text{Second}$...
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21510
$\text{The differential rate law for the following reaction expressed as:}$ $\text{H}_2 + \text{I}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{HI}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$-\frac{d[\text{H}_2]}{dt} = -\frac{d[\text{I}_2]}{dt} = 2\frac{d[\text{HI}]}{dt}$, $-2\frac{d[\text{H}_2]}{dt} = -2\frac{d[\text{I}_2]}{dt} = \frac{d[\text{HI}]}{dt}$...
2
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21509
$\text{Half-life of substance A following first order kinetics is 5 days.}$ $\text{Starting with 100g of A, the amount left after 15 days will be:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$25 \text{ g}$, $50 \text{ g}$...
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21508
$\text{Sucrose hydrolysis in an acidic solution into glucose and fructose follows the first-order rate law with a half-life of 3.33 h at 25}^\circ\text{C. After 9 h, the fraction of sucrose remaining is } f. \text{ The value of } \log\left(\frac{1}{f}\right) \text{ is } A \times 10^{-2}. \text{ The value of } A \text{ is: (Rounded off to the nearest integer) [Assume : ln 10 = 2.303, ln 2 = 0.693]}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$78$, $81$...
2
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21507
$\text{Gaseous cyclobutene isomerizes to butadiene in a first-order process which has a 'k' value of}$ $3.3 \times 10^{-4} \text{s}^{-1} \text{ at } 153 \degree \text{C. The time in minutes it takes for the isomerization to proceed } 40 \% \text{ to}$ $\text{completion at this temperature is } \_\_\_. \text{ (Rounded off to the nearest integer)}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$26 \text{ min}$, $30 \text{ min}$...
1
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21506
$\text{Which of the following statements is correct regarding the equation } k = A e^{-E_a/RT} ?$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$k \text{ is the equilibrium constant}$, $A \text{ is adsorption factor}$...
3
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21505
$\text{The half-life of a radioisotope is four hours. If the initial mass of the isotope was 200 g, then the mass remaining undecayed after 24 hours is:}$ $1.\ 1.042\ \text{g}$ $2.\ 2.084\ \text{g}$ $3.\ 3.125\ \text{g}$ $4.\ 4.167\ \text{g}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.042\ \text{g}$, $2.084\ \text{g}$...
3
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21504
$\text{The rate equation for the reaction } 2\text{A} + \text{B} \rightarrow \text{C} \text{ is found to be:}$ $\text{rate} = k [\text{A}] [\text{B}]$ $\text{The correct statement in relation to this reaction is that the:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Unit of } k \text{ must be } \text{s}^{-1}$, $t_{1/2} \text{ is a constant.}$...
4
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21503
$\text{A reaction was found to be second order with respect to the concentration of carbon monoxide.}$ $\text{If the concentration of carbon monoxide is doubled, with everything else kept the same, the rate of reaction will:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Remain unchanged}$, $\text{Triple}$...
3
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21502
$\text{Consider the reaction, } 2A + B \rightarrow \text{ Products.}$ $\text{When concentration of B alone was doubled, the half-life did not change.}$ $\text{When the concentration of A alone was doubled, the rate increased by two times.}$ $\text{The unit of rate constant for this reaction is:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{L mol}^{-1} \text{s}^{-1}$, $\text{no unit}$...
4
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21501
$\text{The half-life period of a first-order chemical reaction is 6.93 minutes.}$ $\text{The time required for the completion}$ $\text{of 99\% of the chemical reaction will be (log 2 = 0.301) -}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$230.3 \text{ minutes}$, $23.03 \text{ minutes}$...
3
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21500
$\text{The time for the half-life period of a certain reaction } A \rightarrow \text{ Products is 1 hour.}$ $\text{When the initial concentration of the reactant 'A' is } 2.0 \text{ mol L}^{-1},$ $\text{the time taken for its concentration to come from } 0.50 \text{ to } 0.25 \text{ mol L}^{-1},$ $\text{if it is a zero-order reaction, is:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \text{ h}$, $4 \text{ h}$...
4
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21499
$\text{A reactant (A) forms two products:}$ $\text{A} \xrightarrow{k_1} \text{B, Activation Energy } \text{Ea}_1$ $\text{A} \xrightarrow{k_2} \text{C, Activation Energy } \text{Ea}_2$ $\text{If Ea}_2 = 2 \text{Ea}_1, \text{ then } k_1 \text{ and } k_2 \text{ are related as:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$k_2 = k_1 e^{\text{Ea}_1 / RT}$, $k_2 = k_1 e^{\text{Ea}_2 / RT}$...
3
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21498
$\text{For the non-stoichiometry reaction } 2\text{A} + \text{B} \rightarrow \text{C} + \text{D}, \text{ the following kinetic data were obtained in three separate experiments (all at 298 K).}$ $\begin{array}{ccc} \text{Initial Concentration (A)} & \text{Initial Concentration (B)} & \text{Initial rate of formation of C (mol L}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1}) \\ 0.1 \text{ M} & 0.1 \text{ M} & 1.2 \times 10^{-3} \\ 0.1 \text{ M} & 0.2 \text{ M} & 1.2 \times 10^{-3} \\ 0.2 \text{ M} & 0.1 \text{ M} & 2.4 \times 10^{-3} \end{array}$ $\text{The rate law for the formation of C is:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{dc}{dt} = k[\text{A}]^2[\text{B}]$, $\frac{dc}{dt} = k[\text{A}][\text{B}]^2$...
3
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21497
$\text{Decomposition of } \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ follows a first order reaction. In fifty minutes the concentration of } \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ decreases from } 0.5 \text{ to } 0.125 \text{ M in one such decomposition. When the concentration of } \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ reaches } 0.05 \text{ M, the rate of formation of } \text{O}_2 \text{ will be:}$ $\text{ln } 4 = 1.39$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$7 \times 10^{-2} \text{ M min}^{-1}$, $7 \times 10^{-4} \text{ M min}^{-1}$...
2
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21496
12
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21495
$\text{NO}_2 \text{ required for a reaction is produced by the decomposition of } \text{N}_2\text{O}_5 \text{ in CCl}_4 \text{ as per the equation,}$ $2\text{N}_2\text{O}_5(g) \rightarrow 4\text{NO}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g)$ $\text{The initial concentration of } \text{N}_2\text{O}_5 \text{ is } 3.00 \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ and it is } 2.75 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$ $\text{after 30 minutes. The rate of formation of } \text{NO}_2 \text{ is:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.083 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ min}^{-1}$, $8.333 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ min}^{-1}$...
4
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21494
$\text{For the reaction } 2A + B \rightarrow C, \text{ the values of initial rate at different reactant concentrations are given in the table below. The rate law for the reaction is:}$ $\begin{array}{ccc} [A] \text{ (mol L}^{-1}\text{)} & [B] \text{ (mol L}^{-1}\text{)} & \text{Initial Rate (mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}\text{)} \\ 0.05 & 0.05 & 0.045 \\ 0.10 & 0.05 & 0.090 \\ 0.20 & 0.10 & 0.72 \end{array}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Rate} = k[A][B]$, $\text{Rate} = k[A][B]^2$...
2
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21493
$\text{The rate of a reaction is decreased by } 3.555 \text{ times when the temperature was changed from } 40^\circ\text{C to } 30^\circ\text{C.}$ $\text{The activation energy (in kJ mol}^{-1}\text{) of the reaction is:}$ $\text{(Take R=8.314 J mol}^{-1} \text{ K}^{-1} \text{ ln } 3.555=1.268)}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ kJ/mol}$, $120 \text{ kJ/mol}$...
1
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21492
$\text{The rate constant (k) of a reaction is measured at different temperatures (T), and the data are plotted in the given figure. The activation energy of the reaction in kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ is:}$ $\text{(R is gas constant)}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$2R$, $R$...
1
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21491
$\text{If 75 \% of a first-order reaction was completed in 90 minutes, 60 \% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately (in minutes):}$ $\text{(Take : log 2 = 0.30 ; log 2.5 = 0.40)}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$50 \text{ min}$, $60 \text{ min}$...
2
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21490
$\text{For the reaction } 2A + 3B + \frac{3}{2}C \rightarrow 3P, \text{ the correct statement is:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{dn_A}{dt} = \frac{2}{3} \frac{dn_B}{dt} = \frac{3}{4} \frac{dn_C}{dt}$, $\frac{dn_A}{dt} = \frac{3}{2} \frac{dn_B}{dt} = \frac{3}{4} \frac{dn_C}{dt}$...
4
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21489
$\text{The results given in the below table were obtained during kinetic studies of the following reaction:}$ $2\text{A} + \text{B} \rightarrow \text{C} + \text{D}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline \text{Experiment} & [\text{A}]/\text{mol L}^{-1} & [\text{B}]/\text{mol L}^{-1} & \text{Initial rate/mol L}^{-1} \text{ min}^{-1} \\ \hline \text{I} & 0.1 & 0.1 & 6.00 \times 10^{-3} \\ \text{II} & 0.1 & 0.2 & 2.40 \times 10^{-2} \\ \text{III} & 0.2 & 0.1 & 1.20 \times 10^{-2} \\ \text{IV} & X & 0.2 & 7.20 \times 10^{-2} \\ \text{V} & 0.3 & Y & 2.88 \times 10^{-1} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{X and Y in the given table are respectively:}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.3, 0.4$, $0.4, 0.3$...
1
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21488
$\text{The rate constant of a reaction increases by five times on increase in temperature from } 27^\circ\text{C to } 52^\circ\text{C. The value of activation energy in kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ is-}$ $\text{(Rounded-off to the nearest integer) [R = 8.314 J K}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1}]$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
50, 56...
3
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21487
$\text{For the reaction, aA + bB} \rightarrow \text{cC + dD the plot of } \log k \text{ vs } \frac{1}{T} \text{ is given below:}$ $\text{Find the temperature(K) at which the rate constant of the reaction is } 10^{-4}\text{s}^{-1}?$ $\text{(Rounded-off to the nearest integer)}$ $\text{[Given: The rate constant of the reaction is } 10^{-5} \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ at 500 K.]}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$546 \text{ K}$, $536 \text{ K}$...
4
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21486
$\text{For a first-order reaction}$ $t_{67\%} = \left( \frac{x}{10} \right) t_{50\%} \ \&\ k = 3.84 \times 10^9 \ \text{sec}^{-1}, \ \text{the value of } x \ \text{will}$ $\text{(based on information given):}$ $\text{(Report your answer to the nearest integer)}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$14$, $16$...
2
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21485
$\text{For a 1}^{\text{st}} \text{ order reaction following graph is obtained between } \ln k \text{ and } \frac{1000}{T}. \text{ Then activation energy of reaction in kcal is:}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{Slope} = -18.5 \\ \ln k \\ \frac{1000}{T(\text{K})} \end{array}$
2
218
JEE MCQ NEW
$37 \text{ kcal}$, $40 \text{ kcal}$...
1
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21484
46
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21483
45
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21482
44
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21481
43
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21480
42
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21479
41
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21478
40
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21477
39
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21476
38
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21475
37
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21474
36
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21473
35
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21472
34
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21471
33
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21470
32
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21469
31
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21468
30
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21467
29
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21466
28
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21465
27
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21464
26
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21463
25
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21462
24
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21461
23
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21460
22
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21459
21
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21458
20
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21457
19
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21456
18
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21455
17
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21454
16
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21453
15
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21452
14
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21451
13
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21450
12
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21449
11
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21448
10
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21447
9
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21446
8
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21445
7
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21444
6
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21443
5
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21442
4
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21441
3
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21440
2
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21439
1
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21438
$\text{If the freezing point of } 0.5 \text{ w/w } \% \text{ KCl (aq) solution is } -0.24^\circ\text{C.}$ $\text{The percentage of dissociation of KCl in the solution is:}$ $[K_f=1.86 \text{ K-kg/mol}]$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$99 \%$, $67 \%$...
4
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21437
$\text{For the compound } \text{MX}_2, \text{ the observed mass is } 65.6, \text{ while the normal mass is } 164. \text{ The percentage degree of ionization of } \text{MX}_2 \text{ (rounded to the nearest integer) is:}$ $1. \ 75$ $2. \ 60$ $3. \ 50$ $4. \ 85$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$75$, $60$...
1
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21436
$\text{The boiling point of a } 2\% \text{ aqueous solution of a non-volatile solute A is equal to the boiling point of } 8\% \text{ aqueous solution of a non-volatile solute B. What is the correlation between the molecular weights of A and B?}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$M_A = 4M_B$, $M_B = 4M_A$...
2
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21435
$\text{The elevation in boiling point for 1 molal solution of a non-volatile solute A is 3 K. The depression in the freezing point for 2 molal solutions of A in the same solvent is 6 K. The ratio of } K_b \text{ and } K_f \text{ i.e., } K_b/K_f \text{ is } 1 : X. \text{ The value of } X \text{ is:}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$7$, $3$...
3
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21434
$3 \text{ g of acetic acid is dissolved in } 500 \text{ g of water. The depression in the freezing point of the solution is given as } x \times 10^{-1} \text{ K. Calculate the value of } x \text{ to the nearest integer.}$ $\text{[ Given : } K_a \text{ of } \text{CH}_3\text{COOH} = 1.8 \times 10^{-5} \text{ and } K_f \text{ of water } = 1.86 \text{ K/molal}$ $\text{Density of water } = 1 \text{ g/mL ]}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $6$...
3
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21433
$\text{Consider the given dissociation reaction}$ $\text{HX}_{(\text{aq})} \rightleftharpoons \text{H}^+_{(\text{aq})} + \text{X}^-_{(\text{aq})}$ $\text{with an acid dissociation constant } (K_a) \text{ of } 1.2 \times 10^{-5}. \text{ What is the}$ $\text{osmotic pressure (in atm) of a } 0.03 \text{ M HX solution at } 300 \text{ K?}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ atm}$, $2 \text{ atm}$...
3
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21432
$\text{If the density of an } x \text{ M solution of NaOH is } 1.12 \text{ g/mL and its}$ $\text{molality is } 3 \text{ m, determine the value of } x.$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.0$, $2.3$...
1
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21431
$\text{A sodium chloride (NaCl) solution has a molarity of 3 M. Given that the density of the solution is 1.25 g/mL, its molality will be:}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.90$, $2.79$...
2
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21430
$\text{Which of the following has more relative lowering in vapour pressure}$ $\text{at the same temperature}$ $1.\ 0.1\ \text{M urea}$ $2.\ 0.1\ \text{M NaCl}$ $3.\ 0.1\ \text{M sucrose}$ $4.\ 0.1\ \text{M CaCl}_2$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.1\ \text{M urea}$, $0.1\ \text{M NaCl}$...
4
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21429
$\text{The density of a 3 M NaCl solution is 1 g/mL. The molality of the solution is 'x'. The value of } 2x \text{ is:}$ $\text{(Round off to nearest integer)}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
7, 10...
1
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21428
$\text{If 25 mL of KCl solution requires 20 mL of 1 M AgNO}_3 \text{ solution for complete precipitation of KCl solution. The value of } \Delta T_f \text{ of a KCl solution (} i = 2 \text{) is:}$ $\left( K_f = 1.86 \text{ K} \cdot \text{kg mol}^{-1}. \text{ Assume molarity = molality} \right)$ $\text{(Round off to nearest integer)}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \text{ K}$, $3 \text{ K}$...
2
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21427
$\text{A solution containing 2 g of a non-electrolyte solute dissolved in 20 g of water has a boiling point of 373.52 K. Calculate the molecular mass of the solute.}$ $\text{(Given that the ebullioscopic constant (} K_b \text{) is 0.52 K} \cdot \text{kg/mol)}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$140 \text{ g/mol}$, $80 \text{ g/mol}$...
4
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21426
$\text{The molarity of } \text{CO}_2 \text{ in a soft drink is } 0.01 \text{ M. The volume of soft drink is } 300 \text{ mL. The mass of } \text{CO}_2 \text{ in soft drink is:}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.132 \text{ g}$, $0.481 \text{ g}$...
1
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21425
$\text{Which of the following option contains the correct graph between } \frac{\pi}{c} \text{ and } c \text{ at a constant temperature?}$ $\text{(Where } \pi \text{ is osmotic pressure and } c \text{ is a concentration of the solute)}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\pi}{c}$ $\text{ vs } c$ $\text{(horizontal line)}$, $\frac{\pi}{c}$ $\text{ vs } c$ $\text{(upward curve)}$...
1
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21424
$\text{Statement I:}$ $\text{The freezing point of a solution decreases with a decrease in the amount of non-volatile solute.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ $\text{The freezing point of the solution is less than that of the solvent.}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$, $\text{Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.}$...
3
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21423
$\text{In a mixture of A and B, components show negative deviations when:}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A-B interaction is stronger than A-A and B-B interaction}$, $\text{A-B interaction is weaker than A-A and B-B interaction}$...
1
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21422
$\text{C}_6\text{H}_6$ \text{ freezes at } 5.5^\circ\text{C. The temperature at which a solution of } 10 \text{ g of } \text{C}_4\text{H}_{10} \text{ in } 200 \text{ g of } \text{C}_6\text{H}_6 \text{ will freeze is:} \text{ (The molal freezing point depression constant of } \text{C}_6\text{H}_6 \text{ is } 5.12^\circ\text{C/m.)}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$2^\circ\text{C}$, $1^\circ\text{C}$...
2
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21421
$\text{Consider the two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: At 20 } ^\circ \text{C, the molality of KCl solution is 'X' m, and on decreasing temperature to -10 } ^\circ \text{C molality remains unchanged.}$ $\text{Statement II: On changing temperature mass remains unchanged.}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are True.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are False.}$...
1
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21420
$2$ \text{ grams of non-volatile solute dissolves in } 200 \text{ grams each of two different solvents A and B to attain the same molality. If the ratio of } K_b \text{ of solvent A and B is } 1:8 \text{ and the ratio of elevation in boiling points is } x:y, \text{ then the value of } y \text{ is:}$ $1. \ 4$ $2. \ 6$ $3. \ 10$ $4. \ 8$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $6$...
4
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21419
$\text{The osmotic pressure exerted by a solution prepared by}$ $\text{dissolving 10 g of protein of molar mass 60 g mol}^{-1}$ $\text{in 200 mL of water at 27°C will be:}$ $\text{(Use } R = 0.083 \text{L bar mol}^{-1} \text{K}^{-1})$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$22.5 \text{ atm}$, $20.5 \text{ atm}$...
2
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21418
$\text{Choose a false statement among the following:}$ $1. \text{Raoult's law states that the vapour pressure of a component over a solution is proportional to its mole fraction.}$ $2. \text{The osmotic pressure (}\pi\text{) of a solution is given by the equation } \pi = \text{MRT, where M is the molarity of the solution.}$ $3. \text{The correct order of osmotic pressure for 0.10 M aqueous solution of each compound is } \text{BaCl}_2 > \text{KCl} > \text{CH}_3\text{COOH} > \text{Sucrose.}$ $4. \text{Two sucrose solutions of the same molarity prepared in different solvents will have the same depression in the freezing point.}$
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216
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Raoult's law states that the vapour pressure of a component over a solution is proportional to its mole fraction.}$, $\text{The osmotic pressure (}\pi\text{) of a solution is given by the equation } \pi = \text{MRT, where M is the molarity of the solution.}$...
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21417
$\text{A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing n-heptane and ethanol.}$ $\text{Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the}$ $\text{behavior of the solution?}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{The solution formed is an ideal solution}$, $\text{The solution is non-ideal, showing +ve deviation from Raoult's Law}$...
2
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21416
$\text{On mixing, heptane, and octane form an ideal solution at 373 K, the vapor pressures of the two liquid components (Heptane and octane) are 105 kPa and 45 kPa respectively.}$ $\text{Vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 25.0 g of heptane and 35 g of octane will be:}$ $\text{(molar mass of heptane = 100 g mol}^{-1}\text{ and of octane =114 g mol}^{-1}\text{)}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$144.5 \text{ kPa}$, $72.0 \text{ kPa}$...
2
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21415
$5\% \ (w/v) \ \text{solution of cane sugar (molar mass 342) is isotonic with} \ 1\% \ (w/v) \ \text{of a solution of an unknown solute. The molar mass of an unknown solute in g/mol is:}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$171.2$, $68.4$...
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21414
$\text{The degree of dissociation (}\alpha\text{) of a weak electrolyte, } \text{A}_x\text{B}_y \text{ is related to van't Hoff factor (}i\text{) by the expression:}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$\alpha = \frac{i-1}{(x+y-1)}$, $\alpha = \frac{i-1}{x+y+1}$...
1
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21413
$\text{What is the mole fraction of methyl alcohol in a 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol?}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.100$, $0.190$...
3
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21412
$\text{Consider separate solutions of } 0.500 \text{ M } \text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH(aq)}, 0.100 \text{ M } \text{Mg}_3(\text{PO}_4)_2\text{(aq)}, 0.250 \text{ M } \text{KBr(aq)} \text{ and } 0.125 \text{ M } \text{Na}_3\text{PO}_4\text{(aq)} \text{ at } 25^\circ\text{C.}$ $\text{The correct statement about these solutions, assuming all salts to be strong electrolytes is:}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.100 \text{ M } \text{Mg}_3(\text{PO}_4)_2\text{(aq)} \text{ has the highest osmotic pressure}$, $0.125 \text{ M } \text{Na}_3\text{PO}_4\text{(aq)} \text{ has the highest osmotic pressure}$...
4
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21411
$18 \text{ g glucose } (\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6) \text{ is added to } 178.2 \text{ g water. The vapour pressure of aqueous solution in torr is:}$ $1. \ 7.6$ $2. \ 752.4$ $3. \ 76.0$ $4. \ 780.0$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$7.6$, $752.4$...
2
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21410
$\text{For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following compounds, which one will show the highest freezing point?}$ $1. \ [\text{Co} (\text{H}_2\text{O})_6]\text{Cl}_3$ $2. \ [\text{Co} (\text{H}_2\text{O})_5\text{Cl}]\text{Cl}_2 \cdot \text{H}_2\text{O}$ $3. \ [\text{Co} (\text{H}_2\text{O})_4\text{Cl}_2]\text{Cl} \cdot 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$ $4. \ [\text{Co} (\text{H}_2\text{O})_3\text{Cl}_3] \cdot 3\text{H}_2\text{O}$
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216
JEE MCQ NEW
$[\text{Co} (\text{H}_2\text{O})_6]\text{Cl}_3$, $[\text{Co} (\text{H}_2\text{O})_5\text{Cl}]\text{Cl}_2 \cdot \text{H}_2\text{O}$...
4
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21409
$\text{A solution is prepared by dissolving } 0.6 \text{ g of urea (molar mass = } 60 \text{ g mol}^{-1}) \text{ and } 1.8 \text{ g of glucose (molar mass = } 180 \text{ g mol}^{-1}) \text{ in } 100 \text{ mL of water at } 27 ^\circ \text{C. The osmotic pressure of the solution is:}$ $\text{(R = } 0.08206 \text{ L atm K}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1})$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$8.2 \text{ atm}$, $2.46 \text{ atm}$...
3
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21408
$\text{At room temperature, a dilute solution of urea is prepared by dissolving 0.60 g of urea in 360 g of water. If the vapour pressure of pure water at this temperature is 35 mm Hg, lowering of vapour pressure will be:}$ $\text{(molar mass of urea = 60 g mol}^{-1}\text{)}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.031 \text{ mmHg}$, $0.017 \text{ mmHg}$...
2
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21407
$1 \text{ g of a non-volatile non-electrolyte solute is dissolved in } 100 \text{ g of two different solvents A and B whose ebullioscopic constants are in the ratio of } 1 : 5. \text{ The ratio of the elevation in their boiling points, } \frac{\Delta T_b(A)}{\Delta T_b(B)}, \text{ is:}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$5:1$, $1:2$...
4
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21406
$\text{The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution of an ionic compound XY in water is four times that of a solution of } 0.01 \text{ M BaCl}_2 \text{ in water.}$ $\text{Assuming complete dissociation of the given ionic compound in water, the concentration of XY (in mol L}^{-1}\text{) in solution is:}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \times 10^{-4}$, $4 \times 10^{-2}$...
4
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21405
$\text{Molal depression constant for a solvent is } 4.0 \text{ K kg mol}^{-1} . \text{ The depression in the freezing point of the solvent for } 0.03 \text{ mol kg}^{-1} \text{ solution of } \text{K}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ is: (Assume complete dissociation of the electrolyte)}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.36 \text{ K}$, $0.18 \text{ K}$...
1
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21404
$\text{The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are 400 and 600 mm Hg, respectively, at 298 K.}$ $\text{On mixing the two liquids, the sum of their initial volumes is equal to the volume of the final mixture.}$ $\text{The mole fraction of liquid B is 0.5 in the mixture.}$ $\text{The vapour pressure of the final solution, the mole fractions of components A and B in the vapour phase, respectively, are:}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$500 \text{ mm Hg}, 0.5, 0.5$, $450 \text{ mm Hg}, 0.5, 0.5$...
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21403
$\text{A set of solutions is prepared using 180 g of water as a solvent and 10 g of different non-volatile solutes A, B and C. The relative lowering of vapour pressure in the presence of these solutes are in the order:}$ $\text{[Given, molar mass of A = 100 g mol}^{-1}\text{; B = 200 g mol}^{-1}\text{; C = 10,000 g mol}^{-1}]}$
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216
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A > B > C}$, $\text{A > C > B}$...
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21402
$\text{At 300 K, the vapour pressure of a solution containing 1 mole of n-hexane and 3 moles of n-heptane is 550 mm of Hg. At the same temperature, if one more mole of n-heptane is added to this solution, the vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm of Hg. The vapour pressure in mm Hg of n-heptane in its pure state is:}$ $1. \ 500$ $2. \ 600$ $3. \ 700$ $4. \ 800$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$500$, $600$...
2
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21401
$\text{If } 250 \text{ cm}^3 \text{ of an aqueous solution containing } 0.73 \text{ g of a protein A is isotonic with one litre of another aqueous solution containing } 1.66 \text{ g of a protein B at } 298 \text{ K, the ratio of the molecular masses of A and B is:}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.54$, $1.77$...
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21400
$4.5 \text{ g of compound A (MW = 90) was used to make 250 mL of its aqueous solution.}$ $\text{The molarity of the solution in M is } x \times 10^{-1}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is } \underline{\phantom{x}}. \text{ (Rounded off to the nearest integer)}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $4$...
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21399
$\text{When 9.45 g of ClCH}_2\text{COOH is added to 500 mL of water, its freezing point drops by 0.5 } ^\circ \text{C.}$ $\text{The dissociation constant of ClCH}_2\text{COOH is } x \times 10^{-3}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$ $\text{(Rounded off to the nearest integer)}$ $\left[ K_f(\text{H}_2\text{O}) = 1.86 \text{ kgmol}^{-1} \right]$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$36 \times 10^{-3}$, $29 \times 10^{-3}$...
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21398
$\text{The mole fraction of glucose (C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6\text{) in an aqueous binary solution is 0.1. The mass percentage of water in it to the nearest integer is:}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$44\%$, $49\%$...
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21397
$\text{When 12.2 g of benzoic acid is dissolved in 100 g of water, the freezing point of the solution was found to be }$ $-0.93 \, ^\circ \text{C. The number } (n) \text{ of benzoic acid molecules associated (assuming 100\% association) is:}$ $\left( K_f(\text{H}_2\text{O}) = 1.86 \, \text{K kg mol}^{-1} \right)$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
3, 1...
3
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21396
$\text{If a compound AB dissociates to the extent of 75\% in an aqueous solution, the molality of the solution which shows a 2.5 K rise in the boiling point of the solution is:}$ $\text{(Rounded-off to the nearest integer) } [K_b = 0.52 \text{ K kg mol}^{-1}]$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
1, 5...
1
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21395
$1$ $\text{molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte } \text{A}_2\text{B}_3 \text{ is } 60\% \text{ ionised.}$ $\text{The boiling point of the solution at } 1 \text{ atm is-. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)}$ $\text{[Given } K_b \text{ for (H}_2\text{O)} = 0.52 \text{ K kg mol}^{-1}]$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$373 \text{ K}$, $380 \text{ K}$...
3
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21394
$\text{The vapour pressure of pure A is 50 mm of Hg and the vapour pressure of pure B is 100 mm of Hg in a mixture of liquid A and B mole fraction of A is 0.3, then the mole fraction of B in the vapour phase is } \frac{x}{17}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$14$, $17$...
1
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21393
$\text{What is the concentration of a glucose solution in intravenous}$ $\text{injection in gram/lit which is isotonic with blood solution which has}$ $\text{osmotic pressure 7.93 bar at 300 K?}$
2
216
JEE MCQ NEW
$62 \text{ g/L}$, $0.58 \text{ g/L}$...
4
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21392
$\text{The resistivity of a } 0.8 \text{ M solution of an electrolyte is } 5 \times 10^{-3} \, \Omega \, \text{cm. If } \lambda_m = 2.5 \times 10^x,$ $\text{the value of } x \text{ is:}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $8$...
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21391
$\text{Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is } 50 \, \Omega. \text{ The specific conductance of the solution is } 1.3 \, \text{S m}^{-1}. \text{ If the resistance of the 0.4 M solution of the same electrolyte is } 260 \, \Omega, \text{ its molar conductivity is:}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$6.25 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{S m}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$, $625 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{S m}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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21390
$\text{In the given reaction sequence, the standard electrode potentials (in volts) are provided for each step as follows:}$ $\text{FeO}_4^{2-} \xrightarrow{+2.0 \text{ V}} \text{Fe}^{3+} \xrightarrow{+0.8 \text{ V}} \text{Fe}^{2+} \xrightarrow{-0.5 \text{ V}} \text{Fe}^0$ $\text{The value of } E^\Theta_{\text{FeO}_4^{2-}/\text{Fe}^{2+}} \text{ is:}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.7 \text{ V}$, $1.2 \text{ V}$...
1
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21389
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{For KI, molar conductivity increases steeply with dilution.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{For carbonic acid, molar conductivity increases slowly with dilution.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$...
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21388
$\text{Electrolysis of } \text{Fe}_2(\text{SO}_4)_3 \text{ solution is carried out for 'x' minutes with a current of } 1.5 \text{ A, depositing } 0.3482 \text{ g of Fe. What is the value of } x \text{ to the nearest integer?}$ $\text{[Given: } 1 \text{ F } = 96500 \text{ C mol}^{-1}]$ $\text{Atomic mass of Fe } = 56 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$20$, $25$...
1
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21387
$\text{Consider the given half-cell reactions:}$ $\text{Fe}^{2+} \rightarrow \text{Fe}^{3+} + e^- \quad E^0_{\text{Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}^{2+}} = 0.77 \text{ V}}$ $2\text{I}^- \rightarrow \text{I}_2 + 2e^- \quad E^0_{\text{I}_2/\text{I}^-} = 0.54 \text{ V}}$ $\text{The standard electrode potential for the spontaneous reaction in the}$ $\text{cell is } x \times 10^{-2} \text{V at } 298 \text{ K.}$ $\text{The value of } x \text{ is: (Nearest Integer)}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
32, 23...
2
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21386
$\text{Determine the cell constant of a conductivity cell containing a } 0.01 \text{ M KCl solution at } 298 \text{ K.}$ $\text{The given data includes a resistance of } 1750 \, \Omega$ $\text{and a conductivity of } 0.152 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{S cm}^{-1}.$
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214
JEE MCQ NEW
$266 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{m}^{-1}$, $166 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{cm}^{-1}$...
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21385
$\text{The graph represents the variation of molar conductance (} \Lambda_m \text{) with the square root of concentration (} \sqrt{C} \text{) for two electrolytes, 'A' and 'B'. Based on the graph, the nature of both electrolytes is:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{Strong Electrolyte, B} \rightarrow \text{Strong Electrolyte}$, $\text{A} \rightarrow \text{Weak Electrolyte, B} \rightarrow \text{Strong Electrolyte}$...
3
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21384
$\text{The EMF of a cell is given as 0.83 V. The cell can be represented as:}$ $\text{Ti|Ti}^{+}(0.001\text{M})||\text{Cu}^{2+}(0.01\text{M})|\text{Cu}}$ $\text{The EMF of this cell could be increased by:}$
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214
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{increasing conc. of } \text{Cu}^{2+}, \text{ keeping conc. of } \text{Ti}^{+} \text{ constant.}$, $\text{increasing conc. of } \text{Ti}^{+}, \text{ keeping conc. of } \text{Cu}^{2+} \text{ constant.}$...
1
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21383
$\text{The limiting molar conductivities of a divalent cation } (\text{M}^{2+}) \text{ and a}$ $\text{monovalent anion } (\text{A}^-) \text{ are } 57 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1} \text{ and } 73 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$ $\text{respectively. What is the limiting molar conductivity of their}$ $\text{compound in S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}?$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$203$, $421$...
1
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21382
$\text{Identify the change in Mn's oxidation state during the cell reaction in a dry cell while powering a clock.}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$+3 \rightarrow +4$, $+2 \rightarrow +7$...
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21381
$\text{If one coulomb of electric charge is passed through a solution of silver nitrate (AgNO}_3\text{) during electrolysis, what is the mass of silver (in milligrams) deposited at the electrode?}$ $\text{(Molar mass of Ag = 108 g/mol)}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.12 \text{ mg}$, $3.26 \text{ mg}$...
1
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21380
$\text{For a given reaction in an acidic medium,}$ $5e^- + 8\text{H}^+ + \text{MnO}_4^- (0.001\ M) \rightarrow \text{Mn}^{2+}(0.1\ M) + 4\text{H}_2\text{O}$ $\text{(Given values are: } E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 1.54\ \text{V}, E_{\text{cell}} = 1.2832\ \text{V})$ $\text{The } pH \text{ of the solution is:}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.46$, $3.52$...
1
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21379
$\text{How many moles of electrons are required to reduce 1 mole of permanganate ions into manganese dioxide?}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $6$...
1
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21378
$\text{For a given cell at T K,}$ $\text{Pt}/\text{H}_2(g)(1 \text{ bar})/\text{H}^+(1 \text{ M}) \parallel \text{Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}^{2+}/\text{Pt}$ $\text{E cell} = 0.712 \text{ V}$ $\text{E}^0 \text{ cell} = 0.770 \text{ V}$ $\text{If } \left[ \frac{\text{Fe}^{2+}}{\text{Fe}^{3+}} \right] \text{ is } t, \text{ then the value of } t \text{ in the expression } \left( \frac{t}{5} \right) \text{ is:}$ $\text{(Given: } \left( \frac{2.303 \frac{RT}{F}}{} = 0.058 \right))$
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214
JEE MCQ NEW
4, 6...
3
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21377
$\text{Consider the following cell representation:}$ $\text{Pt/H}_2(1 \text{ atm})/\text{H}^+(1 \text{ M}) \parallel \text{Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}^{2+}$ $\text{The ratio of the concentration of Fe}^{2+} \text{ to Fe}^{3+} \text{ is-}$ $[\text{Given } E_{\text{cell}} = 0.712, E^0_{\text{cell}} = 0.771]$
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214
JEE MCQ NEW
$12$, $10$...
2
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21376
$\text{How many elements can liberate H}_2 \text{ from dilute acids?}$ $\text{V, Cr, Mn, Fe, Co, Ni, Cu}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $4$...
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21375
$\text{For the following cell with hydrogen electrodes at two different pressures } p_1 \text{ and } p_2$ $\text{Pt(H}_2\text{)} \mid \text{H}^+(\text{aq}) \mid \text{Pt (H}_2\text{)}$ $p_1 \quad 1\text{M} \quad p_2$ $\text{emf is given by:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{RT}{F} \log_e \frac{P_1}{p_2}$, $\frac{RT}{2F} \log_e \frac{p_2}{P_1}$...
2
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21374
$\text{What is the nearest integer value of } x \text{ for the Gibbs free energy change at } 298 \text{ K, expressed as } x \times 10^{-1} \text{ kJmol}^{-1} \text{ for the given reaction.}$ $\text{Cu}(s) + \text{Sn}^{2+}(0.001M) \rightarrow \text{Cu}^{2+}(0.01M) + \text{Sn}(s)$ $\text{Given: } E^\circ_{\text{Cu}^{2+}/\text{Cu}} = 0.34 \text{ V}; \; E^\circ_{\text{Sn}^{2+}/\text{Sn}} = -0.14 \text{ V}; \; F = 96500 \text{ C mol}^{-1}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
873, 983...
2
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21373
$\text{The limiting molar conductivities of NaI, NaNO}_3, \text{ and AgNO}_3 \text{ are } 12.7 \ S \ m^2 \ mole^{-2}, 12 \ S \ m^2 \ mole^{-2} \text{ and } 13.3 \ S \ m^2 \ mole^{-2} \text{ respectively (all at } 25^\circ\text{C). The limiting molar conductivity of AgI at this temperature is:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$14 \ S \ m^2 \ mole^{-2}$, $16 \ S \ m^2 \ mole^{-2}$...
1
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21372
$\text{For a cell reaction involving a two-electron change, the standard Emf of the cell is found to be } 0.295 \text{ V at } 25^\circ \text{C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction at } 25^\circ \text{C will be:}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \times 10^{-10}$, $29.5 \times 10^{-2}$...
4
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21371
$\text{Zn}(s) + \text{Cu}^{2+}(0.1\text{M}) \rightarrow \text{Zn}^{2+}(1\text{M}) + \text{Cu}(s)$ $\text{For the redox reaction taking place in a cell, } E_{\text{cell}}^\circ \text{ is 1.10 volt. } E_{\text{cell}} \text{ for the cell will be: } \left(2.303 \frac{RT}{F} = 0.0591\right)$
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214
JEE MCQ NEW
2.14 \text{ V}, 1.80 \text{ V}...
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21370
$\text{The standard emf of a cell, involving one electron change is found to be } 0.591 \text{ V at } 25^\circ\text{C.}$ $\text{The equilibrium constant of the reaction is:}$ $\text{(Given F = 96500 C mol}^{-1}\text{)}$
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214
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.0 \times 10^1$, $1.0 \times 10^5$...
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21369
$\text{Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at } 1000 \, ^\circ \text{C to furnish aluminium metal.}$ $\text{The cathode reaction is } \text{Al}^{3+} + 3\text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{Al.}$ $\text{To prepare } 5.12 \, \text{kg of aluminium metal by this method would require:}$ $\text{(Atomic mass = 27 amu; 1 faraday=96,500 Coulombs)}$
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214
JEE MCQ NEW
$5.49 \times 10^1 \, \text{C of electricity}$, $5.49 \times 10^4 \, \text{C of electricity}$...
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21368
$\text{The reduction potential of hydrogen half-cell will be negative if:}$ $1. \text{P(H}_2\text{) = 1 atm and [H}^+\text{] = 2.0 M}$ $2. \text{P(H}_2\text{) = 1 atm and [H}^+\text{] = 1.0 M}$ $3. \text{P(H}_2\text{) = 2 atm and [H}^+\text{] = 1.0 M}$ $4. \text{P(H}_2\text{) = 2 atm and [H}^+\text{] = 2.0 M}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{P(H}_2\text{) = 1 atm and [H}^+\text{] = 2.0 M}$, $\text{P(H}_2\text{) = 1 atm and [H}^+\text{] = 1.0 M}$...
3
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21367
$\text{Given below are the half-cell reactions:}$ $\text{Mn}^{2+} + 2\text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{Mn}; \ E^\circ = -1.18 \ \text{V}$ $2 \left( \text{Mn}^{3+} + \text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{Mn}^{2+} \right); \ E^\circ = +1.51 \ \text{V}$ $\text{The } E^\circ \text{ for } 3\text{Mn}^{2+} \rightarrow \text{Mn} + 2\text{Mn}^{3+} \text{ will be:}$
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214
JEE MCQ NEW
$-2.69 \ \text{V}; \text{ the reaction will occur}$, $-0.33 \ \text{V}; \text{ the reaction will not occur}$...
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21366
$\text{The decreasing order of electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is:}$ $0.1 \text{ M Formic acid (A),}$ $0.1 \text{ M Acetic acid (B),}$ $0.1 \text{ M Benzoic acid (C)}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A > B > C}$, $\text{A > C > B}$...
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21365
$\text{Consider the values of reduction potential:}$ $\text{Co}^{3+} + e^- \rightarrow \text{Co}^{2+}; \ E^\circ = +1.81 \ \text{V}$ $\text{Pb}^{4+} + 2e^- \rightarrow \text{Pb}^{2+}; \ E^\circ = +1.67 \ \text{V}$ $\text{Ce}^{4+} + e^- \rightarrow \text{Ce}^{3+}; \ E^\circ = +1.61 \ \text{V}$ $\text{Bi}^{3+} + 3e^- \rightarrow \text{Bi}; \ E^\circ = +0.20 \ \text{V}$ $\text{The oxidizing power of the species will increase in the order of:}$
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214
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Co}^{3+} < \text{Ce}^{4+} < \text{Bi}^{3+} < \text{Pb}^{4+}$, $\text{Co}^{3+} < \text{Pb}^{4+} < \text{Ce}^{4+} < \text{Bi}^{3+}$...
4
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21364
$\text{The standard Gibbs energy for the given cell reaction in kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ at } 298 \text{ K is:}$ $\text{Zn}(s) + \text{Cu}^{2+}(aq) \rightarrow \text{Zn}^{2+}(aq) + \text{Cu}(s)$ $E^\circ(\text{cell}) = 2\text{V at } 298 \text{ K}$ $\text{(Faraday's constant, F = 96000 C mol}^{-1})$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$-192 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $192 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
3
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21363
$\text{A solution of Ni(NO}_3\text{)}_2 \text{ is electrolysed between platinum electrodes using 0.1 Faraday electricity. The number of moles of Ni that will be deposited at the cathode are:}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.10$, $0.05$...
2
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21362
$\text{For the given cell:}$ $\text{Cu(s)}|\text{Cu}^{2+}(\text{C}_1\text{M})||\text{Cu}^{2+}(\text{C}_2\text{M})|\text{Cu(s)}$ $\text{change in Gibbs energy (}\Delta G\text{) is negative, if:}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{C}_1 = 2\text{C}_2$, $\text{C}_2 = \frac{\text{C}_1}{\sqrt{2}}$...
4
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21361
$\text{The variation of molar conductivity with the concentration of an electrolyte (X) in an aqueous solution is shown in the given figure.}$ $\text{The electrolyte X is:}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}$, $\text{KNO}_3$...
1
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21360
$\text{An oxidation-reduction reaction in which 3 electrons are transferred has a } \Delta G^\circ \text{ of 17.37 kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ at 25}^\circ\text{C. The value of } E^\circ_{\text{cell}} \text{ (in V) is A} \times 10^{-2}. \text{ The value of A is-}$ $\text{(1 F = 96,500 C mol}^{-1})$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$-6$, $4$...
1
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21359
$\text{The Gibbs energy change (in J) for the given reaction at } [\text{Cu}^{2+}] = [\text{Sn}^{2+}] = 1 \text{ M and } 298 \text{ K is-}$ $\text{Cu(s)} + \text{Sn}^{2+}(\text{aq.}) \rightarrow \text{Cu}^{2+}(\text{aq.}) + \text{Sn(s)}$ $E^0_{\text{Sn}^{2+}/\text{Sn}} = -0.16 \text{ V}, \quad E^0_{\text{Cu}^{2+}/\text{Cu}} = 0.34 \text{ V}$ $\text{Take } F = 96500 \text{ C mol}^{-1}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
97850 \text{ J}, 3500 \text{ J}...
4
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21358
$\text{Emf of the following cell at 298 K in V is } x \times 10^{-2}. \text{ The cell is Zn|Zn}^{2+} (0.1 \text{ M}) || \text{Ag}^{+} (0.01 \text{ M}) | \text{Ag. The value of } x \text{ is- (Rounded off to the nearest integer)}$ $\text{Given; } E^\circ_{\text{Zn}^{2+}/\text{Zn}} = -0.76 \text{ V}$ $E^\circ_{\text{Ag}^{+}/\text{Ag}} = +0.80 \text{ V}; \frac{2.303RT}{F} = 0.059$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
157, 147...
2
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21357
$\text{Compound A used as a strong oxidizing agent is amphoteric in nature. It is part of lead storage batteries. Compound A is:}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{PbO}_2$, $\text{PbO}$...
1
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21356
$\text{For a given cell, a 0.1 molar solution has a resistance of } 20 \, \Omega \text{ and}$ $\text{molar conductivity of } 0.154 \times 10^{-3} \, S \, \text{cm}^2 \, \text{mol}^{-1}.$ $\text{The value of the cell constant is:}$
2
214
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.08 \times 10^{-7} \, \text{cm}^{-1}$, $30.8 \times 10^{-7} \, \text{cm}^{-1}$...
1
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21355
$\text{Consider the following sequence of reactions:}$ $\text{But-2-yne} \xrightarrow{\text{Na-Liq. NH}_3} \text{A} \xrightarrow{\text{Cold, alkaline, dil. KMnO}_4} \text{B}$ $\text{The number of oxygen atoms present in one molecule of B is/are:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $3$...
1
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21354
$\text{Which is the most stable among the following is-}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Cyclopropenyl cation}$, $\text{Cyclopropenyl anion}$...
1
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21353
$\text{Which of the following reactions will yield 2,2-dibromopropane?}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{CH}_3\text{C} \equiv \text{CH} + 2\text{HBr} \rightarrow$, $\text{CH}_3\text{CH} = \text{CHBr} + \text{HBr} \rightarrow$...
1
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21352
$\text{How many sp}^2 \text{ carbon atoms are present in the product formed from the given reaction?}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $0$...
3
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21351
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{On nitration of m-xylene with HNO}_3, \text{ H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ followed by oxidation, 4-nitrobenzene-1, 3-dicarboxylic acid is obtained as the major product.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{CH}_3 \text{ group is o/p-directing while NO}_2 \text{ group is m-directing group.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are false}$, $\text{Statement I is false but Statement II is true}$...
3
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21350
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{One mole of propyne reacts with excess of sodium to liberate half a mole of } \text{H}_2 \text{ gas.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{4g of propyne reacts with NaNH}_2 \text{ to liberate NH}_3 \text{ gas which occupies 224 mL at STP.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$...
1
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21349
$\text{When a propane molecule undergoes chlorination under photochemical conditions, it gives two di-chloro products, } x \text{ and } y. \text{ Among these, } x \text{ is optically active. How many structural isomers of tri-chloro products will be obtained from } x \text{ when it is further treated with chlorine under photochemical conditions?}$ $1.\ 4$ $2.\ 2$ $3.\ 5$ $4.\ 3$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $2$...
4
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21348
$\text{The major product (F) of the above-given reaction sequence is:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{OCH}_3 \quad \text{NH}_2$, $\text{OCH}_3 \quad \text{HO} \quad \text{NH}_2$...
4
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21347
$\text{In the following reaction sequence, identify the major product 'C':}$ $\text{C}_8\text{H}_{10} \xrightarrow{\text{HNO}_3/\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4} \text{A} \xrightarrow{\text{Br}_2/\Delta} \text{B} \xrightarrow{\text{alcoholic KOH}} \text{C}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\begin{array}{c} \text{NO}_2 \\ \text{I} \\ \text{C} = \text{CH}_2 \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{c} \text{O}_2\text{N} \\ \text{CH} = \text{CH}_2 \end{array}$...
2
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21346
$\text{In the given reaction, identify compounds } A \text{ and } B:$ $\text{CH}_3\text{C}_6\text{H}_5 \xrightarrow{\text{Cl}_2 (2 \text{ eq}), \text{hv}} A \xrightarrow{(i) \text{NaOH} \\ (ii) \text{dil. HCl}} B$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$(A) \ \text{CH}_2\text{Cl} \ \text{(B)} \ \text{COOH}$, $(A) \ \text{CHCl}_2 \ \text{(B)} \ \text{COOH}$...
3
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21345
$\text{Seven compounds are given below. How many of the following will give Friedel Craft's reaction?}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $7$...
1
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21344
$\text{Which of the following molecules is aromatic?}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Option 1}$, $\text{Option 2}$...
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21343
$\text{Statement I:}$ $\text{Alkene has weak } \pi \text{ bond, therefore less stable than alkane.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ $\text{Weak } \pi \text{ bond is less strong than the carbon-carbon sigma bond.}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct}$, $\text{Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect}$...
1
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21342
$\text{The total number of secondary carbon atoms present in the given compound is:}$ $\text{CH}_3\text{C(CH}_3\text{)}\text{CH}_2\text{CH(CH}_3\text{)}\text{CH}_3$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21341
51
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21340
$\text{Consider the following sequence of reactions and identify the unknown reagents (A) and (B) respectively.}$ $\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{Br} \xrightarrow{(A)} \text{P} \xrightarrow{(B)} \text{CH}_3 - \text{CHBr} - \text{CH}_3 \text{ (Major)}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(A) : \text{Dil. aq NaOH at } 20^\circ\text{C} \quad (B) : \text{HBr, CH}_3\text{COOH}$, $(A) : \text{Dil. aq NaOH at } 20^\circ\text{C} \quad (B) : \text{Br}_2, \text{CHCl}_3$...
3
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21339
$\text{Reagents } A \text{ and } B \text{ in the following reaction are, respectively:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$(A) \ \text{O}_3/\text{Zn} - \text{H}_2\text{O}; \ (B) \ \text{H}_3\text{O}^+$, $(A) \ \text{O}_3/\text{Zn} - \text{H}_2\text{O}; \ (B) \ \text{LiAlH}_4$...
3
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21338
$\text{How many } \pi \text{ bonds are present in the product (B) of the reaction illustrated below?}$ $\text{C}_3\text{H}_7 \xrightarrow{\text{KMnO}_4, \text{OH}^-, \Delta} (\text{A}) \xrightarrow{\text{H}_3\text{O}^+} (\text{B})$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $3$...
1
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21337
$\text{Identify the correct statement on physical properties of (A) and (B):}$ $\text{Birch Reduction} \rightarrow (\text{A})$ $+\text{H}_2, \text{Lindlar's catalyst} \rightarrow (\text{B})$ $\text{CH}_3\equiv\text{C}-\text{C}\equiv\text{CH}_3$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Melting Point: A > B; Boiling Point: A > B}$, $\text{Melting Point: A < B; Boiling Point: A > B}$...
3
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21336
$\text{Consider the following molecule:}$ $\text{The correct order of the acidic strength of marked hydrogen is:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$H_A > H_D > H_B > H_C$, $H_B > H_A > H_D > H_C$...
1
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21335
$\text{Consider the following reactions:}$ $\text{2-Methylpropene} \xrightarrow{\text{Cold alkaline } \text{KMnO}_4} \text{P}$ $\text{2-Methylpropene} \xrightarrow{\text{Hot } \text{KMnO}_4} \text{Q}$ $\text{The products P and Q, respectively, are:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\begin{array}{c} \text{OH} \\ | \\ \text{CH}_2 \end{array} \text{C} \begin{array}{c} \text{OH} \\ | \\ \text{CH} \\ | \\ \text{CH}_3 \end{array} \text{CH}_3 \text{ and } \begin{array}{c} \text{OH} \\ | \\ \text{CH}_3 \end{array} \text{CH} \begin{array}{c} \text{OH} \\ | \\ \text{CH}_3 \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{c} \text{OH} \\ | \\ \text{CH}_2 \end{array} \text{C} \begin{array}{c} \text{OH} \\ | \\ \text{CH} \\ | \\ \text{CH}_3 \end{array} \text{CH}_3 \text{ and } \begin{array}{c} \text{O} \\ || \\ \text{C} \\ | \\ \text{CH}_3 \end{array} \text{CH}_3$...
2
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21334
$\text{The product formed in the reaction given below is:}$ $\text{(Image of reaction with } \text{HBr and heat)}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(Image of option 1)}$, $\text{(Image of option 2)}$...
4
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21333
$\text{Geometrical isomerism is not shown by:}$ $1.\ 1,1\text{-Dichloro-1-pentene}$ $2.\ 1,2\text{-Dichloro-1-pentene}$ $3.\ 1,3\text{-Dichloro-2-pentene}$ $4.\ 1,4\text{-Dichloro-2-pentene}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$1,1\text{-Dichloro-1-pentene}$, $1,2\text{-Dichloro-1-pentene}$...
1
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21332
$\text{Butene may be converted to butane by a reaction with:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Zn - HCl}$, $\text{Sn-HCl}$...
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21331
$\text{A non-aromatic compound among the following is:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Option 1: Non-Aromatic}$, $\text{Option 2: Aromatic}$...
1
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21330
$\text{The carbonyl compounds that cannot be prepared by addition of water on an alkyne in the presence of HgSO}_4 \text{ and H}_2\text{SO}_4, \text{ among the following, is:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{CH}_3\text{C} \equiv \text{C} \text{CH}_3 \xrightarrow{\text{HgSO}_4, \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4} \text{O} = \text{C} \text{CH}_3$, $\text{Cyclohexanone}$...
3
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21329
$\text{Which among the following pairs of structures will give different products on ozonolysis?}$ $\text{(Consider that the double bonds in the structures are rigid and not delocalized)}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{1.}$ $\text{(CH}_3\text{)}_2\text{C}_6\text{H}_4 \leftrightarrow \text{(CH}_3\text{)}_2\text{C}_6\text{H}_4$, $\text{2.}$ $\text{(CH}_3\text{)}_2\text{C}_6\text{H}_4 \leftrightarrow \text{(CH}_3\text{)}_2\text{C}_6\text{H}_4$...
3
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21328
$\text{Which compound among the following is not categorized as benzenoid?}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Compound 1}$, $\text{Compound 2}$...
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21327
$\text{In the presence of sunlight, benzene reacts with } \text{Cl}_2 \text{ to give product } 'X'. \text{ The number of hydrogens in } 'X' \text{ is:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Five (5)}$, $\text{Three (3)}$...
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21326
$\text{Which of the following is not aromatic?}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Option 1}$, $\text{Option 2}$...
3
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21325
$\text{Which of the following compounds will predominantly yield a meta-substituted product with respect to the methyl group upon halogenation?}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{CHO}$, $\text{NO}_2$...
3
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21324
$\text{What is the major product of the following reaction?}$ $\text{(i) Hg(OAc)_2, H_2O}$ $\text{(ii) NaBH}_4 \rightarrow$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Option 1:}$, $\text{Option 2:}$...
1
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21323
$\text{Consider the following reaction:}$ $\text{Bu} - \equiv \text{CH} \xrightarrow{1.\ \text{nBuLi}} \xrightarrow{2.\ \text{n-C}_5\text{H}_{11}\text{Cl}} \xrightarrow{3.\ \text{H}_2\text{-Pd, BaSO}_4} \text{Major Product}$ $\text{The major product in the above reaction is:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{n-Bu} - \text{C}_5\text{H}_{11}$, $\text{n-Bu} - \text{C}_5\text{H}_{11}$...
1
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21322
$\text{Consider the reaction,}$ $\text{(i) Fe, Br}_2$ $\text{(ii) Cl}_2/\Delta$ $\text{(iii) alc. KOH}$ $\rightarrow \text{major product}$ $\text{Major product is:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\begin{array}{c} \text{Br} \\ \text{C}_6\text{H}_4\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_3 \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{c} \text{C} \equiv \text{CH} \\ \text{C}_6\text{H}_4\text{Br} \end{array}$...
1
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21321
$\text{Identify the intermediate [A] in the following reaction:}$ $\left( \text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{COO} \right)_2 \xrightarrow{\Delta} \text{A} \rightarrow 2\cdot\text{C}_6\text{H}_5 + 2\text{CO}_2$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{C}_6\text{H}_5 - \overset{\cdot}{\text{C}} = \overset{\cdot}{\text{O}}$, $\text{C}_6\text{H}_5 - \overset{\cdot}{\text{C}} = \overset{\cdot}{\text{O}}$...
3
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21320
$\text{Identify the staggered conformation with maximum dihedral angle:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{H}$ $\text{H}$ $\text{CH}_3$ $\text{CH}_3$, $\text{CH}_3$ $\text{H}$ $\text{H}$ $\text{CH}_3$...
2
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21319
$\text{Which of the following compounds has the lowest boiling point?}$ $1.\ \text{n-Butane}$ $2.\ \text{Isobutene}$ $3.\ \text{1-Butene}$ $4.\ \text{1-Butyne}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{n-Butane}$, $\text{Isobutene}$...
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21318
$\text{The isomer of hexane that can yield two different monochlorinated products among the five isomers is:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{2-Methylpentane}$, $\text{2,2-Dimethylbutane}$...
3
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21317
$\text{The reaction of toluene with Cl}_2 \text{ in the presence of FeCl}_3 \text{ gives predominantly:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Benzoyl chloride}$, $\text{Benzyl chloride}$...
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21316
$\text{The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{C} \equiv \text{CH}$, $\text{CH}_3\text{CH} = \text{CHCH}_3$...
1
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21315
$\text{Which of the following compounds is non-aromatic?}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Compound with S}$, $\text{Biphenyl}$...
4
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21314
$\text{Which reagent will convert 2-Hexyne to trans-2-Hexene?}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Li/NH}_3$, $\text{Pd/BaSO}_4$...
1
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21313
$\text{The compound among the following that shows geometrical isomerism is:}$ $1.\ \text{1-Phenyl-2-butene}$ $2.\ \text{3-Phenyl-1-butene}$ $3.\ \text{2-Phenyl-1-butene}$ $4.\ \text{1,1-Diphenyl-1-propene}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{1-Phenyl-2-butene}$, $\text{3-Phenyl-1-butene}$...
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21312
$\text{The least resonance stabilized molecule among the following is:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Aromatic}$, $\text{Non Aromatic}$...
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21311
$\text{The trans-alkenes are formed by the reduction of alkynes with:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{H}_2 - \text{Pd/C, BaSO}_4$, $\text{NaBH}_4$...
3
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21310
$\text{Consider the following reactions:}$ $\text{Ag}_2\text{O} \xrightarrow{\Delta} \text{ppt}$ $\text{Hg}^{2+}/\text{H}^+ \xrightarrow{\text{NaBH}_4} \text{ZnCl}_2$ $\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{Turbidity within 5 minutes}$ $\text{conc. HCl}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{CH}_3 - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH}$, $\text{CH}_2 = \text{CH}_2$...
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21309
$\text{The increasing order of the reactivity of the following compounds}$ $\text{toward electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions (EASR) is:}$ $\begin{array}{ccc} \text{Cl} & \text{CH}_3 & \text{COCH}_3 \\ (\text{I}) & (\text{II}) & (\text{III}) \end{array}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{III} < \text{II} < \text{I}$, $\text{III} < \text{I} < \text{II}$...
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21308
$\text{Major product obtained in the given reaction is:}$ $\text{CH}_3\text{C}_6\text{H}_4\text{OCH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CHClCH}_3 \xrightarrow{\text{AlCl}_3} \text{Product}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{H}_3\text{C}\text{C}_6\text{H}_4\text{OCH}_2\text{CH}\text{CH}_3$, $\text{CH}_3\text{C}_6\text{H}_3\text{O}$...
4
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21307
$\text{The major product in the following reaction is:}$ $\text{CH}_3\text{C} \equiv \text{CH} \xrightarrow{\begin{array}{c} (i) \ \text{DCl} \ (1 \ \text{equiv.}) \\ (ii) \ \text{DI} \end{array}}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{CH}_3\text{CD(Cl)CHD(I)}$, $\text{CH}_3\text{CD}_2\text{CH(Cl)(I)}$...
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21306
$\text{The major product of the following reaction is:}$ $\text{CH}_3\begin{array}{c}\text{NO}_2\end{array}\begin{array}{c}\text{2HBr}\end{array}\rightarrow$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\begin{array}{c}\text{H}_3\text{C}\end{array}\begin{array}{c}\text{Br}\end{array}\begin{array}{c}\text{NO}_2\end{array}$, $\begin{array}{c}\text{Br}\end{array}\begin{array}{c}\text{CH}_3\end{array}\begin{array}{c}\text{Br}\end{array}\begin{array}{c}\text{NO}_2\end{array}$...
2
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21305
$\text{The major product obtained from the following reaction is -}$ $\text{O}_2\text{N} - \text{C}_6\text{H}_4 - \equiv - \text{C} - \text{C}_6\text{H}_4 - \text{OCH}_3 \xrightarrow{\text{Hg}^{2+}/\text{H}^+} \text{H}_2\text{O}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{O}_2\text{N} - \text{C}_6\text{H}_4 - \text{C} - \text{C}_6\text{H}_4 - \text{OH}$, $\text{O}_2\text{N} - \text{C}_6\text{H}_4 - \text{C} - \text{C}_6\text{H}_4 - \text{OCH}_3$...
2
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21304
14
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
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21303
$\text{Which one of the following compounds exhibits geometrical isomerism?}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{CH}_2=\text{CHCl}$, $\text{CHCl}=\text{CHCH}_3$...
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21302
$\text{The major product [R] in the following sequence of reactions is:}$ $\text{HC} \equiv \text{CH} \xrightarrow{(i) \text{LiNH}_2/\text{ether}} \xrightarrow{(ii) \text{H}_3\text{C} \text{CHBr} \text{(CH}_3\text{)}_2\text{CH}} \xrightarrow{(i) \text{HgSO}_4/\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4} \xrightarrow{(ii) \text{NaBH}_4} \xrightarrow{\text{Conc. } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4, \Delta} \text{[R]}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{H}_2\text{C} = \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_3 \text{CH(CH}_3\text{)}_2$, $\text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH} - \text{CH}_3 \text{CH}_2\text{CH}$...
3
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21301
$\text{Identify products A and B in the given reaction:}$ $\text{dil. KMnO}_4$ $273 \text{ K}$ $\rightarrow$ $\text{CrO}_3$ $\rightarrow$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A:} \ \text{CH}_3\text{CH(OH)CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{OH} \quad \text{B:} \ \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CHO}$, $\text{A:} \ \text{CH}_3\text{CH(OH)CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{OH} \quad \text{B:} \ \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{COOH}$...
2
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21300
$\text{The correct reagent that is used for the following reaction is:}$ $\text{CH}_3 \ \text{CH}_2 \ \text{CH}_3 \ \xrightarrow{?} \ \text{CH}_3 \ \text{CH}_2 \ \text{CHO}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Manganese acetate}$, $\text{Copper at high temperature and pressure}$...
3
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21299
$\text{The major product among the following reaction is:}$ $\text{(1) Zn/HCl}$ \rightarrow$ $\text{(2) Cr}_2\text{O}_3, \ 773 \ \text{K}$ $10-20 \ \text{atm}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_3$, $\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_3$...
1
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21298
$\text{Consider the following reaction,}$ $\text{CH}_3\text{CH} = \text{C(CH}_3)_2 + \text{HI} \rightarrow \text{Major product}$ $\text{The major product in the above reaction is:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{H}_3\text{CCH}_2\text{CICH}_2\text{CH}_3$, $\text{H}_3\text{CCH}_2\text{C(CH}_3)\text{CH}_3\text{I}$...
3
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21297
$\text{The product A in the following reaction is:}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{CH}_2\text{CH}_3 \\ \text{CN} \end{array} \xrightarrow{\text{Br}_2 \, \text{UV light}} \text{A (Major product) monobrominated}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\begin{array}{c} \text{CH}_2\text{CH}_3 \\ \text{CN} \\ \text{Br} \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{c} \text{CH}_2\text{CH}_3 \\ \text{CN} \\ \text{Br} \end{array}$...
3
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21296
$\text{Given the following reaction:}$ $\text{HC} = \text{CHBr}$ $\begin{array}{l} \text{CH}_3 \\ \end{array}$ $\begin{array}{l} 1. \text{NaN}_2 \\ 2. \text{Red hot iron tube, 873 K} \end{array} \rightarrow (\text{A}) \text{(major product)}$ $\text{The major product A is:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{NH}_2$, $\begin{array}{c} \text{H} \\ \text{HC} = \text{C} - \text{NH}_2 \\ \text{CH}_3 \end{array}$...
4
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21295
$\text{The correct sequence of reagents used in the preparation of 4-Bromo-2-nitro-1-ethyl benzene from benzene is:}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{HNO}_3/\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4, \text{Br}_2/\text{AlCl}_3, \text{CH}_3\text{COCl}/\text{AlCl}_3, \text{Zn} - \text{Hg}/\text{HCl}$, $\text{Br}_2/\text{AlBr}_3, \text{CH}_3\text{COCl}/\text{AlCl}_3, \text{HNO}_3/\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4, \text{Zn}/\text{HCl}$...
4
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21294
$\text{The major product of the following reaction is:}$ $\text{(image of reaction with } \text{NO}_2 \text{ and } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{)}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(image of option 1)}$, $\text{(image of option 2)}$...
3
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21293
$\text{Identify A in the given chemical reaction:}$ $\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_3 \xrightarrow{\text{Mo}_2\text{O}_3, \ 773 \text{ K}, \ 10-20 \text{ atm}} \text{A (major product)}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Benzene}$, $\text{Cyclohexane}$...
4
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21292
$\text{Which of the following compounds are aromatic?}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Only A and B}$, $\text{Only A and C}$...
2
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21291
$\text{Statement I:}$ $\text{Alkene has weak } \pi \text{ bond, therefore less stable than alkane.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ $\text{Weak } \pi \text{ bond is less strong than the carbon-carbon sigma bond.}$
2
213
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct}$, $\text{Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect}$...
1
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21290
$\text{Which of the following will give a positive Lassaigne's test?}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{NH}_4\text{OH}$, $\text{NH}_4\text{Cl}$...
4
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21289
$\text{Identify the number of compounds, among the following, that have the same degree of unsaturation:}$ $\text{(A) } \text{CH}_3 - \text{CH} = \text{CH} - \text{C} \equiv \text{N}$ $\text{(B) } \text{CH}_3 - \text{N} = \text{CH} - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH}$ $\text{(C) } \text{CH} \equiv \text{C} - \text{NH} - \text{CH} = \text{CH}_2$ $\text{(D) } \text{CH}_2 = \text{CH} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{C} \equiv \text{N}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $3$...
4
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21288
$\text{The IUPAC name of the following compound is:}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{COOH} \\ \text{COOCH}_3 \end{array}$ $\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH} - \text{CH}_3$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{2-Carboxy-5-methoxycarbonylhexane.}$, $\text{Methyl-6-carboxy-2,5-dimethylhexanoate.}$...
4
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21287
$\text{In the Carius method for estimation of halogens, 180 mg of an organic compound produced 143.5 mg of AgCl. The percentage composition of chlorine in the compound is:}$ $\text{[Given: molar mass in g mol}^{-1} \text{ of Ag and Cl are 108, 35.5 respectively]}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$27.91\%$, $46.32\%$...
3
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21286
$\text{Which one of the carbocations from the following is most stable?}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\overset{+}{\text{CH}_2} \text{CH} = \text{CH} - \text{O} - \text{CH}_3$, $\overset{+}{\text{CH}_2} \text{CH} = \text{CH} - \overset{\cdot}{\text{O}} - \text{CH}_3$...
2
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21285
70
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21284
$\text{Consider the given two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{Methylcyclopentane and hex-3-ene are isomeric compounds.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{1-Aminopentane and N-ethylpropylamine are functional isomers.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are false.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are true.}$...
2
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21283
$\text{The correct arrangement of the following carbocations in decreasing order of their stability is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A} > \text{B} > \text{C} > \text{D}$, $\text{B} > \text{C} > \text{A} > \text{D}$...
4
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21282
$\text{In the given structure, the number of sp and sp}^2 \text{ hybridized carbon atoms present, respectively, are:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \text{ and } 6$, $3 \text{ and } 5$...
2
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21281
$\text{Identify correct statement(s):}$ $\begin{array}{ll} (A) & -\text{OCH}_3 \text{ and } -\text{NHCOCH}_3 \text{ are activating groups.} \\ (B) & -\text{CN and } -\text{OH are meta-directing groups.} \\ (C) & -\text{CN and } -\text{SO}_3\text{H are meta-directing groups.} \\ (D) & \text{Activating groups act as ortho- and para-directing groups.} \\ (E) & \text{Halides are activating groups.} \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$(A), (C) \text{ and } (D) \text{ only}$, $(A), (B) \text{ and } (E) \text{ only}$...
1
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21280
$\text{The given compound is classified as:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Alicyclic}$, $\text{Aromatic}$...
1
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21279
$\text{The correct structure for the IUPAC name 3-Methylpent-2-enal is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Structure 1}$, $\text{Structure 2}$...
2
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21278
$\text{Arrange the following in increasing order of their stability:}$ $\begin{array}{ll} \text{a.} & \overset{\oplus}{\text{CH}_2} \text{--- CH = C --- H} \\ \text{b.} & \text{CH}_2 = \text{CH} \overset{\oplus}{\overset{\text{O}}{\underset{\ominus}{\text{C}}}} \text{--- H} \\ \text{c.} & \text{CH}_2 = \text{CH} \overset{\ominus}{\overset{\text{O}}{\underset{\oplus}{\text{C}}}} \text{--- H} \\ \text{d.} & \overset{\ominus}{\text{CH}_2} \text{--- CH = C --- H} \overset{\oplus}{\text{O}} \end{array}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$(a) < (b) < (c) < (d)$, $(a) < (d) < (c) < (b)$...
4
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21277
$\text{How many of the following compounds are optically active?}$ $\text{(I) CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{Cl}$ $\text{(II) CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{OH}$ $\text{(III)}$ \begin{array}{c} \text{CH}_3 - \text{CH} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{Cl} \\ \quad \vert \\ \text{CH}_3 \end{array} $ $\text{(IV)}$ \begin{array}{c} \text{CH}_3 \\ \vert \\ \text{H} - \text{C} - \text{OH} \\ \vert \\ \text{H} - \text{C} - \text{OH} \\ \vert \\ \text{CH}_3 \end{array} $ $\text{(V)}$ \begin{array}{c} \text{CH}_3 - \text{C} - \text{C} - \text{C} - \text{CH}_3 \\ \quad \vert \quad \vert \quad \vert \\ \text{OH} \quad \text{OH} \quad \text{OH} \end{array} $
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Zero}$, $\text{(I), (II), (III)}$...
1
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21276
$\text{Assertion (A): Kjeldahl method is not used for pyridine.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Nitrogen of pyridine does not change to ammonium sulphate under these conditions.}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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21275
$\text{What is the correct order of acidic strength for the following acids?}$ $\text{HCOOH, CH}_3\text{COOH, CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COOH,}$ $\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{COOH}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{HCOOH} < \text{CH}_3\text{COOH} < \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COOH} < \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{COOH}$, $\text{HCOOH} > \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{COOH} > \text{CH}_3\text{COOH} > \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COOH}$...
3
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21274
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{IUPAC name of the Compound is 4-chloro-1, 3-dinitrobenzene.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{IUPAC name of the Compound is 2-methylaniline.}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is false but Statement II is true.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are false.}$...
1
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21273
$\text{The basic strength of the following anions, ordered from most to least, is:}$ $\text{OH}^-, \text{HCOO}^-, \text{CH}_3\text{COO}^-, \overline{\text{OR}}$ $(I) \quad (II) \quad (III) \quad (IV)$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$II > III > I > IV$, $IV > I > III > II$...
2
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21272
$\text{Which of the following is/are used as adsorbent in adsorption chromatography?}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Silica gel}$, $\text{Alumina}$...
4
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21271
$\text{What is the IUPAC name of catechol?}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Benzene, 1, 2-diol}$, $\text{Benzene, 1, 3-diol}$...
1
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21270
$\text{The IUPAC name of the following compound is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{3-Formylhept-6-enoic acid}$, $\text{3-Aldohept-7-enoic acid}$...
1
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21269
$\text{The ratio of } R_f \text{ value for P and R is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.50$, $0.80$...
1
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21268
$\text{Which of the following options represents the correct metamer of the given compound?}$ $\text{[Image of compound]}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{[Image of option 1]}$, $\text{[Image of option 2]}$...
3
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21267
$\text{Which of the following anions forms a pale yellow precipitate when reacted with aqueous } \text{AgNO}_3, \text{ and the precipitate is partially soluble in aqueous } \text{NH}_4\text{OH solution?}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{I}^-$, $\text{Cl}^-$...
3
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21266
$\text{The correct match among the following is:}$ $1.\ \text{Hexane-2-one and Hexane-3-one} \quad \text{Position isomers.}$ $2.\ \text{Pentane-3-one and Pentane-2-one} \quad \text{Functional isomers.}$ $3.\ \text{2-Pentene and 1-Pentene} \quad \text{Metamers.}$ $4.\ \text{Pentanoic acid and Hexanoic acid} \quad \text{Functional isomers.}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Hexane-2-one and Hexane-3-one: Position isomers.}$, $\text{Pentane-3-one and Pentane-2-one: Functional isomers.}$...
1
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21265
$\text{The correct stability order of the resonating structure of the given compound is:}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{O} \\ \text{||} \\ \text{H} - \text{C} = \text{C} - \text{C} = \text{C} - \text{NH}_2 \end{array}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A} > \text{B} > \text{C}$, $\text{B} > \text{A} > \text{C}$...
1
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21264
$\text{Following types of compounds (as I, II) are studied in terms of isomerism in:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|} \hline \text{(I)} \\ \text{CH}_3\text{CH} = \text{CHCH}_3 \\ \hline \text{(II)} \\ \begin{array}{c} \text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{C} - \text{OH} \\ | \\ \text{H} - \text{C} - \text{CH}_3 \\ | \\ \text{H}_2 \\ \end{array} \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Chain isomerism}$, $\text{Position isomerism}$...
4
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21263
$\text{Given the following benzyl/allyl system:}$ $\text{R} - \text{C} = \text{CH}_2 \quad \text{or} \quad \begin{array}{c} \text{R} \\ \bigcirc \\ \end{array}$ $\text{(R is alkyl group)}$ $\text{What is the correct decreasing order of the inductive effect?}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C}- > (\text{CH}_3)_2\text{CH}- > \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2-$, $\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2- > (\text{CH}_3)_2\text{CH}- > (\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C}-$...
1
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21262
$\text{Choose the compound with incorrect IUPAC nomenclature among the following.}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Ethylbutanoate}$, $\text{3-Methylbutanal}$...
4
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21261
$\text{In a given organic compound of molar mass}$ $108 \text{ g mol}^{-1}, \text{ C, H, and N atoms are present in a } 9:1:3.5 \text{ by weight ratio.}$ $\text{The molecular formula of the organic compound is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{C}_6\text{H}_8\text{N}_2$, $\text{C}_7\text{H}_{10}\text{N}$...
1
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21260
45
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21259
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{In the Lassaigne test, an organic compound with both N and S, responds to the test of SCN}^-.$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{In the Lassaigne test, if Na is taken in excess, it destroys SCN}^- \text{ and forms Na}_2\text{S and NaCN.}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.}$, $\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$...
3
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21258
43
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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21257
$\text{The compound that does not have } \text{sp}^2 \text{ hybridized carbon among the following is:}$ $1. \text{ Acetone}$ $2. \text{ Acetic acid}$ $3. \text{ Acetonitrile}$ $4. \text{ Acetamide}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Acetone}$, $\text{Acetic acid}$...
3
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21256
$\text{The IUPAC name of the following compound is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$3, 3\text{-Dimethyl-1-hydroxycyclohexane}$, $1,1\text{-Dimethyl-3-hydroxycyclohexane}$...
3
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21255
$\text{The ammonia evolved from the treatment of } 0.30 \text{ g of an organic compound for the estimation of nitrogen was passed in } 100 \text{ mL of } 0.1 \text{ M sulphuric acid. The excess acid required } 20 \text{ mL of } 0.5 \text{ M sodium hydroxide solution for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$46.6 \%$, $50.4 \%$...
1
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21254
$\text{The decreasing order of nucleophilicity among the given nucleophiles is:}$ $\begin{array}{cc} \text{(A)} & \text{O} \\ & || \\ & \text{CH}_3\text{C} - \text{O}^- \\ \text{(B)} & \text{CH}_3\text{O}^- \\ \text{(C)} & \text{CN}^- \\ \text{(D)} & \text{O} \\ & || \\ & \text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{S} - \text{O}^- \\ & || \\ & \text{O} \end{array}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{C}), (\text{B}), (\text{A}), (\text{D})$, $(\text{B}), (\text{C}), (\text{A}), (\text{D})$...
2
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21253
$\text{What properties do free radicals exhibit due to their unpaired electron?}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Cations}$, $\text{Anions}$...
4
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21252
$\text{The increasing order of stability of the following free radicals is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{CH}_3)_2\dot{\text{C}}\text{H} < (\text{CH}_3)_3\dot{\text{C}} < (\text{C}_6\text{H}_5)_2\dot{\text{C}}\text{H} < (\text{C}_6\text{H}_5)_3\dot{\text{C}}$, $(\text{C}_6\text{H}_5)_3\dot{\text{C}} < (\text{C}_6\text{H}_5)_2\dot{\text{C}}\text{H} < (\text{CH}_3)_3\dot{\text{C}} < (\text{CH}_3)_2\dot{\text{C}}\text{H}$...
1
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21251
$\text{The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of}$ $\text{organic compounds in the IUPAC system of nomenclature is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$-\text{SO}_3\text{H}, -\text{COOH}, -\text{CONH}_2, -\text{CHO}$, $-\text{CHO}, -\text{COOH}, -\text{SO}_3\text{H}, -\text{CONH}_2$...
4
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21250
$\text{The correct order of decreasing stability of the following is:}$ $(\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C}^-, \text{CCl}_3, (\text{CH}_3)_2\text{CH}^-, \text{C}_6\text{H}_5 - \text{CH}_2^-$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{-CCl}_3 > \text{C}_6\text{H}_5 - \text{CH}_2^- > (\text{CH}_3)_2\text{CH}^- > (\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C}^-$, $\text{C}_6\text{H}_5 - \text{CH}_2^- > \text{-CCl}_3 > (\text{CH}_3)_2\text{CH}^- > (\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C}^-$...
1
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21249
$\text{Out of the following, the alkene that exhibits optical isomerism is:}$ $1. \text{ 2-Methyl-2-pentene}$ $2. \text{ 3-Methyl-2-pentene}$ $3. \text{ 4-Methyl-pentene}$ $4. \text{ 3-Methyl-1-pentene}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{2-Methyl-2-pentene}$, $\text{3-Methyl-2-pentene}$...
4
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21248
$29.5 \text{ mg of an organic compound containing nitrogen was digested according to Kjeldahl's method and the evolved ammonia were absorbed in } 20 \text{ mL of } 0.1 \text{ M HCl solution.}$ $\text{The excess of the acid required } 15 \text{ mL of } 0.1 \text{ M NaOH solution for complete neutralization.}$ $\text{The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$29.5$, $23.7$...
2
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21247
$\text{Given below are four statements about thiol anion (RS}^-\text{) and alkoxy anion (RO}^-\text{).}$ $\text{Which of the following statements is correct?}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{RS}^- \text{ is less basic but more nucleophilic than RO}^-$, $\text{RS}^- \text{ is more basic and more nucleophilic than RO}^-$...
1
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21246
$\text{The order of stability of the following carbocations is:}$ $\begin{array}{ccc} \text{H}_2\text{C} = \text{C}^+ - \text{CH}_2 & \text{H}_3\text{C} - \overset{+}{\text{CH}} - \text{CH}_2 & \overset{+}{\text{CH}_2} \text{(benzene ring)} \\ \text{(I)} & \text{(II)} & \text{(III)} \end{array}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{I} > \text{II} > \text{III}$, $\text{III} > \text{I} > \text{II}$...
2
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21245
$\text{For the estimation of nitrogen, } 1.4 \text{ g of an organic compound was digested by the Kjeldahl method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in } 60 \text{ mL of M/10 sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required } 20 \text{ mL of M/10 sodium hydroxide for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$10\%$, $3\%$...
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21244
$\text{In the Carius method for estimation of halogens, 250 mg of an}$ $\text{organic compound gave 141 mg of AgBr. The percentage of bromine}$ $\text{in the compound is:}$ $\text{(Atomic masses: Ag = 108, Br = 80)}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$24\%$, $36\%$...
1
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21243
$\text{The distillation technique most suited for separating glycerol from spent-lye in the soap industry is:}$ $1. \text{ Steam distillation}$ $2. \text{ Distillation under reduced pressure}$ $3. \text{ Fractional distillation}$ $4. \text{ Differential extraction}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Steam distillation}$, $\text{Distillation under reduced pressure}$...
2
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21242
$\text{The IUPAC name for the following compound is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$3,5\text{-Dimethyl-4-propylhept-1-en-6-yne}$, $3\text{-Methyl-4-(3-methylprop-1-enyl)-1-heptyne}$...
1
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21241
$\text{An organic compound 'A' is oxidized with } \text{Na}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ followed by boiling with } \text{HNO}_3. \text{ The resultant solution is then treated with ammonium molybdate to yield a yellow precipitate. Based on the above observation, the element present in the given compound is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Fluorine}$, $\text{Phosphorus}$...
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21240
$\text{Which of the following is the principle behind column chromatography?}$
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212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Gravitational force.}$, $\text{Capillary action.}$...
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21239
$\text{The increasing order of nucleophilicity of the following nucleophiles is:}$ $\begin{array}{ll} (a) & \text{CH}_3\text{CO}_2^- \\ (b) & \text{H}_2\text{O} \\ (c) & \text{CH}_3\text{SO}_3^- \\ (d) & \text{OH}^- \end{array}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(b) < (c) < (a) < (d)$, $(b) < (c) < (d) < (a)$...
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21238
$\text{In chromatography, which of the following statements is incorrect for } R_f?$ $1. \ R_f \ \text{value depends on the type of chromatography.}$ $2. \ \text{Higher } R_f \ \text{value means higher adsorption.}$ $3. \ R_f \ \text{value is dependent on the mobile phase.}$ $4. \ \text{The value of } R_f \ \text{can never be more than one.}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$R_f \ \text{value depends on the type of chromatography.}$, $\text{Higher } R_f \ \text{value means higher adsorption.}$...
2
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21237
$\text{The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{NO}_2 \\ \text{Cl} \\ \text{CH}_3 \end{array}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$5\text{-Chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene}$, $2\text{-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene}$...
2
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21236
$\text{The IUPAC name of the following compound is -}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{H}_3\text{C} \quad \text{OH} \\ | \\ \text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{C} - \text{C} - \text{C} - \text{C} \\ | \\ \text{H} \quad \text{H}_2 \quad \text{O} \\ | \\ \text{OH} \end{array}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$4,4\text{-Dimethyl-3-hydroxybutanoic acid}$, $2\text{-Methyl-3-hydroxypentan-5-oic acid}$...
4
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21235
$\text{Match the following:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Test/Method} & \text{Reagent} \\ \hline (i) \text{ Lucas Test} & (a) \text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{SO}_2\text{Cl} / \text{aq. KOH} \\ (ii) \text{ Dumas method} & (b) \text{HNO}_3 / \text{AgNO}_3 \\ (iii) \text{ Kjeldahl's method} & (c) \text{CuO} / \text{CO}_2 \\ (iv) \text{ Hinsberg Test} & (d) \text{Conc. HCl and ZnCl}_2 \\ & (e) \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(a)$, $(i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(a)$...
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21234
$\text{The IUPAC name of the following compound is-}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{3-Amino-4-hydroxymethyl-5-nitrobenzaldehyde}$, $\text{2-Nitro-4-hydroxymethyl-5-amino benzaldehyde}$...
4
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21233
$\text{In an estimation of bromine by the Carius method, } 1.6 \text{ g of an organic compound gave } 1.88 \text{ g of AgBr. The mass percentage of bromine in the compound is:}$ $[\text{Atomic mass, Ag}=108, \text{ Br} = 80 \text{ g mol}^{-1}]$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$50 \%$, $55.5 \%$...
1
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21232
$\text{The IUPAC name of the following compound is -}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$3\text{-Bromo-5-methylcyclopentanoic acid}$, $4\text{-Bromo-2-methylcyclopentanecarboxylic acid}$...
2
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21231
$\text{The Kjeldahl method of Nitrogen estimation fails for which of the following reaction products?}$ $\begin{array}{cc} \text{1.} & \text{2.} \\ \text{NO}_2 & \text{CN} \\ \text{Sn/HCl} & \text{LiAlH}_4 \\ \text{3.} & \text{4.} \\ \text{CH}_2\text{CN} & \text{NH}_2 \\ \text{(i) SnCl}_4 + \text{HCl} & \text{NaNO}_2, \text{HCl} \\ \text{(ii) H}_2\text{O} & \end{array}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$(a), (c) \text{ and } (d)$, $(b) \text{ and } (c)$...
4
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21230
$\text{Glycerol is separated in soap industries by:}$ $1.\ \text{Steam Distillation}$ $2.\ \text{Distillation under reduced pressure}$ $3.\ \text{Fractional distillation}$ $4.\ \text{Differential extraction}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Steam Distillation}$, $\text{Distillation under reduced pressure}$...
2
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21229
$\text{The compound that possesses the most acidic hydrogen atom, among the following, is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{C} \equiv \text{C} - \text{H}$, $\text{MeO} \begin{array}{c} \text{O} \\ | \\ \text{C} \\ | \\ \text{H} \\ | \\ \text{C} \\ | \\ \text{O} \\ | \\ \text{OMe} \end{array} \text{O}$...
2
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21228
$\text{In the Carius method of estimation of halogen, } 0.172 \text{g of an organic compound showed the presence of } 0.08 \text{g of bromine. The correct structure of the compound among the following is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\begin{array}{c} \text{NH}_2 \\ \text{Br} \\ \text{(benzene ring)} \end{array}$, $\text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{Br}$...
1
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21227
$\text{The IUPAC name for the following compound is:}$ $\text{(Image of compound with CHO and COOH groups)}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$2,5\text{-Dimethyl-6-carboxy-hex-3-enal}$, $6\text{-Formyl-2-methyl-hex-3-enoic acid}$...
4
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21226
$\text{The false statement among the following is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Carius tube is used in the estimation of sulphur in an organic compound}$, $\text{Carius method is used for the estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound}$...
2
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21225
$\text{Statement I: A mixture of chloroform and aniline can be separated by simple distillation.}$ $\text{Statement II: When separating aniline from a mixture of aniline and water by steam distillation aniline boils below its boiling point.}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is false but Statement II is true.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are false.}$...
4
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21224
$\text{Which of the following compounds is added to the sodium extract before the addition of silver nitrate for testing of halogens?}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Nitric acid}$, $\text{Ammonia}$...
1
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21223
$\text{Use the provided information in the following paper chromatogram.}$ $\text{Figure: Paper chromatography for compounds A and B.}$ $\text{The } R_f \text{ value of A is } Y \times 10^{-1}. \text{ The value of } Y \text{ is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $3$...
3
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21222
$\text{If } 0.450 \text{ grams of an organic compound containing Carbon, Hydrogen }$ $\text{and Oxygen on complete combustion gives } 0.735 \text{ grams CO}_2 \text{ and } 0.45$ $\text{grams of water, then the mass \% of oxygen in the compound is:}$ $\text{(Report your answer to the nearest integer)}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$31$, $49$...
3
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21221
$\text{In thin layer chromatography, which of the following is not used to visualise the separated layer?}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Visualisation agent in the mobile phase}$, $\text{Spraying of suitable reagent}$...
1
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21220
$0.5 \text{ gram of an organic compound gives } 0.4 \text{ gram of dry AgBr ppt.}$ $\text{The percentage of Br in the given organic compound is:}$ $[\text{At. Wt. of Ag}=108, \text{At. Wt. of Br}=80]$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
45 \%, 34 \%...
2
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21219
$\text{The violet coloured complex formed in the Lassaigne's test is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Na}_4[\text{Fe(CN)}_5\text{NOS}]$, $\text{Na}_2[\text{Fe(CN)}_5\text{NO}]$...
1
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21218
$\text{In Duma's method of estimation of nitrogen, } 0.2 \text{ gram of an organic compound gives } 22.4 \text{ ml of nitrogen gas at STP. Percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$20\ \%$, $12\ \%$...
4
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21217
$\text{The order of stability of given carbocations is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A > B > C}$, $\text{C > B > A}$...
3
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21216
$120 \text{ gram of an organic compound on combustion analysis gives } 330 \text{ gram of carbon dioxide and } 270 \text{ gram of water. }$ $\% \text{ by mass of C and H in an organic compound is:}$
2
212
JEE MCQ NEW
$50\% \text{ C and } 50\% \text{ H}$, $60\% \text{ C and } 40\% \text{ H}$...
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21215
$\text{Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, } \text{Al}_2\text{Cl}_6 \text{ in the solid state as well as in the solution of non-polar solvents such as benzene. When dissolved in acidified aqueous solution, it gives:}$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Al}^{3+} + 3\text{Cl}^-$, $[\text{Al}( ext{H}_2\text{O})_6]^{3+} + 3\text{Cl}^-$...
2
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21214
$\text{The structure of diborane (B}_2\text{H}_6\text{) contains:}$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{four 2C-2e}^- \text{ bonds and four 3C-2e}^- \text{ bonds}$, $\text{two 2C-2e}^- \text{ bonds and two 3C-3e}^- \text{ bonds}$...
4
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21213
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement - I}$ $\text{Blood acts as a buffer solution, and its pH is maintained as an acidic buffer.}$ $\text{Statement - II}$ $\text{The pH of blood is regulated by the presence of bicarbonate (HCO}_3^-\text{) and carbonic acid (H}_2\text{CO}_3\text{).}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is false but Statement II is true.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are false.}$...
3
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21212
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ $\text{The stability of } +1 \text{ oxidation state increases down the group in Group-13.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ $\text{The atomic radius of } Ga \text{ is greater than that of } Al.$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$...
4
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21211
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{Gallium (Ga) has a low melting point, so it is used in thermometers.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{A substance having a melting point of 253 K can be measured by a Gallium thermometer.}$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is false but Statement II is true.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are false.}$...
4
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21210
$\text{The correct order of bond strength of}$ $\text{C-C, Si-Si, Ge-Ge, Sn-Sn is:}$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{C-C} > \text{Si-Si} > \text{Ge-Ge} > \text{Sn-Sn}$, $\text{C-C} > \text{Si-Si} > \text{Ge-Ge} \approx \text{Sn-Sn}$...
1
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21209
$\text{Assertion (A): Carbon forms two oxides } \text{CO} \text{ and } \text{CO}_2 \text{ where } \text{CO} \text{ is neutral whereas } \text{CO}_2 \text{ is acidic.}$ $\text{Reason (R): } \text{CO}_2 \text{ will combine with water to give carbonic acid and } \text{CO} \text{ is soluble in water.}$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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21208
$\text{Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behavior is that graphite:}$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{is a non-crystalline substance.}$, $\text{is an allotropic form of diamond.}$...
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21207
$\text{In the structure of silicon dioxide:}$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{There are double bonds between silicon and oxygen atoms.}$, $\text{Silicon atom is bonded to two oxygen atoms.}$...
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21206
$\text{In view of the signs of } \Delta_r G^\circ \text{ for the following reactions:}$ $\text{PbO}_2 + \text{Pb} \rightarrow 2 \text{PbO}, \Delta_r G^\circ < 0$ $\text{SnO}_2 + \text{Sn} \rightarrow 2 \text{SnO}, \Delta_r G^\circ > 0$ $\text{The oxidation states more characteristic for lead and tin are respectively:}$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{For lead } +2, \text{ for tin } +2$, $\text{For lead } +4, \text{ for tin } +4$...
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21205
$\text{The C--C bond length is maximum in:}$ $1.\ \text{C}_{60}$ $2.\ \text{Diamond}$ $3.\ \text{Graphite}$ $4.\ \text{C}_{70}$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{C}_{60}$, $\text{Diamond}$...
2
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21204
$\text{The correct order of catenation is:}$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{C} >> \text{Sn} > \text{Si} \approx \text{Ge}$, $\text{Si} > \text{Sn} > \text{C} > \text{Ge}$...
3
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21203
$\text{The number of pentagons in } \text{C}_{60} \text{ and trigons (triangles) in white phosphorus, respectively, are:}$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$12 \text{ and } 3$, $20 \text{ and } 3$...
4
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21202
$\text{The correct statements among I to III regarding group 13 element oxides are:}$ $\text{(I) Boron trioxide or diboron trioxide is acidic.}$ $\text{(II) Oxides of aluminium and gallium are amphoteric.}$ $\text{(III) Oxides of indium and thallium are basic.}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{I}) \text{ and } (\text{II}) \text{ only}$, $(\text{I}) \text{ and } (\text{III}) \text{ only}$...
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21201
$\text{Diborane (B}_2\text{H}_6\text{) reacts independently with O}_2 \text{ and H}_2\text{O to produce, respectively:}$ $\text{1. H}_3\text{BO}_3 \text{ and B}_2\text{O}_3}$ $\text{2. B}_2\text{O}_3 \text{ and H}_3\text{BO}_3}$ $\text{3. B}_2\text{O}_3 \text{ and [BH}_4\text{]}^-}$ $\text{4. HBO}_2 \text{ and H}_3\text{BO}_3}$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{H}_3\text{BO}_3 \text{ and B}_2\text{O}_3$, $\text{B}_2\text{O}_3 \text{ and H}_3\text{BO}_3$...
2
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21200
$\text{Among the following, the number of halide(s) which is/are inert to hydrolysis is} \underline{\phantom{a}}.$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{BF}_3$, $\text{SiCl}_4$...
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21199
$\text{The correct statement about } \text{B}_2\text{H}_6 \text{ is:}$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{The terminal B--H bonds have less p-character when compared to bridging bonds.}$, $\text{The two B--H--B bonds are not of the same length.}$...
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21198
$\text{Among the following statements, the correct set of statements are:}$ $\text{a. } \text{B}_2\text{H}_6 \text{ is Lewis acid.}$ $\text{b. } \text{B}_2\text{H}_6 \text{ has a planar structure.}$ $\text{c. All B-H Bond lengths are equal in } \text{B}_2\text{H}_6.$ $\text{d. In } \text{B}_2\text{H}_6, \text{ four } 3\text{C} - 2\text{e}^- \text{ bonds are present.}$ $\text{e. } \text{B}_2\text{H}_6 \text{ can be prepared by the reaction of } \text{BF}_3 \text{ and } \text{NaBH}_4.$
2
211
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{a, b, c, d, e}$, $\text{a, e}$...
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21197
$\text{Match the redox reactions in List-I with their corresponding type of redox reaction in List-II.}$ $\text{List-I (Redox Reaction)}$ \begin{array}{ll} \text{(A)} & \text{CH}_4 (g) + 2\text{O}_2 (g) \xrightarrow{\Delta} \text{CO}_2 (g) + 2\text{H}_2\text{O} (l) \\ \text{(B)} & 2\text{NaH} \xrightarrow{\Delta} 2\text{Na} (s) + \text{H}_2 (g) \\ \text{(C)} & \text{V}_2\text{O}_5 (s) + 5\text{Ca} \xrightarrow{} 2\text{V} (s) + 5\text{CaO} (s) \\ \text{(D)} & 2\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 (aq) \xrightarrow{} 2\text{H}_2\text{O} (l) + \text{O}_2 (g) \end{array}$ $\text{List-II (Type of Redox Reaction)}$ \begin{array}{ll} \text{(I)} & \text{Disproportionation reaction} \\ \text{(II)} & \text{Combination reaction} \\ \text{(III)} & \text{Decomposition reaction} \\ \text{(IV)} & \text{Displacement reaction} \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I}$, $\text{A-II, B-I, C-I, D-IV}$...
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21196
$\text{Consider the given standard electrode potentials:}$ $E^0_{\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-}/\text{Cr}^{3+}} = 1.33 \text{ V}$ $E^0_{\text{Cl}_2/\text{Cl}^{-}} = 1.36 \text{ V}$ $E^0_{\text{MnO}_4^{-}/\text{Mn}^{2+}} = 1.51 \text{ V}$ $E^0_{\text{Cr}^{3+}/\text{Cr}} = -0.74 \text{ V}$ $\text{The strongest reducing agent is:}$
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208
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Mn}^{2+}$, $\text{Cr}$...
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21195
$\text{The species given below that does not show a disproportionation reaction is:}$
2
208
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{BrO}^- $, $\text{BrO}_4^- $...
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21194
$\text{Which of the following cannot act as an oxidising agent?}$ $1. \text{MnO}_4^{-}$ $2. \text{SO}_4^{2-}$ $3. \text{N}_3^{-}$ $4. \text{BrO}_3^{-}$
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208
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{MnO}_4^{-}$, $\text{SO}_4^{2-}$...
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21193
$\text{Balance the following chemical equation and choose the option with the correct set of values of } x, y, z, \text{ and } p:$ $x\text{Cl}_2 + y\text{OH}^- \rightarrow z\text{Cl}^- + p\text{ClO}^-$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$x = 1, y = 2, z = 2, p = 1$, $x = y = z = p = 1$...
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21192
$\text{Among the following, how many metal ions act as oxidising agents?}$ $\text{Sn}^{2+}, \text{Sn}^{4+}, \text{Pb}^{4+}, \text{Pb}^{2+}, \text{Tl}^{+}, \text{Tl}^{3+}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $4$...
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21191
$\text{What is the oxidation number of Cl in CaOCl}_2 \text{ (bleaching powder)?}$
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208
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Zero, because it contains Cl}_2$, $-1, \text{ because it contains Cl}^-$...
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21190
$\text{Which of the following processes is happening at the anode (from the options given below)?}$
2
208
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{F}_2 + 2e^- \rightarrow 2\text{F}^-$, $\text{H}^+ + \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_2 + 2e^- \rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{O}$...
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21189
$\text{Which of the following is a redox reaction?}$
2
208
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{NaCl} + \text{KNO}_3 \rightarrow \text{NaNO}_3 + \text{KCl}$, $\text{CaC}_2\text{O}_4 + 2\text{HCl} \rightarrow \text{CaCl}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{C}_2\text{O}_4$...
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21188
$\text{Standard reduction electrode potentials of three metals A, B and C are } +0.5 \text{ V}, -3.0 \text{ V and } -1.2 \text{ V respectively. The reducing power of these metals are:}$
2
208
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{B} > \text{C} > \text{A}$, $\text{A} > \text{B} > \text{C}$...
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21187
$\text{Which one of the following is an example of a disproportionation reaction?}$
2
208
JEE MCQ NEW
$3\text{MnO}_4^{2-} + 4\text{H}^+ \rightarrow 2\text{MnO}_4^- + \text{MnO}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{MnO}_4^- + 4\text{H}^+ + 4e^- \rightarrow \text{MnO}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$...
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21186
$\text{Which of the following can show disproportionation reaction?}$
2
208
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{MnO}_4^-$, $\text{ClO}_4^-$...
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21185
$\text{Given}$ $E^0_{\text{Cr}^{3+}/\text{Cr}} = -0.74 \text{ V}; \ E^0_{\text{MnO}_4^-/\text{Mn}^{2+}} = 1.51 \text{ V}$ $E^0_{\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-}/\text{Cr}^{3+}} = 1.33 \text{ V}; \ E^0_{\text{Cl}_2/\text{Cl}^-} = 1.36 \text{ V}$ $\text{Based on the data given above, strongest oxidizing agent will be -}$
2
208
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Mn}^{2+}$, $\text{MnO}_4^-$...
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21184
$\text{Consider the following reaction:}$ $a\text{Cu} + b\text{HNO}_3 \rightarrow c\text{Cu(NO}_3\text{)}_2 + d\text{NO} + e\text{H}_2\text{O}$ $\text{The values of } a, b, \text{ and } e \text{ in the reaction are, respectively:}$
2
208
JEE MCQ NEW
$3, 8 \text{ and } 4$, $5, 2 \text{ and } 8$...
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21183
$\text{Which of the following reactions is an example of a redox reaction?}$
2
208
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{XeF}_6 + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{XeOF}_4 + 2\text{HF}$, $\text{XeF}_6 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{XeO}_2\text{F}_2 + 4\text{HF}$...
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21182
$\text{Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent?}$ $\text{[Given: } E^\circ_{\text{Cl}_2/\text{Cl}^-} = 1.36\text{V}; E^\circ_{\text{Cr}^{3+}/\text{Cr}} = -0.74\text{V};}$ $E^\circ_{\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-}/\text{Cr}^{3+}} = 1.33\text{V} \text{ and } E^\circ_{\text{MnO}_4^-/\text{Mn}^{2+}} = 1.51\text{V]}$
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208
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Cr}^{3+}$, $\text{Cl}^-$...
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21181
$\text{Given that:}$ $E^\Theta_{\text{O}_2/\text{H}_2\text{O}} = +1.23 \text{ V}; \ E^\Theta_{\text{S}_2\text{O}_8^{2-}/\text{SO}_4^{2-}} = 2.05 \text{ V}$ $E^\Theta_{\text{Br}_2/\text{Br}^-} = +1.09 \text{ V}; \ E^\Theta_{\text{Au}^{3+}/\text{Au}} = +1.4 \text{ V}$ $\text{Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?}$
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208
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{S}_2\text{O}_8^{2-}$, $\text{O}_2$...
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21180
$\text{The reaction of sulphur in an alkaline medium is given below:}$ $\text{S}_8{(s)} + a\text{OH}^-_{(aq)} \rightarrow b\text{S}^{2-}_{(aq)} + c\text{S}_2\text{O}_3^{2-}_{(aq)} + d\text{H}_2\text{O}_{(\ell)}$ $\text{The value of 'a' is:}$
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208
JEE MCQ NEW
$10$, $12$...
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21179
$\text{The oxidation states of transition metal atoms in } \text{K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7, \text{KMnO}_4 \text{ and } \text{K}_2\text{FeO}_4, \text{ respectively, are } x, y \text{ and } z. \text{ The sum of } x, y \text{ and } z \text{ is-}$
2
208
JEE MCQ NEW
$16$, $12$...
3
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21178
$\text{The oxidation states of iron atoms in compounds (A), (B) and (C), respectively, are } x, y \text{ and } z. \text{ The sum of } x, y \text{ and } z \text{ is} \underline{\phantom{answer}}.$ $\text{Na}_4[\text{Fe(CN)}_5\text{NOS}] \quad \text{Na}_4[\text{FeO}_4] \quad [\text{Fe}_2(\text{CO})_9]$
2
208
JEE MCQ NEW
4, 5...
3
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21177
$\text{While titrating dilute HCl solution with aqueous NaOH, which of the following will not be required?}$
2
208
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Clamp and phenolphthalein}$, $\text{Pipette and distilled water}$...
4
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21176
$\text{For a weak acid } \text{HA} \text{ with a degree of dissociation } x, \text{ which of the following gives the correct expression for } (\text{pH} - \text{pK}_a)?$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\log(1+2x)$, $\log\left(\frac{1-x}{x}\right)$...
4
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21175
$\text{For a weak acid } \text{HA} \text{ with a degree of dissociation } x, \text{ which of the following gives the correct expression for } (\text{pH} - \text{pK}_a)?$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\log(1+2x)$, $\log\left(\frac{1-x}{x}\right)$...
4
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21174
$\text{Consider the given reaction:}$ $\text{H}_2(\text{g}) + \text{I}_2(\text{g}) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{HI}(\text{g})$ $\text{If initially only H}_2 \text{ and I}_2 \text{ are present, which graph correctly predicts the attainment of equilibrium?}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1: Molar conc. vs Time with I}_2, \text{H}_2, \text{HI}$, $\text{Graph 2: Molar conc. vs Time with H}_2, \text{I}_2, \text{HI}$...
2
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21173
$\text{Consider the given reaction:}$ $\text{H}_2(\text{g}) + \text{I}_2(\text{g}) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{HI}(\text{g})$ $\text{If initially only H}_2 \text{ and I}_2 \text{ are present, which graph correctly predicts the attainment of equilibrium?}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1: Molar conc. vs Time with I}_2, \text{H}_2, \text{HI}$, $\text{Graph 2: Molar conc. vs Time with H}_2, \text{I}_2, \text{HI}$...
2
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21172
$\text{Consider the following equilibrium reactions along with their respective equilibrium constants:}$ $x \rightleftharpoons y; \; k_1 = 1$ $y \rightleftharpoons z; \; k_2 = 2$ $z \rightleftharpoons w; \; k_3 = 4$ $\text{Now, calculate the overall equilibrium constant } k_{eq} \text{ for the reaction:}$ $x \rightleftharpoons w$ $\text{Choose the correct answer:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$10$, $8$...
2
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21171
$\text{Consider the following equilibrium reactions along with their respective equilibrium constants:}$ $x \rightleftharpoons y ; \ k_1 = 1$ $y \rightleftharpoons z ; \ k_2 = 2$ $z \rightleftharpoons w ; \ k_3 = 4$ $\text{Now, calculate the overall equilibrium constant } k_{eq} \text{ for the reaction:}$ $x \rightleftharpoons w$ $\text{Choose the correct answer:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$10$, $8$...
2
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21170
$\text{Consider the following reaction at equilibrium at a temperature of T Kelvin, with a given equilibrium constant } K_c = 3 \times 10^{-13}:$ $\text{SO}_2 (g) + \frac{1}{2} \text{O}_2 (g) \rightleftharpoons \text{SO}_3 (g)$ $\text{Now, consider the reverse reaction:}$ $2\text{SO}_3 (g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{SO}_2 (g) + \text{O}_2 (g)$ $\text{The equilibrium constant for this reaction is denoted as } K'_c \text{ which}$ $\text{can be expressed as } a \times 10^{+b} \text{ in scientific notation.}$ $\text{What is the value of } a + b?$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
26, 29...
1
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21169
$\text{Consider the following reaction at equilibrium at a temperature of T Kelvin, with a given equilibrium constant } K_c = 3 \times 10^{-13}:$ $\text{SO}_2 (g) + \frac{1}{2} \text{O}_2 (g) \rightleftharpoons \text{SO}_3 (g)$ $\text{Now, consider the reverse reaction:}$ $2\text{SO}_3 (g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{SO}_2 (g) + \text{O}_2 (g)$ $\text{The equilibrium constant for this reaction is denoted as } K'_c \text{ which}$ $\text{can be expressed as } a \times 10^{+b} \text{ in scientific notation.}$ $\text{What is the value of } a + b?$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
26, 29...
1
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21168
$\text{Consider the following equilibrium reaction:}$ $\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 (s) + 3\text{CO}(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{Fe}(s) + 3\text{CO}_2(g)$ $\text{Which of the following will not affect the equilibrium state?}$ $\text{(I) Addition of } \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3$ $\text{(II) Addition of } \text{CO}_2$ $\text{(III) Decreasing the mass of } \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3$ $\text{(IV) Removal of } \text{CO}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{II}) \text{ and } (\text{IV})$, $(\text{I}) \text{ and } (\text{IV})$...
3
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21167
$\text{Consider the following equilibrium reaction:}$ $\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3(s) + 3\text{CO}(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{Fe}(s) + 3\text{CO}_2(g)}$ $\text{Which of the following will not affect the equilibrium state?}$ $\text{(I) Addition of Fe}_2\text{O}_3$ $\text{(II) Addition of CO}_2$ $\text{(III) Decreasing the mass of Fe}_2\text{O}_3$ $\text{(IV) Removal of CO}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{II}) \text{ and } (\text{IV})$, $(\text{I}) \text{ and } (\text{IV})$...
3
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21166
$\text{Consider the following equilibrium reaction:}$ $\text{H}_2 + \text{I}_2 \rightleftharpoons 2\text{HI}$ $\text{At equilibrium, if the number of molecules of } \text{H}_2, \text{I}_2, \text{ and HI are equal, and the equilibrium constant } K_p = t \times 10^{-1}, \text{ the value of } t \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
10.0, 0.01...
1
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21165
$\text{Consider the following equilibrium reaction:}$ $\text{H}_2 + \text{I}_2 \rightleftharpoons 2\text{HI}$ $\text{At equilibrium, if the number of molecules of } \text{H}_2, \text{I}_2, \text{ and HI are equal, and the equilibrium constant } K_p = t \times 10^{-1}, \text{ the value of } t \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$10.0$, $0.01$...
1
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21164
$\text{Decreasing order of Lewis acid character is:}$ $1.\ \text{BF}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BBr}_3 > \text{BI}_3$ $2.\ \text{BI}_3 > \text{BBr}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BF}_3$ $3.\ \text{BF}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BI}_3 > \text{BBr}_3$ $4.\ \text{BI}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BF}_3 > \text{BBr}_3$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{BF}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BBr}_3 > \text{BI}_3$, $\text{BI}_3 > \text{BBr}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BF}_3$...
2
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21163
$\text{Decreasing order of Lewis acid character is:}$ $1.\ \text{BF}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BBr}_3 > \text{BI}_3$ $2.\ \text{BI}_3 > \text{BBr}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BF}_3$ $3.\ \text{BF}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BI}_3 > \text{BBr}_3$ $4.\ \text{BI}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BF}_3 > \text{BBr}_3$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{BF}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BBr}_3 > \text{BI}_3$, $\text{BI}_3 > \text{BBr}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BF}_3$...
2
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21162
$\text{Consider the following reaction}$ $\text{PCl}_5(g) \rightleftharpoons \text{PCl}_3(g) + \text{Cl}_2(g)$ $\text{Select the correct statement about the above equilibrium reaction:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{On adding He gas at constant volume, equilibrium shifts in forward reaction.}$, $\text{On adding He gas at constant pressure, equilibrium shifts in forward reaction.}$...
2
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21161
$\text{Consider the following reaction}$ $\text{PCl}_5(g) \rightleftharpoons \text{PCl}_3(g) + \text{Cl}_2(g)$ $\text{Select the correct statement about the above equilibrium reaction:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{On adding He gas at constant volume, equilibrium shifts in forward reaction.}$, $\text{On adding He gas at constant pressure, equilibrium shifts in forward reaction.}$...
2
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21160
$\text{If the concentration of } \text{H}^+ \text{ ions is increased by a factor of 1000, what will happen to the pH?}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Decreased by 3}$, $\text{Increased by 3}$...
1
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21159
$\text{If the concentration of } \text{H}^+ \text{ ions is increased by a factor of 1000, what will happen to the pH?}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Decreased by 3}$, $\text{Increased by 3}$...
1
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21158
$\text{The pH of the solution obtained by mixing 600 mL of 0.04 M HCl and 400 mL of 0.02 M H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ is:}$ $[\log 4 = 0.6]$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.4$, $5.4$...
3
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21157
$\text{The pH of the solution obtained by mixing 600 mL of 0.04 M HCl and 400 mL of 0.02 M H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ is:}$ $[\log 4 = 0.6]$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.4$, $5.4$...
3
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21156
$\text{A 25 mL buffer solution is prepared by mixing CH}_3\text{COOH of concentration 0.1 M and CH}_3\text{COONa of concentration 0.01 M. If the pH of the solution is 5, then the } pK_a \text{ of CH}_3\text{COOH is:}$ $1. \text{ Four (4)}$ $2. \text{ Five (5)}$ $3. \text{ Six (6)}$ $4. \text{ Seven (7)}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Four (4)}$, $\text{Five (5)}$...
3
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21155
$\text{A 25 mL buffer solution is prepared by mixing CH}_3\text{COOH of concentration 0.1 M and CH}_3\text{COONa of concentration 0.01 M. If the pH of the solution is 5, then the pK}_a\text{ of CH}_3\text{COOH is:}$ $1.\ \text{Four (4)}$ $2.\ \text{Five (5)}$ $3.\ \text{Six (6)}$ $4.\ \text{Seven (7)}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Four (4)}$, $\text{Five (5)}$...
3
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21154
$\text{Consider the following reaction,}$ $\text{H}_2\text{O}(g) \rightleftharpoons \text{H}_2(g) + \frac{1}{2} \text{O}_2(g)$ $\text{If } K_{\text{eq}} = 2 \times 10^{-3} \text{ at 2300 K and the initial pressure of H}_2\text{O}(g) \text{ is 1 atm,}$ $\text{then the degree of dissociation of the above reaction will be } x \times 10^{-2},$ $\text{and the value of } x \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
3, 4...
3
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21153
$\text{Consider the following reaction,}$ $\text{H}_2\text{O}(g) \rightleftharpoons \text{H}_2(g) + \frac{1}{2} \text{O}_2(g)$ $\text{If } K_{\text{eq}} = 2 \times 10^{-3} \text{ at 2300 K and the initial pressure of H}_2\text{O}(g) \text{ is 1 atm,}$ $\text{then the degree of dissociation of the above reaction will be } x \times 10^{-2},$ $\text{and the value of } x \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
3, 4...
3
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21152
$\text{For a hypothetical reaction}$ $\text{A} \rightleftharpoons \text{B} ; \text{K}_{\text{eq}} = 10^2$ $\text{(Use T = 27 °C, R = 8.3 JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}, \ln 10 = 2.3)}$ $\text{If the value of } \Delta G^\circ \text{ for the above reaction is } -x \text{ kJ, the value of } 2x \text{ will be:}$ $\text{(Round off to the nearest integer)}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$11$, $19$...
3
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21151
$\text{For a hypothetical reaction}$ $\text{A} \rightleftharpoons \text{B} ; \text{K}_{\text{eq}} = 10^2$ $\text{(Use T = 27 °C, R = 8.3 JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}, \ln 10 = 2.3)}$ $\text{If the value of } \Delta G^\circ \text{ for the above reaction is } -x \text{ kJ, the value of } 2x \text{ will be:}$ $\text{(Round off to the nearest integer)}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
11, 19...
3
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21150
$\text{pH of 0.005 M calcium acetate (} pK_a \text{ of CH}_3\text{COOH} = 4.74) \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$7.04$, $9.37$...
4
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21149
$\text{pH of 0.005 M calcium acetate (} pK_a \text{ of CH}_3\text{COOH} = 4.74) \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$7.04$, $9.37$...
4
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21148
$\text{An aqueous solution of 1M NaCl and 1M HCl is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{not a buffer but pH} < 7$, $\text{not a buffer but pH} > 7$...
1
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21147
$\text{An aqueous solution of 1M NaCl and 1M HCl is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{not a buffer but pH} < 7$, $\text{not a buffer but pH} > 7$...
1
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21146
$\text{The species, among the following, that act as both Br\"onsted acid and base is/are:}$ $1.\ \text{H}_2\text{PO}_2^- \newline 2.\ \text{HPO}_3^{2-} \newline 3.\ \text{HPO}_4^{2-} \newline 4.\ \text{All of the above}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{H}_2\text{PO}_2^-$, $\text{HPO}_3^{2-}$...
3
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21145
$\text{The species, among the following, that act as both Br\"onsted acid and base is/are:}$ $1.\ \text{H}_2\text{PO}_2^- \newline 2.\ \text{HPO}_3^{2-} \newline 3.\ \text{HPO}_4^{2-} \newline 4.\ \text{All of the above}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{H}_2\text{PO}_2^-$, $\text{HPO}_3^{2-}$...
4
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21144
$\text{The solubility product of } \text{PbI}_2 \text{ is } 8.0 \times 10^{-9}. \text{ The solubility of lead iodide in } 0.1 \text{ molar solution of lead nitrate is } x \times 10^{-6} \text{ mol/L. The value of } x \text{ is:}$ $\text{(Rounded off to the nearest integer) } [\text{Given: } \sqrt{2} = 1.41]$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
154, 423...
4
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21143
$\text{The solubility product of } \text{PbI}_2 \text{ is } 8.0 \times 10^{-9}. \text{ The solubility of lead iodide in } 0.1 \text{ molar solution of lead nitrate is } x \times 10^{-6} \text{ mol/L. The value of } x \text{ is:}$ $\text{(Rounded off to the nearest integer) } [\text{Given: } \sqrt{2} = 1.41]$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
154, 423...
4
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21142
$\text{If 200 mL of 0.01 M HCl is mixed with 400 mL of 0.01 M H}_2\text{SO}_4, \text{ what is the pH of the resulting mixture?}$ $\text{(Given: log 2 = 0.30, log 3 = 0.48, log 5 = 0.70, log 7 = 0.84, log 11 = 1.04)}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.14$, $1.78$...
2
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21141
$\text{If 200 mL of 0.01 M HCl is mixed with 400 mL of 0.01 M H}_2\text{SO}_4, \text{ what is the pH of the resulting mixture?}$ $\text{(Given: log 2 = 0.30, log 3 = 0.48, log 5 = 0.70, log 7 = 0.84, log 11 = 1.04)}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.14$, $1.78$...
2
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21140
$\text{The pH of } 0.001 \text{ M NaOH solution will be:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $11$...
2
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21139
$\text{The pH of } 0.001 \text{ M NaOH solution will be:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $11$...
2
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21138
$\text{Initially 2 moles of } \text{NOCl} \text{ taken in 1 L of closed container and it dissociates into NO and Cl}_2 \text{ gas.}$ $\text{The reaction is as follows:}$ $2\text{NOCl}(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NO}(g) + \text{Cl}_2(g)$ $\text{Calculate the equilibrium constant } K_c \text{ given that 0.4 moles of NO is obtained at equilibrium.}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$142 \times 10^{-4}$, $142 \times 10^{-6}$...
3
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21137
$\text{Initially 2 moles of } \text{NOCl} \text{ taken in 1 L of closed container and it dissociates into NO and Cl}_2 \text{ gas.}$ $\text{The reaction is as follows:}$ $2\text{NOCl}(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NO}(g) + \text{Cl}_2(g)$ $\text{Calculate the equilibrium constant } K_c \text{ given that 0.4 moles of NO is obtained at equilibrium.}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$142 \times 10^{-4}$, $142 \times 10^{-6}$...
3
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21136
$\text{For the reaction equilibrium, } \text{N}_2\text{O}_4(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NO}_2(g), \text{ the concentrations of } \text{N}_2\text{O}_4 \text{ and } \text{NO}_2 \text{ at equilibrium are } 4.8 \times 10^{-2} \text{ and } 1.2 \times 10^{-2} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ respectively. The value of } K_c \text{ for the reaction is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.3 \times 10^{2} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$, $3 \times 10^{-1} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$...
3
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21135
$\text{For the reaction equilibrium, } \text{N}_2\text{O}_4(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NO}_2(g),$ $\text{the concentrations of } \text{N}_2\text{O}_4 \text{ and } \text{NO}_2 \text{ at equilibrium are } 4.8 \times 10^{-2} \text{ and } 1.2 \times 10^{-2} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{The value of } K_c \text{ for the reaction is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.3 \times 10^{2} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$, $3 \times 10^{-1} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$...
3
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21134
$\text{Consider the reaction equilibrium:}$ $2\text{SO}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{SO}_3(g); \quad \Delta H^\circ = -198 \text{ kJ}$ $\text{On the basis of Le-Chatelier's principle, the condition favorable for the forward reaction is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{lowering of temperature as well as pressure}$, $\text{increasing temperature as well as pressure}$...
3
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21133
$\text{Consider the reaction equilibrium:}$ $2\text{SO}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{SO}_3(g); \quad \Delta H^\circ = -198 \text{ kJ}$ $\text{On the basis of Le-Chatelier's principle, the condition favorable for the forward reaction is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{lowering of temperature as well as pressure}$, $\text{increasing temperature as well as pressure}$...
3
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21132
$\text{The equilibrium constant for the reaction}$ $\text{N}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NO}(g)$ $\text{at temperature T is } 4 \times 10^{-4}. \text{ The value of } K_c \text{ for the reaction,}$ $\text{NO}(g) \rightleftharpoons \frac{1}{2} \text{N}_2(g) + \frac{1}{2} \text{O}_2(g) \text{ at the same temperature is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.5 \times 10^2$, $5 \times 10^1$...
2
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21131
$\text{The equilibrium constant for the reaction}$ $\text{N}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NO}(g)$ $\text{at temperature T is } 4 \times 10^{-4}. \text{ The value of } K_c \text{ for the reaction,}$ $\text{NO}(g) \rightleftharpoons \frac{1}{2} \text{N}_2(g) + \frac{1}{2} \text{O}_2(g) \text{ at the same temperature is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.5 \times 10^2$, $5 \times 10^1$...
2
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21130
$\text{The conjugate base of } \text{H}_2\text{PO}_4^- \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{PO}_4^{3-}$, $\text{P}_2\text{O}_5$...
4
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21129
$\text{The conjugate base of } \text{H}_2\text{PO}_4^- \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{PO}_4^{3-}$, $\text{P}_2\text{O}_5$...
4
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21128
$\text{The exothermic formation of ClF}_3 \text{ is represented by the equation:}$ $\text{Cl}_2(g) + 3\text{F}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\ \text{ClF}_3(g); \ \Delta H_r = -329 \ \text{kJ}$ $\text{Which of the following will increase the quantity of ClF}_3 \text{ in an equilibrium mixture of Cl}_2, \text{ F}_2, \text{ and ClF}_3?$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Adding F}_2$, $\text{Increasing the volume of the container}$...
1
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21127
$\text{The exothermic formation of ClF}_3 \text{ is represented by the equation:}$ $\text{Cl}_2(g) + 3\text{F}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2 \text{ClF}_3(g); \quad \Delta H_r = -329 \text{ kJ}$ $\text{Which of the following will increase the quantity of ClF}_3 \text{ in an}$ $\text{equilibrium mixture of Cl}_2, \text{ F}_2, \text{ and ClF}_3?$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Adding F}_2$, $\text{Increasing the volume of the container}$...
1
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21126
$\text{In a closed reaction vessel, Phosphorus pentachloride dissociates as follows:}$ $\text{PCl}_5(g) \rightleftharpoons \text{PCl}_3(g) + \text{Cl}_2(g)$ $\text{If the total pressure at equilibrium of the reaction mixture is } P \text{ and the degree of dissociation of PCl}_5 \text{ is } x, \text{ the partial pressure of PCl}_3 \text{ will be:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{x}{x+1} \right) P$, $\left( \frac{2x}{x-1} \right) P$...
1
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21125
$\text{In a closed reaction vessel, Phosphorus pentachloride dissociates as follows:}$ $\text{PCl}_5(g) \rightleftharpoons \text{PCl}_3(g) + \text{Cl}_2(g)$ $\text{If the total pressure at equilibrium of the reaction mixture is } P \text{ and the degree of dissociation of PCl}_5 \text{ is } x, \text{ the partial pressure of PCl}_3 \text{ will be:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{x}{x+1} \right) P$, $\left( \frac{2x}{x-1} \right) P$...
1
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21124
$\text{The first and second dissociation constants of an acid } \text{H}_2\text{A} \text{ are } 1.0 \times 10^{-5} \text{ and } 5.0 \times 10^{-10} \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{The overall dissociation constant of the acid will be:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$5.0 \times 10^{-5}$, $5.0 \times 10^{15}$...
3
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21123
$\text{The first and second dissociation constants of an acid } \text{H}_2\text{A} \text{ are } 1.0 \times 10^{-5} \text{ and } 5.0 \times 10^{-10} \text{ respectively. The overall dissociation constant of the acid will be:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$5.0 \times 10^{-5}$, $5.0 \times 10^{15}$...
3
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21122
$\text{In a saturated solution of the sparingly soluble electrolyte AgIO}_3$ $\text{(molecular mass = 283) the equilibrium is represented by:}$ $\text{AgIO}_3((s)) \rightleftharpoons \text{Ag}^+((aq)) + \text{IO}_3^-((aq))$ $\text{If the solubility product constant } K_{sp} \text{ of AgIO}_3 \text{ at a given temperature}$ $\text{is } 1.0 \times 10^{-8}, \text{ Calculate the mass of AgIO}_3 \text{ contained in 100 ml of its}$ $\text{saturated solution.}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$28.3 \times 10^{-2} \text{ g}$, $2.83 \times 10^{-3} \text{ g}$...
2
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21121
$\text{In a saturated solution of the sparingly soluble electrolyte AgIO}_3$ $\text{(molecular mass = 283) the equilibrium is represented by:}$ $\text{AgIO}_3\text{(s)} \rightleftharpoons \text{Ag}^+\text{(aq)} + \text{IO}_3^-\text{(aq)}$ $\text{If the solubility product constant } K_{sp} \text{ of AgIO}_3 \text{ at a given temperature}$ $\text{is } 1.0 \times 10^{-8}, \text{ Calculate the mass of AgIO}_3 \text{ contained in 100 ml of its}$ $\text{saturated solution.}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$28.3 \times 10^{-2} \text{ g}$, $2.83 \times 10^{-3} \text{ g}$...
2
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21120
$\text{At 25°C, the solubility product of Mg(OH)}_2 \text{ is } 1.0 \times 10^{-11}. \text{ At which pH, will Mg}^{2+} \text{ ions start precipitating in the form of Mg(OH)}_2 \text{ from a solution of } 0.001 \text{ M Mg}^{2+} \text{ ions?}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$8$, $9$...
3
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21119
$\text{At 25°C, the solubility product of Mg(OH)}_2 \text{ is } 1.0 \times 10^{-11}. \text{ At which pH, will Mg}^{2+} \text{ ions start precipitating in the form of Mg(OH)}_2 \text{ from a solution of } 0.001 \text{ M Mg}^{2+} \text{ ions?}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$8$, $9$...
3
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21118
$\text{The solubility product of silver bromide is } 5.0 \times 10^{-13}. \text{ The quantity of potassium bromide (molar mass taken as } 120 \text{ g mol}^{-1}) \text{ to be added to 1 litre of } 0.05 \text{ M solution of silver nitrate to start the precipitation of AgBr is-}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$5.0 \times 10^{-8} \text{ g}$, $1.2 \times 10^{-10} \text{ g}$...
3
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21117
$\text{The solubility product of silver bromide is } 5.0 \times 10^{-13}. \text{ The quantity of potassium bromide (molar mass taken as } 120 \text{ g mol}^{-1}) \text{ to be added to 1 litre of } 0.05 \text{ M solution of silver nitrate to start the precipitation of AgBr is-}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$5.0 \times 10^{-8} \text{ g}$, $1.2 \times 10^{-10} \text{ g}$...
3
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21116
$\text{In aqueous solution, the ionization constants for carbonic acid are}$ $K_1 = 4.2 \times 10^{-7}$ $\text{and}$ $K_2 = 4.8 \times 10^{-11}$ $\text{The correct statement for a saturated 0.034 M solution of the carbonic acid is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{The concentration of } \text{H}^+ \text{ is double that of } \text{CO}_3^{2-}$, $\text{The concentration of } \text{CO}_3^{2-} \text{ is 0.034 M.}$...
4
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21115
$\text{In aqueous solution, the ionization constants for carbonic acid are}$ $K_1 = 4.2 \times 10^{-7}$ $\text{and}$ $K_2 = 4.8 \times 10^{-11}$ $\text{The correct statement for a saturated 0.034 M solution of the carbonic acid is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{The concentration of } \text{H}^+ \text{ is double that of } \text{CO}_3^{2-}$, $\text{The concentration of } \text{CO}_3^{2-} \text{ is 0.034 M.}$...
4
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21114
$\text{A vessel at 1000 K contains CO}_2 \text{ with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of the CO}_2 \text{ is converted into CO on the addition of graphite. If the total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, the value of K is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.8 \text{ atm}$, $3 \text{ atm}$...
1
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21113
$\text{A vessel at 1000 K contains CO}_2 \text{ with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of the CO}_2 \text{ is converted into CO on the addition of graphite. If the total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, the value of K is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.8 \text{ atm}$, $3 \text{ atm}$...
1
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21112
$\text{If the equilibrium constant } (K_c) \text{ for the reaction}$ $\text{N}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g) \rightarrow 2\text{NO}(g) \text{ at temperature } T \text{ is } 4 \times 10^{-4} \text{ then}$ $\text{what will be the value of } K_c \text{ for the reaction,}$ $\text{NO}(g) \rightarrow \frac{1}{2}\text{N}_2(g) + \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_2(g) \text{?}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.5 \times 10^2$, $4 \times 10^{-4}$...
3
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21111
$\text{If the equilibrium constant } (K_c) \text{ for the reaction}$ $\text{N}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g) \rightarrow 2\text{NO}(g) \text{ at temperature } T \text{ is } 4 \times 10^{-4} \text{ then}$ $\text{what will be the value of } K_c \text{ for the reaction,}$ $\text{NO}(g) \rightarrow \frac{1}{2}\text{N}_2(g) + \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_2(g) \text{?}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.5 \times 10^2$, $4 \times 10^{-4}$...
3
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21110
$\text{The amount of water in litres that must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2, is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.0 \text{ L}$, $9.0 \text{ L}$...
2
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21109
$\text{The amount of water in litres that must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2, is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.0 \ \text{L}$, $9.0 \ \text{L}$...
2
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21108
$\text{The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for the reaction}$ $2\text{A} \rightleftharpoons \text{B} + \text{C is } 2494.2 \text{ J. At a given time, the composition of the reaction mixture is }$ $[\text{A}] = \frac{1}{2}, \ [\text{B}] = 2 \text{ and } [\text{C}] = \frac{1}{2}. \text{ The reaction proceeds in the: [assume } R = 8.314 \text{ J/K/mol; } e^{-1} = 0.37]$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Forward direction because } Q > K_C$, $\text{Reverse direction because } Q > K_C$...
2
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21107
$\text{The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for the reaction}$ $2\text{A} \rightleftharpoons \text{B} + \text{C is } 2494.2 \text{ J. At a given time, the composition of the reaction mixture is }$ $[\text{A}] = \frac{1}{2}, \; [\text{B}] = 2 \; \text{and} \; [\text{C}] = \frac{1}{2}.$ $\text{The reaction proceeds in the: [assume R=8.314 J/K/mol; e}^{-1} = 0.37]}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Forward direction because Q > K}_C$, $\text{Reverse direction because Q > K}_C$...
2
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21106
$\text{The equilibrium constant at 298 K for a reaction A + B} \rightleftharpoons \text{C + D is 100.}$ $\text{If the initial concentration of all the four species were 1 M each,}$ $\text{then equilibrium concentration of D (in mol L}^{-1}\text{) will be:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.182$, $0.818$...
3
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21105
$\text{The equilibrium constant at 298 K for a reaction A + B} \rightleftharpoons \text{C + D is 100.}$ $\text{If the initial concentration of all the four species were 1 M each,}$ $\text{then equilibrium concentration of D (in mol L}^{-1}\text{) will be:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.182$, $0.818$...
3
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21104
$\text{The } pK_a \text{ of a weak acid (HA) and } pK_b \text{ of a weak base (BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4, respectively.}$ $\text{The pH of their salt (AB) solution is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$7.0$, $1.0$...
4
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21103
$\text{The } pK_a \text{ of a weak acid (HA) and } pK_b \text{ of a weak base (BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4, respectively.}$ $\text{The pH of their salt (AB) solution is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$7.0$, $1.0$...
4
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21102
$\text{An aqueous solution contains an unknown concentration of } \text{Ba}^{2+}. \text{When 50 mL of a 1 M solution of } \text{Na}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ is added, BaSO}_4 \text{ just begins to precipitate.}$ $\text{The final volume is 500 mL. The solubility product of BaSO}_4 \text{ is } 1 \times 10^{-10}. \text{ What is the original concentration of Ba}^{2+}?$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \times 10^{-9} \text{ M}$, $2 \times 10^{-9} \text{ M}$...
3
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21101
$\text{An aqueous solution contains an unknown concentration of } \text{Ba}^{2+}. \text{When 50 mL of a 1 M solution of } \text{Na}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ is added, BaSO}_4 \text{ just begins to precipitate. The final volume is 500 mL. The solubility product of BaSO}_4 \text{ is } 1 \times 10^{-10}. \text{ What is the original concentration of Ba}^{2+}?$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \times 10^{-9} \text{ M}$, $2 \times 10^{-9} \text{ M}$...
3
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21100
$\text{An aqueous solution contains 0.10 M } \text{H}_2\text{S} \text{ and 0.20 M HCl. If the equilibrium constant for the formation of } \text{HS}^- \text{ from } \text{H}_2\text{S} \text{ is } 1.0 \times 10^{-7}$ $\text{and that of } \text{S}^{2-} \text{ from } \text{HS}^- \text{ ions is } 1.2 \times 10^{-13} \text{ then the concentration of } \text{S}^{2-} \text{ ions in aqueous solution will be:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \times 10^{-8} \text{ M}$, $3 \times 10^{-20} \text{ M}$...
2
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21099
$\text{An aqueous solution contains 0.10 M H}_2\text{S and 0.20 M HCl. If the}$ $\text{equilibrium constant for the formation of HS}^- \text{ from H}_2\text{S is } 1.0 \times 10^{-7}$ $\text{and that of S}^{2-} \text{ from HS}^- \text{ ions is } 1.2 \times 10^{-13} \text{ then the concentration}$ $\text{of S}^{2-} \text{ ions in aqueous solution will be:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \times 10^{-8} \text{ M}$, $3 \times 10^{-20} \text{ M}$...
2
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21098
$\text{In which one of the following equilibria, } K_p \neq K_c?$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\text{NO}(g) \rightleftharpoons \text{N}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g)$, $2\text{C}(s) + \text{O}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{CO}(g)$...
2
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21097
$\text{In which one of the following equilibria, } K_p \neq K_c?$ $1.\ 2\text{NO}(g) \rightleftharpoons \text{N}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g)$ $2.\ 2\text{C}(s) + \text{O}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{CO}(g)$ $3.\ 2\text{HI}(g) \rightleftharpoons \text{H}_2(g) + \text{I}_2(g)$ $4.\ \text{NO}_2(g) + \text{SO}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons \text{NO}(g) + \text{SO}_3(g)$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\text{NO}(g) \rightleftharpoons \text{N}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g)$, $2\text{C}(s) + \text{O}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{CO}(g)$...
2
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21096
$\text{The molar solubility of Cd(OH)}_2 \text{ is } 1.84 \times 10^{-5} \text{ M in water. The expected solubility of Cd(OH)}_2 \text{ in a buffer solution of pH } = 12 \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.49 \times 10^{-10} \text{ M}$, $1.84 \times 10^{-9} \text{ M}$...
1
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21095
$\text{The molar solubility of Cd(OH)}_2 \text{ is } 1.84 \times 10^{-5} \text{ M in water. The expected solubility of Cd(OH)}_2 \text{ in a buffer solution of pH } = 12 \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.49 \times 10^{-10} \text{ M}$, $1.84 \times 10^{-9} \text{ M}$...
1
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21094
$\text{What is the molar solubility of aluminum hydroxide (Al(OH)}_3\text{) in a 0.2 M sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution?}$ $\text{(Given: solubility product of Al(OH)}_3\text{ is } 2.4 \times 10^{-24})$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \times 10^{-22}$, $3 \times 10^{-19}$...
1
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21093
$\text{What is the molar solubility of aluminum hydroxide (Al(OH)}_3\text{) in a 0.2 M sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution?}$ $\text{(Given: solubility product of Al(OH)}_3\text{ is } 2.4 \times 10^{-24})$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \times 10^{-22}$, $3 \times 10^{-19}$...
1
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21092
$\text{Consider the following statements}$ $\text{a. The correct order of increasing acidic strength}$ $\text{is CH}_4 < \text{NH}_3 < \text{HF} < \text{H}_2\text{O.}$ $\text{b. The ionic product of water is temperature dependent.}$ $\text{c. A monobasic acid with } K_a = 10^{-5} \text{ has a pH = 5. The degree of}$ $\text{dissociation of this acid is 50\%.}$ $\text{The correct statements are:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{a}) \text{ and } (\text{b})$, $(\text{a}), (\text{b}) \text{ and } (\text{c})$...
4
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21091
$\text{Consider the following statements}$ $\text{a. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is } \text{CH}_4 < \text{NH}_3 < \text{HF} < \text{H}_2\text{O.}$ $\text{b. The ionic product of water is temperature dependent.}$ $\text{c. A monobasic acid with } K_a = 10^{-5} \text{ has a pH = 5. The degree of dissociation of this acid is 50\%.}$ $\text{The correct statements are:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{a}) \text{ and } (\text{b})$, $(\text{a}), (\text{b}) \text{ and } (\text{c})$...
4
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21090
$\text{For the reaction, } 2\text{SO}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g) = 2\text{SO}_3(g), \Delta H = -57.2 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ and } K_C = 1.7 \times 10^{16}. \text{ Which of the following statements is incorrect?}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{The equilibrium will shift in the forward direction as the pressure increases.}$, $\text{The addition of inert gas at constant volume will not affect the equilibrium constant.}$...
3
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21089
$\text{For the reaction, } 2\text{SO}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g) = 2\text{SO}_3(g), \Delta H = -57.2 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ and } K_C = 1.7 \times 10^{16}. \text{ Which of the following statements is incorrect?}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{The equilibrium will shift in the forward direction as the pressure increases.}$, $\text{The addition of inert gas at constant volume will not affect the equilibrium constant.}$...
3
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21088
$\text{For the following reactions, equilibrium constants are given below:}$ $\text{S}_{(s)} + \text{O}_2_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{SO}_2_{(g)}; \ K_1 = 10^{52}$ $2\text{S}_{(s)} + 3\text{O}_2_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{SO}_3_{(g)}; \ K_2 = 10^{129}$ $\text{The equilibrium constant for the reaction, } 2\text{SO}_2_{(g)} + \text{O}_2_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{SO}_3_{(g)} \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$10^{154}$, $10^{181}$...
3
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21087
$\text{For the following reactions, equilibrium constants are given below:}$ $\text{S}_{(s)} + \text{O}_2_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{SO}_2_{(g)}; \ K_1 = 10^{52}$ $2\text{S}_{(s)} + 3\text{O}_2_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{SO}_3_{(g)}; \ K_2 = 10^{129}$ $\text{The equilibrium constant for the reaction, } 2\text{SO}_2_{(g)} + \text{O}_2_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{SO}_3_{(g)} \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$10^{154}$, $10^{181}$...
3
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21086
$\text{If solubility product of } \text{Zr}_3(\text{PO}_4)_4 \text{ is denoted by } K_{sp} \text{ and its molar solubility is denoted by } S, \text{ then which of the following relation between } S \text{ and } K_{sp} \text{ is correct?}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$S = \left( \frac{K_{sp}}{216} \right)^{1/7}$, $S = \left( \frac{K_{sp}}{6912} \right)^{1/7}$...
2
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21085
$\text{If solubility product of } \text{Zr}_3(\text{PO}_4)_4 \text{ is denoted by } K_{sp} \text{ and its molar solubility is denoted by } S, \text{ then which of the following relation between } S \text{ and } K_{sp} \text{ is correct?}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$S = \left( \frac{K_{sp}}{216} \right)^{1/7}$, $S = \left( \frac{K_{sp}}{6912} \right)^{1/7}$...
2
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21084
$\text{Given that the equilibrium constant } K_C \text{ at 800 K for the reaction}$ $\text{N}_2(g) + 3\text{H}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NH}_3(g) \text{ is 64. What is the equilibrium constant } K_C$ $\text{at 800 K for the given-below reaction is:}$ $\text{NH}_3(g) \rightleftharpoons \frac{1}{2}\text{N}_2(g) + \frac{3}{2}\text{H}_2(g)}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{4}$, $\frac{1}{8}$...
2
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21083
$\text{Given that the equilibrium constant } K_C \text{ at 800 K for the reaction}$ $\text{N}_2(g) + 3\text{H}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NH}_3(g) \text{ is } 64. \text{ What is the equilibrium constant } K_C \text{ at}$ $800 \text{ K for the given-below reaction is:}$ $\text{NH}_3(g) \rightleftharpoons \frac{1}{2}\text{N}_2(g) + \frac{3}{2}\text{H}_2(g)$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{4}$, $\frac{1}{8}$...
2
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21082
$\text{The correct expression for the following reaction is:}$ $\text{Fe}_2\text{N(s)} + \frac{3}{2}\text{H}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{Fe(s)} + \text{NH}_3\text{(g)}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$K_c = K_p(RT)$, $K_c = K_p(RT)^{-3/2}$...
4
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21081
$\text{The correct expression for the following reaction is:}$ $\text{Fe}_2\text{N(s)} + \frac{3}{2}\text{H}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{Fe(s)} + \text{NH}_3\text{(g)}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$K_c = K_p(RT)$, $K_c = K_p(RT)^{-3/2}$...
4
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21080
$\text{Arrange the following solution in the decreasing order of pOH:}$ $\text{(A). 0.01 M HCl}$ $\text{(B). 0.01 M NaOH}$ $\text{(C). 0.01 M CH}_3\text{COONa}$ $\text{(D). 0.01 M NaCl}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{B}) > (\text{C}) > (\text{D}) > (\text{A})$, $(\text{A}) > (\text{C}) > (\text{D}) > (\text{B})$...
4
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21079
$\text{Arrange the following solution in the decreasing order of pOH:}$ $\text{(A). 0.01 M HCl}$ $\text{(B). 0.01 M NaOH}$ $\text{(C). 0.01 M CH}_3\text{COONa}$ $\text{(D). 0.01 M NaCl}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{B}) > (\text{C}) > (\text{D}) > (\text{A})$, $(\text{A}) > (\text{C}) > (\text{D}) > (\text{B})$...
4
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21078
$\text{For a reaction;} \ X + Y \rightleftharpoons 2Z, \ 1.0 \ \text{mol of} \ X, \ 1.5 \ \text{mol of} \ Y \ \text{and} \ 0.5 \ \text{mol of} \ Z \ \text{were taken in a} \ 1 \ \text{L vessel and allowed to react. At equilibrium, the concentration of} \ Z \ \text{was} \ 1.0 \ \text{mol L}^{-1}. \ \text{The equilibrium constant of the reaction is} \ \frac{x}{15}. \ \text{The value of} \ x \ \text{is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$24$, $13$...
3
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21077
$\text{For a reaction;} \ X \ + \ Y \ \rightleftharpoons \ 2Z, \ 1.0 \ \text{mol of} \ X, \ 1.5 \ \text{mol of} \ Y \ \text{and} \ 0.5 \ \text{mol of} \ Z \ \text{were taken in a} \ 1 \ \text{L vessel and allowed to react. At equilibrium, the concentration of} \ Z \ \text{was} \ 1.0 \ \text{mol L}^{-1}. \ \text{The equilibrium constant of the reaction is} \ \frac{x}{15}. \ \text{The value of} \ x \ \text{is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$24$, $13$...
3
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21076
$\text{For the reaction } \text{A}_{(g)} \rightarrow \text{B}_{(g)}, \text{ the value of the equilibrium constant at } 300 \text{ K and } 1 \text{ atm is equal to } 100.0. \text{ The value of } \Delta_r G \text{ for the reaction at } 300 \text{ K and } 1 \text{ atm in } \text{J mol}^{-1} \text{ is } -xR, \text{ where } x \text{ is:}$ $\text{(R = 8.31 J mol}^{-1} \text{ K}^{-1} \text{ and ln } 10 = 2.3)}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$1400$, $1380$...
2
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21075
$\text{For the reaction } \text{A}_{(g)} \rightarrow \text{B}_{(g)}, \text{ the value of the equilibrium constant at } 300 \text{ K and } 1 \text{ atm is equal to } 100.0. \text{ The value of } \Delta_r G \text{ for the reaction at } 300 \text{ K and } 1 \text{ atm in } \text{J mol}^{-1} \text{ is } -xR, \text{ where } x \text{ is:}$ $\text{(R = 8.31 J mol}^{-1} \text{ K}^{-1} \text{ and ln } 10 = 2.3)}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
1400, 1380...
2
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21074
$\text{If the equilibrium constant for } A \rightleftharpoons B + C \text{ is } K_{\text{eq}}^{(1)}$ $\text{and that of } B + C \rightleftharpoons P \text{ is } K_{\text{eq}}^{(2)}, \text{ the equilibrium constant for } A \rightleftharpoons P \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$K_{\text{eq}}^{(2)} - K_{\text{eq}}^{(1)}$, $K_{\text{eq}}^{(1)} \times K_{\text{eq}}^{(2)}$...
2
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21073
$\text{If the equilibrium constant for } A \rightleftharpoons B + C \text{ is } K_{\text{eq}}^{(1)}$ $\text{and that of } B + C \rightleftharpoons P \text{ is } K_{\text{eq}}^{(2)}, \text{ the equilibrium constant for } A \rightleftharpoons P \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$K_{\text{eq}}^{(2)} - K_{\text{eq}}^{(1)}$, $K_{\text{eq}}^{(1)} \times K_{\text{eq}}^{(2)}$...
2
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21072
$\text{At 1990 K and 1 atm pressure, there are an equal number of Cl}_2 \text{ molecules and Cl atoms in the reaction mixture.}$ $\text{The value of } K_P \text{ for the reaction } \text{Cl}_2{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2 \text{Cl}{(g)} \text{ under the above conditions is } x \times 10^{-1}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $8$...
3
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21071
$\text{At 1990 K and 1 atm pressure, there are an equal number of Cl}_2 \text{ molecules and Cl atoms in the reaction mixture.}$ $\text{The value of } K_P \text{ for the reaction } \text{Cl}_2{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2 \text{Cl}{(g)} \text{ under the above conditions is } x \times 10^{-1}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $8$...
3
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21070
$100 \ \text{mL of} \ 0.1 \ \text{M HCl is taken in a beaker and to it} \ 100 \ \text{mL of} \ 0.1 \ \text{M NaOH is added in steps of} \ 2 \ \text{mL and the pH is continuously measured. Which of the following graphs correctly depicts the change in pH?}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
2
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21069
$100 \text{ mL of } 0.1 \text{ M HCl is taken in a beaker and to it } 100 \text{ mL of } 0.1 \text{ M NaOH is added in steps of } 2 \text{ mL and the pH is continuously measured. Which of the following graphs correctly depicts the change in pH?}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
2
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21068
$\text{An acidic buffer is obtained on mixing:}$ $1.\ 100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{CH}_3\text{COOH and}\ 100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{NaOH.}$ $2.\ 100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{HCl and}\ 200\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{NaCl.}$ $3.\ 100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{HCl and}\ 200\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{CH}_3\text{COONa.}$ $4.\ 100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{CH}_3\text{COOH and}\ 200\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{NaOH.}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{CH}_3\text{COOH and}\ 100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{NaOH.}$, $100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{HCl and}\ 200\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{NaCl.}$...
3
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21067
$\text{An acidic buffer is obtained on mixing:}$ $1.\ 100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{CH}_3\text{COOH and}\ 100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{NaOH.}$ $2.\ 100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{HCl and}\ 200\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{NaCl.}$ $3.\ 100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{HCl and}\ 200\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{CH}_3\text{COONa.}$ $4.\ 100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{CH}_3\text{COOH and}\ 200\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{NaOH.}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{CH}_3\text{COOH and}\ 100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{NaOH.}$, $100\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{HCl and}\ 200\ \text{mL of}\ 0.1\ \text{M}\ \text{NaCl.}$...
3
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21066
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{When Cu (II) and sulphide ions are mixed, they react together extremely quickly to give a solid.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{The equilibrium constant of Cu}^{2+}\text{(aq)} + \text{S}^{2-}\text{(aq)} \rightleftharpoons \text{CuS(s)} \text{ is high because the solubility product is low.}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are False.}$...
4
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21065
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{When Cu (II) and sulphide ions are mixed, they react together extremely quickly to give a solid.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{The equilibrium constant of Cu}^{2+}\text{(aq)} + \text{S}^{2-}\text{(aq)} \rightleftharpoons \text{CuS(s)} \text{ is high because the solubility product is low.}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are False.}$...
4
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21064
$\text{The pH of an ammonium phosphate solution, if the } pK_a \text{ of phosphoric acid and the } pK_b \text{ of ammonium hydroxide are } 5.23 \text{ and } 4.75 \text{ respectively, is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$8$, $6$...
3
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21063
$\text{The pH of an ammonium phosphate solution, if the } pK_a \text{ of phosphoric acid and the } pK_b \text{ of ammonium hydroxide are } 5.23 \text{ and } 4.75 \text{ respectively, is:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$8$, $6$...
3
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21062
$\text{The solubility of Ca(OH)}_2 \text{ in water is:}$ $\text{[Given: } K_{sp} \text{ Ca(OH)}_2 \text{ in water = } 5.5 \times 10^{-6}\text{]}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.77 \times 10^{-6}$, $1.11 \times 10^{-6}$...
3
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21061
$\text{The solubility of Ca(OH)}_2 \text{ in water is:}$ $\text{[Given: } K_{sp} \text{ Ca(OH)}_2 \text{ in water = } 5.5 \times 10^{-6}\text{]}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.77 \times 10^{-6}$, $1.11 \times 10^{-6}$...
3
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21060
$\text{pH of a buffer solution of } \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COOH(aq.)} \text{ and } \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COONa(aq.)} \text{ is 4.}$ $\text{Then, the ratio of } \frac{[\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COO}^-]}{[\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COOH}]} \text{ is-}$ $\text{(Given } K_a = 10^{-5})$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
0.1, 10...
1
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21059
$\text{pH of a buffer solution of } \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COOH(aq.)} \text{ and } \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COONa(aq.)} \text{ is 4.}$ $\text{Then, the ratio of } \frac{[\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COO}^-]}{[\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COOH}]} \text{ is-}$ $\text{(Given } K_a = 10^{-5})$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
0.1, 10...
1
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21058
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ $\text{According to Lewis's concept, H}_2\text{O acts as an amphoteric substance.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ $\text{H}_2\text{O act as an acid on reaction with NH}_3\text{, while it acts as a base on reaction with H}_2\text{S.}$ $\text{In light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$...
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21057
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ $\text{According to Lewis's concept, H}_2\text{O acts as an amphoteric substance.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ $\text{H}_2\text{O act as an acid on reaction with NH}_3, \text{ while it acts as a base on reaction with H}_2\text{S.}$ $\text{In light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
207
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$...
4
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21056
$\text{An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic transformation starting from the point A and coming back to the same point by tracing the path}$ $A \rightarrow B \rightarrow C \rightarrow D \rightarrow A$ $\text{as shown in the three cases below:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$\Delta U \text{ (Case-III)} > \Delta U \text{ (Case-II)} > \Delta U \text{ (Case-I)}$, $\Delta U \text{ (Case-I)} > \Delta U \text{ (Case-II)} > \Delta U \text{ (Case-III)}$...
4
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21055
$\text{Consider the following reactions:}$ $\text{S}_{(g)} + \frac{3}{2} \text{O}_2_{(g)} \rightarrow \text{SO}_3_{(g)} + 2x \text{ kcal}$ $\text{SO}_2_{(g)} + \frac{1}{2} \text{O}_2_{(g)} \rightarrow \text{SO}_3_{(g)} + y \text{ kcal}$ $\text{The heat of formation of } \text{SO}_2_{(g)} \text{ is given by:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2x}{y} \text{ kcal}$, $y - 2x \text{ kcal}$...
2
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21054
$\text{A mixture contains one mole of a monoatomic gas and one mole of a diatomic gas.}$ $\text{What is the ratio of the heat capacities at constant volume } (C_V) \text{ to the heat capacities at constant pressure } (C_P) \text{ for the mixture } \left( \text{i.e. } \frac{C_V}{C_P} \right) ?$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2}{3}$, $\frac{7}{5}$...
1
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21053
$\text{Calculate the magnitude of heat (q) in joules for an isothermal irreversible expansion, where the system expands against an external pressure of } 8 \text{ bar, and the volume increases by } 10 \text{ L.}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$8000 \text{ J}$, $2000 \text{ J}$...
1
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21052
$\text{Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation } (\Delta_f H^\circ) \text{ for } 2 \text{ moles of liquid benzene } (\text{C}_6\text{H}_6_{(l)}) \text{ at } 25^\circ\text{C, based on the given thermodynamic data.}$ $\text{Given Data:}$ $\Delta_c H(\text{C}_6\text{H}_6_{(l)}) = -3264.6 \text{ kJ/mol}$ $\Delta_c H(\text{C}_{(s)}) = -393.5 \text{ kJ/mol}$ $\Delta_f H(\text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)}) = -285.83 \text{ kJ/mol}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$-92.22 \text{ kJ/mol}$, $-46.11 \text{ kJ/mol}$...
3
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21051
$\text{The correct match for the following options is:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List I} & \text{List II} \\ \hline \text{(A) Adiabatic} & \text{(P) } \Delta T = 0 \\ \text{(B) Isothermal} & \text{(Q) Heat exchange is zero} \\ \text{(C) Isochoric} & \text{(R) } \Delta P = 0 \\ \text{(D) Isobaric} & \text{(S) Work done is zero} \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{Q}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{P}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{S}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{R}$, $\text{A} \rightarrow \text{P}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{Q}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{R}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{S}$...
1
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21050
$\text{If the volume of an ideal gas is increased isothermally then its internal energy will be:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Increases}$, $\text{Remains constant}$...
2
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21049
$\text{An athlete is given 100 g of glucose energy equivalent to 1560 kJ to utilize 50 \% of this gained energy in an event. Enthalpy of evaporation of } \text{H}_2\text{O} \text{ is 44 kJ/mol. In order to avoid storage of energy in the body the mass of water (in g) he would perspire is: (Round off to the nearest Integer)}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$325 \text{ g}$, $319 \text{ g}$...
2
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21048
$\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{The first law of thermodynamics has the equation: } \Delta U = q + W$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{The first law of thermodynamics is based on the law of conservation of energy.}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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21047
$\text{If a reaction is non-spontaneous at the freezing point of water but is spontaneous at the boiling point of water, then:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$\Delta H \ +ve \ \Delta S \ +ve$, $\Delta H \ -ve \ \Delta S \ -ve$...
1
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21046
$\text{The internal energy change when a system goes from state A to B is 40 kJ/mol.}$ $\text{If the system goes from A to B by a reversible path and returns to state A by an irreversible path, what would be the net change in internal energy?}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$40 \text{ kJ}$, $> 40 \text{kJ}$...
4
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21045
$\text{Assuming ideal behaviour, the magnitude of } \log K \text{ for the following reaction at } 25^\circ C \text{ is}$ $x \times 10^{-1}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$ $3\text{HC} \equiv \text{CH}_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{C}_6\text{H}_6_{(l)}$ $\left[ \text{Given:}$ $\Delta_f G^\circ (\text{HC} \equiv \text{CH}) = -2.04 \times 10^5 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$ $\Delta_f G^\circ (\text{C}_6\text{H}_6) = -1.24 \times 10^5 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$ $R = 8.314 \text{ J K}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1} \right]$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
860, 875...
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21044
$\text{Identify correct match using Column I \& Column II}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline \text{(i) Spontaneous process} & \text{(a) Isothermal and isobaric process} \\ \text{(ii) } \Delta H^\circ & \text{(b) } \Delta H < 0 \\ \text{(iii) } \Delta T = 0, \Delta P = 0 & \text{(c) } \Delta G < 0 \\ \text{(iv) Exothermic process} & \text{(d) (Bond energy of reactant) - (Bond energy of product)} \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{c d a b}$, $\text{b a c d}$...
1
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21043
$\text{If at 298 K the bond energies of C-H, C-C, C = C and H-H bonds are respectively 414, 347, 615, and 435 kJ mol}^{-1}\text{, the value of enthalpy change for the reaction at 298 K will be:}$ $\text{H}_2\text{C} = \text{CH}_2(g) + \text{H}_2(g) \rightarrow \text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{CH}_3(g)$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$+250 \text{ kJ}$, $-250 \text{ kJ}$...
4
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21042
$\text{Which of the following is the standard enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide (CO), if the standard enthalpies of combustion of carbon (C) and carbon monoxide (CO) respectively are } -393.5 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ and } -283 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}?$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$110.5 \text{ kJ}$, $676.5 \text{ kJ}$...
4
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21041
$\text{An ideal gas expands in volume from } 1 \times 10^{-3} \text{ m}^3 \text{ to } 1 \times 10^{-2} \text{ m}^3 \text{ at 300 K against a constant pressure of } 1 \times 10^5 \text{ Nm}^{-2}. \text{ The work done is:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$-900 \text{ J}$, $-900 \text{ kJ}$...
1
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21040
$(\Delta H - \Delta U)$ \text{ for the formation of carbon monoxide (CO) from its elements at } 298 \text{ K is:} \ (R = 8.314 \text{ JK}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1})$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$-1238.78 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$, $1238.78 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$...
2
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21039
$\text{The enthalpy changes for the following processes are listed below:}$ $\text{Cl}_2(g) \rightarrow 2\text{Cl}(g), 242.3 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$ $\text{I}_2(g) \rightarrow 2\text{I}(g), 151.0 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$ $\text{ICl}(g) \rightarrow \text{I}(g) + \text{Cl}(g), 211.3 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$ $\text{I}_2(s) \rightarrow \text{I}_2(g), 62.76 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$ $\text{Given that the standard states for iodine and chlorine are } \text{I}_2(s) \text{ and } \text{Cl}_2(g), \text{ the standard enthalpy of formation of ICl (g) is:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$-14.6 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $-20.8 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
3
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21038
$\text{Assuming that water vapor is an ideal gas, the internal energy change } (\Delta U) \text{ when 1 mol of water is vaporized at 1 bar pressure and } 100^\circ\text{C, will be:}$ $\text{(Given: Molar enthalpy of vaporization of water at 1 bar and } 373\, \text{K} = 41\, \text{kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ and } R = 8.3\, \text{J mol}^{-1} \text{K}^{-1})$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$4.100\, \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$, $3.7904\, \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$...
3
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21037
$\text{Standard entropy of } \text{X}_2, \text{Y}_2 \text{ and } \text{XY}_3 \text{ are } 60, 40 \text{ and } 50 \text{ J K}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1}, \text{ respectively. For the reaction, }$ $\frac{1}{2} \text{X}_2 + \frac{3}{2} \text{Y}_2 \rightarrow \text{XY}_3 \Delta \text{H} = -30 \text{ kJ, to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$500 \text{ K}$, $750 \text{ K}$...
2
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21036
$\text{The oxidizing power of chlorine in an aqueous solution can be determined by the following parameters:}$ $\frac{1}{2} \text{Cl}_2 (g) \xrightarrow{\Delta_{\text{diss}} H^\circ} \text{Cl} (g) \xrightarrow{\Delta_{\text{eg}} H^\circ} \text{Cl}^- (g) \xrightarrow{\Delta_{\text{hyd}} H^\circ} \text{Cl}^- (aq)$ $\text{The energy involved in the conversion of } \frac{1}{2} \text{Cl}_2 (g) \text{ to } \text{Cl}^- (aq) \text{ will be:}$ $\text{Use the following data:}$ $\Delta_{\text{diss}} H^\circ (\text{Cl}_2) = 240 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$ $\Delta_{\text{eg}} H^\circ (\text{Cl}) = -349 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$ $\Delta_{\text{hyd}} H^\circ (\text{Cl}^-) = -381 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$-610 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $-850 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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21035
$\text{The standard enthalpy of formation of NH}_3 \text{ is } -46.0 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}. \text{ If the enthalpy of formation of H}_2 \text{ from its atoms is } -436 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ and that of N}_2 \text{ is } -712 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}, \text{ the average bond enthalpy of N - H bond in NH}_3 \text{ is:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$-1102 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $-964 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
3
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21034
$\text{For a particular reversible reaction at temperature } T, \Delta H \text{ and } \Delta S \text{ were found to be both } +\text{ve. If } T_e \text{ is the temperature at equilibrium, the reaction would be spontaneous when:}$ $1. \ T = T_e$ $2. \ T_e > T$ $3. \ T > T_e$ $4. \ T_e \text{ is 5 times } T$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$T = T_e$, $T_e > T$...
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21033
$\text{Consider the reaction:}$ $4\text{NO}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g) \rightarrow 2\text{N}_2\text{O}_5(g) \quad \Delta_rH = -111 \text{ kJ}$ $\text{If } \text{N}_2\text{O}_5(s) \text{ is formed instead of } \text{N}_2\text{O}_5(g) \text{ in the above reaction, the } \Delta_rH \text{ value will be:}$ $\text{(Given: } \Delta H \text{ of sublimation for } \text{N}_2\text{O}_5 \text{ is } 54 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1})$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$+54 \text{ kJ}$, $+219 \text{ kJ}$...
3
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21032
$\text{The value of enthalpy change (}\Delta H\text{) for the reaction}$ $\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH}_{(l)} + 3\text{O}_2_{(g)} \rightarrow 2\text{CO}_2_{(g)} + 3\text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)} \text{ at } 27^\circ \text{C is } -1366.5 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}.$ $\text{The value of internal energy change for the above reaction at this temperature will be:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$-1369.0 \text{ kJ}$, $-1364.0 \text{ kJ}$...
2
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21031
$\text{The entropy change involved in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas from a volume of 10 dm}^3 \text{ to a volume of 100 dm}^3 \text{ at 27}^\circ \text{C is:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$38.3 \text{ J mol}^{-1} \text{ K}^{-1}$, $35.8 \text{ J mol}^{-1} \text{ K}^{-1}$...
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21030
$\text{The incorrect expression among the following is -}$ $1. \text{In isothermal process, } W_{\text{reversible}} = -nRT \ln \frac{V_f}{V_i}$ $2. \ln K = \frac{\Delta H^\circ - T \Delta S^\circ}{RT}$ $3. K = e^{-\Delta G^\circ / RT}$ $4. \frac{\Delta G_{\text{system}}}{\Delta S_{\text{total}}} = -T$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$W_{\text{reversible}} = -nRT \ln \frac{V_f}{V_i}$, $\ln K = \frac{\Delta H^\circ - T \Delta S^\circ}{RT}$...
2
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21029
$\text{Given}$ $\text{C}_{(\text{graphite})} + \text{O}_2 (g) \rightarrow \text{CO}_2 (g)$ $\Delta_r H^\circ = -393.5 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$ $\text{H}_2(g) + \frac{1}{2} \text{O}_2 (g) \rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{O}(l)$ $\Delta_r H^\circ = -285.8 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$ $\text{CO}_2( g) + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}(l) \rightarrow \text{CH}_4( g) + 2\text{O}_2( g)$ $\Delta_r H^\circ = +890.3 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$ $\text{Based on the above thermochemical equations, the value of } \Delta_r H^\circ \text{ at } 298 \text{ K for the reaction}$ $\text{C}_{(\text{graphite})} + 2\text{H}_2(g) \rightarrow \text{CH}_4(g) \text{ will be:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$-74.8 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $-144.0 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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21028
$\text{An ideal gas is allowed to expand from 1 L to 10 L against a constant external pressure of 1 bar. The work done in kJ is:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$+10.0$, $-9.0$...
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21027
$\text{Enthalpy of sublimation of iodine is } 24 \text{ cal g}^{-1} \text{ at } 200 \, ^\circ\text{C. If specific heat of } \text{I}_2(\text{s}) \text{ and } \text{I}_2(\text{vap}) \text{ are } 0.055 \text{ and } 0.031 \text{ cal g}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1} \text{ respectively, then enthalpy of sublimation of iodine at } 250^\circ\text{C in cal g}^{-1} \text{ is:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.85$, $22.8$...
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21026
$\text{What is the difference between } \Delta H \text{ and } \Delta U \ (\Delta H - \Delta U) \text{ when the combustion of one mole of heptane(l) is carried out at a temperature T?}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$3RT$, $4RT$...
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21025
$\text{The change in internal energy, } \Delta U, \text{ in kJ, when a spring undergoes compression, with } 10 \text{ kJ of work performed and } 2 \text{ kJ escaping as heat to the surroundings is:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$12$, $-8$...
3
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21024
$\text{What is the change in internal energy for 5 moles of an ideal gas when it undergoes reversible compression from 100 K to 200 K?}$ $\text{(Given } C_V = 28 \text{ J K}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1})$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$\Delta U = 8 \text{ kJ}$, $\Delta U = 14 \text{ kJ}$...
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21023
$\text{Which one of the following equations does not correctly represent the}$ $\text{first law of thermodynamics for the given processes involving an}$ $\text{ideal gas? (Assume non-expansion work is zero)}$ $1.\ \text{Adiabatic process: } \Delta U = -w$ $2.\ \text{Cyclic process: } q = -w$ $3.\ \text{Isothermal process: } q = -w$ $4.\ \text{Isochoric process: } \Delta U = q$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$\Delta U = -w$, $q = -w$...
1
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21022
$\text{If, for a dimerization reaction, } 2\text{A}_{(g)} \rightarrow \text{A}_2{(g)} \text{ at } 298 \text{ K, } \Delta U^\circ = -20 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{, } \Delta S^\circ = -30 \text{ J K}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}\text{, then } \Delta G^\circ \text{ will be:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$-10.4 \text{ kJ}$, $18.9 \text{ kJ}$...
3
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21021
$\text{If, for a dimerization reaction, } 2\text{A}_{(g)} \rightarrow \text{A}_2{(g)} \text{ at } 298 \text{ K, } \Delta U^\circ = -20 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{, } \Delta S^\circ = -30 \text{ J K}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}\text{, then } \Delta G^\circ \text{ will be:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$-10.4 \text{ kJ}$, $18.9 \text{ kJ}$...
3
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21020
$\text{Lattice energy and enthalpy of the solution of NaCl are } 788 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$ $\text{and } 4 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}, \text{ respectively. The hydration enthalpy of NaCl is:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$-780 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $-784 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
2
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21019
$\text{Five moles of an ideal gas at 1 bar and 298 K are expanded into a vacuum till the volume doubles. The work done is:}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$-RT \ln \frac{V_2}{V_1}$, $C_V(T_2 - T_1)$...
3
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21018
$\text{For one mole of an ideal gas, which of these statements must be true?}$ $\text{(I) U and H each depend only on temperature.}$ $\text{(II) Compressibility factor z is not equal to 1.}$ $\text{(III) C}_{p,m} - C_{v,m} = R$ $\text{(IV) dU = C}_{v}\text{dT for any process.}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(I), (III) and (IV)}$, $\text{(I), (II) and (IV)}$...
1
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21017
$\text{The heat of combustion of ethanol into carbon dioxides and water is } -327 \text{ kcal at constant pressure. The heat evolved (in cal) at constant volume and } 27^\circ\text{C (if all gases behave ideally) is:}$ $\text{(R = 2 cal mol}^{-1} \text{ K}^{-1})$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$316 \text{ kcal}$, $326 \text{ kcal}$...
2
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21016
$\text{The internal energy change (in kJ) when 90 g of water undergoes complete evaporation at } 100^\circ\text{C is -}$ $\text{(Given: } \Delta H_{\text{vap}} \text{ for water at } 373 \text{ K} = 41 \text{ kJ/mol, } R = 8.314 \text{ J K}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1})$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$154.5$, $168.5$...
4
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21015
$\text{The average S--F bond energy in kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ of SF}_6 \text{ is:}$ $\text{[The values of standard enthalpy of formation of SF}_6\text{(g), S(g), and F(g) are } -1100, 275, \text{ and } 80 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ respectively.]}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$309 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $313 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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21014
$\text{The reaction of cyanamide, } \text{NH}_2\text{CN}_{(s)} \text{ with oxygen was run in a bomb calorimeter and } \Delta U \text{ was found to be } -742.24 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}. \text{ The magnitude of } \Delta H_{298} \text{(KJ) for the given-below reaction is:}$ $\text{NH}_2\text{CN}_{(s)} + \frac{3}{2} \text{O}_2_{(g)} \rightarrow \text{N}_2_{(g)} + \text{O}_2_{(g)} + \text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)}$ $\text{[Assume ideal gases and } R = 8.314 \text{ J mol}^{-1} \text{ K}^{-1}]}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$741 \text{ KJ}$, $745 \text{ KJ}$...
1
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21013
$\text{Calculate the amount of heat is absorbed for an ideal gas which expands isothermally from 4 litre to 20 litre against the vacuum.}$
2
206
JEE MCQ NEW
$0$, $-50 \text{ kJ}$...
1
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21012
$\text{How many molecules among the following exhibit a non-zero dipole moment?}$ $\text{BeF}_2, \text{BF}_3, \text{H}_2\text{O}, \text{NH}_3, \text{HCl}, \text{CCl}_4$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $6$...
4
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21011
$\text{Match the compounds given in } \text{Column-I} \text{ with their respective}$ $\text{hybridisation which is given in } \text{Column-II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column-I (Compound)} & \text{Column-II Hybridisation} \\ \hline (i) \ \text{PCl}_5 & (a) \ sp^3d^2 \\ (ii) \ [\text{Pt(CN)}_4]^{-2} & (b) \ sp^3d \\ (iii) \ [\text{Co(NH}_3)_6]^{3+} & (c) \ d^2sp^3 \\ (iv) \ \text{BrF}_5 & (d) \ dsp^2 \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Correct matching is:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\begin{array}{cccc} \text{I} & \text{II} & \text{III} & \text{IV} \\ \text{b} & \text{d} & \text{c} & \text{a} \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{cccc} \text{I} & \text{II} & \text{III} & \text{IV} \\ \text{a} & \text{b} & \text{c} & \text{d} \end{array}$...
1
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21010
$\text{Which of the following linear combination of atomic orbitals will lead}$ $\text{to the formation of molecular orbitals in homonuclear diatomic}$ $\text{molecules [internuclear axis in z-direction]?}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$2p_z \text{ and } 2p_x$, $2s \text{ and } 2p_x$...
3
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21009
$\text{Which of the following statements is true with respect to}$ $\text{H}_2\text{O}, \text{NH}_3, \text{and CH}_4?$ $\text{A. The central atoms of all the molecules are sp}^3 \text{ hybridized}$ $\text{B. The H--O--H, H--N--H and H--C--H angles in the above molecules}$ $\text{are 104.5}^\circ, 107.5^\circ \text{ and 109.5}^\circ \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{C. The increasing order of dipole moment is CH}_4 < \text{NH}_3 < \text{H}_2\text{O.}$ $\text{D. Both H}_2\text{O and NH}_3 \text{ are Lewis acids and CH}_4 \text{ is a Lewis base}$ $\text{E. A solution of NH}_3 \text{ in H}_2\text{O is basic. In this solution NH}_3 \text{ and H}_2\text{O act}$ $\text{as Lowry-Bronsted acid and base respectively.}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A, B and C only}$, $\text{C, D and E only}$...
1
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21008
$\text{Match the molecules in List-I based on their classification according to the octet rule with the correct examples in List-II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I (Classification of molecules based on octet rule)} & \text{List-II (Example)} \\ \hline \text{A. Molecules that adhere to the octet rule.} & \text{I. NO, NO}_2 \\ \text{B. Molecules with an incomplete octet} & \text{II. BCl}_3 , \text{AlCl}_3 \\ \text{C. Molecules with incomplete octets with odd electron} & \text{III. H}_2\text{SO}_4 , \text{PCl}_5 \\ \text{D. Molecules with an expanded octet} & \text{IV. CCl}_4 , \text{CO}_2 \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III}$, $\text{A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV}$...
1
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21007
$\text{Which of the following molecules exhibit a square pyramidal geometry?}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{BrF}_5 \text{ \& XeOF}_4$, $\text{SbF}_5 \text{ \& XeOF}_4$...
1
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21006
$\text{Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Experimentally, the oxygen-oxygen bond lengths in } \text{O}_3 \text{ (ozone) are identical and lie between the bond length of an } \text{O}=\text{O} \text{ double bond and an } \text{O}–\text{O} \text{ single bond.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The lone pair-lone pair repulsion between oxygen atoms is the sole reason why the bond length in ozone is shorter than a double bond (O=O) but longer than a single bond (O–O).}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(A) \text{ is True but } (R) \text{ is False}$, $(A) \text{ is False but } (R) \text{ is True}$...
1
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21005
$\text{Match List-I with List-II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I} & \text{List-II} \\ \text{(Species)} & \text{(Hybrid orbitals/Hybridization)} \\ \hline \text{(a) SF}_4 & \text{(i) } sp^3d^2 \\ \text{(b) IF}_5 & \text{(ii) } d^2sp^3 \\ \text{(c) NO}_2^+ & \text{(iii) } sp^3d \\ \text{(d) NH}_4^+ & \text{(iv) } sp^3 \\ & \text{(v) } sp \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv) \text{ and } (d)-(v)$, $(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii) \text{ and } (d)-(v)$...
4
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21004
$\text{Match List-I with List-II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I} & \text{List-II} \\ \text{(Expressions)} & \text{(Property)} \\ \hline \Psi_{MO} = \Psi_A - \Psi_B & \text{I. Dipole moment} \\ \mu = Q \times r & \text{II. Bonding molecular orbital} \\ \frac{N_b - N_a}{2} & \text{III. Anti-bonding molecular orbital} \\ \Psi_{MO} = \Psi_A + \Psi_B & \text{IV. Bond order} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$ $1. \text{A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III}$ $2. \text{A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II}$ $3. \text{A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II}$ $4. \text{A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III}$, $\text{A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II}$...
3
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21003
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{Since electronegativity of F > H, so dipole moment of } \text{NF}_3 > \text{NH}_3.$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{The lone pair dipole in } \text{NH}_3 \text{ is not in the direction of the resultant bond dipole, while in the case of } \text{NF}_3, \text{ the lone pair dipole is in the direction of the resultant bond dipole.}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is false but Statement II is true.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are false.}$...
2
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21002
$\text{Which of the following species have a trigonal bipyramidal shape?}$ $\text{PF}_5, \text{PBr}_5, [\text{PtCl}_4]^{2-}, \text{SF}_6, \text{BF}_3, \text{BrF}_5, \text{PCl}_5, [\text{Fe(CO)}_5]$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{PF}_5, \text{PBr}_5, \text{PCl}_5, \text{and Fe(CO)}_5 \text{ only}$, $\text{BrF}_5, \text{PF}_5, \text{PCl}_5, \text{and PBr}_5 \text{ only}$...
1
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21001
$\text{Which among the following have single unpaired electron?}$ $\text{N}_2, \text{O}_2, \text{CN}^-, \text{O}_2^-, \text{C}_2^{2-}, \text{N}_2^-$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{O}_2, \text{N}_2$, $\text{CN}^-, \text{C}_2^{2-}$...
4
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21000
$\text{The correct Lewis dot structure for the } \text{NO}_2^- \text{ ion is:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$[:\ddot{\text{O}} = \text{N} = \ddot{\text{O}}:]^\ominus$, $[:\ddot{\text{O}} - \ddot{\text{N}} = \ddot{\text{O}}:]^\ominus$...
2
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20999
$\text{How many of the following have zero dipole moment?}$ $\text{H}_2\text{S}, \text{CH}_4, \text{NH}_3, \text{BF}_3, \text{SO}_2, \text{NF}_3$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Two(2)}$, $\text{Five(5)}$...
1
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20998
$\text{Match the molecules in } \textbf{Column-A} \text{ with their corresponding geometries in } \textbf{Column-B.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column-A (Molecule)} & \text{Column-B (Molecular Geometry)} \\ \hline \text{(A) ICl} & \text{(P) T-shape} \\ \text{(B) ICl}_3 & \text{(Q) Pentagonal Bipyramidal} \\ \text{(C) ClF}_5 & \text{(R) Linear} \\ \text{(D) IF}_7 & \text{(S) Square Pyramidal} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $1. \text{A} \rightarrow \text{R}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{P}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{Q}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{S}$ $2. \text{A} \rightarrow \text{R}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{P}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{S}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{Q}$ $3. \text{A} \rightarrow \text{Q}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{S}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{R}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{P}$ $4. \text{A} \rightarrow \text{P}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{R}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{S}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{Q}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{R}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{P}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{Q}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{S}$, $\text{A} \rightarrow \text{R}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{P}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{S}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{Q}$...
2
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20997
$\text{How many of the following compounds exhibit hydrogen bonding?}$ $\text{i.}$ \ \text{Benzene} \ \text{ii.}$ \ \text{H}_2\text{O} \ \text{iii.}$ \ \text{CH}_3\text{OH} \ \text{iv.}$ \ \text{HF} \ \text{v.}$ \ \text{NH}_3 \ \text{vi.}$ \ \text{Phenol with NO}_2 \ \text{vii.}$ \ \text{Phenol with NH}_2 \ \text{viii.}$ \ \text{C}_2\text{H}_6$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Two}$, $\text{Four}$...
3
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20996
$\text{Choose the correct option based on matching.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Hybridization} & \text{Shape} \\ \hline \text{A. } sp^3 & \text{I. Octahedral} \\ \text{B. } sp^3d & \text{II. Tetrahedral} \\ \text{C. } sp^2 & \text{III. Trigonal bipyramidal} \\ \text{D. } sp^3d^2 & \text{IV. Trigonal planar} \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A (I); B (II); C (III); D (IV)}$, $\text{A (II); B (III); C (IV); D (I)}$...
2
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20995
$\text{How many of the following compounds contain a central atom that exhibits } \text{sp}^2 \text{ hybridization?}$ $\text{HCHO, C}_2\text{H}_4, \text{SO}_2, \text{C}_6\text{H}_6, \text{B}_2\text{H}_6, \text{BF}_3, \text{SiO}_2(\text{s}), \text{CH}_2\text{Cl}_2$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $3$...
3
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20994
$\text{Identify the species that exhibits a linear shape from the following options.}$ $\text{1. } \text{I}_3^- \text{2. } \text{I}_3^+ \text{3. } \text{ICl}_3 \text{4. } \text{ICl}_2^+$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{I}_3^-$, $\text{I}_3^+$...
1
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20993
$\text{Consider the } \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ and } \text{O}_2\text{F}_2 \text{ molecules where X and Y are O-O bond length in } \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ and } \text{O}_2\text{F}_2 \text{ respectively. Compare X and Y.}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$X > Y$, $X < Y$...
1
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20992
$\text{Match column I with column II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column-I (Compounds)} & \text{Column-II (number of lone pairs of a central atom)} \\ \hline \text{A. } \text{IF}_7 & \text{P. } 0 \\ \text{B. } \text{ICl}_4^- & \text{Q. } 1 \\ \text{C. } \text{XeF}_2 & \text{R. } 2 \\ \text{D. } \text{XeF}_6 & \text{S. } 3 \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A - P, B - Q, C - R, D - S}$, $\text{A - P, B - R, C - S, D - Q}$...
2
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20991
$\text{Shape of } \text{OF}_2 \text{ molecule is:}$ $1. \text{ Bent}$ $2. \text{ Linear}$ $3. \text{ Tetrahedral}$ $4. \text{ T-Shaped}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Bent}$, $\text{Linear}$...
1
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20990
$\text{How many of the following compounds are odd electron species?}$ $\text{NO}_2, \text{NO}_2^+, \text{ICl}_4^-, \text{BrF}_3, \text{NO}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $0$...
1
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20989
$\text{Find out the magnetic properties of } \text{Li}_2\text{O}, \text{KO}_2, \text{and MgO in that order.}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Diamagnetic, Paramagnetic and Diamagnetic}$, $\text{Paramagnetic, Paramagnetic and Diamagnetic}$...
1
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20988
$\text{Which of the following compound(s) is/are paramagnetic in nature?}$ $\text{(a) NO}_2$ $\text{(b) NO}$ $\text{(c) K}_2\text{O}$ $\text{(d) Na}_2\text{O}_2$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(a) \& (b) \text{ only}$, $(a), (b) \& (c) \text{ only}$...
1
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20987
$\text{The correct statement among the following is:}$ $1.\ \text{When a covalent bond is formed, transfer of electrons takes place}$ $2.\ \text{Pure } \text{H}_2\text{O does not contain any ion}$ $3.\ \text{A bond is formed when attractive forces overcome repulsive forces}$ $4.\ \text{HF is less polar than HBr}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{When a covalent bond is formed, transfer of electrons takes place}$, $\text{Pure } \text{H}_2\text{O does not contain any ion}$...
3
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20986
$\text{Increasing order of bond strength of } \text{O}_2, \text{O}_2^-, \text{O}_2^{2-} \text{ and } \text{O}_2^+ \text{ is:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{O}_2^+ < \text{O}_2 < \text{O}_2^- < \text{O}_2^{2-}$, $\text{O}_2 < \text{O}_2^+ < \text{O}_2^- < \text{O}_2^{2-}$...
4
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20985
$\text{Identify the correct increasing strength of intermolecular H-bonding.}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{HCN} < \text{H}_2\text{O} < \text{NH}_3$, $\text{HCN} < \text{CH}_4 < \text{NH}_3$...
3
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20984
$\text{Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding PCl}_5\text{?}$ $1.\ \text{In PCl}_5,\ \text{axial bonds are longer than equatorial bonds.}$ $2.\ \text{It has a trigonal bipyramidal structure.}$ $3.\ \text{3 chlorine atoms are in the same plane.}$ $4.\ \text{Hybridisation of 'P' is sp}^3d^2.$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{In PCl}_5,\ \text{axial bonds are longer than equatorial bonds.}$, $\text{It has a trigonal bipyramidal structure.}$...
4
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20983
$\text{Match the molecules in Column-I with their corresponding molecular shapes in Column-II.}$ $\text{Column-I (Molecule)} \quad \text{Column-II (Shape)}$ $(i) \ \text{BF}_3 \quad (a) \ \text{T-shape}$ $(ii) \ \text{SF}_4 \quad (b) \ \text{Square planar}$ $(iii) \ \text{XeF}_4 \quad (c) \ \text{See-saw}$ $(iv) \ \text{ClF}_3 \quad (d) \ \text{Trigonal planar}$ $\text{Choose the correct matching sequence:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(i) \ d \quad (ii) \ c \quad (iii) \ b \quad (iv) \ a$, $(i) \ a \quad (ii) \ b \quad (iii) \ c \quad (iv) \ d$...
1
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20982
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: } \text{O}^{2-} \text{ and } \text{Mg}^{2+} \text{ have equal radii.}$ $\text{Statement II: They are isoelectronic species.}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$...
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20981
$\text{Which of the following species has an odd number of electrons?}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{NO}_2$, $\text{N}_2\text{O}$...
1
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20980
$\text{Among the following compounds, how many contain two lone pairs on the central atom?}$ $\text{XeF}_4, \text{H}_2\text{O}, \text{SF}_4, \text{CF}_4$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $1$...
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20979
$\text{Species, among the following, that experience an increase in bond strength upon the removal of an electron are:}$ $\text{(a) } \text{B}_2$ $\text{(b) } \text{NO}$ $\text{(c) } \text{N}_2$ $\text{(d) } \text{O}_2$ $\text{(e) } \text{C}_2$ $\text{Choose the correct option:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(b) and (d)}$, $\text{(a), (b) and (d)}$...
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20978
$\text{The pair of ions that is isoelectronic with } \text{Al}^{3+} \text{ ion is:}$
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204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Mg}^{2+}, \text{O}^{2-}$, $\text{Na}^+, \text{N}^{2-}$...
1
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20977
$\text{The pair of species that has identical shapes among the following is:}$ $1.\ \text{CF}_4,\ \text{SF}_4$ $2.\ \text{XeF}_2,\ \text{CO}_2$ $3.\ \text{BF}_3,\ \text{PCl}_3$ $4.\ \text{PF}_5,\ \text{IF}_5$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{CF}_4,\ \text{SF}_4$, $\text{XeF}_2,\ \text{CO}_2$...
2
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20976
$\text{In the anion HCOO}^- \text{ the two carbon-oxygen bonds are found to be of equal length. What is the reason for it?}$
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204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Electronic orbits of the carbon atom are hybridized}$, $\text{The C = O bond is weaker than the C - O bond}$...
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20975
$\text{Which of the following compounds has the smallest bond angle?}$ $1.\ \text{SO}_2$ $2.\ \text{H}_2\text{O}$ $3.\ \text{H}_2\text{S}$ $4.\ \text{NH}_3$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{SO}_2$, $\text{H}_2\text{O}$...
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20974
$\text{Which of the following sets does not contain isoelectronic species?}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{BO}_3^{3-}, \text{CO}_3^{2-}, \text{NO}_3^{-}$, $\text{SO}_3^{2-}, \text{CO}_3^{2-}, \text{NO}_3^{-}$...
2
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20973
$\text{The molecular shapes of } \text{SF}_4, \text{CF}_4, \text{ and } \text{XeF}_4 \text{ are:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Different with 1, 0, and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atom, respectively}$, $\text{Different with 0, 1, and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atom, respectively}$...
1
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20972
$\text{Lattice energy for an ionic compound relies on:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{The size and charge of the ion.}$, $\text{Packing of ions only}$...
1
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20971
$\text{The molecules/ions that do not contain unpaired electrons among the following is:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{O}_2^{2-}$, $\text{B}_2$...
1
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20970
$\text{The ascending order of polarizing power of the following ions is:}$ $\text{K}^+, \text{Ca}^{2+}, \text{Mg}^{2+}, \text{Be}^{2+}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Mg}^{2+} < \text{Be}^{2+} < \text{K}^+ < \text{Ca}^{2+}$, $\text{Be}^{2+} < \text{K}^+ < \text{Ca}^{2+} < \text{Mg}^{2+}$...
3
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20969
$\text{Which of the following compounds exhibits the highest covalent character?}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{FeCl}_2$, $\text{SnCl}_2$...
3
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20968
$\text{In which of the following pairs the two species are not isostructural?}$ $1.\ \text{PCl}_4^+\ \text{and}\ \text{SiCl}_4$ $2.\ \text{PF}_5\ \text{and}\ \text{BrF}_5$ $3.\ \text{AlF}_6^{3-}\ \text{and}\ \text{SF}_6$ $4.\ \text{CO}_3^{2-}\ \text{and}\ \text{NO}_3^-$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{PCl}_4^+\ \text{and}\ \text{SiCl}_4$, $\text{PF}_5\ \text{and}\ \text{BrF}_5$...
2
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20967
$\text{Arrange the species } \text{Li} , \text{Li}_2 , \text{ and } \text{Li}_2^{+} \text{ in order of increasing stability:}$ $1. \text{Li} < \text{Li}_2^{-} < \text{Li}_2^{+}$ $2. \text{Li}_2 = \text{Li}_2^{+} = \text{Li}_2^{-}$ $3. \text{Li}_2 < \text{Li}_2^{+} < \text{Li}_2^{-}$ $4. \text{Li}_2^{-} < \text{Li}_2^{+} < \text{Li}_2$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Li} < \text{Li}_2^{-} < \text{Li}_2^{+}$, $\text{Li}_2 = \text{Li}_2^{+} = \text{Li}_2^{-}$...
4
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20966
$\text{Total number of lone pair of electrons in } \text{I}_3^- \text{ ion are:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $6$...
3
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20965
$\text{According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following molecules is not expected to be stable?}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{He}_2^{2+}$, $\text{He}_2^{+}$...
4
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20964
$\text{During the change of } \text{O}_2 \text{ to } \text{O}_2^{-}, \text{ the incoming electron that goes to the orbital is:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sigma^*_{2pz}$, $\pi_{2py}$...
4
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20963
$\text{Among the following, the molecule expected to be stabilized by anion formation is: } \text{C}_2, \text{O}_2, \text{NO}, \text{F}_2$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{NO}$, $\text{O}_2$...
3
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20962
$\text{The correct statement about ICl}_5 \text{ and ICl}_4^- \text{ is:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both are isostructural}$, $\text{ICl}_5 \text{ is square pyramidal and ICl}_4^- \text{ is square planar}$...
2
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20961
$\text{The diamagnetic species that has the shortest bond length among the following is-}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{N}_2^{2-}$, $\text{O}_2$...
3
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20960
$\text{The ion that has } sp^3d^2 \text{ hybridization for the central atom is:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$[\text{ICl}_4]^{-}$, $[\text{ICl}_2]^{-}$...
1
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20959
$\text{The compound that has the largest H--M--H bond angle (M=N, O, S, C), is:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{CH}_4$...
2
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20958
$\text{The structure of PCl}_5 \text{ in the solid state is:}$ $1. \text{ Square pyramidal.}$ $2. \text{ Tetrahedral } [\text{PCl}_4]^+ \text{ and octahedral } [\text{PCl}_6]^- $ $3. \text{ Square planar } [\text{PCl}_4] \text{ and octahedral } [\text{PCl}_6]^- $ $4. \text{ Trigonal bipyramidal.}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Square pyramidal.}$, $\text{Tetrahedral } [\text{PCl}_4]^+ \text{ and octahedral } [\text{PCl}_6]^-$...
2
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20957
$\text{The molecule in which hybrid MOs involve only one d-orbital of the central atom is:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{XeF}_4$, $[\text{Ni(CN)}_4]^{2-}$...
2
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20956
$\text{Of the species, NO, NO}^+, \text{NO}_2^+ \text{ and NO}^-, \text{ the one with minimum bond strength is:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{NO}_2^+$, $\text{NO}^+$...
4
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20955
$\text{The shape/structure of } [\text{XeF}_5]^− \text{ and } \text{XeO}_3\text{F}_2, \text{ respectively, are:}$ $1. \text{Pentagonal planar and trigonal bipyramidal}$ $2. \text{Trigonal bipyramidal and pentagonal planar}$ $3. \text{Octahedral and square pyramidal}$ $4. \text{Trigonal bipyramidal and trigonal bipyramidal}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Pentagonal planar and trigonal bipyramidal}$, $\text{Trigonal bipyramidal and pentagonal planar}$...
1
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20954
$\text{Match List-I (Molecules) with List-II (Bond order), and mark the appropriate choice}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I (Molecule)} & \text{List-II (Bond order)} \\ \hline (a) \ \text{Ne}_2 & (i) \ 1 \\ (b) \ \text{N}_2 & (ii) \ 2 \\ (c) \ \text{F}_2 & (iii) \ 0 \\ (d) \ \text{O}_2 & (iv) \ 3 \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct match from the options given below:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(a) \rightarrow (iii), (b) \rightarrow (iv), (c) \rightarrow (i), (d) \rightarrow (ii)$, $(a) \rightarrow (ii), (b) \rightarrow (iv), (c) \rightarrow (iii), (d) \rightarrow (i)$...
1
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20953
$\text{Which pair of oxides are acidic in nature?}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{B}_2\text{O}_3 , \text{CaO}$, $\text{B}_2\text{O}_3 , \text{SiO}_2$...
2
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20952
$\text{In } \text{CH}_2 = \overset{2}{\text{C}} = \overset{3}{\text{CH}} - \overset{4}{\text{CH}_3} \text{ molecule, the hybridization of carbon 1, 2, 3 and 4 respectively are:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{sp}^3, \text{sp}^3, \text{sp}^3, \text{sp}^3$, $\text{sp}^2, \text{sp}^2, \text{sp}^2, \text{sp}^3$...
3
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20951
$\text{The isostructural pairs among the following are:}$ $\text{A. } \text{SO}_4^{2-} \text{ and } \text{CrO}_4^{2-}$ $\text{B. } \text{SiCl}_4 \text{ and } \text{TiCl}_4$ $\text{C. } \text{NH}_3 \text{ and } \text{NO}_3^{-}$ $\text{D. } \text{BCl}_3 \text{ and } \text{BrCl}_3$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{C and D only}$, $\text{A and B only}$...
2
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20950
$\text{According to molecular theory, the species among the following that does not exist is:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{He}_2^{+}$, $\text{He}_2^{-}$...
3
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20949
$\text{Identify the correct statement regarding SF}_4:$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{It has one lone pair at the equatorial position with two lone pair-bond pair repulsion at } 90^\circ.$, $\text{It has one lone pair at the axial position with two lone pair-bond pair repulsion at } 90^\circ.$...
1
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20948
$\text{Match the compounds given in Column-I with their respective}$ $\text{hybridisation which is given in Column-II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column-I (Compound)} & \text{Column-II Hybridisation} \\ \hline (i) \ \text{PCl}_5 & (a) \ sp^3d^2 \\ (ii) \ [\text{Pt(CN)}_4]^{2-} & (b) \ sp^3d \\ (iii) \ [\text{Co(NH}_3)_6]^{3+} & (c) \ d^2sp^3 \\ (iv) \ \text{BrF}_5 & (d) \ dsp^2 \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Correct matching is:}$
2
204
JEE MCQ NEW
$\begin{array}{cccc} \text{I} & \text{II} & \text{III} & \text{IV} \\ b & d & c & a \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{cccc} \text{I} & \text{II} & \text{III} & \text{IV} \\ a & b & c & d \end{array}$...
1
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20947
$\text{The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Li}^+ > \text{Be}^{2+} > \text{Na}^+ > \text{Mg}^{2+}$, $\text{Na}^+ > \text{Li}^+ > \text{Mg}^{2+} > \text{Be}^{2+}$...
2
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20946
$\text{The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na}^+ \text{ will be -}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$-10.2 \text{ eV}$, $+2.55 \text{ eV}$...
4
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20945
$\text{The type of oxide formed by the element among Li, Na, Be, Mg, B and Al that has the least atomic radius is:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A}_2\text{O}_3$, $\text{AO}_2$...
1
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20944
$\text{Which of the following electronegativity order is incorrect?}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Al} < \text{Mg} < \text{B} < \text{N}$, $\text{Al} < \text{Si} < \text{C} < \text{N}$...
1
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20943
$\text{Match List-I with List-II}$ $\text{List-I}$ \begin{array}{ll} (A) & \text{Al}^{3+} < \text{Mg}^{2+} < \text{Na}^{+} < \text{F}^{-} \\ (B) & \text{B} < \text{C} < \text{O} < \text{N} \\ (C) & \text{B} < \text{Al} < \text{Mg} < \text{K} \\ (D) & \text{Si} < \text{P} < \text{S} < \text{Cl} \end{array}$ $\text{List-II}$ \begin{array}{ll} (\text{I}) & \text{Ionisation Enthalpy} \\ (\text{II}) & \text{Metallic character} \\ (\text{III}) & \text{Electronegativity} \\ (\text{IV}) & \text{Ionic radii} \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II}$, $\text{A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I}$...
3
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20942
$\text{The incorrect decreasing order of atomic radii is:}$ $1. \ Mg > Al > C > O$ $2. \ Al > B > N > F$ $3. \ Be > Mg > Al > Si$ $4. \ Si > P > Cl > F$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$Mg > Al > C > O$, $Al > B > N > F$...
3
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20941
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{The first ionization energy of Pb is greater than that of Sn.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{The first ionization energy of Ge is greater than that of Si.}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$...
1
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20940
$\text{The increasing order of the atomic radii of the following elements is:}$ $\begin{array}{ccc} (a) & \text{C} & (b) & \text{O} \\ (c) & \text{F} & (d) & \text{Cl} \\ (e) & \text{Br} \end{array}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$(d) < (c) < (b) < (a) < (e)$, $(a) < (b) < (c) < (d) < (e)$...
4
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20939
$\text{The increasing order of the atomic radii of the following elements is:}$ $\begin{array}{ccc} (a) & \text{C} & (b) & \text{O} \\ (c) & \text{F} & (d) & \text{Cl} \\ (e) & \text{Br} \end{array}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$(d) < (c) < (b) < (a) < (e)$, $(a) < (b) < (c) < (d) < (e)$...
4
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20938
$\text{The ionic radius of Na}^+ \text{ ion is } 1.02 \, \text{Å.}$ $\text{The ionic radii (in Å) of Mg}^{2+} \text{ and Al}^{3+}, \text{ respectively, are:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.68 \text{ and } 0.72$, $1.05 \text{ and } 0.99$...
3
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20937
$\text{Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{As one moves from left to right in a period, the metallic character decreases while the non-metallic character increases.} $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{This trend occurs because ionization enthalpy increases and electron gain enthalpy decreases when moving from left to right in a period.} $\text{In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{(A) is False but (R) is True.}$...
3
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20936
$\text{What is the correct increasing order of ionic radii for the following ions?}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Mg}^{2+} < \text{Na}^+ < \text{F}^- < \text{O}^{2-} < \text{N}^{3-}$, $\text{N}^{3-} < \text{O}^{2-} < \text{F}^- < \text{Na}^+ < \text{Mg}^{2+}$...
1
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20935
$\text{Arrange the following elements in decreasing order of their electron gain enthalpy (magnitude only):}$ $\bullet \ \text{Sulfur} \rightarrow \text{A}$ $\bullet \ \text{Bromine} \rightarrow \text{B}$ $\bullet \ \text{Fluorine} \rightarrow \text{C}$ $\bullet \ \text{Argon} \rightarrow \text{D}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A} > \text{B} > \text{C} > \text{D}$, $\text{D} > \text{C} > \text{B} > \text{A}$...
3
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20934
$\text{Choose the option containing all isoelectronic species:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{N}^{3-}, \text{O}^{2-}, \text{F}, \text{Na}$, $\text{S}^{2-}, \text{Cl}^{-}, \text{K}^{+}, \text{Ca}^{2+}$...
2
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20933
$\text{Select the correct order of magnitudes of the first electron gain enthalpy from the options provided:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Cl} < \text{F}$, $\text{O} < \text{S}$...
2
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20932
$\text{Mark the correct increasing order of the metallic character of the given below elements:}$ $\text{Si, K, Mg, and Be}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Si} < \text{Mg} < \text{Be} < \text{K}$, $\text{Be} < \text{Mg} < \text{Si} < \text{K}$...
3
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20931
$\text{Match the atomic numbers in List I with the corresponding groups in List II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I (Atomic number)} & \text{List-II (Group)} \\ \hline \text{i.} & 52 & \text{P.} & \text{s} \\ \text{ii.} & 37 & \text{Q.} & \text{p} \\ \text{iii.} & 65 & \text{R.} & \text{f} \\ \text{iv.} & 74 & \text{S.} & \text{d} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{i})-\text{Q}, (\text{ii})-\text{P}, (\text{iii})-\text{R}, (\text{iv})-\text{S}$, $(\text{i})-\text{Q}, (\text{ii})-\text{P}, (\text{iii})-\text{S}, (\text{iv})-\text{R}$...
1
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20930
$\text{Consider the elements Mg, Al, S, P, and Si, the correct increasing order of their first ionization enthalpy is:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Mg} < \text{Al} < \text{Si} < \text{S} < \text{P}$, $\text{Al} < \text{Mg} < \text{Si} < \text{S} < \text{P}$...
2
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20929
$\text{A metalloid among the following is:}$ $1.\ \text{Sc}$ $2.\ \text{Pb}$ $3.\ \text{Bi}$ $4.\ \text{Te}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Sc}$, $\text{Pb}$...
4
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20928
$\text{Which of the following is a metalloid?}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{In (Indium)}$, $\text{Te (Tellurium)}$...
2
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20927
$\text{According to the periodic law of elements, the variation in properties of elements is related to their:}$ $1. \text{Atomic masses}$ $2. \text{Nuclear mass}$ $3. \text{Atomic numbers}$ $4. \text{Nuclear neutron-proton number ratio}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Atomic masses}$, $\text{Nuclear mass}$...
3
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20926
$\text{Among } \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3, \text{SiO}_2, \text{P}_2\text{O}_3 \text{ and } \text{SO}_2 \text{ the correct order of acid strength is:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{SO}_2 < \text{P}_2\text{O}_3 < \text{SiO}_2 < \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3$, $\text{SiO}_2 < \text{SO}_2 < \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 < \text{P}_2\text{O}_3$...
4
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20925
$\text{The ion having the highest value of ionic radius among the following is:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Li}^+$, $\text{B}^{3+}$...
3
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20924
$\text{In which of the following arrangements the order is not according to the property indicated against it?}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Li} < \text{Na} < \text{K} < \text{Rb} : \text{Increasing metallic radius}$, $\text{I} < \text{Br} < \text{F} < \text{Cl} : \text{Increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign)}$...
3
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20923
$\text{The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies of the elements}$ $\text{B, P, S and F (lowest first) is:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{F} < \text{S} < \text{P} < \text{B}$, $\text{P} < \text{S} < \text{B} < \text{F}$...
4
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20922
$\text{The correct sequence of increasing the basic nature of the following oxides is:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 < \text{MgO} < \text{Na}_2\text{O} < \text{K}_2\text{O}$, $\text{MgO} < \text{K}_2\text{O} < \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 < \text{Na}_2\text{O}$...
1
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20921
$\text{The correct representation of the first ionization enthalpy for}$ $\text{Ca, Ba, S, Se, and Ar in increasing order, among the following, is:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Ba} < \text{Ca} < \text{Se} < \text{S} < \text{Ar}$, $\text{Ca} < \text{Ba} < \text{S} < \text{Se} < \text{Ar}$...
1
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20920
$\text{The ionic radii (in \AA) of } \text{N}^{3-}, \text{O}^{2-} \text{ and } \text{F}^{-} \text{ are respectively:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.36, 1.40 \text{ and } 1.71$, $1.36, 1.71 \text{ and } 1.40$...
3
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20919
$\text{The element having a greatest difference between its first and second ionization energies, is:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Ca}$, $\text{Sc}$...
3
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20918
$\text{The IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic number 119 would be:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Uue}$, $\text{Une}$...
1
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20917
$\text{The atomic number of Unnilunium is-}$ $1.\ 111$ $2.\ 110$ $3.\ 101$ $4.\ 107$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$111$, $110$...
3
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20916
$\text{The set that contains atomic numbers of only transition elements is:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$21, 32, 53, 64$, $9, 17, 34, 38$...
3
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20915
$\text{Consider the following compounds:}$ $\text{BeO, BaO, Be(OH)}_2, \text{Sr(OH)}_2$ $\text{The amphoteric compound(s) are:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{BeO, BaO}$, $\text{BaO, Be(OH)}_2$...
3
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20914
$\text{The correct order of electron gain enthalpy is:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{S > Se > Te > O}$, $\text{Te > Se > S > O}$...
1
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20913
$\text{Which of the following oxide is basic in nature?}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{SiO}_2$, $\text{CaO}$...
2
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20912
$\text{The correct electronic configuration of an element that is just above the 4th period and belongs to the 16th group:}$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$4s^23d^{10}4p^4$, $2s^22p^4$...
3
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20911
$\text{The number of oxides among the following that exhibit an amphoteric nature is:}$ $\text{(a) } \text{Na}_2\text{O}$ $\text{(b) } \text{As}_2\text{O}_3$ $\text{(c) } \text{NO}$ $\text{(d) } \text{N}_2\text{O}$ $\text{(e) } \text{Cl}_2\text{O}_7$
2
203
JEE MCQ NEW
$0$, $1$...
2
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20910
$\text{The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the 4}^{\text{th}} \text{ orbit is:}$ $\text{(where, } a_0 = \text{radius of 1}^{\text{st}} \text{ orbit)}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\pi a_0$, $8\pi a_0$...
2
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20909
$\text{The correct relation between the radius of 3}^{\text{rd}} \text{ and 4}^{\text{th}} \text{ Bohr orbit for H-atom is:}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{r_3}{r_4} = \frac{16}{9}$, $\frac{r_4}{r_3} = \frac{9}{16}$...
2
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20908
$\text{Consider the following statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{The number of emitted photoelectrons increases with increase in the frequency of incident light.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{The kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons increases with increase in the frequency of incident light.}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is true but Statement II is false.}$, $\text{Statement I is false but Statement II is true.}$...
2
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20907
$\text{Calculate the velocity of the electron in the first orbit of H-atom.}$ $\left(m_e = 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \text{kg}\right)$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.18 \times 10^5 \text{ m/s}$, $2.18 \times 10^6 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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20906
$\text{The angular momentum of an electron in an orbit of radius } R \text{ in a hydrogen atom is directly proportional to } \_\_\_.$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$R$, $\frac{1}{R}$...
4
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20905
$\text{The ratio of the shortest wavelengths in the Lyman and Balmer series of the H-atom is:}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{4}$, $\frac{4}{1}$...
1
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20904
$\text{The shortest wavelength of the Paschen series for H-atom is:}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{9}{R}$, $\frac{16}{R}$...
1
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20903
$\text{Two metals are given:}$ $\text{Metal – 1: Work function} = 4.8 \text{ eV}$ $\text{Metal – 2: Work function} = 2.8 \text{ eV}$ $\text{Photons of wavelength } 350 \text{ nm are incident on both metals separately. Which metal will eject electrons at this wavelength?}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Metal-1 only}$, $\text{Metal-2 only}$...
2
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20902
$\text{Consider the following combination of } n, l, \text{ and } m \text{ values.}$ $\text{(i) } n=3; \ l=0; \ m=0$ $\text{(ii) } n=4; \ l=0; \ m=0$ $\text{(iii) } n=3; \ l=1; \ m=0$ $\text{(iv) } n=3; \ l=2; \ m=0$ $\text{The correct order of energy of the corresponding orbitals for multielectron species:}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$(ii) > (i) > (iv) > (iii)$, $(iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i)$...
2
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20901
$\text{The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom is } 13.6 \text{ eV. What is the ionization energy of a } \text{Li}^{2+} \text{ ion?}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$54.4 \text{ eV}$, $122.4 \text{ eV}$...
2
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20900
$\text{An electron in } \text{Be}^{3+} \text{ goes from } n=4 \text{ to } n=2. \text{ The amount of energy released in eV is:}$ $\text{(Ground state energy of H- atom = 13.6 eV)}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$40.8 \text{ eV}$, $122.4 \text{ eV}$...
1
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20899
$\text{Total number of orbitals that is/are considered as axial orbital(s) is:}$ $p_x, p_y, p_z, d_{xy}, d_{yz}, d_{zx}, d_{x^2-y^2}, d_{z^2}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$8$, $3$...
4
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20898
$\text{Electrons are emitted in a cathode ray tube with a velocity of 1000 m/s. Select the correct statement among the following is:}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{The de Broglie wavelength of an electron is 666.67 nm.}$, $\text{The cathode rays travel from the cathode to the anode.}$...
2
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20897
$\text{A hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs 12.75 eV of energy. The orbital angular momentum of the electron becomes } \frac{nh}{2\pi}. \text{ What is the value of } n?$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $4$...
2
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20896
$\text{The speed of an electron in the 7th orbit is } 3.6 \times 10^6 \text{ m/s, the speed in 3rd orbit is-}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.6 \times 10^6 \text{ m/s}$, $8.4 \times 10^6 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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20895
$\text{The radius of the second orbit of the } \text{Li}^{2+} \text{ ion is } x. \text{ What will be the radius of the third orbit of the } \text{Be}^{3+} \text{ ion?}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{27x}{16}$, $\frac{16x}{27}$...
1
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20894
$\text{The shortest wavelength in the Lyman series of H-atom is } \lambda. \text{ and the longest wavelength in the Balmer series of He}^+ \text{ is } \frac{x\lambda}{5}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$7$, $11$...
4
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20893
$\text{With a ground state energy of } -13.6 \text{ eV for a hydrogen atom, what would be the energy in the second excited state?}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$-6.8 \text{ eV}$, $-3.4 \text{ eV}$...
3
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20892
$\text{According to Bohr's atomic theory:}$ $\text{(A) Kinetic energy of the electron is } \propto \frac{Z^2}{n^2}$ $\text{(B) The product of velocity (v) of electron and principal quantum number (n), } vn' \propto Z^2.$ $\text{(C) Frequency of revolution of the electron in an orbit is } \propto \frac{Z^3}{n^3}.$ $\text{(D) Coulombic force of attraction on the electron is } \propto \frac{Z^3}{n^4}.$ $\text{Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{C}) \text{ Only}$, $(\text{A}) \text{ Only}$...
4
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20891
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \quad n_1 \rightarrow n_2 \quad h\nu = (E_2 - E_1) \text{ absorbs a photon.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \quad n_2 \rightarrow n_1 \quad h\nu = (E_2 - E_1) \text{ = emitted a photon.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below:}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are true.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are false.}$...
1
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20890
$\text{How many sets of quantum numbers are possible?}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline & n & l & m \\ \hline (a) & 2 & 2 & 1 \\ (b) & 3 & 2 & -2 \\ (c) & 3 & 2 & -1 \\ (d) & 2 & 1 & -1 \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$0$, $1$...
4
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20889
$\text{Uncertainty in the position of a moving particle is } 10^{-7} \text{ m and uncertainty velocity is } 2.4 \times 10^{-24} \text{ m/sec, then the mass of a particle is } [X] \times 10^{-5} \text{ kg. The value of } X \text{ is:}$ $\text{[Report your answer to the nearest integer]}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
26, 19...
4
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20888
$\text{The numbers of angular and radial nodes in a 4d orbital are respectively:}$ $\text{1. } 2, 1$ $\text{2. } 1, 2$ $\text{3. } 3, 1$ $\text{4. } 1, 3$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$2, 1$, $1, 2$...
1
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20887
$\text{Consider the ground state of Cr atom (Z=24). The numbers of electrons with the azimuthal quantum numbers, } l=1 \text{ and } 2 \text{ are, respectively:}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$12 \text{ and } 4$, $12 \text{ and } 5$...
2
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20886
$\text{According to Bohr's theory, what is the angular momentum of an electron located in the fifth orbit?}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$25 \frac{h}{\pi}$, $1.0 \frac{h}{\pi}$...
4
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20885
$\text{The wavelength (in nanometer) associated with a proton moving at } 1.0 \times 10^3 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ (Mass of proton = } 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \text{ kg and } h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \text{ Js) is:}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.032 \text{ nm}$, $0.40 \text{ nm}$...
2
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20884
$\text{Given that an electron in an atom moves at } 600 \text{ m/s with an accuracy of } 0.005\%, \text{ what is the level of certainty in locating its position?}$ $\text{(h = } 6.6 \times 10^{-34} \text{ kg m}^2 \text{ s}^{-1}, \text{ mass of electron, } e_m = 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \text{ kg)}:$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.52 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}$, $5.10 \times 10^{-3} \text{ m}$...
3
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20883
$\text{The energy required to break one mole of Cl--Cl bonds in Cl}_2 \text{ is 242 kJmol}^{-1}. \text{ The wavelength of light capable of breaking a single Cl--Cl bond is:}$ $1.\ 494\ \text{nm}$ $2.\ 594\ \text{nm}$ $3.\ 640\ \text{nm}$ $4.\ 700\ \text{nm}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$494\ \text{nm}$, $594\ \text{nm}$...
1
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20882
$\text{A gas absorbs a photon of } 355 \text{ nm and emits at two wavelengths. If one of the emissions is at } 680 \text{ nm, the other is at:}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$1035 \text{ nm}$, $325 \text{ nm}$...
3
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20881
$\text{The electrons identified by quantum numbers } n \text{ and } l \text{ can be placed in order of increasing energy as:}$ $\text{a. } n = 4, l = 1$ $\text{b. } n = 4, l = 0$ $\text{c. } n = 3, l = 2$ $\text{d. } n = 3, l = 1$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$(d) < (b) < (c) < (a)$, $(b) < (d) < (a) < (c)$...
1
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20880
$\text{The energy of an electron is given by } E = -2.178 \times 10^{-18} \text{ J} \left( \frac{z^2}{n^2} \right)$ $\text{Wavelength of light required to excite an electron in a hydrogen atom from level } n = 1 \text{ to } n = 2 \text{ will be:}$ $(h = 6.62 \times 10^{-34} \text{ Js and } c = 3.0 \times 10^8 \text{ ms}^{-1})$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$6.500 \times 10^{-7} \text{ m}$, $8.500 \times 10^{-7} \text{ m}$...
3
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20879
$\text{The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is -}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$5, 1, 0 + \frac{1}{2}$, $5, 1, 1 + \frac{1}{2}$...
4
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20878
$\text{The radius of the second Bohr orbit for hydrogen atom is:}$ $\text{(Planck's Const. } h = 6.6262 \times 10^{-34} \text{ Js; mass of electron } = 9.1091 \times 10^{-31} \text{ kg;}$ $\text{charge of electron } e = 1.60210 \times 10^{-19} \text{ C; permittivity of vacuum } \varepsilon_0 = 8.854185 \times 10^{-12} \text{ kg}^{-1}\text{m}^{-3}\text{A}^2)}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.529 \text{ \AA}$, $2.12 \text{ \AA}$...
2
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20877
$\text{The graph between } |\psi|^2 \text{ and } r \text{ (radial distance) is shown below. This represents:}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{3s orbital}$, $\text{2s orbital}$...
2
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20876
$\text{The quantum number of four electrons are given below:}$ $\begin{array}{l} \text{I. } n = 4, \ l = 2, \ m_l = -2, \ m_s = -\frac{1}{2} \\ \text{II. } n = 3, \ l = 2, \ m_l = 1, \ m_s = +\frac{1}{2} \\ \text{III. } n = 4, \ l = 1, \ m_l = 0, \ m_s = +\frac{1}{2} \\ \text{IV. } n = 3, \ l = 1, \ m_l = 1, \ m_s = -\frac{1}{2} \end{array}$ $\text{The correct order of their increasing energies will be:}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{I < III < II < IV}$, $\text{IV < II < III < I}$...
2
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20875
$\text{A proton and a } \text{Li}^{3+} \text{ nucleus are accelerated by the same potential. If } \lambda_{\text{Li}^{3+}} \text{ and } \lambda_p \text{ denote the de-Broglie wavelengths of } \text{Li}^{3+} \text{ and proton respectively, then the value of } \frac{\lambda_{\text{Li}^{3+}}}{\lambda_p} \text{ is } x \times 10^{-1}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$ $\text{(Rounded off to the nearest integer)}$ $\text{(Mass of } \text{Li}^{3+} = 8.3 \text{ the mass of a proton)}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
4, 6...
3
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20874
$\text{The plots of radial distribution functions for various orbitals of hydrogen atom against 'r' are given below:}$ $\text{a.}$ $\text{b.}$ $\text{c.}$ $\text{d.}$ $\text{The correct plot for 3s orbital is:}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{B})$, $(\text{A})$...
3
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20873
$\text{Using the following statements, identify the correct set of statements:}$ $\text{(i) } n \text{ (principal quantum number) can have values } 1, 2, 3, 4, \ldots$ $\text{(ii) The number of orbitals for a given value of } l \text{ is } (2l+1).$ $\text{(iii) The value of spin quantum numbers is always } \pm \frac{1}{2}.$ $\text{(iv) For } l=5, \text{ the total number of orbitals is } 9.$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$(i), (ii), (iii)$, $(i), (ii), (iv)$...
1
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20872
$\text{Given that the threshold frequency of the metal is } 1.4 \times 10^{15} \text{ sec}^{-1}, \text{ what is the minimum energy required to eject a photoelectron from the metal?}$ $\text{[given: } h = 6.6 \times 10^{-34} \text{ J sec]}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$9.24 \times 10^{-19} \text{ J}$, $9.24 \times 10^{-18} \text{ J}$...
1
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20871
$\text{The total energy of 1 mol of photons in J/mol having } \lambda = 600 \text{ nm is:}$ $\text{Given: } h = 6.62 \times 10^{-34} \text{ J sec, } c = 3 \times 10^8 \text{ m s}^{-1}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \times 10^5 \text{ J/mol}$, $6.64 \times 10^8 \text{ J/mol}$...
1
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20870
$\text{The set of a quantum number that represents degenerate orbitals is:}$ $\begin{array}{l} \text{a. } n = 3, \ell = 2, m = 0, s = -\frac{1}{2} \& n = 3, \ell = 2, m = -1, s = +\frac{1}{2} \\ \text{b. } n = 2, \ell = 1, m = 1, s = -\frac{1}{2} \& n = 3, \ell = 1, m = 1, s = +\frac{1}{2} \\ \text{c. } n = 4, \ell = 2, m = -1, s = \frac{1}{2} \& n = 3, \ell = 2, m = -1, s = \frac{1}{2} \end{array}$
2
202
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{a.}$, $\text{b.}$...
1
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20869
$\text{Ferrous sulphate heptahydrate is used to fortify foods with iron. The amount (in grams) of the salt required to achieve 10 ppm of iron in 100 kg of wheat is:}$ $\text{(Atomic weight: Fe = 55.85; S = 32.00; O = 16.00)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \text{ gram}$, $12 \text{ gram}$...
3
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20868
$\text{If the density of } \text{NaOH solution is } 1.2 \text{ g cm}^{-3}, \text{ find the molality of this solution: (Round off to the nearest integer)}$ $\text{[Given: Atomic masses:}$ $\text{Na : 23.0 u; O : 16.0 u; H : 1.0 u]}$ $\text{[Density of } \text{H}_2\text{O} : 1.0 \text{ g cm}^{-3}]}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$12 \text{ m}$, $18 \text{ m}$...
3
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20867
$\text{The number of significant figures in } 0.00340 \text{ is:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $2$...
4
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20866
$\text{When 10 mL of an aqueous solution of } \text{Fe}^{2+} \text{ ions was titrated in the presence of dil } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ using diphenylamine indicator, 15 mL of 0.02 M solution of } \text{K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ was required to get the end point. The molarity of the solution containing } \text{Fe}^{2+} \text{ ions is } x \times 10^{-2} \text{M. The value of } x \text{ is: (Nearest integer)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$18$, $34$...
1
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20865
$\text{If the concentration of glucose (}\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6\text{) in blood is } 0.72 \text{ g L}^{-1}$ $\text{the molarity of glucose in blood is } \underline{\hspace{1cm}} \times 10^{-3} \text{ M. (Nearest integer)}$ $\text{(Given : Atomic mass of } \text{C} = 12, \text{H} = 1, \text{O} = 16\text{u)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
4, 6...
1
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20864
$\text{The number of atoms in } 8 \text{ g of sodium is } x \times 10^{23}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is (Nearest integer):}$ $\text{[Given: } N_A = 6.02 \times 10^{23} \text{ mol}^{-1}, \text{ Atomic mass of Na } = 23.0 \text{ u]}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.08$, $5.03$...
1
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20863
$\text{Consider the above reaction, the limiting reagent of the reaction and number of moles of NH}_3 \text{ formed respectively are:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{H}_2, 1.42 \text{ moles}$, $\text{H}_2, 0.71 \text{ moles}$...
3
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20862
$\text{Using the rules for significant figures, the correct answer for the expression}$ $\frac{0.02858 \times 0.112}{0.5702}$ $\text{will be:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.005613$, $0.00561$...
2
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20861
$\text{A commercially sold conc. HCl is 35\% HCl by mass. If the density of this commercial acid is 1.46 g/mL, the molarity of this solution is:}$ $\text{(Atomic mass: Cl = 35.5 amu, H = 1 amu)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$10.2 \text{ M}$, $12.5 \text{ M}$...
3
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20860
$\text{The neutralization occurs when } 10 \text{ mL of } 0.1 \text{ M acid 'A' is allowed to react with } 30 \text{ mL of } 0.05 \text{ M base M(OH)}_2. \text{ The basicity of the acid 'A' is:}$ $\text{(M is a metal)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $2$...
3
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20859
$\text{A commercially sold conc. HCl is 35\% HCl by mass. If the density of this commercial acid is 1.46 g/mL, the molarity of this solution is:}$ $\text{(Atomic mass: Cl = 35.5 amu, H = 1 amu)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$10.2 \text{ M}$, $12.5 \text{ M}$...
3
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20858
85
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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20857
$\text{The moles of methane required to produce 81 g of water after complete combustion is } A \times 10^{-2} \text{ mol. The value of } A \text{ is: [nearest integer]}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$240$, $225$...
2
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20856
$\text{CNG is an important transportation fuel. When 100 g CNG is mixed with 208 g oxygen in vehicles, it leads to the formation of } \text{CO}_2 \text{ and } \text{H}_2\text{O and produces a large quality of heat during this combustion, then the amount of carbon dioxide, produced in grams is- [nearest integer]}$ $[\text{Assume CNG to be methane}]$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$148 \text{ g}$, $157 \text{ g}$...
3
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20855
$2.8 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol of CO}_2 \text{ is left after removing } 10^{21} \text{ molecules from its } x \text{ mg sample. The mass of CO}_2 \text{ taken initially is:}$ $\text{(Given: } N_A = 6.02 \times 10^{23} \text{ mol}^{-1})$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$196.2 \text{ mg}$, $98.3 \text{ mg}$...
1
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20854
$\text{Concentrated nitric acid is labelled as } 75\% \text{ by mass. The volume in mL of the solution which contains } 30 \text{ g of nitric acid is:}$ $\text{Given: The density of nitric acid solution is } 1.25 \text{ g/mL}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$45$, $55$...
3
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20853
$\text{A compound consists of } 54.2\% \text{ carbon (C), } 9.2\% \text{ hydrogen (H), and } 36.6\% \text{ oxygen (O) by mass. The molar mass of the compound is } 132 \text{ g/mol.}$ $\text{Determine the molecular formula of the compound.}$ $\text{(Given -Relative atomic masses: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{C}_4\text{H}_9\text{O}_3$, $\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6$...
3
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20852
$\text{NaClO}_3 \text{ is used, even in spacecrafts, to produce } \text{O}_2 . \text{ The daily consumption of pure } \text{O}_2 \text{ by a person is } 492 \text{ L at } 1 \text{ atm, } 300 \text{ K. How much amount of NaClO}_3 , \text{ in grams, is required to produce } \text{O}_2 \text{ for the daily consumption of a person at } 1 \text{ atm, } 300 \text{ K?}$ $\text{NaClO}_3(\text{s}) + \text{Fe(s)} \rightarrow \text{O}_2(\text{g}) + \text{NaCl(s)} + \text{FeO(s)}$ $R = 0.082 \text{ L atm mol}^{-1} \text{ K}^{-1}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$2130 \text{ gm}$, $106.5 \text{ gm}$...
1
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20851
$\text{The volume in mL of } 0.125 \text{ M AgNO}_3 \text{ required to quantitatively}$ $\text{precipitate chloride ions in } 0.3 \text{ g of } [\text{Co(NH}_3\text{)}_6] \text{Cl}_3 \text{ is:}$ $\text{Molecular Mass of } [\text{Co(NH}_3\text{)}_6] \text{Cl}_3 = 267.46 \text{ g/mol}$ $\text{and } \text{AgNO}_3 = 169.87 \text{ g/mol}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
12.36, 26.92...
2
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20850
$\text{When } 35 \text{ mL of } 0.15 \text{ M lead nitrate solution is mixed with } 20 \text{ mL of } 0.12 \text{ M chromic sulphate solution, } x \times 10^{-5} \text{ moles of lead sulfate precipitate out. Calculate the value of } x. \text{ (Round off to the Nearest Integer)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$525$, $124$...
1
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20849
$\text{If the number of chlorine atoms in } 20 \text{ mL of chlorine gas at STP is } x \times 10^{21}. \text{ Find the value of } x:$ $\text{[Note: Assume chlorine is an ideal gas at STP]}$ $\text{[Given: } R = 0.083 \text{ L bar mol}^{-1} \text{ K}^{-1}, N_A = 6.023 \times 10^{23}]$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
1.0755, 2.3456...
1
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20848
$\text{Consider the complete combustion of butane, the amount of butane utilized to produce } 72.0 \text{ g of water is} \ldots \times 10^{-1} \text{ g. (in nearest integer)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$464$, $345$...
1
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20847
$\text{Methylation of 10 g of benzene gave 9.2 g of toluene.}$ $\text{Calculate the percentage yield of toluene (Nearest integer).}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$52\%$, $78\%$...
2
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20846
$\text{If 4 g equimolar mixture of NaOH and Na}_2\text{CO}_3 \text{ contains } x \text{ g of NaOH and } y \text{ g of Na}_2\text{CO}_3, \text{ then find the value of } x \text{ in grams:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.562$, $9.354$...
3
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20845
$250 \text{ mL of } 0.5 \text{ M NaOH was added to } 500 \text{ mL of } 1 \text{ M HCl.}$ $\text{The number of unreacted HCl molecules in the solution after complete reaction is } x \times 10^{21}. \text{ Find the value of } x \text{ (Nearest integer).}$ $\left( N_A = 6.022 \times 10^{23} \right)$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
256, 465...
3
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20844
$\text{Consider the reaction}$ $4\text{HNO}_3(\text{l}) + 3\text{KCl}(\text{s}) \rightarrow \text{Cl}_2(\text{g}) + \text{NOCl}(\text{g}) + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}(\text{g}) + 3\text{KNO}_3(\text{s})$ $\text{The amount of HNO}_3 \text{ required to produce 110.0 g of KNO}_3 \text{ is:}$ $\text{(Given: Atomic masses of H, O, N and K are 1, 16, 14 and 39 respectively).}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$32.2 \text{ g}$, $69.4 \text{ g}$...
3
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20843
70
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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20842
$\text{Haemoglobin contains } 0.34\% \text{ of iron by mass. The number of Fe atoms in } 3.3 \text{ g of haemoglobin is:}$ $\left( \text{Given : Atomic mass of Fe is } 56u, N_A = 6.022 \times 10^{23} \text{ mol}^{-1} \right)$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.21 \times 10^5$, $12.0 \times 10^{16}$...
3
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20841
$\text{Compound A contains 8.7\% Hydrogen, 74\% Carbon and 17.3\% Nitrogen. The molecular formula of the compound is:}$ $\text{(Given: Atomic masses of C, H and N are 12, 1 and 14 amu respectively. The molar mass of the compound A is 162 g mol}^{-1})$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{C}_4\text{H}_6\text{N}_2$, $\text{C}_2\text{H}_3\text{N}$...
4
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20840
$\text{Two elements A and B which form 0.15 moles of A}_2\text{B and AB}_3 \text{ type compounds. If both A}_2\text{B and AB}_3 \text{ weigh equally, then the atomic weight of A is how many times that of B?}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$8 \text{ times}$, $5 \text{ times}$...
4
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20839
$120 \text{ g of an organic compound that contains only carbon and hydrogen gives } 330 \text{ g of } \text{CO}_2 \text{ and } 270 \text{ g of water on complete combustion. The percentage of carbon and hydrogen, respectively are:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$25 \text{ and } 75$, $40 \text{ and } 60$...
4
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20838
$\text{Two elements A and B which form } 0.15 \text{ moles of } \text{A}_2\text{B} \text{ and } \text{AB}_3 \text{ type compounds.}$ $\text{If both } \text{A}_2\text{B} \text{ and } \text{AB}_3 \text{ weigh equally, then the atomic weight of A is how many times that of B?}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$8 \text{ times}$, $5 \text{ times}$...
4
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20837
$\text{The neutralization occurs when } 10 \text{ mL of } 0.1\text{M acid 'A' is allowed to react with } 30 \text{ mL of } 0.05 \text{ M base } \text{M(OH)}_2. \text{ The basicity of the acid 'A' is:}$ $\text{(M is a metal)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $2$...
3
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20836
$\text{For a rocket running on fuel (C}_{15}\text{H}_{30}\text{) and liquid oxygen, how much oxygen is required, and}$ $\text{how much CO}_{2}\text{ is released for every liter of fuel, respectively? (Given:}$ $\text{density of the fuel is 0.756 g/mL))}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$1188 \text{ g and } 1296 \text{ g}$, $2376 \text{ g and } 2592 \text{ g}$...
3
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20835
$\text{If 84g of NaOH (aq) is present in a 3 molar solution, find volume of solution (in mL).}$ $\text{1. 800}$ $\text{2. 700}$ $\text{3. 400}$ $\text{4. 500}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$800$, $700$...
2
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20834
$\text{The quantity that changes with temperature:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Mole fraction}$, $\text{Mass percentage}$...
3
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20833
$\text{Calculate mass of } \text{CH}_4 \text{ consumed for the formation of } 22 \text{ g } \text{CO}_2.$ $\text{CH}_4 + 2\text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{CO}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$8$, $1$...
1
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20832
$\text{Find out molality of } 0.8 \text{ M } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ solution having density of solution equal to } 1.02 \text{ gm/ml (Nearest integer)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$0$, $1$...
2
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20831
$50 \text{ ml of } 0.5 \text{ M oxalic acid is completely Neutralised by } 25 \text{ ml of NaOH solution.}$ $\text{Calculate the amount of NaOH (in gm) present in } 25 \text{ ml of given NaOH solution.}$ $1. \ 5$ $2. \ 2$ $3. \ 6$ $4. \ 9$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $2$...
2
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20830
$250 \text{ mL solution of } \text{CH}_3\text{COONa of molarity } 0.35 \text{ M is prepared.}$ $\text{What is the mass of } \text{CH}_3\text{COONa required in grams? (Nearest integer)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Nine (9)}$, $\text{Seven (7)}$...
2
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20829
$\text{The number of atoms in a silver plate having area } 0.05 \text{ cm}^2 \text{ and thickness } 0.05 \text{ cm is } x \times 10^{19}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$ $\text{(Density of silver is } 7.9 \text{ g/cm}^3)$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$88$, $90$...
3
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20828
$C$ \text{ is added to a solution of } $A$ \text{ and } $B$. \text{ Find mole fraction of } $C$.
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{n_C}{n_A + n_B + n_C}$, $\frac{n_C}{n_A \cdot n_B + n_C}$...
1
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20827
$\text{Moles of } \text{CH}_4 \text{ required for the formation of 22 gm of } \text{CO}_2 \text{ is }$ $m \times 10^{-2}.$ $\text{The value of } m \text{ is:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$50$, $67$...
1
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20826
$\text{Find out moles of precipitate product formed when } 72 \text{ moles of } \text{PbCl}_2 \text{ reacts with } 50 \text{ moles of } (\text{NH}_4)_2\text{SO}_4.$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$69$, $50$...
2
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20825
$\text{Calculate the molality of 500 mL solution of } \text{CuSO}_4 \text{ having density of } 1.25 \text{ g mL}^{-1} \text{ and having molarity } 2 \times 10^{-1} \text{ M at } 32^\circ \text{C.}$ $\text{What is the value of } x \text{ if the molality calculated is } x \times 10^{-2} \text{ molal?}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$16$, $19$...
1
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20824
$\text{Molality of aqueous solution of urea is } 4.44 \text{ m. Then mole fraction of urea is } x \times 10^{-3}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$67$, $74$...
2
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20823
$\text{Find the mass (in g) of } \text{O}_2 \text{ required for the complete combustion of } 900 \text{ g glucose.}$ $1. \ 960$ $2. \ 800$ $3. \ 500$ $4. \ 780$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$960$, $800$...
1
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20822
$x \text{ g of ethylamine on reaction with } \text{NaNO}_2 \text{ and HCl, produces } 2.24 \text{ L of } \text{N}_2(g) \text{ at NTP. The value of } 2x \text{ will be:}$ $1. \ 8$ $2. \ 6$ $3. \ 0$ $4. \ 9$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$8$, $6$...
4
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20821
$\text{Calculate the molarity of NaCl solution, if 5.85 g of NaCl is dissolved in 500 ml of solution.}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.1 \text{ M}$, $0.2 \text{ M}$...
2
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20820
$\text{We are provided with the graph depicting the relationship between}$ $\text{pressure (P) and temperature (T).}$ $\rho = \text{density}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\rho_1 > \rho_2 > \rho_3$, $\rho_1 < \rho_2 < \rho_3$...
1
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20819
$\text{Which of the following statements is incorrect?}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{In a homogeneous mixture, the composition is uniform.}$, $\text{Compounds are formed when atoms of different elements combine together in any ratio.}$...
2
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20818
$\text{If } \text{C} = 42.1\%, \text{H} = 6.4\%, \text{O} = 52.5\% \text{ and molar mass is } 342 \text{ g/mol, then the molecular formula of that compound is:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{C}_{11}\text{H}_{22}\text{O}_{12}$, $\text{C}_{12}\text{H}_{22}\text{O}_{11}$...
2
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20817
$\text{Consider the following combustion reaction:}$ $\text{CH}_4 + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O}$ $\text{How many moles of methane (CH}_4\text{) will be required for the formation of 11 g of carbon dioxide (CO}_2\text{)?}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
0.25, 0.62...
1
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20816
$\text{For the given reaction}$ $\text{C} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{CO}_2(g)$ $\text{12 gm of C is reacted with 48 gm of O}_2 \text{ to give CO}_2.$ $\text{If volume of CO}_2 \text{ gas produced at STP is } t \text{ litres.}$ $\text{The value of } 2t \text{ is:}$ $\text{(Given: Molar volume at STP = 22.4 L/mol)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$50$, $42$...
3
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20815
$\text{For a given hydrocarbon, 11 moles of } \text{O}_2 \text{ is used and produces 4 moles of } \text{H}_2\text{O. The formula of hydrocarbon is:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{C}_{11}\text{H}_8$, $\text{C}_9\text{H}_8$...
2
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20814
$\text{Consider a mixture of } \text{CH}_4 \text{ and } \text{C}_2\text{H}_4 \text{ having a volume of } 16.8 \text{ L at } 273 \text{ K and } 1 \text{ atm. It undergoes combustion to form } \text{CO}_2 \text{ with a total volume of } 28 \text{ L at the same temperature and pressure.}$ $\text{If the enthalpy of combustion of } \text{CH}_4 \text{ is } -900 \text{ kJ/mol and enthalpy of combustion of } \text{C}_2\text{H}_4 \text{ is } -1400 \text{ kJ/mol, then the magnitude of heat released on combustion of the given mixture in kJ is-}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$875 \text{ kJ}$, $925 \text{ kJ}$...
2
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20813
$\text{The mass ratio of ethylene glycol (62 g/mol) required to make } (500 \text{ ml, } 0.25 \text{ M}) \text{ and } (250 \text{ ml, } 0.25 \text{ M}) \text{ solutions is:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$1:1$, $1:2$...
3
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20812
$\text{A hydrocarbon has a molar mass of } 84 \text{ g/mol and contains } 85.8\% \text{ carbon by mass. How many hydrogen atoms are present in one molecule of this hydrocarbon?}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$8$, $10$...
3
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20811
$\text{Calculate the volume of water required to dilute 5 g of NaOH to a 0.1 M solution.}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$180 \text{ mL}$, $130 \text{ mL}$...
1
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20810
$\text{The mass percentage of nitrogen in uracil is:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$30\%$, $25\%$...
2
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20809
$\text{The number of atoms in } 560 \text{ g of Fe (atomic mass } 56 \text{ g mol}^{-1}) \text{ is:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Twice that of } 70 \text{ g N}$, $\text{Half that of } 20 \text{ g H}$...
3
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20808
$\text{Which of the following concentration factor is affected by a change in temperature?}$ $1. \text{Molarity}$ $2. \text{Molality}$ $3. \text{Mole fraction}$ $4. \text{Weight fraction}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Molarity}$, $\text{Molality}$...
1
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20807
$1.86 \text{ g of aniline completely reacts to form acetanilide.}$ $10\% \text{ of the product is lost during purification.}$ $\text{The amount of acetanilide obtained after purification (in g) is} \; \_\_\_\_ \times 10^{-2}.$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
248, 243...
2
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20806
$\text{The formula of a gaseous hydrocarbon which requires 6 times its own volume of } \text{O}_2 \text{ for complete oxidation and produces 4 times its own volume of } \text{CO}_2 \text{ is } \text{C}_x\text{H}_y. \text{ The value of } y \text{ is:}$ $1.\ 6$ $2.\ 8$ $3.\ 4$ $4.\ 10$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$6$, $8$...
2
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20805
$ ext{C}(s) + ext{O}_2(g)
ightarrow ext{CO}_2(g) + 400 ext{kJ}$ $ ext{C}(s) + \frac{1}{2} ext{O}_2(g)
ightarrow ext{CO}(g) + 100 ext{kJ}$ $\text{When coal of purity } 60\% \text{ is allowed to burn in presence of insufficient oxygen, } 60\% \text{ of carbon is converted into 'CO' and the remaining is converted into 'CO}_2\text{'. The heat generated when } 0.6 \text{ kg of coal is burnt is:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$1600 \text{kJ}$, $3200 \text{kJ}$...
4
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20804
$\text{Consider the following reaction:}$ $4\text{HNO}_3(l) + 3\text{KCl}(s) \rightarrow$ $\text{Cl}_2(g) + \text{NOCl}(g) + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}(g) + 3\text{KNO}_3(s)$ $\text{How much HNO}_3 \text{ (in grams) is required to produce 110.0 g of KNO}_3?$ $\text{(Given: Atomic masses of H, O, N, and K are 1, 16, 14, and 39, respectively.)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$32.2\text{g}$, $69.4\text{g}$...
3
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20803
$\text{Elements A and B form two compounds, } \text{A}_2\text{B} \text{ and } \text{AB}_3, \text{ with equal weights for 0.15 moles of each compound.}$ $\text{What is the ratio of the molar atomic mass of element A and element B?}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 : 1$, $6 : 4$...
1
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20802
$6.1$ $\text{gram of CNG on combustion with } 208 \text{ grams of } \text{O}_2(g) \text{ produces, } \text{CO}_2(g) \text{ and } \text{H}_2\text{O with a lot of heat. The amount of } \text{CO}_2 \text{ produced in grams is:}$ $[\text{Consider CNG as methane and report your answer to the nearest integer.}]$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$15 \text{ g}$, $19 \text{ g}$...
3
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20801
$\text{The number of moles of methane required for the combustion process to yield 81 grams of water is:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.25 \text{ mole}$, $4.5 \text{ mole}$...
1
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20800
$5 \text{ grams of pent-1-ene react with how many grams of } \text{Br}_2 \text{ completely?}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$13.4 \text{ g}$, $9.4 \text{ g}$...
3
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20799
$\text{Given 645 g of a compound } \text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{N}_3\text{O}_6 . \text{ The number of N atoms present in this compound is:}$ $\text{Report } x \text{ if your answer is } x \times 10^{21}$ $\left( C = 12, H = 1, N = 14, O = 16 \right) \left( N_A = 6.02 \times 10^{23} \right)$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
5418, 5671...
1
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20798
$\text{If } 0.02 \text{ moles of } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ are present in 1 litre of solution from which 50\% solution is taken out and again diluted up to 1 litre by adding water. Further, if } 0.01 \text{ moles of } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ are added, then the total millimoles of } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ in the resulting solution will be:}$ $1.\ 10$ $2.\ 5$ $3.\ 20$ $4.\ 15$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$10$, $5$...
3
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20797
$\text{To neutralize 20 mL of 0.1 M aqueous solution of phosphorus acid } (\text{H}_3\text{PO}_3) \text{ completely, the volume of 0.1 M aqueous KOH solution required is:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \text{ mL}$, $20 \text{ mL}$...
3
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20796
$6.02 \times 10^{20}$ $\text{molecules of urea are present in } 100 \text{ mL of its solution.}$ $\text{The concentration of urea solution is:}$ $(\text{Avogadro constant, } N_A = 6.02 \times 10^{23} \text{ mol}^{-1})$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
0.001 \text{ M}, 0.01 \text{ M}...
2
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20795
$\text{Two solutions of a substance (non electrolyte) are mixed in the following manner.}$ $480 \text{ mL of } 1.5 \text{ M first solution } + 520 \text{ mL of } 1.2 \text{ M second solution.}$ $\text{What is the molarity of the final mixture?}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.70 \text{ M}$, $1.344 \text{ M}$...
2
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20794
$\text{How many moles of magnesium phosphate, } \text{Mg}_3(\text{PO}_4)_2, \text{ contain } 0.25 \text{ moles of oxygen atoms?}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.02$, $3.125 \times 10^{-2}$...
2
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20793
$\text{Which of the following statements is true regarding the reaction given below?}$ $2\text{Al}_{(s)} + 6\text{HCl}_{(aq)} \rightarrow 2\text{Al}^{3+}_{(aq)} + 6\text{Cl}^{-}_{(aq)} + 3\text{H}_2_{(g)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$6\text{L HCl}_{(aq)} \text{ is consumed for every } 3\text{L of H}_2_{(g)} \text{ produced.}$, $33.6\text{ L H}_2_{(g)} \text{ is produced regardless of temperature and pressure for every mole of Al that reacts.}$...
4
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20792
$\text{The mass of potassium dichromate crystals required to oxidize } 750 \, \text{cm}^3 \text{ of } 0.6 \, \text{M Mohr's salt solution is:}$ $\text{(Given molar mass: potassium dichromate = 294, Mohr's salt = 392)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.45 \, \text{g}$, $22.05 \, \text{g}$...
2
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20791
$\text{The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing } 750 \text{ mL of } 0.5\text{M HCl with } 250 \text{ mL of } 2\text{M HCl will be:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.75 \text{ M}$, $0.975 \text{ M}$...
3
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20790
$\text{A gaseous hydrocarbon upon combustion gives } 0.72 \text{ g of water and } 3.08 \text{ g of } \text{CO}_2. \text{ The empirical formula of the hydrocarbon is:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{C}_6\text{H}_5$, $\text{C}_7\text{H}_8$...
2
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20789
$\text{What is the ratio of the number of molecules of oxygen to nitrogen in a specific gaseous mixture if their mass ratio is } 1:4?$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$7:32$, $1:8$...
1
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20788
$3 \text{ g of activated charcoal was added to } 50 \text{ mL of acetic acid solution } (0.06 \text{ N}) \text{ in a flask.}$ $\text{After an hour it was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be } 0.042 \text{ N.}$ $\text{The amount of acetic acid adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$18 \text{ mg}$, $36 \text{ mg}$...
1
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20787
$\text{The molecular formula of a commercial resin used for exchanging ions in water softening is } \text{C}_8\text{H}_7\text{SO}_3\text{Na} \text{ (Mol. Wt. 206).}$ $\text{The maximum uptake of } \text{Ca}^{2+} \text{ ions by the resin when expressed in mole per gram resin is:}$ $\text{C}_8\text{H}_7\text{SO}_3\text{Na} + \text{Ca}^{2+} \rightarrow (\text{C}_8\text{H}_7\text{SO}_3)_2\text{Ca} + \text{Na}^+$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{103}$, $\frac{1}{206}$...
4
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20786
$1 \text{ gram of a carbonate } (\text{M}_2\text{CO}_3) \text{ on treatment with excess HCl produces } 0.01186 \text{ moles of } \text{CO}_2. \text{ The molar mass of } \text{M}_2\text{CO}_3 \text{ in g mol}^{-1} \text{ is:}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$118.6$, $11.86$...
4
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20785
$5 \text{ moles of } \text{AB}_2 \text{ weight } 125 \times 10^{-3} \text{ kg and } 10 \text{ moles } \text{A}_2\text{B}_2 \text{ weight } 300 \times 10^{-3} \text{ kg. The molar mass of A } (M_A) \text{ and molar mass of B } (M_B) \text{ in kg mol are:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$M_A = 10 \times 10^{-3} \text{ and } M_B = 5 \times 10^{-3}$, $M_A = 25 \times 10^{-3} \text{ and } M_B = 50 \times 10^{-3}$...
3
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20784
$\text{What is the molality of a solution containing 20\% (mass/mass) KI in water?}$ $\text{(molar mass of KI = 166 g mol}^{-1}\text{)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.51$, $7.35$...
1
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20783
$\text{A solution of phenol in chloroform when treated with aqueous NaOH gives compound P as a major product. The mass percentage of carbon in P is:}$ $\text{(to the nearest integer) (Atomic mass : C =12; H=1; O=16)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$65$, $69$...
2
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20782
$\text{A solution of two components containing } n_1 \text{ moles of the 1}^{\text{st}} \text{ component } n_2 \text{ moles of the 2}^{\text{nd}} \text{ component is prepared.}$ $M_1 \text{ and } M_2 \text{ are the molecular weights of component 1 and 2 respectively.}$ $\text{If } d \text{ is the density of the solution in g mL}^{-1}, C_2 \text{ is the molarity and } x_2 \text{ is the mole fraction of the 2}^{\text{nd}} \text{ component, then } C_2 \text{ can be expressed as:}$
2
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JEE MCQ NEW
$C_2 = \frac{dx_2}{M_2 + x_2 \left( M_2 - M_1 \right)}$, $C_2 = \frac{1000 \ dx_2}{M_1 + x_2 \left( M_2 - M_1 \right)}$...
2
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20781
$\text{The volume, in mL, of 0.02 M } \text{K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ solution required to react with } 0.288 \text{ g of ferrous oxalate in an acidic medium is:}$ $\text{[Given: Molar mass of Fe = 56 g mol}^{-1}]}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$55 \text{ mL}$, $45 \text{ mL}$...
3
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20780
$\text{A 100 mL solution was made by adding 1.43 g of } \text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3\cdot x\text{H}_2\text{O}. \text{ The normality of the solution is 0.1 M. The value of } x \text{ is:}$ $\text{(The atomic mass of Na is 23 g/mol)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $10$...
2
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20779
$\text{Complex A has a composition of } \text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6\text{Cl}_3\text{Cr} . \text{ If the complex on treatment with concentrated } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ loses 13.5\% of its original mass, the correct molecular formula of A is:}$ $\text{[Given: atomic mass of Cr = 52 amu and Cl = 35 amu]}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$[\text{Cr(H}_2\text{O})_5\text{Cl}]\text{Cl}_2\cdot 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $[\text{Cr(H}_2\text{O})_6]\text{Cl}_3$...
4
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20778
$0.4 \text{ g mixture of NaOH, Na}_2\text{CO}_3 \text{ and some inert impurities was first titrated with } \frac{N}{10} \text{ HCl using phenolphthalein as an indicator, } 17.5 \text{ mL of HCl was required at the end point. After this methyl orange was added and titrated. } 1.5 \text{ mL of same HCl was required for the next end point. The weight percentage of Na}_2\text{CO}_3 \text{ in the mixture is- (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$6 \%$, $4 \%$...
2
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20777
$\text{A compound has a composition of } 8.64\% \text{ hydrogen, } 74\% \text{ carbon, and } 17.36\% \text{ nitrogen by mass, with a molecular mass of } 162 \text{ g/mol.}$ $\text{Which of the following could be the compound?}$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{C}_5\text{H}_7\text{N}$, $\text{C}_{10}\text{H}_{14}\text{N}_2$...
2
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20776
$\text{The Glycine content of a protein is } 0.3\%, \text{ what is the minimum mass of protein?}$ $[\text{Molecular weight of Glycine} = 75]$
2
201
JEE MCQ NEW
$26000$, $30000$...
3
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20775
$0.1 \text{ M, 10 ml of an acid 'A' gets completely neutralized by } 0.05 \text{ M, 20 ml of base } M(OH)_2.$ $\text{The basicity of acid 'A' is:}$ $\text{(here M is metal)}$
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20774
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20773
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20751
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20750
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20731
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20709
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20708
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20704
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20703
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20702
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20700
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20698
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20695
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20694
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20692
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20691
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20690
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20689
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20688
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20687
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20686
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20685
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20684
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20683
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20682
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20681
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20680
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20679
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20678
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20677
$\text{The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is}$ $B_y = (3.5 \times 10^{-7}) \sin(1.5 \times 10^3 x + 0.5 \times 10^{11} t) \text{ T. The corresponding electric field will be:}$
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$E_z = 105 \sin(1.5 \times 10^3 x + 0.5 \times 10^{11} t) \text{ Vm}^{-1}$, $E_y = 1.17 \sin(1.5 \times 10^3 x + 0.5 \times 10^{11} t) \text{ Vm}^{-1}$...
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20676
$\text{A plane EM wave is propagating along x direction. It has a wavelength of mm. If electric field is in y direction with the maximum magnitude of } 60 \text{Vm}^{-1}, \text{ the equation for magnetic field is:}$
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$B_z = 2 \times 10^{-7} \sin \left[ \frac{\pi}{2} \times 10^3 \left( x - 3 \times 10^8 t \right) \right] \text{kT}$, $B_z = 60 \sin \left[ \frac{\pi}{2} \left( x - 3 \times 10^8 t \right) \right] \text{kT}$...
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20675
$\text{In the given electromagnetic wave } E_y = 600 \sin(\omega t - kx) \text{ Vm}^{-1},$ $\text{intensity of the associated light beam is (in W/m}^2\text{): (Given }$ $\varepsilon_0 = 9 \times 10^{-12} \text{ C}^2 \text{ N}^{-1} \text{ m}^{-2})$
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729, 243...
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20674
$\text{Electromagnetic waves travel in a medium with speed of}$ $1.5 \times 10^8 \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{ The relative permeability of the medium is } 2.0. \text{ The relative permittivity will be:}$
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$2$, $1$...
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20673
$\text{Arrange the following in the ascending order of wavelength:}$ $\text{A. Gamma rays } (\lambda_1)$ $\text{B. x-rays } (\lambda_2)$ $\text{C. Infrared waves } (\lambda_3)$ $\text{D. Microwaves } (\lambda_4)$ $\text{Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.}$
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$\lambda_4 < \lambda_3 < \lambda_1 < \lambda_2$, $\lambda_2 < \lambda_1 < \lambda_4 < \lambda_3$...
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20672
$\text{An electromagnetic wave has an electric field given by}$ $\vec{E} = (9.6\hat{i}) \sin \left[ 2\pi \left\{ 30 \times 10^6 t - \frac{1}{10} x \right\} \right] , x \text{ and } t \text{ are in S.I units.}$ $\text{The maximum magnetic field } (B_0) \text{ associated with this wave is:}$
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$3.2 \times 10^{-8} \text{ T}$, $9.6 \times 10^{-8} \text{ T}$...
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20671
$\text{An electromagnetic wave is given as}$ $E = 200 \sin(1.5x - (4.5 \times 10^8)t)$, $\text{here } E \text{ is the electric field in } \text{N/C.}$ $\text{If energy density in the electromagnetic field is given as}$ $N \times 10^{-8} \text{ J/m}^3$. $\text{Then } N \text{ is: } (\varepsilon_0 = 9 \times 10^{-12} \text{ S.I units.})$
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9, 18...
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20670
$\text{Which of the following shows time-varying magnetic field?}$
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$\text{Linearly varying}$, $\text{Permanent magnet}$...
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20669
$\text{Which is more energetic: an infrared wave or a microwave?}$
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$\text{infrared wave}$, $\text{microwave}$...
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20668
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor } C \text{ connected with a battery of voltage } V_0. \text{ A close gaussian surface is shown by dotted boundary as shown. The electric flux through the surface is}$
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$\frac{2CV}{\varepsilon_0}$, $\frac{CV_0}{\varepsilon_0}$...
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20667
$\text{If electric field } (\vec{E}) \text{ at an instant is } 6.6 \text{ N/C } \hat{j} \text{ and the EM wave is}$ $\text{propagating along positive x-direction then B at that instant is given}$ $\text{by:}$
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$2.2 \times 10^{-8} \hat{k} \text{T}$, $-2.2 \times 10^{8} \hat{k} \text{T}$...
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20666
$\text{Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the highest energy?}$ $1.\ \text{X-rays}$ $2.\ \text{Infrared}$ $3.\ \text{Microwaves}$ $4.\ \text{radio waves}$
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$\text{X-rays}$, $\text{Infrared}$...
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20665
$\text{In an EM wave ratio of average electric field and magnetic field energy density in a region of wave is equal to}$
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$\frac{2\varepsilon_0}{\mu_0C^2}$, $\frac{C^2\varepsilon_0}{\mu_0}$...
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20664
$\text{In the electromagnetic wave, the ratio of average energy density}$ $\text{carried by the electric field to that by the magnetic field is:}$
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$1$, $\frac{1}{2}$...
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20663
$\text{An electromagnetic wave beam of power } 20 \text{ mW is incident on a perfectly absorbing body for } 300 \text{ ns. The total momentum transferred by the beam to the body is equal to:}$
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$2 \times 10^{-17} \text{ N-s}$, $1 \times 10^{-17} \text{ N-s}$...
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20662
$\text{Nearly } 10\% \text{ of the power of a } 110 \text{ W light bulb is converted to visible radiation.}$ $\text{The change in average intensities of visible radiation, at a distance of } 1 \text{ m from the bulb to a distance of } 5 \text{ m is } a \times 10^{-2} \text{ W/m}^2.$ $\text{The value of } a \text{ will be:}$
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100, 58...
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20661
$\text{As shown in the figure, after passing through the medium 1, the speed of light } v_2 \text{ in medium 2 will be:}$ $\text{(Given } c = 3 \times 10^8 \text{ ms}^{-1} )$ $\begin{array}{ccc} \text{Air} & \text{Medium 1} & \text{Medium 2} \\ \mu_r = 1 & \mu_r = 1 & \mu_r = 1 \\ \varepsilon_r = 1 & \varepsilon_r = 4 & \varepsilon_r = 9 \end{array}$
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$1.0 \times 10^8 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $0.5 \times 10^8 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
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20660
$\text{Identify the correct statements from the following descriptions of various properties of electromagnetic waves.}$ $\text{A. In a plane electromagnetic wave electric field and magnetic field must be perpendicular to each other and direction of propagation of wave should be along electric field or magnetic field.}$ $\text{B. The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic fields.}$ $\text{C. Both electric field and magnetic field are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave.}$ $\text{D. The electric field, magnetic field and direction of propagation of wave must be perpendicular to each other.}$ $\text{E. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field is equal to speed of light.}$ $\text{Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:}$
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$\text{(D) only}$, $\text{(B) and (D) only}$...
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20659
$\text{A beam of light travelling along } X\text{-axis is described by the electric field } E_y = 900 \sin \omega (t - x/c).$ $\text{The ratio of electric force to magnetic force on a charge } q \text{ moving along } Y\text{-axis with a speed of } 3 \times 10^7 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ will be:}$ $\text{[Given speed of light } = 3 \times 10^8 \text{ ms}^{-1}]$
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$1 : 1$, $1 : 10$...
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20658
$\text{The oscillating magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by:}$ $B_y = 5 \times 10^{-6} \sin(1000\pi)(5x - 4 \times 10^8 t).$ $\text{The amplitude of the electric field will be:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$15 \times 10^2 \text{ Vm}^{-1}$, $5 \times 10^{-6} \text{ Vm}^{-1}$...
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20657
$\text{A parallel beam of light of wavelength } 900 \text{ nm and intensity } 100 \text{ Wm}^{-2}$ $\text{is incident on a surface perpendicular to the beam. The number of}$ $\text{photons crossing } 1 \text{ cm}^2 \text{ area perpendicular to the beam in one}$ $\text{second is:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \times 10^{16}$, $4.5 \times 10^{16}$...
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20656
$\text{A radio can tune to any station in } 6 \text{ MHz to } 10 \text{ MHz band. The value of corresponding wavelength bandwidth will be:}$
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$4 \text{ m}$, $20 \text{ m}$...
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20655
$\text{A light wave traveling in air along } x\text{-direction is given by}$ $E_y = 540 \sin \pi \times 10^4 (x - ct) \text{ Vm}^{-1}.$ $\text{The peak value of the magnetic field of the wave will be: (Given } c = 3 \times 10^8 \text{ ms}^{-1})$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$18 \times 10^{-7} \text{ T}$, $54 \times 10^{-7} \text{ T}$...
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20654
$\text{A displacement current of } 4.425 \, \mu\text{A is developed in the space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor when voltage is changing at a rate of } 10^6 \, \text{V/s.}$ $\text{The area of each plate of the capacitor is } 40 \, \text{cm}^2.$ $\text{The distance between each plate of the capacitor is } x \times 10^{-3} \, \text{m.}$ $\text{The value of } x \text{ is:}$ $\text{(the permittivity of free space, } \varepsilon_0 = 8.85 \times 10^{-12} \, \text{C}^2\text{N}^{-1}\text{m}^{-2})$
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$2$, $4$...
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20653
$\text{The intensity of the light from a bulb incident on a surface is } 0.22 \text{ W/m}^2. \text{ The amplitude of the magnetic field in this light wave is:}$ $\text{(Given: Permittivity of vacuum } \varepsilon_0 = 8.85 \times 10^{-12} \text{ C}^2 \text{ N}^{-1}\text{m}^{-2}, \text{ speed of light in vacuum, } c = 3 \times 10^8 \text{ ms}^{-1})$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$27 \times 10^{-9} \text{ T}$, $43 \times 10^{-9} \text{ T}$...
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20652
$\text{An EM wave propagating in } x\text{-direction has a wavelength of } 8 \text{ mm.}$ $\text{The electric field vibrating } y\text{-direction has maximum magnitude of } 60 \text{ Vm}^{-1}. \text{ Choose the correct equations for electric and magnetic fields if the EM wave is propagating in a vacuum:}$
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$E_y = 60 \sin \left[ \frac{\pi}{4} \times 10^3 \left( x - 3 \times 10^8 t \right) \right] \hat{\jmath} \text{ Vm}^{-1}$ $B_z = 2 \sin \left[ \frac{\pi}{4} \times 10^3 \left( x - 3 \times 10^8 t \right) \right] \hat{k} \text{ T}$, $E_y = 60 \sin \left[ \frac{\pi}{4} \times 10^3 \left( x - 3 \times 10^8 t \right) \right] \hat{\jmath} \text{ Vm}^{-1}$ $B_z = 2 \times 10^{-7} \sin \left[ \frac{\pi}{4} \times 10^3 \left( x - 3 \times 10^8 t \right) \right] \hat{k} \text{ T}$...
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20651
$\text{A radar sends an electromagnetic signal of an electric field } (E_0) = 2.25 \text{ V/m and a magnetic field } (B_0) = 1.5 \times 10^{-8} \text{ T}}$ $\text{which strikes a target on the line of sight at a distance of } 3 \text{ km in a medium.}$ $\text{After that, a part of signal (echo) reflects back towards the radar with the same velocity and by the same path.}$ $\text{If the signal was transmitted at time } t_0 \text{ from radar, then after how much time echo will reach the radar?}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$2.0 \times 10^{-5} \text{ s}$, $4.0 \times 10^{-5} \text{ s}$...
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20650
$\text{Consider the following statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{A time-varying electric field is a source of a changing magnetic field and vice-versa. Thus a disturbance in the electric or magnetic field creates EM waves.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{In a material medium, the EM wave travels with a speed, } v = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0\varepsilon_0}}.$
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$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$...
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20649
$\text{Which is the correct ascending order of wavelengths?}$
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$\lambda_{\text{visible}} < \lambda_{\text{X-ray}} < \lambda_{\text{gamma-ray}} < \lambda_{\text{microwave}}$, $\lambda_{\text{gamma-ray}} < \lambda_{\text{X-ray}} < \lambda_{\text{visible}} < \lambda_{\text{microwave}}$...
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20648
$\text{If the electric field intensity of a uniform plane electromagnetic wave is given as}$ $E = -301.6 \sin(kz - \omega t)\hat{a}_x + 452.4 \sin(kz - \omega t)\hat{a}_y \text{ V/m}$ $\text{Then, magnetic intensity } H \text{ of this wave in Am}^{-1} \text{ will be: [ Given:}$ $\text{Speed of light in vacuum, } c = 3 \times 10^8 \text{ ms}^{-1}, \text{ the permeability of vacuum, } \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \text{ NA}^{-2}]$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$+0.8 \sin(kz - \omega t)\hat{a}_y + 0.8 \sin(kz - \omega t)\hat{a}_x$, $+1.0 \times 10^{-6} \sin(kz - \omega t)\hat{a}_y + 1.5 \times 10^{-6}(kz - \omega t)\hat{a}_x$...
3
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20647
$\text{The electromagnetic waves travel in a medium at a speed of } 2.0 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{The relative permeability of the medium is } 1.0. \text{ The relative permittivity of the medium will be:}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.25$, $4.25$...
1
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20646
$\text{The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given by}$ $E = 56.5 \sin \omega (t - \frac{x}{c}) \text{ NC}^{-1}.$ $\text{The intensity of the wave if it is propagating along the } x\text{-axis in the free space is: (Given:}$ $\varepsilon_0 = 8.85 \times 10^{-12} \text{ C}^2\text{N}^{-1}\text{m}^{-2})$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$5.65 \text{ Wm}^{-2}$, $4.24 \text{ Wm}^{-2}$...
2
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20645
$\text{An electric bulb is rated as } 200 \text{ W. What will be the peak magnetic field at } 4 \text{ m distance produced by the radiations coming from this bulb? Consider the bulb as a point source with } 3.5\% \text{ efficiency.}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.19 \times 10^{-8} \text{ T}$, $1.71 \times 10^{-8} \text{ T}$...
2
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20644
$\text{A plane electromagnetic wave travels in a medium with relative}$ $\text{permeability } 1.61 \text{ and relative permittivity } 6.44. \text{ If the magnitude of}$ $\text{magnetic intensity is } 4.5 \times 10^{-2} \text{ Am}^{-1} \text{ at a point, the approximate}$ $\text{magnitude of electric field intensity at that point will be:}$ $\text{(Given: permeability of free space, } \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \text{ NA}^{-2}, \text{ speed of}$ $\text{light in vacuum, } c = 3 \times 10^8 \text{ ms}^{-1})$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$16.96 \text{ Vm}^{-1}$, $2.25 \times 10^{-2} \text{ Vm}^{-1}$...
3
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20643
$\text{An electromagnetic wave of frequency } 3 \text{ GHz enters a dielectric medium of relative electric permittivity } 2.25 \text{ from vacuum. The wavelength of this wave in that medium will be:}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.45 \text{ m}$, $3.45 \text{ cm}$...
4
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20642
$\vec{E} = E_0 (\hat{x} + \hat{y}) \sin(kz - \omega t).$ $\text{Its magnetic field will be given by:}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{E_0}{c} (-\hat{x} + \hat{y}) \sin(kz - \omega t)$, $\frac{E_0}{c} (\hat{x} + \hat{y}) \sin(kz - \omega t)$...
1
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20641
$\text{Choose the correct option relating wavelengths of different parts of electromagnetic wave spectrum:}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$\lambda_{\text{radio waves}} > \lambda_{\text{micro waves}} > \lambda_{\text{visible}} > \lambda_{\text{X-rays}}$, $\lambda_{\text{visible}} > \lambda_{\text{X-rays}} > \lambda_{\text{radio waves}} > \lambda_{\text{micro waves}}$...
1
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20640
$\text{A plane electromagnetic wave, has frequency of } 2.0 \times 10^{10} \text{ Hz and its energy density is } 1.02 \times 10^{-8} \text{ J/m}^3 \text{ in vacuum. The amplitude of the magnetic field of the wave is close to:}$ $\left( \frac{1}{4\pi \varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \text{ Nm}^2 \text{ C}^{-2} \text{ and speed of light } = 3 \times 10^8 \text{ ms}^{-1} \right)$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$180 \text{ nT}$, $160 \text{ nT}$...
2
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20639
$\text{The energy associated with an electric field is } (U_E) \text{ and with a magnetic field is } (U_B) \text{ for an electromagnetic wave in free space. Then:}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$U_E = \frac{U_B}{2}$, $U_E > U_B$...
4
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20638
$\text{A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency travels in free space along the positive } x\text{-direction. At a particular point in space and time, } \vec{E} = 6.3 \hat{j} \text{ V/m. The corresponding magnetic field } \vec{B}, \text{ at that point will be:}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$18.9 \times 10^{-8} \hat{k} \text{ T}$, $2.1 \times 10^{-8} \hat{k} \text{ T}$...
2
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20637
$\text{Light is incident normally on a completely absorbing surface with an energy flux of } 25 \text{ Wcm}^{-2}. \text{ If the surface has an area of } 25 \text{ cm}^2, \text{ the momentum transferred to the surface in 40 min time duration will be:}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$6.3 \times 10^{-4} \text{ Ns}$, $5.0 \times 10^{-3} \text{ Ns}$...
2
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20636
$\text{The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by:}$ $\vec{E} = E_0 \hat{i} \cos(kz) \cos(\omega t)$ $\text{The corresponding magnetic field } \vec{B} \text{ is then given by:}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$\vec{B} = \frac{E_0}{c} \hat{k} \sin(kz) \cos(\omega t)$, $\vec{B} = \frac{E_0}{c} \hat{i} \sin(kz) \cos(\omega t)$...
4
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20635
$50 \text{ W/m}^2$ $\text{energy density of sunlight is normally incident on the surface of a polar panel. Some part of incident energy (25\%) is reflected from the surface and the rest is absorbed. The force exerted on } 1 \text{ m}^2 \text{ surface area will be close to } (c = 3 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s}):$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$20 \times 10^{-8} \text{ N}$, $35 \times 10^{-8} \text{ N}$...
1
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20634
$\text{The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by:}$ $\mathbf{B} = B_0 \hat{i} [\cos(kz - \omega t)] + B_1 \hat{j} [\cos(kz - \omega t)]$ $\text{where}$ $B_0 = 3 \times 10^{-5} \text{ T and } B_1 = 2 \times 10^{-6} \text{ T.}$ $\text{The rms value of the force experienced by a stationary charge } Q = 10^{-4} \text{ C at } z = 0 \text{ is closest to:}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.6 \text{ N}$, $3 \times 10^{-2} \text{ N}$...
1
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20633
$\text{The magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is given by:}$ $\vec{B} = 1.6 \times 10^{-6} \cos \left(2 \times 10^{-7}z + 6 \times 10^{15}t \right) \left(2\hat{i} + \hat{j} \right) \text{ Wb/m}^2$ $\text{The associated electric field will be:}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$\vec{E} = 4.8 \times 10^2 \cos \left(2 \times 10^7z + 6 \times 10^{15}t \right) \left(-\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} \right) \text{ V/m}$, $\vec{E} = 4.8 \times 10^2 \cos \left(2 \times 10^7z - 6 \times 10^{15}t \right) \left(2\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} \right) \text{ V/m}$...
1
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20632
$\text{A plane electromagnetic wave of wavelength } \lambda \text{ has an intensity } I. \text{ It is propagating along the positive } y\text{-direction. The allowed expressions for the electric and magnetic fields are given by:}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$\vec{E} = \sqrt{\frac{2I}{\varepsilon_0 c}} \cos \left[ \frac{2\pi}{\lambda} (y - ct) \right] \hat{k}; \quad \vec{B} = +\frac{1}{c} E \hat{i}$, $\vec{E} = \sqrt{\frac{I}{\varepsilon_0 c}} \cos \left[ \frac{2\pi}{\lambda} (y - ct) \right] \hat{k}; \quad \vec{B} = +\frac{1}{c} E \hat{i}$...
1
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20631
$\text{A monochromatic beam of light has a frequency } v = \frac{3}{2\pi} \times 10^{12} \text{ Hz}$ $\text{and is propagating along the direction } \frac{\hat{i} + \hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}}$ $\text{It is polarized along the } \hat{k}$ $\text{direction. The acceptable form of the magnetic field is:}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{E_0}{C} \left( \frac{\hat{i} - \hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} \right) \cos \left[ 10^4 \left( \frac{\hat{i} - \hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} \right) \cdot \vec{r} - (3 \times 10^{12})t \right]$, $\frac{E_0}{C} \hat{k} \cos \left[ 10^4 \left( \frac{\hat{i} + \hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} \right) \cdot \vec{r} + (3 \times 10^{12})t \right]$...
3
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20630
$\text{The electric field component of a monochromatic radiation is given by}$ $\vec{E} = 2\ E_0\ \hat{i}\ \cos\ kz\ \cos\ \Omega t.$ $\text{Its magnetic field } \vec{B} \text{ is given by:}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2}{c}\ E_0\ \hat{j}\ \cos\ kz\ \cos\ \omega t$, $\frac{2}{c}\ E_0\ \hat{j}\ \sin\ kz\ \cos\ \omega t$...
3
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20629
$\text{The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by}$ $\vec{B} = B_0 \sin(Kx + \omega t) \hat{j} \text{ T.}$ $\text{The expression for the corresponding electric field will be:}$ $\text{(where } c \text{ is the speed of light)}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\vec{E} = \frac{B_0}{c} \sin(kx + \omega t) \hat{k} \text{ V/m}$, $\vec{E} = -B_0 c \sin(kx + \omega t) \hat{k} \text{ V/m}$...
3
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20628
$\text{Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations per quantum in the order of increasing energy:}$ $\text{A: Blue light}$ $\text{B: Yellow light}$ $\text{C: X-ray}$ $\text{D: Radiowave}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{D, B, A, C}$, $\text{A, B, D, C}$...
1
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20627
$\text{For plane electromagnetic waves propagating in the } z \text{ direction,}$ $\text{which one of the following combinations gives the correct possible}$ $\text{direction for } \vec{E} \text{ and } \vec{B} \text{ field respectively?}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}) \text{ and } (\hat{i} + 2\hat{j})$, $(-2\hat{i} - 3\hat{j}) \text{ and } (3\hat{i} - 2\hat{j})$...
2
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20626
$\text{An electromagnetic wave traveling in the } x\text{-direction has the frequency of } 2 \times 10^{14} \text{ Hz and electric field amplitude of } 27 \text{ Vm}^{-1}. \text{ From the options given below, which one describes the magnetic field for this wave?}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\vec{B}(x,t) = (9 \times 10^{-8} \text{ T}) \hat{j} \sin [1.5 \times 10^{-6} x - 2 \times 10^{14} t]$, $\vec{B}(x,t) = (9 \times 10^{-8} \text{ T}) \hat{i} \sin [2\pi (1.5 \times 10^{-8} x - 2 \times 10^{14} t)]$...
3
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20625
$\text{During the propagation of electromagnetic waves in a medium:}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Electric energy density is half of the magnetic energy density}$, $\text{Electric energy density is equal to the magnetic energy density}$...
2
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20624
$\text{Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I} & \text{List-II} \\ \hline (A) \ \text{Microwave} & (p) \ 400 \ \text{nm} - 1 \ \text{nm} \\ (B) \ \text{Ultraviolet} & (q) \ 1 \ \text{nm} - 1 \ \text{pm} \\ (C) \ \text{X-rays} & (r) \ 2.5 \ \mu\text{m} - 750 \ \text{nm} \\ (D) \ \text{Infrared} & (s) \ 1 \ \text{mm} - 25 \ \mu\text{m} \\ \hline \end{array}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A-(s), B-(q), C-(r), D-(p)}$, $\text{A-(s), B-(p), C-(q), D-(r)}$...
2
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20623
$\text{Average energy density of an EM wave with electric field amplitude } E_0 \text{ and magnetic field amplitude } B_0 \text{ is equal to}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_0 E_0^2$, $\frac{B_0^2}{\mu_0}$...
1
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20622
$\text{Match the types of radiation listed in Column-I with their corresponding applications in Column-II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column-I} & \text{Column-II} \\ \text{(Radiation)} & \text{(Applications)} \\ \hline \text{(A) Ultraviolet rays} & \text{(I) Physiotherapy} \\ \text{(B) Infrared rays} & \text{(II) Treatment of cancer} \\ \text{(C) X-rays} & \text{(III) LASIK eye surgery} \\ \text{(D) Microwave rays} & \text{(IV) Aircraft navigation} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Codes:}$ $\begin{array}{l} \text{1. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II} \\ \text{2. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV} \\ \text{3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III} \\ \text{4. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II} \end{array}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II}$, $\text{A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV}$...
2
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20621
$\text{Correctly match the two lists.}$ $\text{List-I:}$ \begin{array}{ll} (a) \ \text{Gauss's law (electrostatics)} & (b) \ \text{Ampere's circuital law} \\ (c) \ \text{Gauss's law (magnetism)} & (d) \ \text{Faraday's law of induction} \end{array} $ $\text{List-II:}$ \begin{array}{ll} (P) \ \vec{\mathbf{B}} \cdot d\vec{\mathbf{A}} = 0 & (Q) \ \vec{\mathbf{B}} \cdot d\vec{\mathbf{l}} = \mu_0 i_{\text{enclosed}} \\ (R) \ \vec{\mathbf{E}} \cdot d\vec{\mathbf{A}} = \frac{q_{\text{enclosed}}}{\varepsilon_0} & (S) \ \varepsilon = - \frac{d\phi_B}{dt} \end{array}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(a) \rightarrow (R), (b) \rightarrow (Q), (c) \rightarrow (S), (d) \rightarrow (P)$, $(a) \rightarrow (R), (b) \rightarrow (Q), (c) \rightarrow (P), (d) \rightarrow (S)$...
2
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20620
$\text{Match List-I with List-II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I} & \text{List-II} \\ \hline (A) \ \text{UV rays} & (I) \ \text{Diagnostic tool in medicine} \\ (B) \ \text{X-rays} & (II) \ \text{Water purification} \\ (C) \ \text{Microwave} & (III) \ \text{Communication, Radar} \\ (D) \ \text{Infrared wave} & (IV) \ \text{Improving visibility on foggy days} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV}$, $\text{A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV}$...
2
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20619
$\text{The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by;}$ $\vec{B} = 2 \times 10^{-8} \sin(0.5 \times 10^3 x + 1.5 \times 10^{11} t) \hat{j} \text{ T}$ $\text{The amplitude of the electric field would be:}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$6 \text{ Vm}^{-1} \text{ along } x\text{-axis}$, $3 \text{ Vm}^{-1} \text{ along } z\text{-axis}$...
3
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20618
$\text{Match List I with List II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List I} & \text{List II} \\ \hline (a) \text{ Ultraviolet rays} & (i) \text{ Study crystal structure} \\ (b) \text{ Microwaves} & (ii) \text{ Greenhouse effect} \\ (c) \text{ Infrared waves} & (iii) \text{ Sterilizing surgical instrument} \\ (d) \text{ X-rays} & (iv) \text{ Radar system} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct options from the given ones:}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(a) \rightarrow (iii), (b) \rightarrow (iv), (c) \rightarrow (ii), (d) \rightarrow (i)$, $(a) \rightarrow (iii), (b) \rightarrow (i), (c) \rightarrow (ii), (d) \rightarrow (iv)$...
1
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20617
$\text{Match Column I with Column II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline (a) \text{ Source of microwave frequency} & (i) \text{ Radioactive decay on the nucleus} \\ (b) \text{ Source of infrared frequency} & (ii) \text{ Magnetron} \\ (c) \text{ Source of Gamma Rays} & (iii) \text{ Inner shell electrons} \\ (d) \text{ Source of X-Rays} & (iv) \text{ Vibration of atoms and molecules} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)$, $(a)-(vi), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)$...
3
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20616
$\text{An electromagnetic wave of frequency } 5 \text{ GHz, is travelling in a medium whose relative electric permittivity and relative magnetic permeability both are } 2. \text{ Its velocity in this medium is:}$ $1. \ 15 \times 10^7 \ \text{m/s}$ $2. \ 5 \times 10^7 \ \text{m/s}$ $3. \ 5 \times 10^8 \ \text{m/s}$ $4. \ 15 \times 10^8 \ \text{m/s}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$15 \times 10^7 \ \text{m/s}$, $5 \times 10^7 \ \text{m/s}$...
1
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20615
$\text{Column-I lists types of radiation, and Column-II lists their corresponding wavelengths. Match the correct pairs.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column-I} & \text{Column-II} \\ \hline (A) \ \text{Microwaves} & (I) \ 100 \ \text{m} \\ (B) \ \text{Gamma rays} & (II) \ 10^{-15} \ \text{m} \\ (C) \ \text{AM radio waves} & (III) \ 10^{-10} \ \text{m} \\ (D) \ \text{X-rays} & (IV) \ 10^{-3} \ \text{m} \\ \hline \end{array}$
1
123
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III}$, $\text{A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II}$...
4
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20614
$\text{An electron is constrained to move along the } y\text{-axis with a speed of } 0.1\ c \ (c \text{ is the speed of light) in the presence of an electromagnetic wave, whose electric field is }$ $\vec{E} = 30 \hat{j} \sin(1.5 \times 10^7 t - 5 \times 10^{-2} x) \ \text{V/m. The maximum magnetic force experienced by the electron will be: (given }$ $c = 3 \times 10^8 \ \text{ms}^{-1} \text{ and electron charge } = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \ \text{C})$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$1.6 \times 10^{-19} \ \text{N}$, $4.8 \times 10^{-19} \ \text{N}$...
2
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20613
$\text{The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave propagating, along the } x \text{ direction is vacuum is;} \quad \vec{E} = E_0 \cos(\omega t - kx) \hat{j}. \text{ The magnetic field } \vec{B} \text{ at the moment } t = 0 \text{ s is:}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\vec{B} = \frac{E_0}{\sqrt{\mu_0 \epsilon_0}} \cos(kx) \hat{j}$, $\vec{B} = E_0 \sqrt{\mu_0 \epsilon_0} \cos(kx) \hat{j}$...
3
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20612
$\text{The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by:}$ $\vec{B} = 3 \times 10^{-8} \sin[200\pi(y + ct)] \hat{i} \ \text{T}$ $\text{Where} \ c = 3 \times 10^8 \ \text{m/s is the speed of light. The corresponding electric field is:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\vec{E} = -10^{-6} \sin[200\pi(y + ct)] \hat{k} \ \text{V/m}$, $\vec{E} = 3 \times 10^{-8} \sin[200\pi(y + ct)] \hat{k} \ \text{V/m}$...
3
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20611
$\text{A plane electromagnetic wave having a frequency } \nu = 23.9 \text{ GHz}$ $\text{propagates along the positive } z\text{-direction in free space. The peak}$ $\text{value of the Electric Field is } 60 \text{ V/m. Which among the following is}$ $\text{the acceptable magnetic field component in the electromagnetic}$ $\text{wave?}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\vec{B} = 2 \times 10^{-7} \sin(1.5 \times 10^2 x + 0.5 \times 10^{11} t) \hat{j}$, $\vec{B} = 60 \sin(0.5 \times 10^3 x + 1.5 \times 10^{11} t) \hat{k}$...
3
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20610
$\text{An electromagnetic wave is represented by an electric field}$ $\vec{E} = E_0 \hat{n} \sin[\omega t + (\hat{s}y - 8z)].$ $\text{Taking unit factors in } x, y, \text{ and } z$ $\text{directions to be } \hat{i}, \hat{j}, \hat{k} \text{ the direction of propagation } \hat{s} \text{ is:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\hat{s} = \frac{-4\hat{k} + 3\hat{j}}{5}$, $\hat{s} = \frac{4\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}}{5}$...
3
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20609
3
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
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20608
$\text{A red LED emits light at } 0.1 \text{ watt uniformly around it. The amplitude of the electric field of the light at a distance of } 1 \text{ m from the diode is:}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$1.73 \text{ V/m}$, $2.45 \text{ V/m}$...
2
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20607
$\text{Match List-I (Electromagnetic wave type) with List-II (Its association/application) and select the correct option from the choices given below the list:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I} & \text{List-II} \\ \hline \text{(a) Infrared waves} & \text{(i) To treat muscular strain} \\ \text{(b) Radio waves} & \text{(ii) For broadcasting} \\ \text{(c) X-rays} & \text{(iii) To detect fractures of bones} \\ \text{(d) Ultraviolet rays} & \text{(iv) Absorbed by the ozone layer of the atmosphere} \\ \hline \end{array}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{i})\ (\text{ii})\ (\text{iv})\ (\text{iii})$, $(\text{iii})\ (\text{ii})\ (\text{i})\ (\text{iv})$...
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20606
$\text{A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series across an AC supply.}$ $\text{A dielectric is then placed between the plates of the capacitor.}$ $\text{The glow of the bulb:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{remains same}$, $\text{decrease}$...
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20605
$\text{A LCR circuit is at resonance for a capacitor } C, \text{ inductance } L \text{ and resistance } R. \text{ Now the value of resistance is halved keeping all other parameters same. The current amplitude at resonance will be now:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{halved}$, $\text{Zero}$...
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20604
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I - In an LCR series circuit, current is maximum at resonance.}$ $\text{Statement II - Current in a purely resistive circuit can never be less than that in a series LCR circuit when connected to some voltage source.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements, choose the correct from the options given below:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is true but Statement II is false}$, $\text{Statement I is false but Statement II is true}$...
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20603
$\text{Match List-I with List-II}$ $\text{List-I}$ \quad \text{List-II}$ $\text{A. Purely capacitive circuit}$ \quad \text{I.} \quad \text{I} \perp \text{V}$ $\text{B. Purely inductive circuit}$ \quad \text{II.} \quad \text{I} \parallel \text{V}$ $\text{C. LCR series at resonance}$ \quad \text{III.} \quad \text{V} \text{ at angle } \theta \text{ with I}$ $\text{D. LCR series circuit}$ \quad \text{IV.} \quad \text{V} \perp \text{I}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III}$, $\text{A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II}$...
3
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20602
$\text{The alternating voltage and current in a circuit are given by:}$ $V = 100 \sin(\omega t) \text{ volts and } I = 100 \sin\left(\omega t + \frac{\pi}{3}\right) \text{ milliamperes.}$ $\text{The average power dissipated in the circuit is:}$ $1.\ 2.5 \text{ W}$ $2.\ 5 \text{ W}$ $3.\ 10 \text{ W}$ $4.\ 20 \text{ W}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$2.5 \text{ W}$, $5 \text{ W}$...
1
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20601
$\text{A capacitor having capacitance of } 100 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ is charged with a potential}$ $\text{difference of } 12 \, \text{V} \text{ is connected to an inductor of inductance}$ $10 \, \text{mH}. \text{ Then the maximum current through the inductor is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \, \text{A}$, $1.6 \, \text{A}$...
4
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20600
$\text{Statement I: In LCR circuit, by increasing frequency current increases first then decreases}$ $\text{Statement II: Power factor of LCR circuit is one.}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect}$, $\text{Statement I is incorrect and statement I is correct}$...
1
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20599
$\text{Consider the following statements:}$ $\text{Statement 1: An LCR circuit connected to an AC source has maximum average power at resonance.}$ $\text{Statement 2: A resistor only circuit with zero phase difference has maximum average power.}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$(1) \text{ and } (2) \text{ both are correct}$, $(1) \text{ is correct but } (2) \text{ is incorrect}$...
1
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20598
$\text{In a series } LCR \text{ circuit connected across } (220 \text{ V, } 50 \text{ Hz) ac supply. If the inductive reactance of the circuit is } 79.6 \, \Omega. \text{ If the power delivered in the circuit is maximum, then the capacitance of the circuit is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$40 \, \mu F$, $30 \, \mu F$...
1
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20597
$\text{In a series } RLC \text{ circuit, } R = 80 \, \Omega, \, X_L = 100 \, \Omega, \, X_C = 40 \, \Omega. \text{ If the source voltage is } 2500 \cos(628t) \, \text{V, the peak current is equal to:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \, \text{A}$, $25 \, \text{A}$...
2
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20596
$\text{Across an inductor of } 5 \text{ mH, an AC source with potential given as } 268 \sin(200\pi t) \text{ volts is used.}$ $\text{The value of inductive reactance provided by the inductor is equal to:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\pi \ \Omega$, $\frac{\pi}{2} \ \Omega$...
4
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20595
$\text{If an insulator with inductive reactance } X_L = R \text{ is connected in series with resistance } R \text{ across an A.C voltage, the power factor comes out to be } P_1. \text{ Now, if a capacitor with capacitive reactance } X_C = R \text{ is also connected in series with the inductor and resistor in the same circuit, the power factor becomes } P_2. \text{ The ratio } \frac{P_1}{P_2} \text{ is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{2} : 1$, $1 : \sqrt{2}$...
2
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20594
$\text{A capacitor of capacitance } 500 \, \mu\text{F is charged completely using a dc supply of } 100 \, \text{V. It is now connected to an inductor of inductance } 50 \, \text{mH to form an } LC \text{ circuit. The maximum current in the } LC \text{ circuit will be:}$ $1. \; 10 \, \text{A}$ $2. \; 20 \, \text{A}$ $3. \; 30 \, \text{A}$ $4. \; 40 \, \text{A}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \, \text{A}$, $20 \, \text{A}$...
1
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20593
$\text{A circuit element } X \text{ when connected to an AC supply of peak voltage } 100 \text{ V gives a peak current of } 5 \text{ A which is in phase with the voltage.}$ $\text{A second element } Y \text{ when connected to the same AC supply also gives the same value of peak current which lags behind the voltage by } \frac{\pi}{2}. \text{ If } X \text{ and } Y \text{ are connected in series to the same supply, the RMS value of the current in ampere will be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{10}{\sqrt{2}}$, $\frac{5}{\sqrt{2}}$...
4
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20592
$\text{An alternating emf } E = 440 \sin(100\pi t) \text{ is applied to a circuit containing an inductance of } \frac{\sqrt{2}}{\pi} \text{ H. If an AC ammeter is connected to the circuit, its reading will be:}$ $1.\ 4.4\ \text{A}$ $2.\ 1.55\ \text{A}$ $3.\ 2.2\ \text{A}$ $4.\ 3.11\ \text{A}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$4.4\ \text{A}$, $1.55\ \text{A}$...
3
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20591
$\text{The frequencies at which the current amplitude in an } LCR \text{ series circuit becomes } \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \text{ times its maximum value, are } 212 \text{ rad s}^{-1} \text{ and } 232 \text{ rad s}^{-1}. \text{ The value of resistance in the circuit is } R = 5 \, \Omega. \text{ The self-inductance in the circuit is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$510 \, \text{mH}$, $110 \, \text{mH}$...
3
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20590
$\text{The equation of current in a purely inductive circuit is}$ $5 \sin(49 \pi t - 30^\circ).$ $\text{If the inductance is 30 mH, then the equation for the voltage across the inductor will be:}$ $\left( \text{Let } \pi = \frac{22}{7} \right)$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.47 \sin(49 \pi t - 30^\circ)$, $1.47 \sin(49 \pi t - 60^\circ)$...
4
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20589
$\text{A series } LCR \text{ circuit has } L = 0.01 \text{ H}, R = 10 \, \Omega \text{ and } C = 1 \, \mu\text{F}$ $\text{and it is connected to an AC voltage of amplitude } (V_m) \, 50 \, \text{V.}$ $\text{At a frequency } 60\% \text{ lower than resonant frequency, the amplitude of current will be approximately:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$466 \, \text{mA}$, $312 \, \text{mA}$...
3
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20588
$\text{To light, a } 50 \text{ W, } 100 \text{ V lamp is connected in series with a capacitor of capacitance } \frac{50}{\pi \sqrt{x}} \mu\text{F}, \text{ with } 200 \text{ V, } 50 \text{ Hz AC source. The value of } x \text{ will be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $6$...
1
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20587
$\text{A direct current of } 4 \text{ A and an alternating current of peak value } 4 \text{ A}$ $\text{flow through resistance of } 3 \, \Omega \text{ and } 2 \, \Omega \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{The ratio of heat produced in the two resistances in same interval of time will be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 : 2$, $3 : 1$...
2
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20586
$\text{In a series } LR \text{ circuit } X_L = R \text{ and power factor of the circuit is } P_1. \text{ When capacitor with capacitance } C \text{ such that } X_L = X_C \text{ is put in series, the power factor becomes } P_2. \text{ The ratio } \frac{P_1}{P_2} \text{ is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2}$, $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$...
2
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20585
$\text{The rms value of conduction current in a parallel plate capacitor is } 6.9 \, \mu\text{A. The capacity of this capacitor, if it is connected to } 230 \, \text{V AC supply with an angular frequency of } 600 \, \text{rad/s, will be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \, \text{pF}$, $50 \, \text{pF}$...
2
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20584
$\text{To increase the resonant frequency in series } LCR \text{ circuit,}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Source frequency should be increased.}$, $\text{Another resistance should be added in series with the first resistance.}$...
3
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20583
$\text{For a series } LCR \text{ circuit, } I \text{ vs } \omega \text{ curve is shown.}$ $\text{Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(a) \text{ and } (d) \text{ only}$, $(b) \text{ and } (d) \text{ only}$...
3
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20582
$\text{In the given circuit, the magnitude of } V_L \text{ and } V_C \text{ are twice that of } V_R. \text{ Given that } f = 50 \text{ Hz, the inductance of the coil is } \frac{1}{K\pi} \text{ mH. The value of } K \text{ is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $3$...
3
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20581
$\text{A telegraph line of length } 100 \text{ km has a capacity of } 0.01 \, \mu\text{F/km}$ $\text{and it carries an alternating current at } 0.5 \text{ kilocycle per second.}$ $\text{If the minimum impedance is required, then the value of the inductance}$ $\text{that needs to be introduced in series is:}$ $\text{( if } \pi = \sqrt{10})$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \, \text{mH}$, $200 \, \text{mH}$...
1
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20580
$\text{A } 220 \text{ V, } 50 \text{ Hz AC source is connected to a } 25 \text{ V, } 5 \text{ W lamp and an additional resistance } R \text{ in series (as shown in the figure) to run the lamp at its peak brightness, then the value of } R \text{ (in ohm) will be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$736$, $863$...
3
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20579
$\text{The current flowing through an AC circuit is given by}$ $I = 5 \sin(120\pi t) \text{ A}$ $\text{How long will the current take to reach the peak value starting from zero?}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{60} \text{ s}$, $60 \text{ s}$...
4
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20578
$\text{In a series } LCR \text{ circuit, the inductance, capacitance and resistance are } L = 100 \text{ mH}, C = 100 \ \mu\text{F} \text{ and } R = 10 \, \Omega \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{They are connected to an AC source of voltage } 220 \, \text{V} \text{ and frequency of } 50 \, \text{Hz}. \text{ The approximate value of current in the circuit will be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$15 \, \text{A}$, $32 \, \text{A}$...
3
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20577
$\text{A sinusoidal voltage } V(t) = 210 \sin(3000t) \text{ V is applied to a series } LCR \text{ circuit in which } L = 10 \text{ mH}, C = 25 \mu\text{F and } R = 100 \, \Omega. \text{ The phase difference } (\phi) \text{ between the applied voltage and resultant current will be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\tan^{-1}(0.17)$, $\tan^{-1}(9.46)$...
1
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20576
$\text{If wattless current flows in the AC circuit, then the circuit is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{purely Resistive circuit.}$, $\text{purely Inductive circuit.}$...
2
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20575
$\text{As shown in the figure an inductor of inductance } 200 \text{ mH is connected to an AC source of emf } 220 \text{ V and frequency } 50 \text{ Hz.}$ $\text{The instantaneous voltage of the source is } 0 \text{ V when the peak value of the current is } \frac{\sqrt{\alpha}}{\pi} \text{ A.}$ $\text{The value of } \alpha \text{ is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
125, 343...
4
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20574
$\text{A resistance of } 40 \, \Omega \text{ is connected to a source of alternating current rated } 220 \, \text{V, } 50 \, \text{Hz.}$ $\text{The time taken by the current to change from its maximum value to the RMS value is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.5 \, \text{ms}$, $1.25 \, \text{ms}$...
1
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20573
$\text{An alternating current is given by the equation}$ $i = i_1 \sin \omega t + i_2 \cos \omega t.$ $\text{The rms current will be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left( i_1^2 + i_2^2 \right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$, $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left( i_1 + i_2 \right)^2$...
1
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20572
$\text{An LCR circuit contains resistance of } 110 \, \Omega \text{ and a supply of } 220 \, \text{V at } 300 \, \text{rad/s angular frequency.}$ $\text{If only capacitance is removed from the circuit, current lags behind the voltage by } 45^\circ.$ $\text{If on the other hand, only inductor is removed the current leads by } 45^\circ \text{ with the applied voltage.}$ $\text{The rms current flowing in the circuit will be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \, \text{A}$, $2.5 \, \text{A}$...
4
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20571
$\text{A series } LCR \text{ circuit is designed to resonate at an angular frequency } \omega_0 = 10^5 \text{ rad/s.}$ $\text{The circuit draws } 16 \text{ W power from } 120 \text{ V source at resonance.}$ $\text{The value of resistance } 'R' \text{ in the circuit is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$300 \, \Omega$, $600 \, \Omega$...
3
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20570
$\text{An AC circuit has } R = 100 \, \Omega, C = 2 \, \mu\text{F}, L = 80 \, \text{mH}, \text{ connected in series. The quality factor of the circuit is:}$ $1. \; 0.5$ $2. \; 20$ $3. \; 2$ $4. \; 400$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.5$, $20$...
3
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20569
$\text{A power transmission line feeds input power at } 2300 \text{ V to a step-down transformer with its primary windings having } 4000 \text{ turns.}$ $\text{The output power is delivered at } 230 \text{ V by the transformer.}$ $\text{If the current in the primary of the transformer is } 5 \text{ A and its efficiency is } 90\%, \text{ the output current would be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$50 \text{ A}$, $45 \text{ A}$...
2
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20568
$\text{A transformer consisting of } 300 \text{ turns in the primary and } 150 \text{ turns in the secondary gives output power of } 2.2 \text{ kW.}$ $\text{If the current in the secondary coil is } 10 \text{ A, then the input voltage and current in the primary coil are:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$440 \text{ V and } 20 \text{ A}$, $440 \text{ V and } 5 \text{ A}$...
2
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20567
$\text{A circuit connected to an AC source of emf } \varepsilon = \varepsilon_0 \sin(100t) \text{ with } t \text{ in seconds, gives a phase difference of } \frac{\pi}{4} \text{ between the emf } \varepsilon \text{ and current } i. \text{ Which of the following circuits will exhibit this?}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{RL circuit with } R = 1 \text{ k} \Omega \text{ and } L = 10 \text{ mH}$, $\text{RL circuit with } R = 1 \text{ k} \Omega \text{ and } L = 1 \text{ mH}$...
4
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20566
$\text{A power transmission line feeds input power at } 2300 \text{ V to a step down transformer with its primary windings having } 4000 \text{ turns giving the output power at } 230 \text{ V. If the current in the primary of the transformer is } 5 \text{ A and its efficiency is } 90\%, \text{ the output current would be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$45 \text{ A}$, $50 \text{ A}$...
1
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20565
$\text{An ideal capacitor of capacitance } 0.2 \, \mu\text{F is charged to a potential difference of } 10 \, \text{V.}$ $\text{The charging battery is then disconnected.}$ $\text{The capacitor is connected to an ideal inductor of self inductance } 0.5 \, \text{mH.}$ $\text{The current at a time when the potential difference across the capacitor is } 5 \, \text{V is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.15 \, \text{A}$, $0.17 \, \text{A}$...
2
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20564
$\text{For an } LCR \text{ circuit driven with voltage of amplitude } V_m \text{ and frequency } \omega_0 = \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}} \text{ the current exhibits resonance. The quality factor, } Q \text{ is given by:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\omega_0 L}{R}$, $\omega_0 R$...
1
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20563
$\text{A sinusoidal voltage of peak value } 283 \text{ V and angular frequency } 320 \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ is applied to a series LCR circuit. Given that } R = 5 \, \Omega, \, L = 25 \, \text{mH and } C = 1000 \, \mu\text{F. The total impedance, and phase difference between the voltage across the source and the current will respectively be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \, \Omega \text{ and } \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{5}{3}\right)$, $10 \, \Omega \text{ and } \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{8}{3}\right)$...
4
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20562
$\text{Find the power factor of the given } AC \text{ circuit.}$ $L = \frac{1}{10\pi} \text{ H}$ $C = \frac{1}{1000\pi} \text{ F}$ $R = 10 \ \Omega$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
0.75, 0.5...
3
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20561
$\text{If the primary side of a transformer is connected with } 230 \text{ V, } 50 \text{ Hz AC supply and the ratio of the number of turns of primary to the secondary winding is } 10 : 1. \text{ The load resistance at the secondary coil is } 46 \, \Omega, \text{ then the power output of the secondary windings is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$11.5 \text{ watt}$, $13 \text{ watt}$...
1
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20560
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: In a purely inductive circuit, the average power consumed is very high.}$ $\text{Statement II: In a purely inductive circuit only, resonance can be achieved.}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$, $\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$...
4
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20559
$\text{In a series } LCR \text{ circuit, the resistance } R, \text{ inductance } L, \text{ and}$ $\text{capacitance } C \text{ are } 10 \, \Omega, \, 0.1 \, \text{H, and } 2 \, \text{mF, respectively. If the}$ $\text{angular frequency of the AC source is } 100 \, \text{rad/s, the power factor of}$ $\text{the circuit is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}$, $\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}}$...
2
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20558
$\text{The variation of impedance } (Z) \text{ with angular frequency } (\omega) \text{ for two electrical elements is shown in the graph given.}$ $\text{If } X_L, X_C \text{ and } R \text{ are inductive reactance, capacitive reactance, and resistance respectively then:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$A \text{ is resistor, } B \text{ is inductor}$, $A \text{ is inductor, } B \text{ is capacitor}$...
2
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20557
$\text{In an LC oscillating circuit with } L = 75 \text{ mH and } C = 30 \mu F. \text{ The maximum charge of capacitor is } 2.7 \times 10^{-4} C. \text{ Maximum current through the circuit will be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.18 \text{ Amp}$, $0.24 \text{ Amp}$...
1
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20556
$\text{Evaluate the maximum current flowing through the capacitor in the given AC circuit.}$ $C = 150 \, \mu\text{F}$ $E = 36 \sin(120 \, \pi t) \, \text{V}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
0.65 \pi \, \text{A}, 0.35 \pi \, \text{A}...
1
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20555
$\text{For a series } LCR \text{ circuit across an AC source, current and voltage are in the same phase. Given the resistance is } 20 \, \Omega \text{ and voltage of the source is } 220 \, V. \text{ What is the current in the circuit?}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$11 \, A$, $22 \, A$...
1
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20554
$\text{In the AC circuit shown in the figure, the value of } I_{\text{rms}} \text{ is equal to:}$ $X_C = 100 \, \Omega$ $X_L = 100 \, \Omega$ $R = 100 \, \Omega$ $V = 200 \sqrt{2} \sin(\omega t)$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \, \text{A}$, $2 \sqrt{2} \, \text{A}$...
1
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20553
$\text{For the given, } LCR \text{ series circuit;} \ X_L = 130 \, \Omega, \ X_C = 80 \, \Omega \text{ and } R = 80 \, \Omega. \text{ The value of the power factor of the circuit is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\sqrt{54}}{9}$, $\frac{8}{\sqrt{89}}$...
2
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20552
$\text{Consider the following two } LC \text{ circuit.}$ $\text{If } \omega_1 \text{ and } \omega_2 \text{ are resonance frequencies of the two circuits. Then } \frac{\omega_1}{\omega_2} \text{ equal to:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $3$...
1
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20551
$\text{The effective current } i \text{ in the given circuit at very high frequencies will be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$40 \text{ A}$, $24 \text{ A}$...
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20550
$\text{An inductor of } 0.5 \text{ mH, a capacitor of } 200 \ \mu\text{F and a resistor of } 2 \ \Omega$ $\text{are connected in series with a } 220 \ \text{V ac source. If the current is in}$ $\text{phase with the emf, the frequency of the ac source will be } x \times 10^2 \ \text{Hz.}$ $\text{The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $10$...
1
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20549
$\text{An AC source is connected to an inductance of } 100 \text{ mH, a capacitance of } 100 \ \mu\text{F and resistance of } 120 \ \Omega \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The time in which the resistance having a thermal capacity of } 2 \ \text{J/}^\circ\text{C will get heated by } 16^\circ\text{C is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$15 \ \text{s}$, $20 \ \text{s}$...
1
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20548
$\text{Match List I with List II.}$ $\text{List I:}$ \begin{array}{ll} \text{(A)} & \text{AC generator} \\ \text{(B)} & \text{Galvanometer} \\ \text{(C)} & \text{Transformer} \\ \text{(D)} & \text{Metal detector} \end{array}$ $\text{List II:}$ \begin{array}{ll} \text{(I)} & \text{detects the presence of current in the circuit} \\ \text{(II)} & \text{converts mechanical energy into electrical energy} \\ \text{(III)} & \text{works on the principle of resonance in AC circuits} \\ \text{(IV)} & \text{changes an alternating voltage for a smaller or greater value} \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
(A) - (II), \text{ } (B) - (I), \text{ } (C) - (IV), \text{ } (D) - (III), (A) - (II), \text{ } (B) - (I), \text{ } (C) - (III), \text{ } (D) - (IV)...
1
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20547
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: The reactance of an AC circuit is zero. It is possible that the circuit contains a capacitor and an inductor.}$ $\text{Statement II: In an AC circuit, the average power delivered by the source never becomes zero.}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are True.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are False.}$...
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20546
$\text{Find the peak current and resonant frequency of the following circuit}$ $\text{(as shown in the figure).}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.2 \text{ A and } 50 \text{ Hz}$, $0.2 \text{ A and } 100 \text{ Hz}$...
1
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20545
$\text{In a series } LCR \text{ resonant circuit, the quality factor } (Q) \text{ at resonance is measured as } 100.$ $\text{The inductance } (L) \text{ is increased two-fold } (L' = 2L), \text{ and the resistance } (R) \text{ is decreased two-fold } (R' = \frac{R}{2}), \text{ while the capacitance } (C) \text{ remains unchanged.}$ $\text{Assuming the new quality factor is calculated at the new resonance frequency of the modified circuit, then the new quality factor will be:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$173.25$, $282.84$...
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20544
$\text{A transmitting station releases waves of wavelength } 960 \text{ m. A capacitor of } 2.56 \ \mu\text{F} \text{ is used in the resonant circuit. The self-inductance of the coil necessary for resonance is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \times 10^{-8} \ \text{H}$, $5 \times 10^{-8} \ \text{H}$...
1
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20543
$\text{A resonance circuit having inductance and resistance } 2 \times 10^{-4} \text{ H}$ $\text{and } 6.28 \ \Omega \text{ respectively oscillates at } 10 \ \text{MHz frequency.}$ $\text{The value of quality factor of this resonator is: } [\pi = 3.14]$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$1000$, $2000$...
2
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20542
$\text{In a series } L R \text{ circuit, a power of } 400 \text{ W is dissipated from a source}$ $\text{of } 250 \text{ V and } 50 \text{ Hz. The power factor of the circuit is } 0.8. \text{ To bring}$ $\text{the power factor to unity, a capacitor of value } \left( \frac{n}{3\pi} \right) \mu \text{F is added in}$ $\text{series with the } L \text{ and } R \text{ components. The value of } n \text{ is:}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$400$, $300$...
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20541
$A \ 750 \ \text{Hz}, \ 20 \ \text{V (RMS)} \ \text{source is connected to a resistance of} \ 100 \ \Omega, \ \text{an inductance of} \ 0.1803 \ \text{H and a capacitance of} \ 10 \ \mu\text{F, all in series. The time in which the resistance (heat capacity} \ 2 \ \text{J/}^\circ\text{C)} \ \text{will get heated by} \ 10^\circ\text{C (assuming no loss of heat to the surroundings) is close to:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$365 \ \text{s}$, $418 \ \text{s}$...
4
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20540
$\text{An inductance coil has a reactance of } 100 \, \Omega. \text{ When an AC signal of frequency } 1000 \, \text{Hz is applied to the coil, the applied voltage leads the current by } 45^\circ. \text{ The self-inductance of the coil is:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.1 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{H}$, $1.1 \times 10^{-1} \, \text{H}$...
1
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20539
$\text{An alternating voltage } V(t) = 220 \sin(100\pi t) \text{ volts is applied to a purely resistive load of } 50 \, \Omega. \text{ The time taken for the current to rise from half of the peak value to the peak value is:}$ $1. \, 5 \, \text{ms}$ $2. \, 7.2 \, \text{ms}$ $3. \, 3.3 \, \text{ms}$ $4. \, 2.2 \, \text{ms}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \, \text{ms}$, $7.2 \, \text{ms}$...
3
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20538
$\text{In an ac circuit, the instantaneous e.m.f. and current are given by}$ $e = 100 \sin 30t$ $i = 20 \sin \left(30t - \frac{\pi}{4}\right)$ $\text{In one cycle of ac, the average power consumed by the circuit and the wattless current are, respectively:}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$50, 10$, $\frac{1000}{\sqrt{2}}, 10$...
2
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20537
$\text{For the LCR circuit, shown here, the current is observed to lead the applied voltage. An additional capacitor } C', \text{ when joined with the capacitor } C \text{ present in the circuit, makes the power factor of the circuit unity. The capacitor } C', \text{ must have been connected in:}$ $V = V_0 \sin \omega t$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{series with } C \text{ and has a magnitude } \frac{C}{\omega^2 LC - 1}$, $\text{series with } C \text{ and has a magnitude } \frac{1 - \omega^2 LC}{\omega^2 L}$...
3
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20536
$\text{In the given circuits } (a) \text{ and } (b) \text{ switches } S_1 \text{ and } S_2 \text{ are closed at } t = 0 \text{ and are kept closed for a long time.}$ $\text{The variation of currents in the two circuits for } t \geq 0 \text{ are roughly shown by (figures are schematic and not drawn to scale):}$
1
122
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1: } (b) \text{ decreases, } (a) \text{ increases}$, $\text{Graph 2: } (b) \text{ increases, } (a) \text{ decreases}$...
4
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20535
$\text{A square loop of side } 15 \text{ cm being moved towards right at a constant speed of } 2 \text{ cm/s as shown in figure. The front edge enters the } 50 \text{ cm wide magnetic field at } t = 0. \text{ The value of induced emf in the loop at } t = 10 \text{ s will be:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$4.5 \text{ mV}$, $3 \text{ mV}$...
4
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20534
$\text{In a coil, the current changes from } -2 \text{ A to } +2 \text{ A in } 0.2 \text{ s and induces an emf } 0.1 \text{ V. The self-inductance of the coil is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ mH}$, $5 \text{ mH}$...
2
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20533
$\text{A conducting rod moves in a uniform magnetic field as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The induced EMF across the ends of the rod is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \text{ mV}$, $6 \text{ mV}$...
1
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20532
$\text{A metallic frame of a given dimension has an area vector at } 60^\circ \text{ with an external magnetic field as shown. The frame is taken out from the field in 10 seconds. Then emf is induced in the frame is:}$ $\text{B} = 4 \text{ T}$ $\text{Area} = 2.5 \text{ m} \times 2 \text{ m}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \text{ V}$, $2 \text{ V}$...
1
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20531
$\text{A circular ring is placed in a magnetic field of } 0.4 \text{ T. Suddenly its radius starts shrinking at the rate of } 1 \text{ mm/s. What will be the induced EMF in the ring at } r = 2 \text{ cm?}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$16\pi \ \mu\text{V}$, $8\pi \ \mu\text{V}$...
1
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20530
$\text{Consider the following Assertion and Reason:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Moving magnet in conducting pipe slows down.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Because eddy current is formed.}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(A) is correct but (R) is wrong.}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are wrong.}$...
3
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20529
$\text{The EMF generated in a moving rod within a uniform magnetic field } B \text{ is } 0.08 \text{ V. The speed } (v) \text{ of the rod is:}$ $\otimes B = 0.4 \text{ T}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \text{ m/s}$, $2 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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20528
$\text{A metal rod of length } 1 \text{ m is moving perpendicular to its length with } 8 \text{ m/s velocity along the positive } x\text{-axis. A magnetic field } B = 2 \text{ T exists perpendicular to the plane of motion. The EMF induced between the two ends of the rod is:}$ $1. \ 16 \text{ V}$ $2. \ 0 \text{ V}$ $3. \ 8 \text{ V}$ $4. \ 4 \text{ V}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$16 \text{ V}$, $0 \text{ V}$...
1
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20527
$\text{A coil of inductance 1 H and resistance 100 } \Omega \text{ is connected to a battery of 6 V. Determine approximately:}$ $\text{I. The time elapsed before the current acquires half of its steady-state value.}$ $\text{II. The energy stored in the magnetic field associated with the coil at an instant 15 ms after the circuit is switched on.}$ $\text{(Given: } \ln 2 = 0.693, \frac{e^{-3}}{2} = 0.25)$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$t = 10 \text{ ms}; U = 2 \text{ mJ}$, $t = 10 \text{ ms}; U = 1 \text{ mJ}$...
3
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20526
$\text{A conducting circular loop is placed in the } X-Y \text{ plane in presence of a magnetic field } \vec{B} = \left(3t^3 \hat{j} + 3t^2 \hat{k}\right) \text{ in SI unit. If the radius of the loop is } 1 \text{ m, the induced emf in the loop, at time, } t = 2 \text{ s is } n\pi \text{ V. The value of } n \text{ is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$12$, $14$...
1
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20525
$\text{In a coil of resistance } 8 \, \Omega, \text{ the magnetic flux due to an external magnetic field varies with time as } \phi = \frac{2}{3} (9 - t^2). \text{ The value of total heat produced in the coil, till the flux becomes zero, will be:}$ $1. \, 2 \, \text{J}$ $2. \, 1 \, \text{J}$ $3. \, 3 \, \text{J}$ $4. \, 4 \, \text{J}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \, \text{J}$, $1 \, \text{J}$...
1
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20524
$\text{Magnetic flux (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance } 20 \, \Omega \text{ varies with time } t(s) \text{ as } \phi = 8t^2 - 9t + 5.$ $\text{The magnitude of the induced current at } t = 0.25 \, s \text{ will be:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$150 \, \text{mA}$, $300 \, \text{mA}$...
3
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20523
$\text{A coil is placed in a time varying magnetic field. If the number of turns in the coil were to be halved and the radius of wire doubled, the electrical power dissipated due to the current induced in the coil would be: (Assume the coil to be short circuited.)}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Halved}$, $\text{Quadrupled}$...
4
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20522
$\text{A metallic rod of length } 20 \text{ cm is placed in a North-South direction}$ $\text{and is moved at a constant speed of } 20 \text{ m/s towards the East.}$ $\text{The horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field at that place is } 4 \times 10^{-3} \text{ T}$ $\text{and the angle of dip is } 45^\circ. \text{ The emf induced in the rod is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$12 \text{ V}$, $14 \text{ V}$...
3
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20521
$\text{A metallic conductor of length } 1 \text{ m rotates in a vertical plane parallel to the east-west direction about one of its ends with an angular velocity of } 5 \text{ rad/s.}$ $\text{If the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is } 0.2 \times 10^{-4} \text{ T, then emf induced between the two ends of the conductor is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \ \mu\text{V}$, $50 \ \mu\text{V}$...
2
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20520
$\text{Two coils of self-inductance } L_1 \text{ and } L_2 \text{ are connected in series}$ $\text{combination having a mutual inductance of the coils as } M. \text{ The}$ $\text{equivalent self-inductance of the combination will be:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{L_1} + \frac{1}{L_2} + \frac{1}{M}$, $L_1 + L_2 + M$...
4
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20519
$A \ 10 \, \Omega, \, 20 \, \text{mH} \text{ coil carrying constant current is connected to a battery of } 20 \, \text{V through a switch.}$ $\text{When the switch is opened, the current becomes zero in } 100 \, \mu s.$ $\text{The average emf induced in the coil is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \, \text{V}$, $250 \, \text{V}$...
3
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20518
$\text{The magnetic flux through a coil perpendicular to its plane is varying according to the relation } \phi = (5t^3 + 4t^2 + 2t - 5) \text{ Wb. If the resistance of the coil is } 5 \, \Omega, \text{ then the induced current through the coil at } t = 2 \, \text{s will be:}$ $1. \, 15.6 \, \text{A}$ $2. \, 16.6 \, \text{A}$ $3. \, 17.6 \, \text{A}$ $4. \, 18.6 \, \text{A}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$15.6 \, \text{A}$, $16.6 \, \text{A}$...
1
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20517
$\text{The current in a coil of self-inductance } 2.0 \text{ H is increasing according to equation } I = 2 \sin t^2 \text{ A. The amount of energy spent during the period when the current changes from } 0 \text{ to } 2 \text{ A is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ J}$, $3 \text{ J}$...
1
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20516
$\text{A circular coil of } 1000 \text{ turns each with an area of } 1 \text{ m}^2 \text{ is rotated}$ $\text{about its vertical diameter at the rate of one revolution per second in}$ $\text{a uniform horizontal magnetic field of } 0.07 \text{ T. The maximum voltage}$ $\text{generation will be:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$220 \text{ V}$, $330 \text{ V}$...
3
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20515
$\text{A conducting circular loop made of a thin wire has area } 3.5 \times 10^{-3} \text{ m}^2 \text{ and resistance } 10 \, \Omega. \text{ It is placed perpendicular to a time-dependent magnetic field } B(t) = 0.4 \sin(50 \pi t) \, \text{T. The field is uniform in space. Then the net charge flowing through the loop during } t = 0 \, \text{s and } t = 10 \, \text{ms is close to:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.14 \, \text{mC}$, $0.7 \, \text{mC}$...
1
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20514
$\text{Two coil } 'P' \text{ and } 'Q' \text{ are separated by some distance. When a current of } 3 \text{ A flows through coil } 'P' \text{ a magnetic flux of } 10^{-3} \text{ Wb passes through } 'Q'. \text{ No current is passed through } 'Q'. \text{ When no current passes through } 'P' \text{ and a current of } 2 \text{ A passes through } 'Q', \text{ the flux through } 'P' \text{ is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$6.67 \times 10^{-3} \text{ Wb}$, $3.67 \times 10^{-4} \text{ Wb}$...
3
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20513
$\text{The total number of turns and the cross-sectional area of a solenoid are fixed. However, its length } L \text{ is varied by adjusting the separation between the windings. The inductance of the solenoid will be proportional to:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$L$, $L^2$...
4
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20512
$\text{A coil of cross-sectional area } A \text{ having } n \text{ turns is placed in a uniform magnetic field } B. \text{ When it is rotated with an angular velocity } \omega \text{ the maximum e.m.f. induced in the coil will be:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3}{2} n B A \omega$, $3 n B A \omega$...
3
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20511
$\text{A small circular loop of wire of radius } a \text{ is located at the centre of a much larger circular wire loop of radius } b. \text{ The two loops are in the same plane. The outer loop of radius } b \text{ carries an alternating current } I = I_0 \cos(\omega t). \text{ The emf induced in the smaller inner loop is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\pi \mu_0 I_0 b^2 \omega \cos(\omega t)}{a}$, $\frac{\pi \mu_0 I_0 a^2 \omega \sin(\omega t)}{2b}$...
2
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20510
$\text{When the current in a coil changes from } 5 \text{ A to } 2 \text{ A in } 0.1 \text{ s, the average voltage of } 50 \text{ V is produced. The self-inductance of the coil is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.67 \text{ H}$, $6 \text{ H}$...
1
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20509
$\text{In given L-R circuit connected with a D.C source of 12V, inductance is LmH and resistances is 6 } \Omega. \text{ If the emf induced in the inductor at } t = 1 \text{ms is 10V, value of L is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3}{\ln(1.2)}$, $\frac{6}{\ln(1.2)}$...
2
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20508
$\text{A cube with side length } 25 \text{ cm is moving with a uniform velocity of } 8 \text{ m/s in the positive } y\text{-direction, as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The cube is placed in a uniform magnetic field of } 1 \text{ T, which is directed along the negative } z\text{-axis.}$ $\text{The magnitude of the induced EMF across the opposite faces of the cube is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \text{ V}$, $4 \text{ V}$...
1
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20507
$\text{Variation of the magnetic field through a coil of area } 4 \text{ m}^2 \text{ is shown in the figure. What is the emf induced in the coil (in mV)?}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$8 \text{ mV}$, $16 \text{ mV}$...
1
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20506
$\text{In a part of the circuit, as shown, it is given that the current is decreasing at a rate of } 1 \text{ A/s. Then } V_A - V_B \text{ is equal to:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$18 \text{ V}$, $-18 \text{ V}$...
1
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20505
$\text{The magnetic field through a circular loop is } 0.8 \text{ T.}$ $\text{The radius of the loop is expanding at the rate of } 2 \text{ cm/s.}$ $\text{The induced emf in the loop, when the radius of the loop is } 10 \text{ cm is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$32 \times 10^{-4} \text{ V}$, $16 \times 10^{-4} \text{ V}$...
1
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20504
$\text{A small circular loop of radius } r \text{ is placed in the plane of a square loop of side length } L \ (r \ll L).$ $\text{A circular loop is at the center of the square as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The mutual inductance of the given system is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\mu_0 r^2}{\sqrt{2}L}$, $\frac{\pi \mu_0 r^2}{2L}$...
3
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20503
$\text{A circular loop of radius } \frac{10}{\sqrt{\pi}} \text{ cm is placed in a linearly varying}$ $\text{perpendicular magnetic field which has magnitude } 0.5 \text{ T at time } t = 0.$ $\text{The magnetic field reduces to zero at } t = 0.5 \text{ s. The emf}$ $\text{induced in the loop at } t = 0.25 \text{ s is:}$ $\text{(where } r \text{ is the radius of the circular loop)}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
0.01 \text{ V}, 0.005 \text{ V}...
1
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20502
$\text{A small square loop of wire of side } \ell \text{ is placed inside a large square loop of wire } L \ (L \gg \ell).$ $\text{Both loops are coplanar and their centres coincide at point } O \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The mutual inductance of the system is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2\sqrt{2}\mu_0L^2}{\pi \ell}$, $\frac{\mu_0\ell^2}{2\sqrt{2}\pi L}$...
3
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20501
$\text{A coil of inductance } 2 \text{ H having negligible resistance is connected to a source of supply whose voltage is given by } V = 3t \text{ volt.}$ $\text{(where } t \text{ is in second). If the voltage is applied when } t = 0, \text{ then the energy stored in the coil after } 4 \text{ s is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$73 \text{ J}$, $36 \text{ J}$...
3
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20500
$\text{The current } (i) \text{ at time } t = 0 \text{ and } t = \infty \text{ respectively for the given circuit is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{18E}{55}, \frac{5E}{10}$, $\frac{33}{5E}, \frac{18E}{5}$...
4
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20499
$\text{Figure shows a circuit that contains four identical resistors with resistance } R = 2.0 \, \Omega, \text{ two identical inductors with inductance } L = 2.0 \, \text{mH and an ideal battery with emf } E = 9 \, \text{V. The current } 'i' \text{ just after the switch 's' is closed will be:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.25 \, \text{A}$, $3.0 \, \text{A}$...
1
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20498
$\text{A part of a complete circuit is shown in the figure. At a certain instant, the current } I \text{ is } 1 \text{ A and is decreasing at a rate of } 10^2 \text{ A s}^{-1}. \text{ The value of the potential difference } V_P - V_Q, \text{ (in volts) at that instant is:}$ $L = 50 \text{ mH} \quad I \quad 30 \text{ V} \quad R = 2 \Omega$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$10$, $25$...
3
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20497
$\text{An infinitely long straight wire carrying current } I, \text{ one side opened rectangular loop and a conductor } C \text{ with a sliding connector are located in the same plane, as shown in the figure. The connector has length } l \text{ and resistance } R. \text{ It slides to the right with a velocity } v. \text{ The resistance of the conductor and the self inductance of the loop are negligible. The induced current in the loop, as a function of separation } r, \text{ between the connector and the straight wire is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\mu_0}{\pi} \frac{Ivl}{Rr}$, $\frac{\mu_0}{2\pi} \frac{Ivl}{Rr}$...
2
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20496
$\text{Two concentric circular coils, } C_1 \text{ and } C_2, \text{ are placed in the } XY \text{ plane.}$ $C_1 \text{ has } 500 \text{ turns, and a radius of } 1 \text{ cm.}$ $C_2 \text{ has } 200 \text{ turns and radius of } 20 \text{ cm.}$ $C_2 \text{ carries a time dependent current } I(t) = (5t^2 - 2t + 3) \text{ A where } t \text{ is in } s.$ $\text{The emf induced in } C_1 \text{ (in mV), at the instant } t = 1 \text{ s is } \frac{4}{x}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 5...
2
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20495
$\text{A series } L-R \text{ circuit is connected to a battery of emf } V. \text{ If the circuit is switched on at } t = 0, \text{ then the time at which the energy stored in the inductor reaches } \left(\frac{1}{n}\right) \text{ times of its maximum value, is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{L}{R} \ln \left(\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{\sqrt{n}}\right)$, $\frac{L}{R} \ln \left(\frac{\sqrt{n}}{\sqrt{n-1}}\right)$...
2
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20494
$\text{A small bar magnet is moved through a coil at constant speed from one end to the other.}$ $\text{Which of the following series of observations will be seen on the galvanometer } G \text{ attached across the coil?}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$(a) \uparrow \rightarrow (b) \uparrow \rightarrow (c) \uparrow$, $(a) \nearrow \rightarrow (b) \uparrow \rightarrow (c) \nwarrow$...
2
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20493
$\text{A uniform magnetic field } B \text{ exists in a direction perpendicular to the plane of a square loop made of a metal wire.}$ $\text{The wire has a diameter of } 4 \text{ mm and a total length of } 30 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{The magnetic field changes with time at a steady rate } \frac{dB}{dt} = 0.032 \text{ T s}^{-1}. \text{ The induced current in the loop is close to: (the resistivity of the metal wire is } 1.23 \times 10^{-8} \, \Omega \text{m})$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.34 \, \text{A}$, $0.53 \, \text{A}$...
3
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20492
$\text{An elliptical loop with resistance } R, \text{ semi-major axis } a, \text{ and semi-minor axis } b \text{ is placed in a magnetic field as shown in the figure. If the loop is rotated about the } x\text{-axis with an angular frequency } \omega, \text{ the average power loss in the loop due to Joule heating is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{zero}$, $\frac{\pi^2 a^2 b^2 B^2 \omega^2}{R}$...
3
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20491
$\text{A circular coil of radius } 10 \text{ cm is placed in a uniform magnetic field of } 3.0 \times 10^{-5} \text{ T with its plane perpendicular to the field initially.}$ $\text{It is rotated at constant angular speed about an axis along the diameter of coil and perpendicular to magnetic field so that it undergoes half of rotation in } 0.2 \text{ s.}$ $\text{The maximum value of EMF induced (in } \mu \text{V) in the coil will be close to:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $10$...
3
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20490
$\text{Consider the } LR \text{ circuit shown in the figure. If the switch } S \text{ is closed at } t = 0 \text{ then the amount of charge that passes through the battery between } t = 0 \text{ and } t = \frac{L}{R} \text{ is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{7.3EL}{R^2}$, $\frac{2.7EL}{R^2}$...
4
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20489
$\text{The figure shows a square loop } L \text{ with a side length of } 5 \text{ cm, which is connected to a network of resistances.}$ $\text{The entire setup is moving to the right with a constant speed of } 1 \text{ cm/s.}$ $\text{At a certain instant, a part of the loop } L \text{ is in a uniform magnetic field of } 1 \text{ T, perpendicular to the plane of the loop.}$ $\text{If the resistance of the loop is } 1.7 \, \Omega, \text{ the current in the loop at that instant will be close to:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$115 \, \mu\text{A}$, $150 \, \mu\text{A}$...
3
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20488
$\text{A coil of self inductance } 10 \ \text{mH} \text{ and resistance } 0.1 \ \Omega \text{ is connected through a switch to a battery of internal resistance } 0.9 \ \Omega. \text{ After the switch is closed, the time taken for the current to attain } 80\% \text{ of the saturation value is: [take } \ln 5 = 1.6]$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.324 \ \text{s}$, $0.002 \ \text{s}$...
4
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20487
$\text{A very long solenoid of radius } R \text{ is carrying current}$ $I(t) = kte^{-\alpha t}(k > 0), \text{ as a function of time } (t \geq 0).$ $\text{Counter clockwise current is taken to be positive.}$ $\text{A circular conducting coil of radius } 2R \text{ is placed in the equatorial plane of the solenoid and concentric with the solenoid.}$ $\text{The current induced in the outer coil is correctly depicted, as a function of time, by:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Option 1: Graph with initial positive peak}$, $\text{Option 2: Graph with initial negative peak}$...
2
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20486
$\text{A 20 Henry inductor and coil is connected to a 10 } \Omega \text{ resistance in series as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The time at which the rate of dissipation of energy (Joule's heat) across the resistance is equal to the rate at which magnetic energy is stored in the inductor, is:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2} \ln 2$, $\ln 2$...
3
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20485
2
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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20484
$\text{In the circuit shown here, the point } C \text{ is kept connected to point } A \text{ till the current flowing through the circuit becomes constant.}$ $\text{Afterward, suddenly, point } C \text{ is disconnected from point } A \text{ and connected to point } B \text{ at time } t = 0.}$ $\text{The ratio of the voltage across resistance and the inductor at } t = \frac{L}{R} \text{ will be equal to:}$
1
121
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $\frac{-1}{1-e}$...
2
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20483
$\text{Paramagnetic substances:}$ $\text{A. align themselves along the directions of external magnetic field.}$ $\text{B. attract strongly towards external magnetic field.}$ $\text{C. has susceptibility little more than zero.}$ $\text{D. move from a region of strong magnetic field to weak magnetic field.}$ $\text{Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:}$
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120
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A, C only}$, $\text{B, D only}$...
1
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20482
$\text{Match List-I with List-II}$ $\text{List - I}$ \begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{A} & Y = \text{magnetic susceptibility} \\ & X = \text{magnetizing field} \\ \hline \text{B} & Y = \text{magnetic field} \\ & X = \text{distance from centre of a current carrying wire for } x < a \text{ (where } a = \text{radius of wire)} \\ \hline \text{C} & Y = \text{magnetic field} \\ & X = \text{distance from centre of a current carrying wire for } x > a \text{ (where } a = \text{radius of wire)} \\ \hline \text{D} & Y = \text{magnetic field inside solenoid} \\ & X = \text{distance from centre} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{List - II}$ \begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{I} & \text{Graph: Linear increase} \\ \hline \text{II} & \text{Graph: Decrease then constant} \\ \hline \text{III} & \text{Graph: Constant} \\ \hline \text{IV} & \text{Graph: Exponential decay} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
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120
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{A}-(\text{III}), \text{B}-(\text{I}), \text{C}-(\text{IV}), \text{D}-(\text{II}))$, $(\text{A}-(\text{III}), \text{B}-(\text{IV}), \text{C}-(\text{I}), \text{D}-(\text{II}))$...
1
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20481
$\text{The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is } 0.5 \text{ Am}^2. \text{ It is suspended in a uniform magnetic field of } 8 \times 10^{-2} \text{ T. The work done in rotating it from its most stable to most unstable position is } -$ $1. \ 16 \times 10^{-2} \text{ J}$ $2. \ \text{zero}$ $3. \ 8 \times 10^{-2} \text{ J}$ $4. \ 4 \times 10^{-2} \text{ J}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$16 \times 10^{-2} \text{ J}$, $\text{zero}$...
3
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20480
$\text{A dipole having moment } M \text{ is placed in two magnetic fields of strength } B_1 \text{ and } B_2 \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{If the dipole oscillates 60 times in 20 s in } B_1 \text{ and 60 oscillations in 30 s in } B_2 . \text{ Then } \frac{B_1}{B_2} =$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3}{2}$, $\frac{2}{3}$...
4
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20479
$\text{Consider the two statements:}$ $\text{Statement-I: Electromagnet are made of soft iron.}$ $\text{Statement-II: Soft iron has lower permeability and high retentivity.}$ $\text{Choose the correct option related to statements provided.}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement-I is true and statement-II is true}$, $\text{Statement-I is true and statement-II is false}$...
2
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20478
$\text{The vertical component of the earth's magnetic field is } 6 \times 10^{-5} \text{ T at any place where the angle of dip is } 37^\circ. \text{ The earth's resultant magnetic field at that place will be:}$ $\text{(Given } \tan 37^\circ = \frac{3}{4})$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$8 \times 10^{-5} \text{ T}$, $6 \times 10^{-5} \text{ T}$...
4
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20477
$\text{A magnet hung at } 45^\circ \text{ with a magnetic meridian makes an angle of } 60^\circ \text{ with the horizontal. The actual value of the angle of dip is:}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$\tan^{-1}\left(\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}\right)$, $\tan^{-1}\left(\sqrt{6}\right)$...
1
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20476
$\text{Two bar magnets oscillate in a horizontal plane in earth's magnetic field with time periods of } 3 \text{ s and } 4 \text{ s respectively. If their moments of inertia are in the ratio of } 3 : 2 \text{ then the ratio of their magnetic moments will be:}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 : 1$, $8 : 3$...
2
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20475
$\text{At a certain place, the angle of dip is } 30^\circ \text{ and the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field is } 0.5 \text{ G. The earth's total magnetic field (in G), at that certain place, is:}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$, $\frac{1}{2}$...
1
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20474
$\text{The susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is } 99. \text{ The permeability of the material in Wb/A-m is:}$ $\text{(Permeability of free space, } \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \text{ Wb/A-m)}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$4\pi \times 10^{-7}$, $4\pi \times 10^{-4}$...
3
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20473
$\text{A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of } 2.0 \times 10^5 \text{ JT}^{-1} \text{ is placed along the direction of the uniform magnetic field of magnitude, } B = 14 \times 10^{-5} \text{ T. The work done in rotating the magnet slowly through } 60^\circ \text{ from the direction of the field is:}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$14 \text{ J}$, $8.4 \text{ J}$...
1
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20472
$\text{The soft-iron is a suitable material for making an electromagnet. This is because soft iron has:}$ $1. \text{ low coercivity and high retentivity.}$ $2. \text{ low coercively and low permeability.}$ $3. \text{ high permeability and low retentivity.}$ $4. \text{ high permeability and high retentivity.}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{low coercivity and high retentivity.}$, $\text{low coercively and low permeability.}$...
4
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20471
$\text{In a ferromagnetic material, below the curie temperature, a domain is defined as:}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{a macroscopic region with zero magnetization.}$, $\text{a macroscopic region with consecutive magnetic dipoles oriented in opposite directions.}$...
4
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20470
$\text{A soft ferromagnetic material is placed in an external magnetic field.}$ $\text{The magnetic domains:}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{increase in size but no change in orientation}$, $\text{have no relation with an external magnetic field}$...
4
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20469
$\text{A small bar magnet placed with its axis at } 30^\circ \text{ with an external field of } 0.06 \text{ T experiences a torque of } 0.018 \text{ Nm. The minimum work required to rotate it from its stable to unstable equilibrium position is:}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$7.2 \times 10^{-2} \text{ J}$, $11.7 \times 10^{-3} \text{ J}$...
1
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20468
$\text{A perfectly diamagnetic sphere has a small spherical cavity at its centre, which is filled with a paramagnetic substance. The whole system is placed in a uniform magnetic field } \vec{B}. \text{ Then the field inside the paramagnetic substance is:}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Zero}$, $\vec{B}$...
1
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20467
$\text{Magnetic materials used for making permanent magnets (P) and magnets in a transformer (T) have different properties of the following, which property best matches for the type of magnet required?}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{T : Large retentivity, small coercivity}$, $\text{P : Small retentivity, large coercivity}$...
4
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20466
$\text{A bar magnet is demagnetized by inserting it inside a solenoid of length } 0.2 \text{ m, } 100 \text{ turns, and carrying a current of } 5.2 \text{ A. The coercivity of the bar magnet is:}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$285 \text{ A/m}$, $2600 \text{ A/m}$...
2
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20465
$\text{The } B-H \text{ curve for a ferromagnet is shown in the figure. The ferromagnet is placed inside a long solenoid with } 1000 \text{ turns/cm.}$ $\text{The current that should be passed in the solenoid to demagnetise the ferromagnet completely is:}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \text{ mA}$, $20 \mu\text{A}$...
3
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20464
$A \ 25 \ \text{cm long solenoid has radius} \ 2 \ \text{cm and} \ 500 \ \text{total number of turns.}$ $\text{It carries a current of} \ 15 \ \text{A. If it is equivalent to a magnet of the same size and magnetization} \ \vec{M} \ (\text{magnetic moment/volume}),$ $\text{then the value of} \ |\vec{M}| \ \text{is:}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$3\pi \ \text{Am}^{-1}$, $30000\pi \ \text{Am}^{-1}$...
4
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20463
$\text{Given below two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: For diamagnetic substances, } -1 \leq \chi < 0, \text{ where } \chi \text{ is the magnetic susceptibility.}$ $\text{Statement II: Diamagnetic substances, when placed in an external magnetic field, tend to move from the stronger to the weaker part of the field.}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$...
1
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20462
$\text{A bar magnet with a magnetic moment of } 5 \ \text{Am}^2 \text{ is initially in a stable equilibrium within a uniform external magnetic field of } 0.4 \ \text{T.}$ $\text{The work required to slowly rotate the bar magnet into a position of unstable equilibrium is:}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \ \text{J}$, $2 \ \text{J}$...
4
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20461
$\text{A compass needle of oscillation magnetometer oscillates 20 times per minute at a place } P \text{ of dip } 30^\circ. \text{ The number of oscillations per minute becomes 10 at another place } Q \text{ of } 60^\circ \text{ dip. The ratio of the total magnetic field at the two places: } (B_Q : B_P) \text{ is:}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{3} : 4$, $4 : \sqrt{3}$...
1
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20460
$\text{Two magnetic dipoles, } X \text{ and } Y, \text{ are separated by a distance } d, \text{ with their axes oriented perpendicular to each other.}$ $\text{The dipole moment of } Y \text{ is twice that of } X. \text{A charged particle with charge } q \text{ moves with velocity } v \text{ through their midpoint } P, \text{ which makes an angle } \theta = 45^\circ \text{ with the horizontal axis, as shown in the diagram.}$ $\text{Assuming } d \text{ is much larger than the dimensions of the dipoles, the magnitude of the force acting on the charged particle at this instant is:}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \right) \left( \frac{M}{\left( \frac{d}{2} \right)^3} \right) \times qv$, $\sqrt{2} \left( \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \right) \left( \frac{M}{\left( \frac{d}{2} \right)^3} \right) \times qv$...
1
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20459
$\text{A magnetic needle of magnetic moment } 6.7 \times 10^{-2} \text{ A m}^2 \text{ and moment of inertia } 7.5 \times 10^{-6} \text{ kg m}^2 \text{ is performing simple harmonic oscillation in a magnetic field of } 0.01 \text{ T. Time taken for 10 complete oscillations is:}$ $1.\ 6.65\ \text{s}$ $2.\ 8.89\ \text{s}$ $3.\ 6.98\ \text{s}$ $4.\ 8.76\ \text{s}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$6.65\ \text{s}$, $8.89\ \text{s}$...
1
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20458
$\text{A rectangular loop with sides } 10 \text{ cm, carrying a current } I = 12 \text{ A, is placed in various orientations as shown in the figures. The loop is subjected to a uniform magnetic field of } 0.3 \text{ T in the positive } z\text{-direction.}$ $\text{In which orientations is the loop in (i) stable equilibrium and (ii) unstable equilibrium?}$
1
120
JEE MCQ NEW
$(a) \text{ and } (b), \text{ respectively}$, $(a) \text{ and } (c), \text{ respectively}$...
3
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20457
$\text{A proton and a deuteron } (q = +e, \ m = 2.0u) \text{ having same kinetic energies enter a region of uniform magnetic field } \vec{B}. \text{ The ratio of the radius } r_d \text{ of deuteron path to the radius of } r_p \text{ of the proton path is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1:2$, $\frac{\sqrt{2}}{1}$...
2
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20456
$\text{A galvanometer has a coil of resistance } 200\,\Omega \text{ with a full scale deflection at } 20\,\mu\text{A. The value of resistance to be added to use it as an ammeter of range } (0-20)\,\text{mA is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.50\,\Omega$, $0.40\,\Omega$...
3
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20455
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{When currents vary with time, Newton's third law is valid only if momentum carried by the electromagnetic field is taken into account.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{Ampere's circuital law does not depend on Biot-Savart's law.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are false}$, $\text{Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.}$...
4
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20454
$\text{An element } \Delta l = \Delta x \ \hat{i} \text{ is placed at the origin and carries a large current } I = 10 \ \text{A. The magnetic field on the y-axis at a distance of } 0.5 \ \text{m from the elements } \Delta x \text{ of } 1 \ \text{cm length is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$8 \times 10^{-8} \ \text{T}$, $10 \times 10^{-8} \ \text{T}$...
3
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20453
$\text{A long wire carrying current } \sqrt{2} \text{ A is placed in uniform magnetic field of } 3 \times 10^{-5} \text{ T. If the magnetic field is perpendicular to the wire, then the magnetic force is on the unit length of the wire is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \times 10^{-4} \text{ N}$, $3\sqrt{2} \times 10^{-5} \text{ N}$...
2
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20452
$\text{Two charged particles } A \text{ and } B \text{ have charge } q \text{ each while masses are } m_1 \text{ and } m_2. \text{ Both have the same velocity } v \text{ and enter into a transverse magnetic field } B \text{ such that their radii are } r_1 \text{ and } r_2. \text{ Then the ratio of their masses } m_1 : m_2 \text{ is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{r_2}{r_1}$, $\left( \frac{r_1}{r_2} \right)^2$...
3
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20451
$\text{Consider the circuit shown. The galvanometer resistance is } 10 \, \Omega \text{ and current through the galvanometer is } 3 \, \text{mA.}$ $\text{Then the resistance of the shunt is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$10^{-3} \, \Omega$, $7.5 \times 10^{-3} \, \Omega$...
4
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20450
$\text{If the current } 200 \, \mu\text{A deflects the coil of the moving coil galvanometer through } 60^\circ, \text{ then the current required to cause deflection through } \frac{\pi}{10} \text{ radians is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$60 \, \mu\text{A}$, $50 \, \mu\text{A}$...
1
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20449
$\text{A proton having velocity } \vec{v}_0 \text{ passes through a region having an electric field } E \text{ and a magnetic field } B. \text{ If the velocity of a proton does not change, then which of the following may be true?}$ $\text{a. } E = 0, B = 0$ $\text{b. } E = 0, B \neq 0$ $\text{c. } E \neq 0, B = 0$ $\text{d. } E \neq 0, B \neq 0$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{a}), (\text{b}), (\text{c}), (\text{d})$, $(\text{a})$...
3
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20448
$\text{Two infinite current-carrying wires having current } I \text{ in opposite directions are shown below.}$ $\text{Find the magnetic field (in S.I. units) at point } P.$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{7\mu_0 I}{\pi}$, $\frac{10\mu_0 I}{\pi}$...
2
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20447
$\text{A material is placed in a toroid. If the susceptibility of material is } x = 2 \times 10^{-2}. \text{ Then percentage change in the magnetic field of toroid is:}$ $1. \ 3\%$ $2. \ 1\%$ $3. \ 4\%$ $4. \ 2\%$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$3\%$, $1\%$...
4
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20446
$\text{The characteristics of two coils are given below:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline & \text{Coil-A} & \text{Coil-B} \\ \hline \text{Radius} & r_A = 10 \text{ cm} & r_A = 20 \text{ cm} \\ \text{Number of turns} & N_A & N_B \\ \text{Current} & I_A \text{ ampere} & I_B \text{ ampere} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{If the magnetic moments of both Coil-A and Coil-B are equal, choose the correct relation:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$2N_AI_A = N_BI_B$, $N_AI_A = N_BI_B$...
3
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20445
$\text{An infinity-long conductor has a current } 14\, \text{A flowing as shown:}$ $\text{Find magnetic field at centre } C \text{ is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$88\, \mu T$, $44\, \mu T$...
2
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20444
$\text{A conducting rod of length } 1 \text{ m is moved across a magnetic field of } 0.15 \text{ T, with constant speed of } 4 \text{ m/s. Find force (in N) on rod.}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \text{ N}$, $3 \text{ N}$...
3
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20443
$\text{A solenoid having 60 turns and length 15 cm produces magnetic field of } 2.4 \times 10^{-3} \text{ T, Find the current in the solenoid.}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{90}{2\pi} \text{ A}$, $\frac{30}{2\pi} \text{ A}$...
2
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20442
$\text{If velocity of charged particle has the component both in and perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field then the path traced by the charged particle will be:}$ $1. \text{ Circular}$ $2. \text{ Straight line}$ $3. \text{ Cycloid}$ $4. \text{ Helical}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Circular}$, $\text{Straight line}$...
4
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20441
$\text{A charged particle with charge } 2 \times 10^{-6} \text{ C, at rest, is first accelerated through a potential difference of } 100 \text{ V and then it is subjected to a transverse magnetic field of } 4 \text{ mT. In the region of the magnetic field, it undergoes a circular path of radius } 3 \text{ cm. The mass of the particle is equal to:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.44 \times 10^{-16} \text{ kg}$, $7.2 \times 10^{-16} \text{ kg}$...
1
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20440
$\text{In a moving coil galvanometer, the number of turns in the coil are increased to increase the current sensitivity by } 50\%. \text{ The percentage change in voltage sensitivity is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$-50\%$, $50\%$...
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20439
$\text{Coil A of radius 10 cm has } N_A \text{ number of turns and } I_A \text{ current is flowing through it. Coil B of radius 20 cm has } N_B \text{ number of turns and } I_B \text{ current is flowing through it. If the magnetic dipole moment of both the coils is the same then:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$I_A N_A = 4 I_B N_B$, $4 I_A N_A = I_B N_B$...
1
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20438
$\text{A solenoid of length } 2 \text{ m, has } 1200 \text{ turns. The magnetic field inside the solenoid, when } 2 \text{ A current is passed through it is:}$ $\text{(Diameter of the solenoid is } 0.5 \text{ m)}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$48\pi \times 10^{-5} \text{ T}$, $48\pi \times 10^{-3} \text{ T}$...
1
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20437
$\text{A wire } X \text{ of length } 50 \text{ cm carrying a current } 2 \text{ A is placed parallel to a long wire } Y \text{ of length } 5 \text{ m.}$ $\text{The wire } Y \text{ carries a current } 3 \text{ A.}$ $\text{The distance between the two wires is } 5 \text{ cm and currents flow in the same direction.}$ $\text{The force acting on the wire } Y \text{ is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.2 \times 10^{-5} \text{ N directed towards wire } X.$, $1.2 \times 10^{-4} \text{ N directed away from wire } X.$...
1
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20436
$\text{As shown in the figure, a metallic rod of linear density } 0.45 \text{ kg m}^{-1} \text{ is lying horizontally on a smooth incline plane which makes an angle of } 45^\circ \text{ with the horizontal.}$ $\text{The minimum current flowing in the rod required to keep it stationary, when } 0.15 \text{ T magnetic field is acting on it in the vertically upward direction, will be:}$ $\{\text{Use } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2 \}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$30 \text{ A}$, $15 \text{ A}$...
1
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20435
$\text{The current sensitivity of a galvanometer can be increased by:}$ $\text{A. decreasing the number of turns.}$ $\text{B. increasing the magnetic field.}$ $\text{C. decreasing the area of the coil.}$ $\text{D. decreasing the torsional constant of the spring.}$ $\text{Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{B}) \text{ and } (\text{C}) \text{ only}$, $(\text{C}) \text{ and } (\text{D}) \text{ only}$...
4
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20434
$\text{A cyclotron is used to accelerate protons. If the operating magnetic field is } 1.0 \text{ T and the radius of the cyclotron 'dees' is } 60 \text{ cm, the kinetic energy of the accelerated protons in MeV will be:}$ $\text{[use } m_p = 1.6 \times 10^{-27} \text{ kg, } e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \text{ C]}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$12$, $18$...
2
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20433
$\text{A velocity selector consists of electric field } \vec{E} = E\hat{k} \text{ and magnetic field } \vec{B} = B\hat{j} \text{ with } B = 12 \text{ mT. The value } E \text{ required for an electron of energy } 728 \text{ eV moving along the positive x-axis to pass undeflected is:}$ $\text{(Given, mass of electron } = 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \text{ kg)}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$192 \text{ k Vm}^{-1}$, $192 \text{ m Vm}^{-1}$...
1
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20432
$\text{Two concentric circular loops of radii } r_1 = 30 \text{ cm and } r_2 = 50 \text{ cm}$ $\text{are placed in } X-Y \text{ plane as shown in the figure. A current } I = 7 \text{ A is}$ $\text{flowing through them in the direction as shown in figure. The net}$ $\text{magnetic moment of this system of two circular loops is approximately:}$
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119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{7}{2} \hat{k} \text{ Am}^2$, $-\frac{7}{2} \hat{k} \text{ Am}^2$...
2
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20431
$B_X$ and $B_Y$ are the magnetic field at the centre of two coils of two coils $X$ and $Y$ respectively, each carrying equal current. If coil $X$ has 200 turns and 20 \text{ cm} radius and coil $Y$ has 400 turns and 20 \text{ cm} radius, the ratio of $B_X$ and $B_Y$ is:
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
1: 1, 1: 2...
2
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20430
$\text{A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field } (2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}) \text{ T. If it has an acceleration of } (\alpha \hat{i} - 4\hat{j}) \text{ m/s}^2, \text{ then the value of } \alpha \text{ will be:}$ $1.\ 3$ $2.\ 6$ $3.\ 12$ $4.\ 2$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $6$...
2
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20429
$\text{An electron with energy } 0.1 \text{ keV moves at right angle to the earth's magnetic field of } 1 \times 10^{-4} \text{ Wbm}^{-2}. \text{ The frequency of revolution of the electron will be}$ $\text{(Take mass of electron } = 9.0 \times 10^{-31} \text{ kg)}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.6 \times 10^5 \text{ Hz}$, $5.6 \times 10^5 \text{ Hz}$...
3
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20428
$\text{The electric current in a circular coil of 2 turns produces a magnetic induction } B_1 \text{ at its centre.}$ $\text{The coil is unwound and is rewound into a circular coil of 5 turns and the same current produces a magnetic induction } B_2 \text{ at its centre.}$ $\text{The ratio of } \frac{B_2}{B_1} \text{ is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{5}{25}$, $\frac{5}{2}$...
2
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20427
$\text{Two charged particles, having same kinetic energy, are allowed to pass through a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the direction of motion.}$ $\text{If the ratio of radii of their circular paths is } 6:5 \text{ and their respective masses ratio is } 9:4. \text{ Then, the ratio of their charges will be:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$8:5$, $5:4$...
2
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20426
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{The electric force changes the speed of the charged particle and hence changes its kinetic energy; whereas the magnetic force does not change the kinetic energy of the charged particle.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{The electric force accelerates the positively charged particle perpendicular to the direction of the electric field. The magnetic force accelerates the moving charged particle along the direction of the magnetic field.}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$...
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20425
$\text{Two long current-carrying conductors are placed parallel to each other at a distance of } 8 \text{ cm between them.}$ $\text{The magnitude of the magnetic field produced at the mid-point between the two conductors due to the current flowing in them is } 300 \, \mu\text{T.}$ $\text{The equal current flowing in the two conductors is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$30 \, \text{A in the same direction}$, $30 \, \text{A in the opposite direction}$...
2
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20424
$\text{A charged particle moves along a circular path in a uniform magnetic field in a cyclotron. The kinetic energy of the charged particle increases to 4 times its initial value. What will be the ratio of the new radius to the original radius of the circular path of the charged particle?}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 1$, $1 : 2$...
3
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20423
$\text{Two parallel, long wires are kept } 0.20 \text{ m apart in a vacuum, each carrying current of } x \text{ A in the same direction.}$ $\text{If the force of attraction per meter of each wire is } 2 \times 10^{-6} \text{ N, then the value of } x \text{ is approximately:}$ $1. \ 1$ $2. \ 2.4$ $3. \ 1.4$ $4. \ 2$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $2.4$...
3
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20422
$\text{The space inside a straight current-carrying solenoid is filled with a magnetic material having magnetic susceptibility equal to } 1.2 \times 10^{-5}. \text{ What is fractional increase in the magnetic field inside solenoid with respect to air as medium inside the solenoid?}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.2 \times 10^{-5}$, $1.2 \times 10^{-3}$...
1
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20421
$\text{Two long parallel conductors } S_1 \text{ and } S_2 \text{ are separated by a distance of } 10 \text{ cm and carrying currents of } 4 \text{ A and } 2 \text{ A respectively.}$ $\text{The conductors are placed along the x-axis in the X-Y plane.}$ $\text{There is a point P located between the conductors (as shown in the figure).}$ $\text{A charged particle of } 3\pi \text{ coulomb is passing through the point P with velocity}$ $\vec{v} = (2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}) \text{ m/s; where } \hat{i} \& \hat{j} \text{ represents unit vectors along the x \& y-axis respectively.}$ $\text{The force acting on the charged particle is } 4\pi \times 10^{-5} (-x\hat{i} + 2\hat{j}) \text{ N.}$ $\text{The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $1$...
3
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20420
$\text{A } 72 \, \Omega \text{ galvanometer is shunted by a resistance of } 8 \, \Omega. \text{ The percentage of the total current that passes through the galvanometer is:}$ $1. \; 0.1\%$ $2. \; 10\%$ $3. \; 25\%$ $4. \; 0.25\%$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
0.1\%, 10\%...
2
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20419
$\text{A proton and an alpha particle of the same velocity enter a uniform magnetic field which is acting perpendicular to their direction of motion. The ratio of the circular paths described by the alpha particle and proton is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1:4$, $4:1$...
3
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20418
$\text{A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field } B \text{ along its axis.}$ $\text{If the current is doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved,}$ $\text{then the new value of the magnetic field will be equal to:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$B$, $2B$...
1
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20417
$\text{A teacher in his laboratory allotted an experiment to determine the resistance } (G) \text{ of a galvanometer. Students took the observation for } \frac{1}{3} \text{ deflection in the galvanometer. Which of the below is true for measuring the value of } G?$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{3} \text{ deflection method cannot be used for determining the resistance of the galvanometer.}$, $\frac{1}{3} \text{ deflection method can be used and in this case, the } G \text{ equals to twice the value of shunt resistance } (S).$...
2
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20416
$\text{A long straight wire with a circular cross-section having radius R is carrying a steady current I.}$ $\text{The current I is uniformly distributed across this cross-section.}$ $\text{Then the variation of the magnetic field due to the current I with distance r (r<R) from its centre will be:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$B \propto r^2$, $B \propto r$...
2
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20415
$\text{A proton, a deuteron and an } \alpha\text{-particle with the same kinetic energy enter into a uniform magnetic field.}$ $\text{The ratio of the radii of their respective circular paths is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : \sqrt{2} : \sqrt{2}$, $1 : 1 : \sqrt{2}$...
4
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20414
$\text{The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius } r, \text{ due to current } I \text{ flowing through it, is } B. \text{ The magnetic field at a point along the axis at a distance } \frac{r}{2} \text{ from the centre is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{B}{2}$, $2B$...
3
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20413
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{In a uniform magnetic field, speed and energy remain the same for a moving charged particle.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{Moving charged particle experiences a magnetic force perpendicular to its direction of motion.}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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20412
$\text{In laboratory experiments, a galvanometer is often used to detect the null point. The figure of merit of a galvanometer is a measure of its sensitivity, defined as the current required to produce a unit deflection (usually 1 division on the scale).}$ $\text{If a galvanometer produces a deflection of } 2^\circ, \text{ when a current of } 6 \text{ mA is passed through it, what is its figure of merit?}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \times 10^{-3} \text{ A/div}$, $333^\circ \text{ A/div}$...
1
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20411
$\text{An iron rod of volume } 10^{-3} \text{ m}^3 \text{ and relative permeability } 1000 \text{ is placed as core in a solenoid with } 10 \text{ turns/cm. If a current of } 0.5 \text{ A is passed through the solenoid, then the magnetic moment of the rod will be:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.5 \times 10^2 \text{ Am}^2$, $50 \times 10^2 \text{ Am}^2$...
4
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20410
$\text{A galvanometer coil has } 500 \text{ turns and each turn has an average area of } 3 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}^2. \text{ If a torque of } 1.5 \text{ Nm is required to keep this coil parallel to a magnetic field when a current of } 0.5 \text{ A is flowing through it, the strength of the field (in T) is:}$ $1. \ 10$ $2. \ 40$ $3. \ 20$ $4. \ 30$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$10$, $40$...
3
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20409
$\text{A beam of protons with speed } 4 \times 10^5 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ enters a uniform magnetic field of } 0.3 \text{ T at an angle of } 60^\circ \text{ to the magnetic field.}$ $\text{The pitch of the resulting helical path of protons is close to:}$ $\text{(Mass of the proton } = 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \text{ kg, charge of the proton } = 1.69 \times 10^{-19} \text{ C)}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$12 \text{ cm}$, $4 \text{ cm}$...
2
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20408
$\text{A long, straight wire of radius carries a current distributed uniformly over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields due to the wire at a distance } \frac{a}{2} \text{ and } 2a, \text{ respectively from the axis of the wire is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2}$, $1$...
2
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20407
$\text{A particle having the same charge as of electron moves in a circular path of radius } 0.5 \text{ cm under the influence of a magnetic field of } 0.5 \text{ T.}$ $\text{If an electric field of } 100 \text{ V/m makes it to move in a straight path, then the mass of the particle is:}$ $\text{(given charge of electron } e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \text{ C)}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$9.1 \times 10^{-31} \text{ kg}$, $1.6 \times 10^{-27} \text{ kg}$...
4
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20406
$\text{An infinitely long current-carrying wire and a small current-carrying loop are in the plane of the paper as shown. The radius of the loop is } a \text{ and the distance of its centre from the wire is } d (d \gg a). \text{ If the loop applies a force } F \text{ on the wire then:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$F = 0$, $F \propto \left( \frac{a}{d} \right)$...
4
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20405
$\text{A current loop, having two circular arcs joined by two radial lines is shown in the figure. It carries a current of } 10 \text{ A. The magnetic field at a point } O \text{ will be close to:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.0 \times 10^{-7} \text{ T}$, $1.5 \times 10^{-7} \text{ T}$...
4
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20404
$\text{A square loop is carrying a steady current } I \text{ and the magnitude of its magnetic dipole moment is } m. \text{ If this square loop is changed to a circular loop and it carries the same current, the magnitude of the magnetic dipole moment of circular loop will be:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{4m}{\pi}$, $\frac{3m}{\pi}$...
1
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20403
$\text{The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of an equilateral}$ $\text{triangular loop of side 1 m which is carrying a current of 10 A is:}$ $\text{[Take } \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \text{ NA}^{-2}]$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \, \mu\text{T}$, $18 \, \mu\text{T}$...
2
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20402
$\text{The resistance of a galvanometer is } 50 \, \Omega \text{ and the maximum current which can be passed through it is } 0.002 \, \text{A.}$ $\text{What resistance must be connected to it in order to convert it into an ammeter of range } (0-0.5 \, \text{A})?$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
0.2 \, \Omega, 0.002 \, \Omega...
1
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20401
$\text{A moving coil galvanometer has a coil with } 175 \text{ turns and area } 1 \text{ cm}^2 . \text{ It uses a torsion band of torsion constant } 10^{-6} \text{ N-m/rad. The coil is placed in a magnetic field } B \text{ parallel to its plane. The coil deflects by } 1^\circ \text{ for a current of } 1 \text{ mA. The value of } B \text{ (in Tesla) is approximately:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$10^{-3}$, $10^{-1}$...
3
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20400
$\text{A moving coil galvanometer with a resistance of } 50 \, \Omega \text{ shows full deflection at a current of } 4 \, \text{mA.}$ $\text{When this galvanometer is used to construct a voltmeter with a series resistance of } 5 \, \text{k}\Omega, \text{ the maximum voltage that can be measured by the voltmeter is close to:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$40 \, \text{V}$, $10 \, \text{V}$...
4
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20399
$\text{A rectangular coil (Dimension } 5 \text{ cm} \times 2.5 \text{ cm}) \text{ with } 100 \text{ turns, carrying a current of } 3 \text{ A in the clock-wise direction, is kept centered at the origin and in the } X-Z \text{ plane. A magnetic field of } 1 \text{ T is applied along } X\text{-axis. If the coil is tilted through } 45^\circ \text{ about } Z\text{-axis, then the torque on the coil is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.55 \text{ Nm}$, $0.38 \text{ Nm}$...
4
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20398
$\text{A galvanometer with its coil resistance } 25 \, \Omega \text{ requires a current of } 1 \, \text{mA for its full deflection.}$ $\text{In order to construct an ammeter to read up to a current of } 2 \, \text{A, the approximate value of the shunt resistance should be:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.25 \times 10^{-2} \, \Omega$, $2.5 \times 10^{-3} \, \Omega$...
1
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20397
$\text{A charge } q \text{ is spread uniformly over an insulated loop of radius } r. \text{ If it is rotated with an angular velocity } \omega \text{ with respect to the normal axis then the magnetic moment of the loop is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3}{2} q \omega r^2$, $\frac{1}{2} q \omega r^2$...
2
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20396
$\text{A uniform magnetic field } B \text{ of } 0.3 \text{ T is along the positive } z\text{-direction.}$ $\text{A rectangular loop } (abcd) \text{ of sides } 10 \text{ cm } \times 5 \text{ cm carries a current } I$ $\text{of } 12 \text{ A. Out of the following different orientations which one}$ $\text{corresponds to stable equilibrium?}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Option 1 diagram}$, $\text{Option 2 diagram}$...
4
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20395
$\text{A negative test charge is moving near a long straight wire carrying a current. The force acting on the test charge is parallel to the direction of the current. The motion of the charge is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{parallel to the wire opposite to the current}$, $\text{parallel to the wire long the current}$...
4
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20394
$\text{A magnetic dipole in a constant magnetic field has:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{minimum potential energy when the torque is maximum.}$, $\text{zero potential energy when the torque is minimum.}$...
4
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20393
$\text{In a certain region, static electric and magnetic fields exist. The magnetic field is given by } \vec{B} = B_0 (\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} - 4\hat{k}).$ $\text{If a test charge moving with a velocity } \vec{v} = v_0 (3\hat{i} - \hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) \text{ experiences no force in that region, then the electric field in the region, (in SI units) is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\vec{E} = -v_0 B_0 (\hat{i} + \hat{j} + 7\hat{k})$, $\vec{E} = v_0 B_0 (14\hat{j} + 7\hat{k})$...
3
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20392
$\text{The AC voltage across a resistance can be measured using a:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{hot wire voltmeter}$, $\text{moving coil galvanometer}$...
1
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20391
$\text{A short bar magnet is placed in the magnetic meridian of the earth with the north pole pointing north. Neutral points are found at a distance of } 30 \text{ cm from the magnet on the East-West line, drawn through the middle point of the magnet. The magnetic moment of the magnet in } \text{Am}^2 \text{ is close to:}$ $\left( \text{Given } \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} = 10^{-7} \text{ in S.I. units and } B_H = \text{Horizontal component of earth's magnetic field } = 3.6 \times 10^{-5} \text{ Tesla} \right)$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$14.6$, $19.4$...
3
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20390
$\text{Two long straight parallel wires, carrying (adjustable) current } I_1 \text{ and } I_2 \text{ are kept at a distance } d \text{ apart.}$ $\text{If the force } F \text{ between the two wires is taken as positive when the wires repel each other and negative when the wires attract each other, the graph showing the dependence of } F, \text{ on the product } I_1I_2 \text{ would be:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph with } F \text{ on the y-axis and } I_1I_2 \text{ on the x-axis, passing through the origin with positive slope}$, $\text{Graph with } F \text{ on the y-axis and } I_1I_2 \text{ on the x-axis, passing through the origin with negative slope}$...
1
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20389
$\text{A wire carrying current } I \text{ is tied between points } P \text{ and } Q \text{ and is in the shape of a circular arch of radius } R \text{ due to a uniform magnetic field } B \text{ (perpendicular to the plane of the paper, shown by cross marked) in the vicinity of the wire. If the wire subtends an angle } 2\theta_0 \text{ at the centre of the circle (of which it forms an arch) then the tension in the wire is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{IBR}{2 \sin \theta_0}$, $IBR \theta_0$...
3
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20388
$\text{A proton (mass } m) \text{ accelerated by a potential difference } V \text{ flies through a uniform transverse magnetic field } B. \text{ The field occupies a region of space by width } 'd'. \text{ If } '\alpha' \text{ be the angle of deviation of the proton from the initial direction of motion (see figure), the value of } \sin \alpha \text{ will be:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{B}{d} \sqrt{\frac{q}{2mV}}$, $Bd \sqrt{\frac{q}{2mV}}$...
2
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20387
$\text{Two rings of equal radius } R \text{ arranged perpendicular to each other with a common centre at } C, \text{ carrying equal current } I. \text{ Then the magnetic field at the common centre } C \text{ is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\mu_0 I}{2R}$, $\frac{\mu_0 I}{R}$...
4
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20386
$\text{Consider the following current carrying structure. Then the magnetic field at the centre is:}$ $\text{Given that } (r_1 = 2\pi \text{ units and } r_2 = 4\pi \text{ units.})$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \times 10^{-8} \text{ T}$, $5 \times 10^{-8} \text{ T}$...
2
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20385
$\text{A conducting rod, suspended freely in a gravitational field, carries a current } I \text{ as shown in the figure. If the length of the rod, current in the rod, and magnetic field strength are } 0.5 \text{ m, } 2 \text{ A, and } 0.4 \text{ T respectively, the mass of the rod is: (take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$20 \text{ grams}$, $40 \text{ grams}$...
2
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20384
$\text{An electron is moving along positive } x \text{ direction in } x-y \text{ plane.}$ $\text{Magnetic field points in negative } z \text{ direction, then the force due to magnetic field on electron points in the direction is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\hat{j}$, $-\hat{j}$...
2
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20383
$\text{A charged particle is projected inside along the axis of a long solenoid, then:}$ $\text{a. the path will be a straight line}$ $\text{b. there will be no effect of the magnetic field on the charge}$ $\text{c. the path will be parabolic}$ $\text{d. the path will be circular}$ $\text{Choose the correct statements from the ones given above:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(a), (d)}$, $\text{(a), (b)}$...
2
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20382
$\text{In a moving coil galvanometer, if the number of turns in the coil increase by } 25\%, \text{ the change in voltage sensitivity is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{zero}$, $1\%$...
1
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20381
$\text{The ratio of magnetic field due to coil at centre and at a distance of } R \text{ from the centre on the axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of ring is } \sqrt{x} : 1 \text{ (R is the radius of coil), find the value of } x.$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $8$...
3
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20380
$\text{In a long solenoid the magnetic field intensity inside the solenoid is equal to } 1.6 \times 10^{-3} \text{ T.}$ $\text{If number of turns per unit length on the solenoid is equal to } \frac{8}{\pi} \text{ per cm then current flowing in the solenoid is equal to:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \text{ A}$, $2.5 \text{ A}$...
1
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20379
$\text{A proton is projected with a speed } v \text{ into a magnetic field } B \text{ of magnitude } 1 \text{ T with the angle between the proton's velocity and the magnetic field being } 60^\circ, \text{ as shown. The kinetic energy of the proton is } 2 \text{ eV (with the proton's mass } = 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \text{ kg, and charge } e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \text{ C). The pitch of the path of the proton is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$6.28 \times 10^{-2} \text{ m}$, $6.42 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}$...
2
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20378
$\text{The given figure shows a long cylindrical shell having current } I \text{ flowing uniformly along the wall.}$ $\text{The graph showing the variation of magnetic field } (B) \text{ with the perpendicular distance } (r) \text{ from the axis of the shell is}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$B \uparrow \text{ vs } r \text{ with a peak at } r = R$, $B \uparrow \text{ vs } r \text{ decreasing after } r = R$...
2
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20377
$\text{Two identical current carrying coils with same centre are placed with their planes perpendicular to each other as shown.}$ $\text{If } i = \sqrt{2} A \text{ and radius of coils is } R = 1 \text{ m then magnetic field at centre C is equal to:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\mu_0$, $\frac{\mu_0}{2}$...
1
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20376
$\text{The magnetic field induced at point } P \text{ on axis as shown in figure is } \frac{\mu_0 I}{x \sqrt{5R}}. \text{ Then } x =$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
10, 5...
1
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20375
$\text{An infinite wire is bent in the shape as shown in the figure with portion } AOB \text{ being semi-circular of radius } R. \text{ If current } i \text{ flows through the wire, then the magnetic field at the centre } O \text{ is equal to:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\mu_0 i}{\pi R}$, $\frac{\mu_0 i}{2R}$...
4
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20374
$\text{An infinite wire is bent in the shape as shown in the figure. The magnetic field at point } C \text{ is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\mu_0 i}{4 \pi r} (1 + \pi)$, $\frac{\mu_0 i}{4 \pi r} (2 + \pi)$...
1
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20373
$\text{A wire is first coiled in } n \text{ circular turns and current } I \text{ is run through it.}$ $\text{Now the same wire is coiled in } N \text{ circular turns and the same current } I \text{ is run through it.}$ $\text{If } B_1 \text{ and } B_2 \text{ are the magnetic field at centre of two coils respectively then } \frac{B_1}{B_2} \text{ is equal to:}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{n}{N}}$, $\left(\frac{n}{N}\right)^2$...
2
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20372
$\text{A current } 2 \text{ A is flowing through the sides of an equilateral triangular loop of side } 4\sqrt{3} \text{ m as shown. The magnetic field induction at the centroid of the triangle is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$3\sqrt{3} \times 10^{-7} \text{ T}$, $\sqrt{3} \times 10^{-7} \text{ T}$...
1
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20371
$\text{A current-carrying loop of radius } a \text{ is placed in the X-Y plane with its center at the origin. The magnetic field on the point } (0, 0, a) \text{ is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\mu_0 i}{2 \sqrt{2} a}$, $\frac{\mu_0 i}{4 \sqrt{2} a}$...
2
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20370
$\text{Point } O \text{ and two long wires are kept in the same plane such that point } O \text{ lies in the middle of the line. The magnetic field at point } O \text{ due to the current } i \text{ flowing in both the wires is equal to:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\mu_0 i}{2 \pi l}$, $\frac{\mu_0 i}{\pi l}$...
2
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20369
$\text{Two straight wires placed parallel to each other are carrying currents as shown.}$ $\text{P is equidistant from the wires.}$ $\text{The magnetic field at point P is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$8 \times 10^{-5} \text{ T}$, $8 \times 10^{-7} \text{ T}$...
1
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20368
$\text{Electric field is applied along } +\hat{y} \text{ direction. A charged particle is travelling along } -\hat{k}, \text{ undeflected. Then magnetic field in the region will be along?}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\hat{i}$, $-\hat{i}$...
1
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20367
$\text{A coil of radius } R \text{ centred at } O \text{ carries a current } i. \text{ Point } P \text{ is on the axis of coil at a distance } R \text{ from the centre } O \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The ratio of the magnetic field at point } O \text{ to the magnetic field at point } P \text{ is equal to:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $2\sqrt{2}$...
2
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20366
$\text{Two parallel infinite wires carry equal currents as shown. If both the currents are doubled and separation is halved, the force on a 10 cm section of one of the wires becomes:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ times}$, $\frac{1}{4} \text{ times}$...
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20365
$\text{An infinitely long hollow conducting cylinder with radius } R \text{ carries a uniform current along its surface. The correct representation of magnetic field } (B) \text{ as a function of radial distance } (r) \text{ from the axis of the cylinder is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
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20364
$\text{Magnetic fields at two points on the axis of a circular coil at a distance of } 0.05 \text{ m and } 0.2 \text{ m from the centre are in the ratio } 8 : 1. \text{ The radius of the coil is:}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$0.2 \text{ m}$, $0.1 \text{ m}$...
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20363
$\text{A proton, a deuteron and an } \alpha\text{- particle are moving with same momentum in a uniform magnetic field. The ratio of magnetic forces acting on them is } \_\_\_ \text{ and their speeds are in the ratio } \_\_\_.$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 2 : 4 \text{ and } 2 : 1 : 1$, $2 : 1 : 1 \text{ and } 4 : 2 : 1$...
2
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20362
$\text{A square loop of side } 2a \text{ and carrying current } I \text{ is kept in xz plane}$ $\text{with its centre at origin. A long wire carrying the same current } I \text{ is}$ $\text{placed parallel to z-axis and passing through point } (0, b, 0), (b \gg a).$ $\text{The magnitude of torque on the loop about z-axis will be:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2\mu_0 I^2 a^2 b}{\pi (a^2 - b^2)}$, $\frac{\mu_0 I^2 a^2 b}{\pi (a^2 - b^2)}$...
4
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20361
$\text{A charged particle going around in a circle can be considered to be a current loop. A particle of mass } m \text{ carrying charge } q \text{ is moving in a plane with speed } v \text{ under the influence of a magnetic field } \vec{B}. \text{ The magnetic moment of this moving particle:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{mv^2 \vec{B}}{B^2}$, $\frac{mv^2 \vec{B}}{2\pi B^2}$...
4
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20360
$\text{A particle of charge } q \text{ and mass } m \text{ is moving with a velocity } -v\hat{i} (v \neq 0) \text{ towards a large screen placed in the } Y-Z \text{ plane at a distance } d. \text{ If there is a magnetic field } \mathbf{B} = B_0 \hat{k}, \text{ the minimum value of } v \text{ for which the particle will not hit the screen is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{qdB_0}{m}$, $\frac{2m}{2qdB_0}$...
4
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20359
$\text{A galvanometer of resistance } G \text{ is converted into a voltmeter of range } 0-1 \text{ V by connecting a resistance } R_1 \text{ in series with it. The additional resistance that should be connected in series with } R_1 \text{ to increase the range of the voltmeter to } 0-2 \text{ V will be:}$ $1. \ R_1$ $2. \ R_1 + G$ $3. \ R_1 - G$ $4. \ G$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$R_1$, $R_1 + G$...
2
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20358
$\text{A square loop of side } 2a, \text{ and carrying current } I, \text{ is kept in } XZ \text{ plane}$ $\text{with its centre at origin. A long wire carrying the same current } I \text{ is}$ $\text{placed parallel to the } z\text{-axis and passing through the point } (0, b, 0), (b \gg a).$ $\text{The magnitude of the torque on the loop about } z\text{-axis is given by:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2\mu_0 I^2 a^2}{\pi b}$, $\frac{\pi b}{\mu_0 I^2 a^3}$...
1
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20357
$\text{A circular coil has moment of inertia } 0.8 \text{ kgm}^2 \text{ around any diameter}$ $\text{and is carrying current to produce a magnetic moment of } 20 \text{ Am}^2.$ $\text{The coil is kept initially in a vertical position and it can rotate freely}$ $\text{around a horizontal diameter. When a uniform magnetic field of } 4 \text{ T}$ $\text{is applied along the vertical, it starts rotating around its horizontal}$ $\text{diameter. The angular speed the coil acquires after rotating by } 60^\circ$ $\text{will be:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$20 \text{ rads}^{-1}$, $20\pi \text{ rads}^{-1}$...
4
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20356
$\text{A wire } A, \text{ bent in the shape of an arc of a circle, carrying a current of } 2 \text{ A and having radius } 2 \text{ cm and another wire } B, \text{ also bent in the shape of arc of a circle, carrying a current of } 3 \text{ A and having radius of } 4 \text{ cm, are placed as shown in the figure. The ratio of the magnetic fields due to the wires } A \text{ and } B \text{ at the common centre } O \text{ is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$6 : 5$, $6 : 4$...
1
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20355
$\text{Which of the following will NOT be observed when a multimeter (operating in resistance measuring mode) probes connected across a component, are just reversed?}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Multimeter shows an equal deflection in both cases i.e. before and after reversing the probes if the chosen component is resistor.}$, $\text{Multimeter shows NO deflection in both cases i.e. before and after reversing the probes if the chosen component is metal wire.}$...
4
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20354
$\text{A charged particle carrying charge } 1 \, \mu \text{C is moving with velocity } (2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 4\hat{k}) \, \text{m/s. If an external magnetic field of } (5\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}) \times 10^{-3} \, \text{T, exists in the region where the particle is moving then the force on the particle is } \vec{F} \times 10^{-9} \, \text{N. The vector } \vec{F} \text{ is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$-3.0\hat{i} + 3.2\hat{j} - 0.9\hat{k}$, $-300\hat{i} + 320\hat{j} - 90\hat{k}$...
3
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20353
$\text{Magnitude of magnetic field (in SI units) at the centre of a hexagonal}$ $\text{shape coil of side 10 cm, 50 turns and carrying current } I \text{ (Ampere) in}$ $\text{units of } \frac{\mu_0 I}{\pi} \text{ is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$5\sqrt{3}$, $250\sqrt{3}$...
4
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20352
$\text{A wire carrying current } I \text{ is bent in the shape } ABCDEFA \text{ as shown, where rectangle } ABCDA \text{ and } ADEF \text{A are perpendicular to each other. If the sides of the rectangles are of lengths } a \text{ and } b, \text{ then the magnitude and direction of magnetic moment of the loop } ABCDEFA \text{ is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{2} abI \text{ along } \left[ \frac{\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}} + \frac{\hat{k}}{\sqrt{2}} \right]$, $\sqrt{2} abI \text{ along } \left[ \frac{\hat{j}}{\sqrt{5}} + \frac{2\hat{k}}{\sqrt{5}} \right]$...
1
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20351
$\text{The figure shows a region of length 'l' with a uniform magnetic field of } 0.3 \text{ T in it and a proton entering the region with velocity } 4 \times 10^5 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ making an angle } 60^\circ \text{ with the field.}$ $\text{If the proton completes 10 revolutions by the time it crosses the region shown, 'l' is close to (mass of proton } = 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \text{ kg, charge of the proton } = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \text{ C)}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.11 \text{ m}$, $0.22 \text{ m}$...
3
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20350
$\text{Find the magnetic field at point } P \text{ due to a straight line segment } AB$ $\text{of length } 6 \text{ cm carrying a current of } 5 \text{ A. (See figure)}$ $\left( \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \text{ N}\cdot\text{A}^{-2} \right)$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.5 \times 10^{-5} \text{ T}$, $3.0 \times 10^{-5} \text{ T}$...
1
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20349
$\text{A moving coil galvanometer, having a resistance } G, \text{ produces full scale deflection when a current } I_g \text{ flows through it.}$ $\text{This galvanometer can be converted into (i) an ammeter of range } 0 \text{ to } I_0 \ (I_0 > I_g) \text{ by connecting a shunt resistance } R_A \text{ to it and (ii) into a voltmeter of range } 0 \text{ to } V \ (V = GI_0) \text{ by connecting a series resistance } R_V \text{ to it. Then,}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$R_A R_V = G^2 \text{ and } \frac{R_A}{R_V} = \frac{I_g}{I_0 - I_g}$, $R_A R_V = G^2 \left( \frac{I_g}{I_0 - I_g} \right) \text{ and } \frac{R_A}{R_V} = \left( \frac{I_0 - I_g}{I_g} \right)^2$...
4
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20348
$\text{A galvanometer of resistance } 100 \, \Omega \text{ has } 50 \text{ divisions on its scale}$ $\text{and has sensitivity of } 20 \, \mu\text{A/division. It is to be converted to a}$ $\text{voltmeter with three ranges of } 0-2 \, \text{V}, \, 0-10 \, \text{V and } 0-20 \, \text{V. The}$ $\text{appropriate circuit to do so is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\begin{array}{l} R_1 = 1900 \, \Omega \\ R_2 = 8000 \, \Omega \\ R_3 = 10000 \, \Omega \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{l} R_1 = 19900 \, \Omega \\ R_2 = 9900 \, \Omega \\ R_3 = 1900 \, \Omega \end{array}$...
1
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20347
$\text{A thin ring of } 10 \text{ cm radius carries a uniformly distributed charge.}$ $\text{The ring rotates at a constant angular speed of } 40\pi \text{ rad s}^{-1} \text{ about}$ $\text{its axis, perpendicular to its plane. If the magnetic field at its centre is}$ $3.8 \times 10^{-9} \text{ T, then the charge carried by the ring is close to:}$ $\left( \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \text{ N/A}^2 \right)$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$7 \times 10^{-6} \text{ C}$, $4 \times 10^{-5} \text{ C}$...
4
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20346
$\text{A proton, an electron, and a helium nucleus have the same energy.}$ $\text{They are in circular orbits in a plane due to a magnetic field}$ $\text{perpendicular to the plane. Let } r_p, r_e \text{ and } r_{\text{He}} \text{ be their respective radii, then:}$ $1.\ r_e < r_p < r_{\text{He}}$ $2.\ r_e > r_p = r_{\text{He}}$ $3.\ r_e < r_p = r_{\text{He}}$ $4.\ r_e > r_p > r_{\text{He}}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$r_e < r_p < r_{\text{He}}$, $r_e > r_p = r_{\text{He}}$...
3
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20345
$\text{Two wires } A \text{ and } B \text{ are carrying currents } I_1 \text{ and } I_2 \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The separation between them is } d. \text{ A third wire } C \text{ carrying a current } I$ $\text{is to be kept parallel to them at a distance } x \text{ from } A \text{ such that the net}$ $\text{force acting on it is zero. The possible values of } x \text{ are:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$x = \left( \frac{I_1}{I_1 - I_2} \right) d \text{ and } x = \frac{I_2}{(I_1 - I_2)} d$, $x = \frac{I_1 d}{I_1 - I_2} \text{ and } x = \frac{I_2}{(I_1 - I_2)} d$...
2
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20344
$\text{A rigid square loop of side } a, \text{ carrying a current } I_2, \text{ lies on a horizontal surface near a long, straight wire carrying a current } I_1. \text{ Both the loop and the wire are in the same plane, as shown in the figure. The net force acting on the loop due to the current in the wire is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{zero}$, $\text{repulsive and equal to } \frac{\mu_0 I_1 I_2}{4\pi}$...
2
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20343
$\text{Two very long, straight, and insulated wires are kept at } 90^\circ \text{ angle from each other in } xy\text{-plane as shown in the figure}$ $\text{These wires carry currents of equal magnitude } I, \text{ whose directions are shown in the figure. The net magnetic field at point } P \text{ will be:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{zero}$, $-\frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi d} (\hat{x} + \hat{y})$...
1
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20342
$\text{A circular coil with } N \text{ turns and radius } r \text{ carries a current } I. \text{ It is held in the } XZ\text{-plane within a magnetic field } \vec{B}. \text{ The torque on the coil due to the magnetic field is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{B \pi r^2 I}{N}$, $\text{zero}$...
3
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20341
$\text{A helmholtz coil has a pair of loops, each with } N \text{ turns and radius } R. \text{ They are placed coaxially at a distance } R \text{ and the same current } I \text{ flows through the loops in the same direction. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the point } P, \text{ midway between the centres } A \text{ and } C, \text{ is given by:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{8N\mu_0I}{5^{1/2}R}$, $\frac{4N\mu_0I}{5^{3/2}R}$...
4
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20340
$\text{The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying a current } I, \text{ is } m \text{ and the magnetic field at the centre of the loop is } B_1. \text{ When the dipole moment is doubled by keeping the current constant, the magnetic field at the centre of the loop is } B_2. \text{ The ratio } \frac{B_1}{B_2} \text{ is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $\sqrt{3}$...
3
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20339
$\text{An electron, a proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in circular orbits of radii } r_e, r_p, r_\alpha \text{ respectively in a uniform magnetic field } B. \text{ The relation between } r_e, r_p, r_\alpha \text{ is:}$ $1. \ r_e > r_p = r_\alpha$ $2. \ r_e < r_p = r_\alpha$ $3. \ r_e < r_p < r_\alpha$ $4. \ r_e < r_\alpha < r_p$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$r_e > r_p = r_\alpha$, $r_e < r_p = r_\alpha$...
2
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20338
$\text{When a current of } 5 \text{ mA is passed through a galvanometer having a coil of resistance } 15 \, \Omega, \text{ it shows full scale deflection.}$ $\text{The value of the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer to convert it into a voltmeter of range } 0-10 \, \text{V is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.985 \times 10^3 \, \Omega$, $2.045 \times 10^3 \, \Omega$...
1
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20337
$\text{A galvanometer having a coil resistance of } 100 \, \Omega \text{ gives a full-scale deflection when a current of } 1 \, \text{mA} \text{ is passed through it. The value of the resistance which can convert this galvanometer into an ammeter giving a full-scale deflection for a current of } 10 \, \text{A} \text{, is:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.01 \, \Omega$, $2 \, \Omega$...
1
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20336
$\text{Two identical wires } \text{A} \text{ and } \text{B}, \text{ each of length } 'l', \text{ carry the same current } I. \text{ Wire } \text{A} \text{ is bent into a circle of radius } R \text{ and wire } \text{B} \text{ is bent to form a square of side } 'a'. \text{ If } B_A \text{ and } B_B \text{ are the values of the magnetic field at the centres of the circle and square respectively, then the ratio } \frac{B_A}{B_B} \text{ is?}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\pi^2}{8}$, $\frac{\pi^2}{16\sqrt{2}}$...
4
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20335
$\text{Two long current carrying thin wires, both with current } I, \text{ are held by insulating threads of length } L \text{ and are in equilibrium as shown in the figure, with threads making an angle } \theta \text{ with the vertical. The mass per unit length of wires is } \lambda, \text{ then the value of } I \text{ is:}$ $\left( g = \text{gravitational acceleration} \right)$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sin \theta \sqrt{\frac{\pi \lambda g L}{\mu_0 \cos \theta}}$, $2 \sin \theta \sqrt{\frac{\pi \lambda g L}{\mu_0 \cos \theta}}$...
2
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20334
$\text{Two coaxial solenoids of different radii carry current } I \text{ in the same direction. Let } \vec{F}_1 \text{ be the magnetic force on the inner solenoid due to the outer one and } \vec{F}_2 \text{ be the magnetic force on the outer solenoid due to the inner one. Then:}$
1
119
JEE MCQ NEW
$\vec{F}_1 = \vec{F}_2 = 0$, $\vec{F}_1 \text{ is radially inwards and } \vec{F}_2 \text{ is radially outwards}$...
1
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20333
$\text{The effective resistance between A and B, if resistance of each resistor is R, will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2}{3}R$, $\frac{4R}{3}$...
4
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20332
$\text{The equivalent resistance between A and B is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$27\,\Omega$, $19\,\Omega$...
2
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20331
$\text{The number of electrons flowing per second in the filament of a 110 W bulb operating at 220 V is:}$ $\text{(Given } e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \text{ C)}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.25 \times 10^{19}$, $6.25 \times 10^{17}$...
4
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20330
$\text{The value of unknown resistance (} x \text{) for which the potential difference between B and D will be zero in the arrangement shown, is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$6\,\Omega$, $9\,\Omega$...
1
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20329
$\text{An electric bulb rated } 50 \text{ W} - 200 \text{ V is connected across a } 100 \text{ V supply. The power dissipation of the bulb is -}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$12.5 \text{ W}$, $25 \text{ W}$...
1
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20328
$\text{In the given circuit the potential difference across } 700 \, \Omega \text{ resistance is: (i.e., } V_0)$ $\text{1. } 2 \, \text{V}$ $\text{2. } 0.5 \, \text{V}$ $\text{3. } 1.1 \, \text{V}$ $\text{4. zero}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \, \text{V}$, $0.5 \, \text{V}$...
3
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20327
$\text{If electric current passing through a conductor varies with time as } I = I_0 + \beta t \text{ where } I_0 = 20 \text{ A}, \beta = 3 \text{ A/s}, \text{ then the charge flows through the conductor in the first 10 sec is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$400 \text{ C}$, $500 \text{ C}$...
4
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20326
$\text{In a meter bridge, an unknown resistance } X \text{ has a specific resistance } S_1 = \frac{X \pi R^2}{l}, \text{ where } R \text{ is radius and } l \text{ is length. If the length and radius both are doubled, the new specific resistance is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$S_1$, $2S_1$...
1
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20325
$\text{Three voltmeters are connected in a circuit as shown in the diagram.}$ $\text{Then the correct relation among their readings } (V_1, V_2 \text{ and } V_3) \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$V_1 > V_2 = V_3$, $V_1 + V_2 = V_3$...
2
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20324
$\text{In the given meter bridge circuit, a null point is found at } 60 \text{ cm from the end } A. \text{ The unknown resistance } S \text{ (in } \Omega \text{) is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$60 \ \Omega$, $80 \ \Omega$...
4
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20323
$\text{The length of a conductor having resistance } 160 \, \Omega, \text{ is compressed to } 25\% \text{ of its initial value. The new resistance will be}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \, \Omega$, $20 \, \Omega$...
1
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20322
$\text{For the given circuit diagram, find the current } I.$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{5}{16} \text{ A}$, $\frac{5}{48} \text{ A}$...
3
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20321
$\text{Two identical bulbs are first connected in series then in parallel. Find the ratio of power consumed in two cases:}$ $1.\ 1 : 1$ $2.\ 1 : 4$ $3.\ 4 : 1$ $4.\ 1 : 2$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 1$, $1 : 4$...
2
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20320
$\text{Find the current flowing in } 3 \, \Omega \text{ resistor in the given circuit}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.4 \, \text{A}$, $0.2 \, \text{A}$...
3
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20319
$\text{When an electric field is applied to the electrons in a conductor, it starts:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{moving in a straight line.}$, $\text{drifting from higher potential to lower potential.}$...
3
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20318
$10$ $\text{resistors each of } 10 \, \Omega \text{ resistance when connected together give}$ $\text{minimum equivalent resistance } R_1 \text{ and maximum equivalent}$ $\text{resistance } R_2 \text{ among various possible combinations.}$ $\text{So, } \frac{R_2}{R_1} \text{ is equal to:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $100$...
2
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20317
$\text{If the length of a conductor is increased by 20 percent and cross-sectional area is decreased by 4 percent, then calculate the percentage change in resistance of a conductor.}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$27\%$, $25\%$...
2
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20316
$\text{When current of } 4 \text{ A is made to run through a resistance of } R \text{ ohms for } 10 \text{ s, it produces heat energy of } H \text{ units.}$ $\text{Now if } 16 \text{ A of current is made to flow through the same resistance for } 10 \text{ s then the heat energy produced will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$16H$, $4H$...
1
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20315
$\text{In the circuit shown below, the value of current } I_1 \text{ (in amperes) is equal to:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$-\frac{11}{5}$, $\frac{11}{5}$...
1
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20314
$\text{What is the equivalent resistance of the given circuit across the terminals of ideal battery?}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$2R$, $3R$...
2
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20313
$A \ 1 \ \text{m long wire is broken into two unequal parts} \ X \ \text{and} \ Y.$ $\text{The} \ X \ \text{part of the wire is stretched into another wire} \ W.$ $\text{Length of} \ W \ \text{is twice the length of} \ X \ \text{and the resistance of} \ W \ \text{is twice that of} \ Y.$ $\text{The ratio of the length of} \ X \ \text{and} \ Y \ \text{is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 4$, $1 : 2$...
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20312
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Alloys such as constantan and manganin are used in making standard resistance coils.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Constantan and manganin have a very small value of temperature coefficient of resistance.}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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20311
112
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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20310
$\text{Two metallic wires of identical dimensions are connected in series. If } \sigma_1 \text{ and } \sigma_2 \text{ are the conductivities of these wires respectively, the effective conductivity of the combination is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\sigma_1 \sigma_2}{\sigma_1 + \sigma_2}$, $\frac{2 \sigma_1 \sigma_2}{\sigma_1 + \sigma_2}$...
2
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20309
$\text{A wire of resistance } R_1 \text{ is drawn out so that its length is increased by twice its original length. The ratio of new resistance to original resistance is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$9 : 1$, $1 : 9$...
1
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20308
$\text{In the given figure of the meter bridge experiment, the balancing length } AC \text{ corresponding to the null deflection of the galvanometer is } 40 \text{ cm. The balancing length, if the radius of the wire } AB \text{ is doubled, will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$20 \text{ cm}$, $30 \text{ cm}$...
3
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20307
$\text{A 1 m long copper wire carries a current of 1 A. If the cross-section of the wire is } 2.0 \text{ mm}^2 \text{ and the resistivity of copper is } 1.7 \times 10^{-8} \, \Omega \text{ m, the force experienced by a moving electron in the wire is:}$ $\text{(charge on electron = } 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \text{ C)}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$112 \times 10^{-23} \text{ N}$, $240 \times 10^{-23} \text{ N}$...
3
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20306
$\text{In a meter bridge experiment for measuring unknown resistance } S, \text{ the null point is obtained at a distance } 30 \text{ cm from the left side as shown at point } D. \text{ If } R \text{ is } 5.6 \text{ k}\Omega, \text{ then the value of unknown resistance } S \text{ will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$24 \ \Omega$, $2400 \ \Omega$...
2
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20305
$\text{A battery of } 6 \text{ V is connected to the circuit as shown below. The current } i \text{ drawn from the battery is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \text{ A}$, $2 \text{ A}$...
1
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20304
$\text{Resistances are connected in a meter bridge circuit as shown in the figure. The balancing length } l_1 \text{ is } 40 \text{ cm. Now an unknown resistance } x \text{ is connected in series with } P \text{ and the new balancing length is found to be } 80 \text{ cm measured from the same end. Then the value of } x \text{ will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \, \Omega$, $20 \, \Omega$...
2
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20303
$\text{The current } i \text{ in the given circuit will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \text{ A}$, $20 \text{ A}$...
1
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20302
$\text{A current of } 15 \text{ mA flows in the circuit as shown in the figure. The value of the potential difference between the points } A \text{ and } B \text{ will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$50 \text{ V}$, $75 \text{ V}$...
4
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20301
$\text{Eight copper wire of length } l \text{ and diameter } d \text{ are joined in parallel to form a single composite conductor of resistance } R. \text{ If a single copper wire of length } 2l \text{ have the same resistance } (R) \text{ then its diameter will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$4d$, $3d$...
1
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20300
$\text{The combination of two identical cells, whether connected in series or parallel combination provides the same current through an external resistance of } 2 \, \Omega. \text{ The value of the internal resistance of each cell is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \, \Omega$, $4 \, \Omega$...
1
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20299
$\text{For the network shown below, the value } V_B - V_A \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \text{ V}$, $15 \text{ V}$...
1
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20298
$\text{Two coils require } 20 \text{ minutes and } 60 \text{ minutes respectively to produce the same amount of heat energy when connected separately to the same source. If they are connected in parallel arrangement to the same source; the time required to produce the same amount of heat by the combination of coils will be:}$ $1. \ 10 \ \text{min}$ $2. \ 30 \ \text{min}$ $3. \ 15 \ \text{min}$ $4. \ 25 \ \text{min}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \ \text{min}$, $30 \ \text{min}$...
3
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20297
$\text{All resistances in the figure are } 1 \, \Omega \text{ each. The value of the current } I \text{ is } \frac{a}{5} \, \text{A. The value of } a \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$8$, $6$...
1
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20296
$\text{Resistance of the wire is measured as } 2 \, \Omega \text{ and } 3 \, \Omega \text{ at } 10^\circ \text{C and } 30^\circ \text{C respectively.}$ $\text{The temperature co-efficient of resistance of the material of the wire is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.033^\circ \text{C}^{-1}$, $-0.033^\circ \text{C}^{-1}$...
1
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20295
$\text{The current density in a cylindrical wire of radius } r = 4.0 \text{ mm is } 1.0 \times 10^6 \text{ A/m}^2. \text{ The current through the outer portion of the wire between radial distances } \frac{r}{2} \text{ and } r \text{ is } x\pi \text{ A, where } x \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$10$, $14$...
4
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20294
$\text{The current density in a cylindrical wire of radius } 4 \text{ mm is } 4 \times 10^6 \text{ Am}^{-2}. \text{ The current through the outer portion of the wire between radial distance } \frac{R}{2} \text{ and } R \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$16\pi \text{ A}$, $64\pi \text{ A}$...
4
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20293
$\text{The equivalent resistance between points } A \text{ and } B \text{ in the given network is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$65 \, \Omega$, $20 \, \Omega$...
3
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20292
$\text{An aluminium wire is stretched to make its length, } 0.4\% \text{ larger. Then, the percentage change in resistance is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.4\%$, $0.2\%$...
3
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20291
$\text{The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased to double of its original length. The percentage increase in the resistance of the wire will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$400$, $200$...
4
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20290
$\text{Two cells of the same emf but different internal resistances } r_1 \text{ and } r_2 \text{ are connected in series with a resistance } R. \text{ The value of resistance } R, \text{ for which the potential difference across the second cell is zero, is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$r_2 - r_1$, $r_1 - r_2$...
1
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20289
$\text{The total current supplied to the circuit as shown in the figure by the } 5 \text{ V battery is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ A}$, $1 \text{ A}$...
3
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20288
$\text{A resistor develops } 300 \text{ J of thermal energy in } 15 \text{ s when a current of } 2 \text{ A is passed through it. If the current increases to } 3 \text{ A, the energy developed in } 10 \text{ s is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$150 \text{ J}$, $250 \text{ J}$...
4
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20287
$\text{What will be the most suitable combination of three resistors}$ $A = 2 \, \Omega, \ B = 4 \, \Omega, \ C = 6 \, \Omega \ \text{so that} \ \left( \frac{22}{3} \right) \, \Omega \ \text{is the equivalent resistance of combination?}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Parallel combination of} \ A \ \text{and} \ C \ \text{connected in series with} \ B.$, $\text{Parallel combination of} \ A \ \text{and} \ B \ \text{connected in series with} \ C.$...
2
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20286
$\text{A cylindrical wire of radius } 0.5 \text{ mm and conductivity } 5 \times 10^7 \text{ S/m is subjected to an electric field of } 10 \text{ mV/m. The expected value of current in the wire will be:}$ $1. \ 125\pi \ \text{mA}$ $2. \ 250\pi \ \text{mA}$ $3. \ 325\pi \ \text{mA}$ $4. \ 420\pi \ \text{mA}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$125\pi \ \text{mA}$, $250\pi \ \text{mA}$...
1
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20285
$\text{A circuit to verify Ohm's law uses ammeter and voltmeter in series or parallel connected correctly to the resistor. In the circuit:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{The ammeter is always connected in series and the voltmeter is in parallel.}$, $\text{Both the ammeter and voltmeter must be connected in series.}$...
1
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20284
$\text{An electrical power line, having a total resistance of } 2 \, \Omega, \text{ delivers } 1 \, \text{kW at } 220 \, \text{V. The efficiency of the transmission line is approximately:}$ $1. \, 72\%$ $2. \, 96\%$ $3. \, 91\%$ $4. \, 85\%$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$72\%$, $96\%$...
2
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20283
$\text{Consider four conducting materials copper, tungsten, mercury and aluminium with resistivity } \rho_C, \rho_T, \rho_M \text{ and } \rho_A \text{ respectively. Then:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\rho_C > \rho_A > \rho_T$, $\rho_M > \rho_A > \rho_C$...
2
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20282
$\text{The mobility of electrons in a semiconductor is defined as the ratio of their drift velocity to the applied electric field. If, for an n-type semiconductor, the density of electrons is } 10^{19} \text{ m}^{-3} \text{ and their mobility is } 1.6 \text{ m}^2/(\text{V.s}), \text{ then the resistivity of the semiconductor (since it is an n-type semiconductor, the contribution of holes is ignored) is close to:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \, \Omega \text{m}$, $4 \, \Omega \text{m}$...
3
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20281
$\text{The drift speed of electrons, when } 1.5 \text{ A of current flows in a copper wire of cross-section } 5 \text{ mm}^2, \text{ is } v. \text{ If the electron density in copper is } 9 \times 10^{28}/\text{m}^3, \text{ then the value of drift speed } v \text{ in mm/s is close to: (take charge of electron to be } e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \text{ C)}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.02$, $3$...
1
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20280
$\text{Space between two concentric conducting spheres of radii } a \text{ and } b \ (b > a) \text{ is filled with a medium of resistivity } \rho. \text{ The resistance between the two spheres will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\rho}{2\pi} \left( \frac{1}{a} + \frac{1}{b} \right)$, $\frac{\rho}{4\pi} \left( \frac{1}{a} + \frac{1}{b} \right)$...
4
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20279
$\text{A current of } 5 \text{ A passes through a copper conductor (resistivity=} 1.7 \times 10^{-8} \, \Omega \text{m) of radius of cross-section } 5 \, \text{mm.}$ $\text{Find the mobility of the charges if their drift velocity is } 1.1 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{m/s.}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.0 \, \text{m}^2/\text{Vs}$, $1.8 \, \text{m}^2/\text{Vs}$...
1
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20278
$\text{A cell of internal resistance } r \text{ drives current through an external resistance } R. \text{ The power delivered by the cell to the external resistance will be maximum when:}$ $1. \ R = 1000r$ $2. \ R = 0.001r$ $3. \ R = 2r$ $4. \ R = r$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$R = 1000r$, $R = 0.001r$...
4
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20277
$A \ 200 \, \Omega \ \text{resistor has a certain color code. If one replaces the red color by green in the code, the new resistance will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \, \Omega$, $500 \, \Omega$...
2
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20276
$\text{In the given circuit all resistances are of value of } R \text{ ohm each. The equivalent resistance between } A \text{ and } B \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{5R}{2}$, $3R$...
4
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20275
$\text{In a meter bridge, as shown in the figure. It is given that resistance } Y = 12.5 \, \Omega \text{ and that balance are obtained at a distance } 39.5 \, \text{cm from the end } A \text{ (by Jockey } J). \text{ After interchanging the resistances } X \text{ and } Y, \text{ a new balance point is found at a distance } l_2 \text{ from the end } A. \text{ What are the values of } X \text{ and } l_2?}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$19.15 \, \Omega \text{ and } 39.5 \, \text{cm}$, $8.16 \, \Omega \text{ and } 60.5 \, \text{cm}$...
2
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20274
$\text{A uniform wire of length } l \text{ and radius } r \text{ has a resistance of } 100 \, \Omega. \text{ It is recast into a wire of radius } \frac{r}{2}. \text{ The resistance of the new wire will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$400 \, \Omega$, $100 \, \Omega$...
4
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20273
$\text{The figure shows three circuits I, II and III which are connected to a } 3 \text{ V battery. If the powers dissipated by the configurations I, II and III are } P_1, P_2 \text{ and } P_3 \text{ respectively, then:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$P_3 > P_2 > P_1$, $P_2 > P_1 > P_3$...
2
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20272
$A \ 9 \ \text{V} \ \text{battery with internal resistance of} \ 0.5 \ \Omega \ \text{is connected across an infinite network as shown in the figure. All ammeters} \ A_1, A_2, A_3 \ \text{and voltmeter} \ V \ \text{are ideal.}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Reading of the voltmeter} \ V \ \text{is} \ 9 \ \text{V}$, $\text{Reading of the ammeter} \ A_1 \ \text{is} \ 18 \ \text{A}$...
3
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20271
$\text{In the electric network shown, when no current flows through the } 4 \, \Omega \text{ resistor in the arm } EB, \text{ the potential difference between the point } A \text{ and } D \text{ will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$6 \, V$, $3 \, V$...
3
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20270
$\text{Suppose the drift velocity } v_d \text{ in a material varied with the applied electric field } E \text{ as } v_d \propto \sqrt{E}. \text{ Then a } V-I \text{ graph for a wire of such a material is best given by:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Option 1: Graph with a peak}$, $\text{Option 2: Exponential curve}$...
2
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20269
$\text{Consider the circuit shown.}$ $\text{The ammeter reads } 0.9 \text{ A. Then the value of } R \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$30 \, \Omega$, $40 \, \Omega$...
1
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20268
$\text{In a given circuit, an ideal battery is connected with four resistances as shown. Find the current } i \text{ as mentioned in the diagram.}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \text{ A}$, $1 \text{ A}$...
2
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20267
$\text{A rod of length } l \text{ having a resistance } R, \text{ is cut into two equal parts.}$ $\text{These parts are connected in parallel then the new resistance is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$R$, $\frac{R}{2}$...
3
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20266
$\text{Find the magnitude of potential difference in volt between A and B in given circuit.}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \text{ V}$, $0$...
3
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20265
$\text{Circuit I is converted to voltmeter after adding resistance } R \text{ and current in circuit I is } 1 \text{ mA.}$ $\text{Circuit II is converted to ammeter after adding resistance } r \text{ as shown.}$ $\text{If current through battery in circuit II is } 10 \text{ mA and current through galvanometer is } 1 \text{ mA,}$ $\text{then find } R \text{ and } r \text{ if resistance of galvanometer is } 54 \, \Omega.$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$R = 49946 \, \Omega, \; r = 54 \, \Omega$, $R = 6 \, \Omega, \; r = 49946 \, \Omega$...
4
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20264
$\text{If a wire of resistance } R \text{ is connected across } V_0, \text{ then power is } P_0. \text{ The wire is cut into two equal parts and connected with } V_0 \text{ individually, then sum of power dissipated is } P_1 \text{ then } \frac{P_0}{P_1} \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2}$, $\frac{3}{2}$...
4
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20263
$\text{Select increasing order of power consumption.}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$P_1 < P_2 < P_4 < P_3$, $P_3 < P_4 < P_1 < P_2$...
4
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20262
$\text{The equivalent resistance of the following circuit (in ohms) is equal to } \frac{x}{7}. \text{ What is the value of } x?$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$14$, $10$...
4
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20261
$\text{Find the equivalent resistance between points } A \text{ and } B \text{ in the given circuit.}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$6.4 \, \Omega$, $4 \, \Omega$...
3
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20260
$\text{The effective resistance in the following circuit across terminal } A \text{ and } B \text{ is equal to:}$ $\begin{array}{c} \begin{array}{cccc} & 20 \, \Omega & 20 \, \Omega & 10 \, \Omega \end{array} \\ A \hspace{1cm} \text{ } \hspace{1cm} B \end{array}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \, \Omega$, $10 \, \Omega$...
1
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20259
$\text{What is the ratio of potential difference across } C_1 \text{ and } C_2 \text{ at steady state for the given circuit?}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 : 5$, $2 : 5$...
1
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20258
$\text{In the given circuit, the current passes through } 20 \, \Omega \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.45 \, \text{A}$, $0.23 \, \text{A}$...
3
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20257
$\text{In the given circuit, the reading on the ideal voltmeter is equal to:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \text{ V}$, $1.8 \text{ V}$...
3
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20256
$\text{A uniform wire of resistance } R \text{ is folded into a regular polygon of } n \text{ sides. The equivalent resistance of this system between any two adjacent points is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{n-1}{n} R$, $\frac{n-1}{n^2} R$...
2
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20255
$\text{Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):}$ $\text{Assertion (A): For making a voltmeter, we prefer a voltmeter of resistance of 4000 } \Omega \text{ over a voltmeter of resistance 1000 } \Omega.$ $\text{Reason (R): Voltmeter should be of higher resistance such that it draws less current from the circuit.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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20254
$\text{Consider the following circuit. All resistors have resistance } 10 \, \Omega \text{ each. The value of } \left| \frac{i_1 + i_2}{i_3} \right| \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $1$...
1
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20253
$\text{In the circuit shown, the equivalent resistance between terminals } A \text{ and } B \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3R}{2}$, $2R$...
4
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20252
$\text{The current through a } 5 \, \Omega \text{ resistance remains the same, irrespective of its connection across a series or parallel combination of two identical cells. The internal resistance of the cell is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \, \Omega$, $10 \, \Omega$...
1
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20251
$\text{A conductor of length } l \text{ and cross-sectional area } A \text{ has drift velocity } v_d$ $\text{when used across a potential difference } V.$ $\text{When another conductor of the same material and length } l \text{ but}$ $\text{double cross-sectional area than the first, is used across}$ $\text{the same potential difference then drift velocity is equal to:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{v_d}{2}$, $v_d$...
2
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20250
$\text{If } n : \text{ number density of charge carriers.}$ $A : \text{ cross-sectional area of the conductor}$ $q : \text{ charge on each charge carrier}$ $I : \text{ current through the conductor}$ $\text{Then the expression of drift velocity is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{nAq}{I}$, $\frac{I}{nAq}$...
2
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20249
$\text{For the given electrical circuit, the potential difference between point } B \text{ and } C \text{ is zero. The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2} \Omega$, $\frac{2}{3} \Omega$...
1
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20248
$\text{In the part of a circuit shown, the ratio of the rate of heat produced in } R \text{ to that in } 3R \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$1:9$, $1:3$...
3
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20247
$\text{Consider the meter bridge setup shown.}$ $\text{If a shunt resistance is added to } 3 \, \Omega \text{ resistor, the balance point shifts by } 22.5 \, \text{cm.}$ $\text{The shunt resistance is equal to:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \, \Omega$, $2 \, \Omega$...
2
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20246
$\text{A wire with a resistance of } 5 \, \Omega \text{ is stretched (redrawn) to increase its length 5 times. What will be the final resistance of the wire?}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$25 \, \Omega$, $16 \, \Omega$...
3
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20245
$\text{In the circuit shown in the figure, the internal resistances of } 5 \text{ V and } 8 \text{ V cells are } 3 \, \Omega \text{ and } 4 \, \Omega, \text{ respectively. The current (in amperes) flows through the } 4 \, \Omega \text{ external resistor connected across points } A \text{ and } B \text{ is } \frac{1}{n} \text{ A.}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $15$...
3
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20244
$\text{Consider a network of resistors as shown. The effective resistance across } A \text{ and } B \text{ is given by:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \, \Omega$, $3 \, \Omega$...
1
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20243
$\text{In the circuit shown, the current through } R_4 \ (I_4) \text{ and } R_5 \ (I_5) \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$I_4 = \frac{24}{55} \text{ A, and } I_5 = \frac{96}{55} \text{ A}$, $I_4 = \frac{96}{55} \text{ A, and } I_5 = \frac{24}{55} \text{ A}$...
1
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20242
$\text{As shown in the figure, in a steady state, the charge stored in the capacitor is } x \times 10^{-6} \text{ C. The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$20$, $10$...
2
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20241
$\text{Two identical cells, each having EMF } E, \text{ are connected in series to an external resistance } R. \text{ The internal resistances of the cells are } r_1 \text{ and } r_2, \text{ with } r_1 > r_2. \text{ If the potential difference across the cell of internal resistance } r_1 \text{ is zero, then the value of } R \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$(r_1 - r_2)$, $\frac{r_1 r_2}{(r_1 + r_2)}$...
1
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20240
$\text{In the given figure, the value of } V_0 \text{ will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \text{ V}$, $4 \text{ V}$...
2
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20239
$\text{Two resistors are connected in series across a battery as shown in the figure. If a voltmeter of resistance } 2000 \, \Omega \text{ is used to measure the potential difference across } 500 \, \Omega \text{ resistor, the reading of the voltmeter will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.8 \, \text{V}$, $4 \, \text{V}$...
1
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20238
$\text{A capacitor is discharging through a resistor } R. \text{ Consider in time } t_1,$ $\text{the energy stored in the capacitor reduces to half of its initial value}$ $\text{and in time } t_2, \text{ the charge stored reduces to one-eighth of its initial}$ $\text{value. The ratio } \frac{t_1}{t_2} =$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2}$, $\frac{1}{3}$...
4
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20237
$\text{The variation of applied potential, } V \text{ and the current, } I \text{ flowing through a given wire is shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The length of the wire is } 31.4 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{The diameter of the wire is measured as } 2.4 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{The resistivity of the given wire is measured as } x \times 10^{-3} \, \Omega\text{-cm.}$ $\text{The value of } x \text{ is:}$ $\text{(take } \pi = 3.14)$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
146, 142...
4
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20236
$\text{Current measured by the ammeter } A \text{ in the reported circuit when no current flows through } 10 \, \Omega \text{ resistance will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$20 \, A$, $30 \, A$...
3
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20235
$\text{A meter bridge setup is shown in the figure. It is used to determine an unknown resistance } R \text{ using a given resistor of } 15 \, \Omega. \text{ The galvanometer } (G) \text{ shows a null deflection when the tapping key is at } 43 \, \text{cm mark from end } A. \text{ If the end correction for end } A \text{ is } 2 \, \text{cm, then the determined value of } R \text{ will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$19 \, \Omega$, $22 \, \Omega$...
1
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20234
$\text{In the given circuit, } a \text{ is an arbitrary constant. The value of } m \text{ for which the equivalent circuit resistance is minimum will be } \sqrt{\frac{x}{2}}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $9$...
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20233
$\text{Two identical cells, each of EMF } 1.5 \text{ V and internal resistance } r, \text{ are connected in parallel and used to supply a parallel combination of two resistors, each of resistance } 20 \, \Omega. \text{ A voltmeter across the resistor network reads } 1.2 \, \text{V. What is the internal resistance } r \text{ of each cell?}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.5 \, \Omega$, $4 \, \Omega$...
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20232
$\text{A wire of } 1 \, \Omega \text{ has a length of } 1 \, \text{m. It is stretched till its length increases by } 25\%. \text{ The percentage change in resistance to the nearest integer is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$56\%$, $25\%$...
1
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20231
$\text{Five equal resistances are connected in a network as shown in the figure. The net resistance between point } A \text{ and point } B \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2R}{R}$, $\frac{2}{3R}$...
4
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20230
$\text{A current of } 6 \text{ A enters at the corner } P \text{ of an equilateral triangle } PQR, \text{ with each side having a wire of resistance } 2 \, \Omega. \text{ The current exits at corner } R. \text{ The current } i_1 \text{ in ampere is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $3$...
1
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20229
$\text{A cell } E_1 \text{ of emf } 6 \text{ V and internal resistance } 2 \, \Omega \text{ is connected with another cell } E_2 \text{ of emf } 4 \text{ V and internal resistance } 8 \, \Omega \text{ (as shown in the figure). The potential difference across points } X \text{ and } Y \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \, \text{V}$, $3.6 \, \text{V}$...
3
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20228
$\text{A current through a wire depends on time as } \dot{i} = \alpha_0 t + \beta t^2 \text{ where } \alpha_0 = 20 \text{ A/s and } \beta = 8 \text{ As}^{-2}. \text{ The charge crossed through a cross-section of wire in } 15 \text{ s is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$2250 \text{ C}$, $11250 \text{ C}$...
2
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20227
$\text{In the figure shown, the current in the } 10 \text{ V battery is close to:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.36 \text{ A from negative to positive terminal.}$, $0.71 \text{ A from positive to negative terminal.}$...
3
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20226
$\text{In the circuit, given in the figure currents in different branches and}$ $\text{value of one resistor are shown. Then potential at point } B \text{ with}$ $\text{respect to the point } A \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$+1 \text{ V}$, $-1 \text{ V}$...
2
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20225
$\text{Four resistances } 40 \, \Omega, 60 \, \Omega, 90 \, \Omega \text{ and } 110 \, \Omega \text{ make the arms of a quadrilateral } ABCD. \text{ Across } AC \text{ is a battery of emf } 40 \, V \text{ and internal resistance negligible. The potential difference across } BD \text{ in } V \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $3$...
3
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20224
$\text{In the given circuit, an } 8\ \text{V battery powers a network of resistors. The current } i_1 \text{ flows from point } A \text{ to point } C \text{ through the resistor network. The value of } i_1 \text{ is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\ \text{A}$, $1\ \text{A}$...
2
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20223
$\text{A battery of } 3.0 \text{ V is connected to a resistor dissipating } 0.5 \text{ W of power.}$ $\text{If the terminal voltage of the battery is } 2.5 \text{ V, the power}$ $\text{dissipated within the internal resistance is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.10 \text{ W}$, $0.072 \text{ W}$...
1
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20222
23
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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20221
$\text{Model a torch battery of length } l \text{ to be made up of a thin cylindrical bar of radius } a \text{ and a concentric thin cylindrical shell of radius } b \text{ filled in between with an electrolyte of resistivity } \rho \text{ (see figure).}$ $\text{If the battery is connected to a resistance of value } R, \text{ the maximum Joule heating in } R \text{ will take place for:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$R = \frac{2\rho}{\pi l} \ln \left( \frac{b}{a} \right)$, $R = \frac{\rho}{\pi l} \ln \left( \frac{b}{a} \right)$...
4
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20220
$\text{An ideal cell of emf } 10 \text{ V is connected in circuit shown in figure. Each resistance is } 2 \, \Omega. \text{ The potential difference (in V) across the capacitor when it is fully charged is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $4$...
4
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20219
20
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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20218
$\text{One kg of water, at } 20^\circ \text{C, heated in an electric kettle whose heating element has a mean (temperature averaged) resistance of } 20 \, \Omega. \text{ The rms voltage in the mains is } 200 \, \text{V. Ignoring heat loss from the kettle, time taken for water to evaporate fully, is close to:}$ $\text{[Specific heat of water = } 4200 \, \text{J/(kg } ^\circ \text{C), Latent heat of water = } 2260 \, \text{kJ/kg]}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{10 minutes}$, $\text{22 minutes}$...
2
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20217
$\text{The resistive network shown below is connected to a D.C. source of } 16 \text{ V. The power consumed by the network is } 4 \text{ Watt. The value of } R \text{ is:}$ $\varepsilon = 16 \text{ V}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$16 \, \Omega$, $1 \, \Omega$...
3
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20216
$\text{In an experiment, the resistance of a material is plotted as a function of temperature (in some range). As shown in the figure, it is a straight line.}$ $\ln R(T)$ $\frac{1}{T^2}$ $\text{One may conclude that:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$R(T) = R_0 e^{T^2/T_0^2}$, $R(T) = \frac{R_0}{T^2}$...
4
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20215
$\text{In the given circuit, an ideal voltmeter connected across the } 10 \, \Omega \text{ resistance reads } 2 \, \text{V. The internal resistance } r, \text{ of each cell is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \, \Omega$, $0.5 \, \Omega$...
2
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20214
$\text{A metal wire of resistance } 3 \, \Omega \text{ is elongated to make a uniform wire of double its previous length. This new wire is now bent and the ends are joined to make a circle. If two points on this circle make an angle } 60^\circ \text{ at the centre, the equivalent resistance between these two points will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{5}{2} \, \Omega$, $\frac{5}{3} \, \Omega$...
2
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20213
$\text{A wire of resistance } R \text{ is bent to form a square } ABCD \text{ as shown in the figure. The effective resistance between } E \text{ and } C \text{ is: } (E \text{ is mid-point of arm } CD)$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3}{4} R$, $\frac{1}{16} R$...
3
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20212
$\text{Determine the charge on the capacitor in the following circuit:}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{72 V} \\ \begin{array}{ccc} 6 \, \Omega & 2 \, \Omega & 10 \, \mu\text{F} \\ 4 \, \Omega & 10 \, \Omega & \end{array} \end{array}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$200 \, \mu\text{C}$, $10 \, \mu\text{C}$...
1
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20211
$\text{In the figure shown, what is the current (in Ampere) drawn from the battery? You are given}$ $R_1 = 15 \, \Omega, \ R_2 = 10 \, \Omega, \ R_3 = 20 \, \Omega, \ R_4 = 5 \, \Omega, \ R_5 = 25 \, \Omega, \ R_6 = 30 \, \Omega$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{7}{18}$, $\frac{20}{3}$...
3
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20210
$\text{For the circuit shown, with}$ $R_1 = 1.0 \, \Omega, \ R_2 = 2.0 \, \Omega, \ E_1 = 2 \, \text{V}, \ E_2 = E_3 = 4 \, \text{V}$ $\text{the potential difference between the points 'a' and 'b' is approximately (in V):}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.7$, $2.7$...
4
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20209
$\text{On interchanging the resistances, the balance point of a meter bridge shifts to the left by } 10 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{The resistance of their series combination is } 1 \text{ k}\Omega. \text{ How much was the resistance on the left slot before interchanging the resistances?}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$990 \ \Omega$, $505 \ \Omega$...
3
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20208
$\text{Two batteries with emf } 12 \text{ V and } 13 \text{ V are connected in parallel across a load resistor of } 10 \ \Omega. \text{ The internal resistances of the two batteries are } 1 \ \Omega \text{ and } 2 \ \Omega \text{ respectively. The voltage across the load lies between:}$ $1. \ 11.6 \ \text{V and } 11.7 \ \text{V}$ $2. \ 11.5 \ \text{V and } 11.6 \ \text{V}$ $3. \ 11.4 \ \text{V and } 11.5 \ \text{V}$ $4. \ 11.7 \ \text{V and } 11.8 \ \text{V}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$11.6 \ \text{V and } 11.7 \ \text{V}$, $11.5 \ \text{V and } 11.6 \ \text{V}$...
3
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20207
$\text{A potentiometer } PQ \text{ is set up to compare two resistances as shown in the figure. The ammeter } A \text{ in the circuit reads } 1.0 \text{ A when the two-way key } K_3 \text{ is open. The balance point is at a length } l_1 \text{ cm from } P \text{ when the two-way key } K_3 \text{ is plugged in between } 2 \text{ and } 1, \text{ while the balance point is at a length } l_2 \text{ cm from } P \text{ when the key } K_3 \text{ is plugged in between } 3 \text{ and } 1. \text{ The ratio of two resistances } \frac{R_1}{R_2}, \text{ is found to be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{l_1}{l_1 + l_2}$, $\frac{l_2}{l_2 - l_1}$...
4
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20206
$\text{Which of the following statements is false?}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Wheatstone bridge is the most sensitive when all the four resistances are of the same order of magnitude}$, $\text{In a balanced Wheatstone bridge if the cell and the galvanometer are exchanged, the null point is disturbed}$...
2
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20205
$\text{In the circuit shown, three } 1 \, \Omega \text{ resistors are connected vertically between the upper and lower conductors. Each section of both the upper and lower conductors contains an ideal } 2 \, \text{V source, all oriented in the same direction. The left ends of the two conductors are directly connected.}$ $\text{What is the current through each of the } 1 \, \Omega \text{ resistor?}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \, \text{A}$, $0.25 \, \text{A}$...
4
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20204
$\text{In the given circuit diagram when the current reaches steady state in the circuit, the charge on the capacitor of capacitance } C \text{ will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$CE$, $CE \frac{r_1}{r_2 + r}$...
3
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20203
$A \ 10 \ \text{V} \ \text{battery with internal resistance} \ 1 \ \Omega \ \text{and a} \ 15 \ \text{V battery with internal resistance} \ 0.6 \ \Omega \ \text{are connected in parallel to a voltmeter (see figure). The reading in the voltmeter will be:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$11.9 \ \text{V}$, $13.1 \ \text{V}$...
2
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20202
$\text{In the circuit shown, the current in the } 1 \, \Omega \text{ resistor is:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.3 \, \text{A, from } P \text{ to } Q$, $0 \, \text{A}$...
3
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20201
$\text{When } 5 \text{ V potential difference is applied across a wire of length } 0.1 \text{ m, the drift speed of electrons is } 2.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{ If the electron density in the wire is } 8 \times 10^{28} \text{ m}^{-3}, \text{ the resistivity of the material is close to:}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.6 \times 10^{-8} \ \Omega\text{-m}$, $1.6 \times 10^{-7} \ \Omega\text{-m}$...
4
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20200
$\text{In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of } 40 \text{ W, 5 bulbs of } 100 \text{ W, 5 fans of } 80 \text{ W and 1 heater of } 1 \text{ kW. The voltage of the electric mains is } 220 \text{ V. The minimum capacity of the main fuse of the building will be:}$ $1. \ 10 \text{ A}$ $2. \ 12 \text{ A}$ $3. \ 14 \text{ A}$ $4. \ 8 \text{ A}$
1
118
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \text{ A}$, $12 \text{ A}$...
2
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20199
$\text{A capacitor is made of a flat plate of area A and a second plate having a stair-like structure as shown in figure.}$ $\text{If the area of each stair is } \frac{A}{3} \text{ and the height is } d, \text{ the capacitance of the arrangement is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{18 \varepsilon_0 A}{11 d}$, $\frac{11 \varepsilon_0 A}{20 d}$...
4
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20198
$\text{Two charged conducting spheres of radii } a \text{ and } b \text{ are connected to each other by a conducting wire. The ratio of charges of the two spheres respectively is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{b}{a}$, $\sqrt{ab}$...
4
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20197
$\text{Statement I: Work done by electrostatic force is zero if a charge is moving along an equipotential surface.}$ $\text{Statement II: Equipotential surfaces are perpendicular to the electric field.}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.}$, $\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$...
4
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20196
$\text{There exists a uniform electric field of } 20\hat{i} \text{ N/C. A dipole of dipole moment } |\vec{p}| = 15 \text{ C-m is placed at angle } 30^\circ \text{ with the electric field. The torque on the dipole is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$250 \text{ N-m}$, $150 \text{ N-m}$...
2
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20195
$\text{A charge } Q = 10^{-6} \text{ C is placed at the origin. Find the potential difference between two points } A \text{ and } B \text{ whose position vectors are } (\sqrt{3} \mathbf{i} + \sqrt{3} \mathbf{j}) \text{ m and } (\sqrt{6} \mathbf{j}) \text{ m respectively.}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{zero}$, $1000 \text{ volts}$...
1
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20194
$64$ $\text{identical balls made of conducting material with a potential of } 10 \text{ mV are joined to form a bigger ball. The potential of the bigger ball is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$150 \text{ mV}$, $160 \text{ mV}$...
2
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20193
$\text{Potential at the surface of a uniformly charged nonconducting sphere is } V. \text{ Then the potential at its centre is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$0$, $\frac{V}{2}$...
4
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20192
$\text{Two conducting solid spheres } A \text{ and } B \text{ are placed at a very large distance with charge densities and radii as shown. When the key } K \text{ is closed, the ratio of final charge densities will be:}$ $\sigma, R$ $A$ $K$ $\sigma, 2R$ $B$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$4:1$, $1:2$...
3
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20191
$\text{Two charges (both at rest initially), having a charge } Q \text{ and } -Q \text{ are released from the situation shown. If the kinetic energy of the system when the separation between them becomes half, is } \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \frac{Q^2}{nr_0}. \text{ Then } n =?$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
2, 3...
3
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20190
$\text{An } \alpha \text{ particle and a proton are accelerated from rest through the same potential difference. The ratio of linear momenta acquired by the above two particles will be:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{2} : 1$, $2\sqrt{2} : 1$...
2
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20189
$\text{Two identical thin metal plates have charges } q_1 \text{ and } q_2 \text{ respectively such that } q_1 > q_2. \text{ The plates were brought close to each other to form a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance } \mathcal{C}. \text{ The potential difference between them is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{(q_1 + q_2)}{C}$, $\frac{(q_1 - q_2)}{C}$...
3
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20188
$\text{Two capacitors, each having a capacitance of } 40 \, \mu\text{F are connected in series.}$ $\text{The space between one of the capacitors is filled with a dielectric material of dielectric constant } K, \text{ such that the equivalent capacitance of the system becomes } 24 \, \mu\text{F.}$ $\text{The value of } K \text{ will be:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.5$, $2.5$...
1
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20187
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor with a width of } 4 \text{ cm, length of } 8 \text{ cm and separation between the plates of } 4 \text{ mm is connected to a battery of } 20 \text{ V. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant } 5 \text{ having a length of } 1 \text{ cm, width of } 4 \text{ cm and thickness of } 4 \text{ mm is inserted between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor. The electrostatic energy of this system will be:}$ $\text{(where } \varepsilon_0 \text{ is the permittivity of free space)}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$120 \varepsilon_0 \text{ J}$, $140 \varepsilon_0 \text{ J}$...
3
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20186
$\text{Two uniformly charged spherical conductors } A \text{ and } B \text{ of radii } 5 \text{ mm and } 10 \text{ mm are separated by a distance of } 2 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire, then in equilibrium condition,}$ $\text{the ratio of the magnitudes of the electric fields at the surface of the sphere } A \text{ and } B \text{ will be:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 2$, $2 : 1$...
2
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20185
$\text{A composite parallel plate capacitor is made up of two different}$ $\text{dielectric materials with different thicknesses } (t_1 \text{ and } t_2) \text{ as shown in}$ $\text{the figure. The two different dielectric materials are separated by a}$ $\text{conducting foil } F. \text{ The voltage of the conducting foil is:}$ $\varepsilon_{r_1} = 3; t_1 = 0.5 \text{ mm}$ $\varepsilon_{r_2} = 4; t_2 = 1 \text{ mm}$ $100 \text{ V}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$20 \text{ V}$, $40 \text{ V}$...
4
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20184
$\text{The capacitance of an isolated conducting sphere of radius } R_1 \text{ becomes } n \text{ times when it is enclosed by a concentric conducting sphere of radius } R_2 \text{ connected to earth. The ratio of their radii } \left( \frac{R_2}{R_1} \right) \text{ is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{n}{n-1}$, $\frac{2n}{n+1}$...
1
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20183
$\text{A condenser of } 2 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ capacitance is charged steadily from } 0 \text{ to } 5 \, \text{C.}$ $\text{Which of the following graph represents correctly the variation of potential difference } (V) \text{ across its plates with respect to the charge } (Q) \text{ on the condenser?}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1: Linear graph from } (0, 0) \text{ to } (5, 2.5)$, $\text{Graph 2: Exponential graph starting at } (0, 0)$...
1
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20182
$\text{The electric potential at any point } (x, y, z) \text{ m in space is given by } V = 3x^2 \text{ V.}$ $\text{The electric field at the point } (1, 0, 3) \text{ m will be:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \text{ V/m, directed along the positive } x\text{-axis}$, $3 \text{ V/m, directed along the negative } x\text{-axis}$...
4
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20181
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor filled with a medium of dielectric constant } 10, \text{ is connected across a battery and is charged.}$ $\text{The dielectric slab is replaced by another slab of dielectric constant } 15. \text{ Then the energy of the capacitor will:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{increase by } 50\%$, $\text{decrease by } 15\%$...
1
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20180
$\text{A capacitor } C_1 \text{ of capacitance } 5 \, \mu\text{F is charged to a potential of } 30 \, \text{V using a battery.}$ $\text{The battery is then removed and the charged capacitor is connected to an uncharged capacitor } C_2 \text{ of capacitance } 10 \, \mu\text{F as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{When the switch is closed charge flows between the capacitors.}$ $\text{At equilibrium, the charge on the capacitors } C_2 \text{ is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \, \mu\text{C}$, $50 \, \mu\text{C}$...
1
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20179
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor is made up of a stair-like structure with a plate area } A \text{ of each stair and that is connected with a wire of length } b, \text{ as shown in the figure. The capacitance of the arrangement is } \frac{x}{15} \frac{\varepsilon_0 A}{b}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$13$, $23$...
2
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20178
$\text{A capacitor of capacitance } 50 \text{ pF is charged by a } 100 \text{ V source. It is then connected to another uncharged identical capacitor.}$ $\text{Electrostatic energy loss in the process is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$25 \text{ nJ}$, $125 \text{ nJ}$...
2
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20177
$\text{A force of } 10 \text{ N acts on a charged particle placed between two plates of a charged capacitor.}$ $\text{If one plate of the capacitor is removed, then the force acting on that particle will be:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \text{ N}$, $10 \text{ N}$...
1
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20176
$\text{Sixty-four conducting drops each of radius } 0.02 \text{ m and each carrying a charge of } 5 \ \mu\text{C are combined to form a bigger drop. The ratio of the surface charge density of the bigger drop to the smaller drop will be:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 4$, $4 : 1$...
2
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20175
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor with plate area } A \text{ and plate separation } d = 2 \text{ m has a capacitance of } 4 \, \mu\text{F.}$ $\text{The new capacitance of the system if half of the space between them is filled with a dielectric material of dielectric constant } K = 3 \text{ (as shown in the figure) will be:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \, \mu\text{F}$, $32 \, \mu\text{F}$...
3
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20174
$27$ \text{ identical drops are charged at } $22 \text{ V}$ \text{ each. They combine to form a bigger drop. The potential of the bigger drop will be:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$198 \text{ V}$, $236 \text{ V}$...
1
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20173
$\text{Two metallic plates form a parallel plate capacitor. The distance between the plates is } d. \text{ A metal sheet of thickness } \frac{d}{2} \text{ and area equal to the area of each plate is introduced between the plates. What will be the ratio of the new capacitance to the original capacitance of the capacitor?}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 : 1$, $1 : 2$...
1
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20172
$\text{In an electrical circuit, a battery is connected to pass } 20 \text{ C of charge through it in a certain given time. The potential difference between two plates of the battery is maintained at } 15 \text{ V. The work done by the battery is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ J}$, $200 \text{ J}$...
3
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20171
$\text{A capacitor with capacitance } 5 \, \mu\text{F is charged to } 5 \, \mu\text{C. If the plates are pulled apart to reduce the capacitance to } 2 \, \mu\text{F, how much work is done?}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.75 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{J}$, $6.25 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{J}$...
1
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20170
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor has } 1 \, \mu\text{F capacitance. One of its two plates is given } +2 \, \mu\text{C charge and the other plate, } +4 \, \mu\text{C charge. The potential difference developed across the capacitor is:}$ $1. \, 1 \, \text{V}$ $2. \, 2 \, \text{V}$ $3. \, 3 \, \text{V}$ $4. \, 5 \, \text{V}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \, \text{V}$, $2 \, \text{V}$...
1
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20169
$\text{The electric field in a region is given by } \vec{E} = (Ax + B)\hat{i}, \text{ where } E \text{ is in NC}^{-1} \text{ and } x \text{ is in meters.}$ $\text{The value of constants are } A = 20 \text{ SI unit and } B = 10 \text{ SI unit.}$ $\text{If the potential at } x = 1 \text{ is } V_1 \text{ and that at } x = -5 \text{ is } V_2, \text{ then } V_1 - V_2 \text{ is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$-520 \text{ V}$, $180 \text{ V}$...
2
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20168
$\text{Voltage rating of a parallel plate capacitor is } 500 \text{ V. Its dielectric can withstand a maximum electric field of } 10^6 \text{ V/m. The plate area is } 10^{-4} \text{ m}^2. \text{ What is the dielectric constant if the capacitance is } 15 \text{ pF }? \text{ (given } \varepsilon_0 = 8.86 \times 10^{-12} \text{ C}^2/\text{Nm}^2)$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
6.2, 3.8...
4
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20167
$\text{In the following circuit, the switch } S \text{ is closed at } t = 0. \text{ The charge on the capacitor } C_1 \text{ as a function of time will be given by:}$ $\left( \text{take } C_{eq} = \frac{C_1 C_2}{C_1 + C_2} \right)$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$C_1 E \left[ 1 - e^{-tR/C_1} \right]$, $C_{eq} E \ e^{-t/RC_{eq}}$...
3
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20166
$\text{The equivalent capacitance between } A \text{ and } B \text{ in the circuit given below is:}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{A} \quad \begin{array}{c} 6 \, \mu\text{F} \\ 5 \, \mu\text{F} \end{array} \quad \begin{array}{c} 2 \, \mu\text{F} \\ 5 \, \mu\text{F} \end{array} \quad \begin{array}{c} 4 \, \mu\text{F} \\ 2 \, \mu\text{F} \end{array} \quad \text{B} \end{array}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.6 \, \mu\text{F}$, $2.4 \, \mu\text{F}$...
2
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20165
$\text{A combination of parallel plate capacitors is maintained at a certain potential difference.}$ $\text{When a } 3 \text{ mm thick slab is introduced between all the plates, in order to maintain the same potential difference, the distance between the plates is increased by } 2.4 \text{ mm.}$ $\text{The dielectric constant of the slab will be:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$6$, $5$...
2
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20164
$\text{The energy stored in the electric field produced by a metal sphere is } 4.5 \text{ J.}$ $\text{If the sphere contains } 4 \, \mu\text{C charge, its radius will be:}$ $\text{(Take: } \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \, \text{N} - \text{m}^2/\text{C}^2)$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$28 \, \text{mm}$, $32 \, \text{mm}$...
4
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20163
$\text{There is a uniform electrostatic field in a region. The potential at various points on a small sphere centered at } P, \text{ in the region, is found to vary between the limits } 589.0 \text{ V to } 589.8 \text{ V.}$ $\text{What is the potential at a point on the sphere whose radius vector makes an angle of } 60^\circ \text{ with the direction of the field?}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$589.5 \text{ V}$, $589.4 \text{ V}$...
3
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20162
$\text{Three capacitors each of } 4 \, \mu F \text{ are to be connected in such a way that the effective capacitance is } 6 \, \mu F. \text{ This can be done by connecting them:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{connecting all of them in a series}$, $\text{connecting all of them in parallel}$...
3
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20161
$\text{An electric field } \vec{E} = (25\hat{i} + 30\hat{j}) \text{ NC}^{-1} \text{ exists in a region of space.}$ $\text{If the potential at the origin is taken to be zero then the potential at } x = 2 \text{ m, } y = 2 \text{ m is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$-110 \text{ J}$, $-140 \text{ J}$...
1
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20160
$\text{The figure shows a system of four capacitors connected across a } 10 \text{ V battery. The charge that will flow from the switch } S \text{ when it is closed is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \ \mu\text{C from } b \text{ to } a$, $20 \ \mu\text{C from } a \text{ to } b$...
1
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20159
$\text{Assume that an electric field } \vec{E} = 30x^2 \hat{i} \text{ exists in space. Then the potential difference } V_A - V_0, \text{ where } V_0 \text{ is the potential at the original and } V_A \text{ the potential at } x = 2 \text{ m is:}$ $1.\ -120 \text{ V}$ $2.\ -80 \text{ V}$ $3.\ 80 \text{ V}$ $4.\ 120 \text{ V}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$-120 \text{ V}$, $-80 \text{ V}$...
2
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20158
$\text{Consider the circuit shown:}$ $\text{Charge on } 6 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ when } A \text{ and } B \text{ are shorted is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$32 \, \mu\text{C}$, $40 \, \mu\text{C}$...
3
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20157
$\text{A square loop of resistance } 16 \, \Omega \text{ is connected with a battery of } 9 \, \text{V}$ $\text{and an internal resistance of } 1 \, \Omega. \text{ In steady state, find the energy}$ $\text{stored in a capacitor of capacity } C = 4 \, \mu \text{F} \text{ as shown. (at steady}$ $\text{state current divides symmetrically)}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$51.84 \, \mu \text{J}$, $12.96 \, \mu \text{J}$...
3
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20156
$\text{Find the charge on the capacitor in the given circuit at steady state.}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{40}{7} \, \mu\text{C}$, $\frac{20}{7} \, \mu\text{C}$...
1
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20155
$\text{In the given circuit diagram, the total charge stored in capacitors is } 50 \, \mu\text{C. The value of capacitor } x \text{ is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $0$...
2
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20154
$\text{Find energy stored in capacitor in given circuit.}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.2 \text{ mJ}$, $0.4 \text{ mJ}$...
1
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20153
$\text{A } 2 \, \mu\text{F capacitor is initially charged to a potential } V, \text{ storing an energy } E_1. \text{ The capacitor is then disconnected from the battery and connected in parallel with an identical uncharged capacitor. After the redistribution of charge, the new energy stored in the system is } E_2.$ $\text{What is the ratio } \frac{E_1}{E_2}?$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $4$...
2
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20152
$\text{A metallic slab of thickness } \frac{2d}{3} \text{ and area of surface same as that of plates of capacitor of capacitance } C_1 \text{ is inserted parallel to plates of capacitor such that its new capacitance becomes equal to } C_2. \text{ If } d \text{ is space width between the two plates, then } \frac{C_2}{C_1} \text{ is equal to:}$ $1. \text{ 1}$ $2. \text{ 2}$ $3. \text{ 3}$ $4. \text{ 4}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $2$...
3
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20151
$\text{Three concentric shells } A, B \text{ and } C \text{ having surface charge density } \sigma, -\sigma \text{ and } \sigma \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{The radii of } A \text{ and } B \text{ are } 2 \text{ cm and } 3 \text{ cm respectively.}$ $\text{Electric potential at surface } A \text{ is } V_A \text{ and at } C \text{ is } V_C.$ $\text{If } V_A = V_C \text{ then find the radius of } C \text{ in cm}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \text{ cm}$, $7 \text{ cm}$...
1
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20150
$\text{What will be the equivalent capacitance across points } A \text{ and } B \text{ in the given electrical circuit?}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{C}{2}$, $2C$...
2
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20149
$\text{Find the distance from a point charge of magnitude } 5 \times 10^{-9} \text{ C}$ $\text{where the electric potential is } 50 \text{ V}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$90 \text{ cm}$, $70 \text{ cm}$...
1
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20148
$\text{Pick the correct graph between potential } V \text{ at distance } r \text{ from centre}$ $\text{for the uniformly charged spherical shell of radius } R.$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
4
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20147
$\text{Which of the following graphs depicts the variation of electric potential, } V \text{ with radial distance, } r \text{ from the centre of a positively charged conducting sphere of radius } R?$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
3
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20146
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{Electric potential is constant within and at the surface of each conductor.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{An electric field just outside a charged conductor is perpendicular to the surface of the conductor at every point.}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$...
1
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20145
$\text{A source of potential difference } V \text{ is connected to the combination of two identical capacitors as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{When key } 'K' \text{ is closed, the total energy stored across the combination is } E_1.$ $\text{Now key } 'K' \text{ is opened and dielectric of dielectric constant } 5 \text{ is introduced between the plates of the capacitors.}$ $\text{The total energy stored across the combination is now } E_2.$ $\text{The ratio } \frac{E_1}{E_2} \text{ will be:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{10}$, $\frac{2}{5}$...
3
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20144
$\text{The total charge on the system of capacitance } C_1 = 1 \, \mu\text{F},$ $C_2 = 2 \, \mu\text{F}, C_3 = 4 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ and } C_4 = 3 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ connected in parallel is:}$ $\text{(Assume a battery of } 20 \, \text{V is connected to the combination)}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$200 \, \mu\text{C}$, $200 \, \text{C}$...
1
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20143
$\text{Two parallel plate capacitors, having capacitances of } C \text{ and } 3C, \text{ are connected in parallel and charged to a potential difference of } 18 \text{ V.}$ $\text{After the charging process, the battery is disconnected, and the space between the capacitor plates with capacitance } C \text{ is completely filled with a dielectric material of dielectric constant } 9. \text{ What will be the final potential difference across the combination of capacitors?}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \text{ V}$, $5 \text{ V}$...
4
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20142
$\text{The charge on the capacitor of capacitance } 15 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ in the figure given below is:}$ $\begin{array}{c} 10 \, \mu\text{F} \quad 15 \, \mu\text{F} \quad 20 \, \mu\text{F} \\ + - \, \text{V} \, 13 \, \text{V} \end{array}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$60 \, \mu\text{C}$, $130 \, \mu\text{C}$...
1
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20141
$\text{Two capacitors having capacitance } C_1 \text{ and } C_2 \text{ respectively are connected as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{Initially, capacitor } C_1 \text{ is charged to a potential difference } V \text{ volt by a battery.}$ $\text{The battery is then removed and the charged capacitor } C_1 \text{ is now connected to uncharged capacitor } C_2 \text{ by closing the switch } S. \text{ The amount of charge on the capacitor } C_2, \text{ after equilibrium, is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{C_1 C_2}{(C_1 + C_2)} V$, $\frac{(C_1 + C_2)}{C_1 C_2} V$...
1
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20140
$\text{The equivalent capacitance between points A and B in the figure (shown below) will be:}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{A} \; \text{---} \; \text{8} \, \mu\text{F} \; \text{---} \; \text{8} \, \mu\text{F} \; \text{---} \; \text{8} \, \mu\text{F} \; \text{---} \; \text{8} \, \mu\text{F} \; \text{---} \; \text{8} \, \mu\text{F} \; \text{---} \; \text{B} \end{array}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \, \mu\text{F}$, $4 \, \mu\text{F}$...
3
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20139
$\text{If the charge on a capacitor is increased by } 2 \ C, \text{ the energy stored in it increases by } 44\%. \text{ The original charge on the capacitor (in Coulomb) is:}$ $1. \ 10$ $2. \ 20$ $3. \ 30$ $4. \ 40$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$10$, $20$...
1
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20138
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor is formed by two plates, each of area } 30\pi \ \text{cm}^2 \text{ separated by 1 mm. A material of dielectric strength } 3.6 \times 10^7 \ \text{Vm}^{-1} \text{ is filled between the plates. If the maximum charge that can be stored on the capacitor without causing any dielectric breakdown is } 7 \times 10^{-6} \ \text{C, the value of the dielectric constant of the material is:}$ $\left\{ \text{Use: } \frac{1}{4\pi \varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \ \text{Nm}^2\text{C}^{-2} \right\}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.66$, $1.75$...
4
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20137
$\text{Twenty-seven identical spherical drops of mercury are each maintained at a potential of } 10 \text{ V.}$ $\text{If all these drops coalesce to form a single large spherical drop,}$ $\text{then the potential energy of this larger drop will be how many times that of one of the smaller drops?}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$143$, $243$...
2
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20136
$\text{Consider the combination of 2 capacitors } C_1 \text{ and } C_2, \text{ with } C_2 > C_1,$ $\text{when connected in parallel, the equivalent capacitance is } \frac{15}{4} \text{ times}$ $\text{the equivalent capacitance of the same connected in series.}$ $\text{Calculate the ratio of capacitors, } \frac{C_2}{C_1}.$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{15}{11}$, $\frac{111}{80}$...
4
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20135
$\text{An electron with kinetic energy } K_1 \text{ enters the region between the parallel plates of a capacitor at an angle } \alpha \text{ with the plates.}$ $\text{It leaves the plates at an angle } \beta \text{ with kinetic energy } K_2. \text{ The ratio of kinetic energies } K_1 : K_2 \text{ is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\sin^2 \beta}{\cos^2 \alpha}$, $\frac{\cos^2 \beta}{\cos^2 \alpha}$...
2
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20134
$512$ \text{ identical drops of mercury are charged to a potential of } $2V$ \text{ each.} $\text{The drops are joined to}$ $\text{form a single drop. The potential of this drop is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$64 \text{ V}$, $128 \text{ V}$...
2
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20133
$\text{Two equal capacitors are first connected in series and then in parallel. The ratio of the equivalent capacitances, } \left( \frac{C_{\text{Series}}}{C_{\text{Parallel}}} \right) \text{ in these two cases will be:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 : 1$, $2 : 1$...
3
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20132
$\text{Two identical electric point dipoles have dipole moments } \vec{P}_1 = P\hat{i} \text{ and } \vec{P}_2 = -P\hat{i} \text{ and are held on the } x \text{ axis at distance } 'a' \text{ from each other.}$ $\text{When released, they move along the } x\text{-axis with the direction of their dipole moments remaining unchanged.}$ $\text{If the mass of each dipole is } 'm', \text{ their speed when they are infinitely far apart is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{P}{a} \sqrt{\frac{1}{\pi \varepsilon_0 ma}}$, $\frac{P}{a} \sqrt{\frac{3}{2\pi \varepsilon_0 ma}}$...
3
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20131
$\text{In the circuit shown, charge on the } 5 \, \mu\text{F capacitor is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$5.45 \, \mu\text{C}$, $16.36 \, \mu\text{C}$...
2
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20130
$\text{Ten charges are placed on the circumference of a circle of radius } R \text{ with constant angular separation between successive charges.}$ $\text{Alternate charges } 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 \text{ have charge } (+q) \text{ each, while } 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 \text{ have charge } (-q) \text{ each.}$ $\text{The potential } V \text{ and the electric field } E \text{ at the centre of the circle are respectively: (Take } V = 0 \text{ at infinity)}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$V = \frac{10q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 R} ; E = \frac{10q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 R^2}$, $V = 0, E = \frac{10q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 R^2}$...
3
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20129
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor has plate of length } l, \text{ width } w \text{ and separation of plates is } d. \text{ It is connected to a battery of emf } V. \text{ A dielectric slab of the same thickness } d \text{ and of dielectric constant is being inserted between the plates of the capacitor. At what length of the slab inside plates, will be energy stored in the capacitor be two times the initial energy stored?}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{l}{4}$, $\frac{l}{2}$...
3
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20128
$\text{Two capacitors of capacitances } C \text{ and } 2C \text{ are charged to potential differences } V \text{ and } 2V, \text{ respectively. These are then connected in parallel in such a manner that the positive terminal of one is connected to the negative terminal of the other. The final energy of this configuration is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{9}{2}CV^2$, $\frac{25}{6}CV^2$...
4
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20127
$\text{A solid sphere of radius } R \text{ carries a charge } (Q + q) \text{ distributed uniformly over its volume.}$ $\text{A very small point like piece of it of mass } m \text{ gets detached from the bottom of the sphere and falls down vertically under gravity.}$ $\text{This piece carries charge } q. \text{ If it acquires a speed } v \text{ when it has fallen through a vertical height } y \text{ (see figure), then:}$ $\text{(assume the remaining portion to be spherical).}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$v^2 = 2y \left[ \frac{qQ}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 R(R+y)m} + g \right]$, $v^2 = y \left[ \frac{qQ}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 R^2 ym} + g \right]$...
1
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20126
$\text{A capacitor } C \text{ is fully charged with voltage } V_0. \text{ After disconnecting the voltage source, it is connected in parallel with another uncharged capacitor of capacitance } \frac{C}{2}. \text{ The energy loss in the process after the charge is distributed between the two capacitors is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{6} CV_0^2$, $\frac{1}{3} CV_0^2$...
1
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20125
$\text{A two-point charges } 4q \text{ and } -q \text{ are fixed on the x-axis at } x = -\frac{d}{2} \text{ and } x = \frac{d}{2}, \text{ respectively. If a third point charge } 'q' \text{ is taken from the origin to } x = d \text{ along the semicircle as shown in the figure, the energy of the charge will:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{increased by } \frac{3q^2}{4\pi\varepsilon_0\ d}$, $\text{increase by } \frac{2q^2}{3\pi\varepsilon_0 d}$...
3
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20124
$\text{Concentric metallic hollow spheres radii } R \text{ and } 4R \text{ hold charges } Q_1 \text{ and } Q_2 \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{Given that surface charge densities of the concentric spheres are equal, the potential difference } V(R) - V(4R) \text{ is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3Q_1}{16\pi\varepsilon_0 R}$, $\frac{3Q_1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 R}$...
1
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20123
$\text{Two isolated conducting spheres } S_1 \text{ and } S_2 \text{ of radius } \frac{2R}{3} \text{ and } \frac{R}{3} \text{ have } 12 \, \mu\text{C} \text{ and } -3 \, \mu\text{C} \text{ charges, respectively, and are at a large distance from each other. They are now connected by a conducting wire. A long time after this is done the charges on } S_1 \text{ and } S_2 \text{ are respectively,}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$6 \, \mu\text{C} \text{ and } 3 \, \mu\text{C}$, $4.5 \, \mu\text{C} \text{ on both}$...
1
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20122
$A \ 10 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ capacitor is fully charged to a potential difference of } 50 \, \text{V.}$ $\text{After disconnecting the voltage source, it is connected in parallel with an initially uncharged capacitor.}$ $\text{The potential difference across both capacitors becomes } 20 \, \text{V.}$ $\text{The capacitance of the second capacitor is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \, \mu\text{F}$, $15 \, \mu\text{F}$...
2
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20121
$\text{A charge } Q \text{ is distributed over two concentric conducting thin spherical shells radii } r \text{ and } R \ (R > r).$ $\text{If the surface charge densities on the two shells are equal, the electric potential at the common centre is:}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \frac{(R+2r)Q}{2(R^2+r^2)}$, $\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \frac{(R+r)Q}{(R^2+r^2)}$...
3
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20120
$A \ 5 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ capacitor is charged fully by a } 220 \, \text{V} \text{ supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected in series to another uncharged } 2.5 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ capacitor. If the energy change during the charge redistribution is } \frac{X}{100} \, \text{J} \text{ then value of } X \text{ to the nearest integer is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$10$, $20$...
3
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20119
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor is made of two square plates of side } 'a',$ $\text{ separated by a distance } d (d << a).$ $\text{The lower triangular portion is}$ $\text{filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant } K, \text{ as shown in the}$ $\text{figure. The capacitance of this capacitor is:}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{K \varepsilon_0 a^2}{2d(K + 1)}$, $\frac{K \varepsilon_0 a^2}{d(K - 1)} \ln K$...
2
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20118
$\text{In the given circuit, the charge on } 4 \, \mu\text{F capacitor will be:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$5.4 \, \mu\text{C}$, $9.6 \, \mu\text{C}$...
4
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20117
$\text{A point dipole with dipole moment } \vec{p} = -p_0 \hat{i} \text{ is placed at the origin.}$ $\text{What are the electric potential and electric field due to this dipole at a point located on the } y\text{-axis at a distance } d \text{ from the origin? (assume } V = 0 \text{ at infinity)}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{|\vec{p}|}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 d^2}, \frac{-\vec{p}}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 d^3}$, $0, \frac{-\vec{p}}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 d^3}$...
2
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20116
$\text{Two identical parallel plate capacitors, of capacitance } C \text{ each, have plates of area } A, \text{ separated by a distance } d. \text{ The space between the plates of the two capacitors is filled with three dielectrics, of equal thickness and dielectric constants } K_1, K_2 \text{ and } K_3. \text{ The first capacitor is filled as shown in Fig I, and the second one is filled as shown in Fig II.}$ $\text{If these two modified capacitors are charged by the same potential } V, \text{ the ratio of the energy stored in the two, would be (} E_1 \text{ refers to capacitor (I) and } E_2 \text{ to capacitor (II)):}$
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{E_1}{E_2} = \frac{(K_1 + K_2 + K_3)(K_3 K_1 + K_2 K_3 + K_2 K_1)}{K_1 K_2 K_3}$, $\frac{E_1}{E_2} = \frac{K_1 K_2 K_3}{(K_1 + K_2 + K_3)(K_3 K_1 + K_2 K_3 + K_2 K_1)}$...
4
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20115
$\text{In free space, a particle } A \text{ of charge } 1 \, \mu\text{C} \text{ is held fixed at a point } P. \text{ Another particle } B \text{ of the same charge and mass } 4 \, \mu\text{g} \text{ is kept at a distance of } 1 \, \text{mm from } P. \text{ If } B \text{ is released, then its velocity at a distance of } 9 \, \text{mm from } P \text{ is:}$ $\left[ \text{Take } \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \, \text{Nm}^2\text{C}^{-2} \right]$
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117
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.0 \, \text{m/s}$, $3.0 \times 10^4 \, \text{m/s}$...
4
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20114
$\text{A uniformly charged ring of radius } 3a \text{ and total charge } q \text{ is placed in } xy\text{-plane centered at the origin.}$ $\text{A point charge } q \text{ is moving towards the ring along the } z\text{-axis and has speed } v \text{ at } z = 4a. \text{ The minimum value of } v \text{ such that it crosses the origin is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{2}{m} \left( \frac{1}{5} \frac{q^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 a} \right)^{1/2}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{2}{m} \left( \frac{1}{15} \frac{q^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 a} \right)^{1/2}}$...
3
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20113
$\text{The figure shows the charge } (q) \text{ versus voltage } (V) \text{ graphs corresponding to two different combinations of the same pair of capacitors:}$ $1. \text{ In parallel: } A$ $2. \text{ In series: } B$ $\text{Based on the graphs (for } A \text{ and } B\text{), what are the capacitances of the two capacitors?}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$50 \ \mu\text{F} \text{ and } 30 \ \mu\text{F}$, $40 \ \mu\text{F} \text{ and } 10 \ \mu\text{F}$...
2
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20112
$\text{The parallel combination of two air filled parallel plate capacitors of capacitance } C \text{ and } nC \text{ is connected to a battery of voltage, } V. \text{ When the capacitors are fully charged, the battery is removed and after that a dielectric material of dielectric constant } K \text{ is placed between the two plates of the first capacitors. The new potential difference of the combined system is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{V}{K+n}$, $\frac{nV}{K+n}$...
3
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20111
$\text{A system of three charges are placed as shown in the figure:}$ $\text{If } D \gg d, \text{ the potential energy of the system is best given by:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \left[ \frac{q^2}{d} + \frac{qQd}{D^2} \right]$, $\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \left[ -\frac{q^2}{d} + \frac{qQd}{D^2} \right]$...
4
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20110
$\text{A positive point charge is released from rest at a distance } r_0 \text{ from a position line charge with uniform density.}$ $\text{The speed } (v) \text{ of the point charge, as a function of instantaneous distance } r \text{ from line charge, is proportional to:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$v \propto e^{+r/r_0}$, $v \propto \ln\left(\frac{r}{r_0}\right)$...
4
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20109
$\text{A solid conducting sphere, having a charge } Q, \text{ is surrounded by an uncharged conducting hollow spherical shell.}$ $\text{Let the potential difference between the surface of the solid sphere and that of the outer surface of the hollow shell be } V.$ $\text{If the shell is now given a charge of } -4Q, \text{ the new potential difference between the same two surfaces is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$-2V$, $2V$...
3
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20108
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance } 90 \text{ pF is connected to a battery of emf } 20 \text{ V.}$ $\text{If a dielectric material of dielectric constant } K = \frac{5}{3} \text{ is inserted between the plates,}$ $\text{the magnitude of the induced charge will be:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.2 \text{ nC}$, $0.3 \text{ nC}$...
1
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20107
$\text{Three concentric metal shells } A, B \text{ and } C \text{ of respective radii } a, b \text{ and } c \,(a < b < c) \text{ have surface charge densities } +\sigma, -\sigma \text{ and } +\sigma \text{ respectively. The potential of the shell } B \text{ is:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_0} \left[ \frac{a^2 - b^2}{a} + c \right]$, $\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_0} \left[ \frac{a^2 - b^2}{b} + c \right]$...
2
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20106
$\text{A capacitance of } 2 \, \mu F \text{ is required in an electrical circuit across a potential difference of } 1.0 \, kV. \text{ A large number of } 1 \, \mu F \text{ capacitors are available which can withstand a potential difference of not more than } 300 \, V. \text{ The minimum number of capacitors required to achieve this is:}$ $1. \text{ 2}$ $2. \text{ 16}$ $3. \text{ 24}$ $4. \text{ 32}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $16$...
4
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20105
$\text{A combination of capacitors is set up as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the electric field, due to a point charge } Q \text{ (having a charge equal to the sum of the charges on the } 4 \, \mu\text{F and } 9 \, \mu\text{F capacitors), at a point distant } 30 \, \text{m from it, would equal:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$240 \, \text{N/C}$, $360 \, \text{N/C}$...
3
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20104
$\text{The figure shows two point charges } +Q \text{ and } -Q \text{ inside the cavity of a spherical shell. The charges are kept near the surface of the cavity on opposite sides of the centre of the shell. If } \sigma_1 \text{ is the surface charge on the inner surface and } Q_1 \text{ net charge on it and } \sigma_2 \text{ the surface charge on the outer surface and } Q_2 \text{ net charge on it then:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sigma_1 \neq 0, Q_1 = 0, \text{ and } \sigma_2 \neq 0, Q_2 = 0$, $\sigma_1 = 0, Q_1 = 0, \text{ and } \sigma_2 = 0, Q_2 = 0$...
2
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20103
$\text{In the given circuit, charge } Q_2 \text{ on the } 2 \, \mu\text{F capacitor changes as } C \text{ is varied from } 1 \, \mu\text{F to } 3 \, \mu\text{F.}$ $Q_2 \text{ as a function of } C \text{ is given properly by: (figures are drawn schematically and are not to scale)}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$Q_2 \text{ vs } C \text{ graph with increasing slope}$, $Q_2 \text{ vs } C \text{ graph with constant slope}$...
2
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20102
$\text{A uniformly charged solid sphere of radius } R \text{ has potential } V_0$ $\text{(measured with respect to } \infty) \text{ on its surface. For this sphere, the}$ $\text{equipotential surfaces with potentials } \frac{3V_0}{2}, \frac{5V_0}{4}, \frac{3V_0}{4} \text{ and } \frac{V_0}{4} \text{ have}$ $\text{radius } R_1, R_2, R_3 \text{ and } R_4 \text{ respectively. Then:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$R_1 = 0 \text{ and } R_2 > (R_4 - R_3)$, $R_1 \neq 0 \text{ and } (R_2 - R_1) > (R_4 - R_3)$...
3
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20101
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor is made of two circular plates separated by a distance of } 5 \text{ mm and with a dielectric of dielectric constant } 2.2 \text{ between them.}$ $\text{When the electric field in the dielectric is } 3 \times 10^4 \text{ V/m, the charge density of the positive plate will be close to:}$
1
117
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \times 10^{-7} \text{ C/m}^2$, $3 \times 10^4 \text{ C/m}^2$...
4
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20100
$\text{An electric field } \vec{E} = (2x\hat{i}) \text{ NC}^{-1} \text{ exists in space. A cube of side } 2 \text{ m is placed in the space as per figure given below. The electric flux through the cube is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$0 \text{ Nm}^2/\text{C}$, $4 \text{ Nm}^2/\text{C}$...
4
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20099
$\text{Five charges } +q, +5q, -2q, +3q \text{ and } -4q \text{ are situated as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The electric flux due to this configuration through the surface } S \text{ is}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{4q}{\varepsilon_0}$, $\frac{q}{\varepsilon_0}$...
1
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20098
$\text{Two identical conducting spheres } P \text{ and } S \text{ with charge } Q \text{ on each, repel each other with a force } 16 \text{ N.}$ $\text{A third identical uncharged conducting sphere } R \text{ is successively brought in contact with the two spheres.}$ $\text{The new force of repulsion between } P \text{ and } S \text{ is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ N}$, $1 \text{ N}$...
1
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20097
$\sigma$ \text{ is the uniform surface charge density of a thin spherical shell of radius } R. \text{ The electric field at any point on the surface of the spherical shell is:}
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_0} R$, $\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_0}$...
2
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20096
$\text{A charge } q \text{ is placed at the center of one of the surface of a cube. The flux linked with the cube is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{q}{4\varepsilon_0}$, $\frac{q}{2\varepsilon_0}$...
2
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20095
$\text{The electric field due to the electric dipole on the axial position at distance } r \text{ from the dipole is proportional to:}$ $\text{(assume } r \gg \text{ length of the dipole)}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{r}$, $\frac{1}{r^3}$...
2
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20094
$\text{The electric field in a region is given by } \vec{E} = (6\hat{i} + 7\hat{j} + 8\hat{k}) \text{ (in V/m). An area of } 30 \text{ m}^2 \text{ is considered in the } y-z \text{ plane. Then the electric flux through this area (in V} \cdot \text{m) is:}$ $1.\ 180$ $2.\ 150$ $3.\ 170$ $4.\ 130$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$180$, $150$...
1
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20093
$\text{The electric field due to a dipole at a point on its equatorial plane varies as } r^{-n}. \text{ The value of } n \text{ is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$0$, $2$...
4
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20092
$\text{A charge of } 10 \, \mu\text{C is split into two equal parts, and the resulting charges are placed } 1 \, \text{cm apart. What will be the force of repulsion between the two charges?}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$225 \, \text{N}$, $450 \, \text{N}$...
3
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20091
$\text{An electric dipole with a dipole moment of } 5 \, \mu\text{C-m is placed in a uniform electric field of } 600 \, \text{N/C, at an angle of } 90^\circ \text{ to the direction of the field. The torque experienced by the dipole, (in milli-Newton-meters) is equal to:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $0$...
1
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20090
$\text{The electric field in a region is given by } \vec{E} = \frac{a}{x^2} \hat{i} + \frac{b}{y^3} \hat{j}, \text{ where } x \text{ and } y \text{ are coordinates of a point. The SI units of } a \text{ and } b \text{ are respectively:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Nm}^2\text{C}^{-1}, \text{Nm}^3\text{C}^{-1}$, $\text{Nm}^3\text{C}^{-1}, \text{Nm}^2\text{C}^{-1}$...
1
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20089
$\text{A spherically symmetric charge distribution is considered with charge density varying as}$ $\rho(r) = \begin{cases} \rho_0 \left( \frac{3}{4} - \frac{r}{R} \right) & \text{for } r \leq R \\ \text{Zero} & \text{for } r > R \end{cases}$ $\text{where } r(r < R) \text{ is the distance from the centre } O \text{ (as shown in the figure). The electric field at point } P \text{ will be:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\rho_0 r}{4 \varepsilon_0} \left( \frac{3}{4} - \frac{r}{R} \right)$, $\frac{\rho_0 r}{3 \varepsilon_0} \left( \frac{3}{4} - \frac{r}{R} \right)$...
3
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20088
$\text{A charge of } 4 \, \mu\text{C is to be divided into two. The distance between the two divided charges is constant. The magnitude of the divided charges so that the force between them is maximum will be:}$ $1. \, 1 \, \mu\text{C and } 3 \, \mu\text{C}$ $2. \, 2 \, \mu\text{C and } 2 \, \mu\text{C}$ $3. \, 0 \, \mu\text{C and } 4 \, \mu\text{C}$ $4. \, 1.5 \, \mu\text{C and } 2.5 \, \mu\text{C}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \, \mu\text{C and } 3 \, \mu\text{C}$, $2 \, \mu\text{C and } 2 \, \mu\text{C}$...
2
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20087
$\text{Three-point charges of magnitude } 5 \, \mu\text{C}, \, 0.16 \, \mu\text{C} \text{ and } 0.3 \, \mu\text{C} \text{ are located at the vertices } A, B, C \text{ of a right-angled triangle whose sides are } AB = 3 \, \text{cm}, \, BC = 3\sqrt{2} \, \text{cm} \text{ and } CA = 3 \, \text{cm} \text{ and point } A \text{ is the right-angle corner. Charge at point } A \text{ experiences an electrostatic force due to the other two charges equal to:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$11 \, \text{N}$, $17 \, \text{N}$...
2
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20086
$\text{The volume charge density of a sphere of radius } 6 \text{ m is } 2 \, \mu\text{C-cm}^{-3}.$ $\text{The number of lines of force per unit surface area coming out from the surface of the sphere is:}$ $\left[ \text{Given: Permittivity of vacuum, } \varepsilon_0 = 8.85 \times 10^{-12} \frac{\text{C}^2}{\text{N-m}^2} \right]$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$15 \times 10^{10} \, \text{NC}^{-1}$, $30 \times 10^{10} \, \text{NC}^{-1}$...
3
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20085
$\text{A positive charge particle of } 100 \text{ mg is thrown in opposite direction to a uniform electric field of strength } 1 \times 10^5 \text{ NC}^{-1}. \text{ If the charge on the particle is } 40 \ \mu\text{C and the initial velocity is } 200 \ \text{ms}^{-1}, \text{ how much distance it will travel before coming to the rest momentarily:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \ \text{m}$, $5 \ \text{m}$...
4
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20084
$\text{Two point charges } A \text{ and } B \text{ of magnitude } +8 \times 10^{-6} \text{ C and } -8 \times 10^{-6} \text{ C respectively are placed at a distance } d \text{ apart.}$ $\text{The electric field at the middle point } O \text{ between the charges is } 6.4 \times 10^{-4} \text{ NC}^{-1}. \text{ The distance } d \text{ between the point charges } A \text{ and } B \text{ is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.0 \text{ m}$, $3.0 \text{ m}$...
2
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20083
$\text{Three identical charged balls each of charge } 2C \text{ are suspended from a common point } P \text{ by silk threads of } 2 \text{ m each (as shown in the figure). They form an equilateral triangle of side } 1 \text{ m. The ratio of the net force on a charged ball to the force between any two charged balls will be:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 1$, $1 : 4$...
4
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20082
$\text{A point charge } q \text{ is placed at the centre of a closed non-conducting}$ $\text{hemispherical surface made of a curved hemisphere and a flat}$ $\text{circular base. The total electric flux passing through the flat base is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{q}{\varepsilon_0}$, $\frac{q}{2\varepsilon_0}$...
2
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20081
$\text{Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Non-polar materials do not have any permanent dipole moment.}$ $\text{Reason (R): When a non-polar material is placed in an electric field, the centre of the positive charge distribution of its individual atom or molecule coincides with the centre of the negative charge distribution.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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20080
$\text{In the figure, a very large plane sheet of positive charge is shown.}$ $P_1 \text{ and } P_2 \text{ are two points at distance } l \text{ and } 2l \text{ from the charge distribution.}$ $\text{If } \sigma \text{ is the surface charge density, then the magnitude of electric fields } E_1 \text{ and } E_2 \text{ at } P_1 \text{ and } P_2 \text{ respectively are:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$E_1 = \frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_0}, E_2 = \frac{\sigma}{2\varepsilon_0}$, $E_1 = \frac{2\sigma}{\varepsilon_0}, E_2 = \frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_0}$...
3
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20079
$\text{A long cylindrical volume contains a uniformly distributed charge of density } \rho. \text{ The radius of cylindrical volume is } R. \text{ A charged particle } (q) \text{ revolves around the cylindrical path. The kinetic energy of the particle is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\rho q R^2}{4 \varepsilon_0}$, $\frac{\rho q R^2}{2 \varepsilon_0}$...
1
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20078
$\text{Two identical charged particles, each having a mass } 10 \text{ g and charge } 2.0 \times 10^{-7} \text{ C, are placed on a horizontal table with a separation of } L \text{ between them such that they stay in limited equilibrium. If the coefficient of friction between each particle and the table is } 0.25, \text{ the value of } L \text{ is: [Use } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2}]$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$12 \text{ cm}$, $10 \text{ cm}$...
1
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20077
$\text{A vertical electric field of magnitude } 4.9 \times 10^5 \text{ N/C just prevents a water droplet of a mass of } 0.1 \text{ g from falling. The value of charge on the droplet will be: (Given } g = 9.8 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.6 \times 10^{-9} \text{ C}$, $2.0 \times 10^{-9} \text{ C}$...
2
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20076
$\text{Two point charges } q_1(\sqrt{10} \ \mu\text{C}) \text{ and } q_2(-25 \ \mu\text{C}) \text{ are placed on the } x\text{-axis at } x = 1 \ \text{m and } x = 4 \ \text{m respectively.}$ $\text{The electric field (in V/m) at a point } y = 3 \ \text{m on the } y\text{-axis is:}$ $\left(\text{take } \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \ \text{Nm}^2\text{C}^{-2}\right)$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$(63\hat{i} - 27\hat{j}) \times 10^2$, $(-63\hat{i} + 27\hat{j}) \times 10^2$...
1
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20075
$\text{Three charges } +Q, q, +Q \text{ are placed respectively, at a distance, } 0, \frac{d}{2} \text{ and } d \text{ from the origin, on the } x\text{-axis. If the net force experienced by } +Q, \text{ placed at } x = 0, \text{ is zero, then the value of } q \text{ is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$-\frac{Q}{4}$, $+\frac{Q}{2}$...
1
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20074
$\text{For a uniformly charged ring of the radius } R, \text{ the electric field on its axis has the largest magnitude at a distance } h \text{ from its centre. Then the value of } h \text{ is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{R}{\sqrt{5}}$, $\frac{R}{\sqrt{2}}$...
2
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20073
$\text{Four point charges } -q, +q, +q \text{ and } -q \text{ are placed on } y\text{-axis at } y = -2d, y = -d, y = +d, y = +2d, \text{ respectively. The magnitude of the electric field } E \text{ at a point a the } x\text{-axis at } x = D, \text{ with } D >> d, \text{ will behave as:}$ $1. \ E \propto \frac{1}{D}$ $2. \ E \propto \frac{1}{D^3}$ $3. \ E \propto \frac{1}{D^4}$ $4. \ E \propto \frac{1}{D^2}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$E \propto \frac{1}{D}$, $E \propto \frac{1}{D^3}$...
3
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20072
$\text{A electric dipole is formed by two equal and opposite charges } q \text{ with separation } d. \text{ The charges have same mass } m. \text{ It is kept in a uniform electric field } E. \text{ If it is slightly rotated from its equilibrium orientation, then its angular frequency } \omega \text{ is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{qE}{2md}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{2qE}{md}}$...
2
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20071
$\text{The bob of a simple pendulum has mass } 2 \text{ g and a charge of } 5.0 \, \mu\text{C.}$ $\text{It is at rest in a uniform horizontal electric field of intensity } 2000 \, \text{V/m.}$ $\text{At equilibrium, the angle that the pendulum makes with the vertical is: (take } g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2)$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\tan^{-1}(5.0)$, $\tan^{-1}(0.5)$...
2
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20070
$\text{Two identical conducting spheres } A \text{ and } B \text{ carry an equal charge.}$ $\text{They are separated by a distance much larger than their diameters}$ $\text{and the force between them is } F. \text{ A third identical conducting sphere } C \text{ is uncharged.}$ $\text{The sphere } C \text{ is first touched to } A \text{ then to } B \text{ and then removed.}$ $\text{As a result, the force between } A \text{ and } B \text{ would be equal to:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3F}{4}$, $\frac{F}{2}$...
3
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20069
$\text{The mass density of a spherical body is given by } \rho(r) = \frac{K}{r} \text{ for } r \leq R \text{ and } \rho(r) = 0 \text{ for } r \leq R, \text{ where } r \text{ is the distance from the centre.}$ $\text{The correct graph that describes qualitatively the acceleration } a \text{ of a test particle as a function of } r \text{ is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
1
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20068
$\text{Four closed surfaces and corresponding charge distributions are shown below.}$ $\text{Let the respective electric fluxes through the surfaces be } \phi_1, \phi_2, \phi_3 \text{ and } \phi_4. \text{ Then:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\phi_1 = \phi_2 = \phi_3 = \phi_4$, $\phi_1 > \phi_3; \phi_2 < \phi_4$...
1
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20067
$\text{A wire, of length } (L = 20 \text{ cm}), \text{ is bent into a semicircular arc. If the two equal halves, of the area, were each to be uniformly charged with charges } \pm Q, \ |Q| = 10^3 \varepsilon_0 \ C, \text{ where } \varepsilon_0 \text{ is the permittivity (in S.I units) of free space} \text{ the net electric field at the centre } O \text{ of the semicircular area would be:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$(50 \times 10^3 \ \text{N/C}) \ \hat{j}$, $(50 \times 10^3 \ \text{N/C}) \ \hat{i}$...
4
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20066
$\text{A thin disc of radius } b = 2a \text{ has a concentric hole of radius } a' \text{ in it (see figure). It carries a uniform surface charge } \sigma' \text{ on it. If the electric field on its axis at height } h (h \ll a) \text{ from its centre is given as:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\sigma h}{2a \epsilon_0}$, $\frac{\sigma h}{4a \epsilon_0}$...
2
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20065
$\text{A solid sphere has a radius of } 4a \text{ and is centered at the origin. Two charges are positioned: one with a charge of } -2q \text{ at the coordinates } (-5a, 0) \text{ and } 5q \text{ at } (3a, 0). \text{ The electric flux through the sphere is given by } \frac{xq}{\varepsilon_0}. \text{ Then the value of } x.$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $4$...
1
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20064
$\text{An electron is moving with the speed } 1 \text{ m/s at a distance } 1 \text{ m from a large sheet of charge with density } \sigma \text{ C/m}^2. \text{ Then the maximum value of } \sigma \text{ such that the electron hit the sheet after } 1 \text{ sec is:}$ $\text{(mass of electron } 9 \times 10^{-31} \text{ kg, permittivity of free space } \varepsilon_0 = 9 \times 10^{-12} \text{ C}^2/\text{Nm}^2)$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$4.05 \times 10^{-22} \text{ C/m}^2$, $8.10 \times 10^{-22} \text{ C/m}^2$...
1
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20063
$\text{A ring has a uniformly distributed charge of } 2\pi \text{ C and radius of } 3 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{A charge of } 10^{-6} \text{ C is placed at the centre of the ring.}$ $\text{Then the tension developed in the ring is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$10^{13} \text{ N}$, $10^{5} \text{ N}$...
3
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20062
$\text{A dipole, with a charge of magnitude } 0.01 \text{ C and a separation distance of } 0.4 \text{ mm, is positioned within an electric field that has a strength of } 10 \text{ dyne/C. The maximum torque exerted on the dipole in this field is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \times 10^{-9} \text{ N-m}$, $2 \times 10^{-10} \text{ N-m}$...
3
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20061
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{When an electric dipole is completely enclosed by a closed Gaussian surface, the total electric flux through the surface is zero.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{The net charge enclosed within the surface is zero.}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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20060
$\text{A fixed charge } P \text{ and a free charge } Q, \text{ both having the same charge and mass, are positioned as shown in the diagram.}$ $\text{Given that } q = 2 \mu C, \theta = 30^\circ, \text{ and } m = 20 \text{ g, what is the maximum height } h$ $\text{attained by the charge } Q \text{ in equilibrium on the smooth inclined plane?}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.1 \text{ m}$, $0.3 \text{ m}$...
2
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20059
$\text{An infinite line charge density } \lambda \text{ has a charged particle } (-q, m) \text{ revolving about it in a circle of radius } r. \text{ Find the orbital speed}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{\lambda a}{\pi \varepsilon_0 m}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{\lambda q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 m}}$...
4
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20058
41
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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20057
$\text{An electric dipole is shown in the figure. If it is displaced by a small angle with respect to the electric field, the angular frequency of its oscillation is given by:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{6qE}{ml}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{3qE}{ml}}$...
2
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20056
$x = 2.$ $\text{Two-point charges each of magnitude } q \text{ is kept at a separation of } 2a.$ $\text{The distance from mid-point on perpendicular bisector where a point charge will experience maximum force is } \frac{a}{\sqrt{x}}.$ $\text{Then } x =$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
3, 2...
2
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20055
$\text{Two thin insulating sheets (each having charge density } +\sigma\text{) are arranged as shown. The net electric field magnitude in the three regions will be respectively:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$E_1 = \frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_0}; \ E_2 = 0; \ E_3 = \frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_0}$, $E_1 = E_2 = E_3 = 0$...
1
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20054
$\text{The electric field in a region is given by } 4000x^2 \hat{i} \text{ N/C. The electric flux through the cube (given below) would be:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$6.4 \text{ N-m}^2/\text{C}$, $3.2 \text{ N-m}^2/\text{C}$...
1
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20053
$\text{The electric field in a region is } \vec{E} = 2x^2 \hat{i} - 4y \hat{j} + 6z \hat{k}. \text{ What is the charge inside the cuboid shown below?}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$-8\varepsilon_0$, $36\varepsilon_0$...
4
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20052
$\text{A point charge } Q \text{ is placed inside the cavity made of a uniform conducting solid sphere as shown. } E_A, E_B \text{ and } E_C \text{ are electric field magnitudes at points } A, B, \text{ and } C \text{ respectively. Then:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$E_A = 0, E_B = 0 \text{ and } E_C \neq 0$, $E_A \neq 0, E_B = 0 \text{ and } E_C \neq 0$...
2
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20051
$\text{A point charge } Q \text{ is placed inside the cavity made of a uniform conducting solid sphere as shown. } E_A, E_B \text{ and } E_C \text{ are electric field magnitudes at points } A, B, \text{ and } C \text{ respectively. Then:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$E_A = 0, E_B = 0 \text{ and } E_C \neq 0$, $E_A \neq 0, E_B = 0 \text{ and } E_C \neq 0$...
2
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20050
33
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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20049
$\text{A charge } q \text{ is placed at the centre of the bottom face of a cuboid, as shown in the diagram.}$ $\text{What is the electric flux through the shaded surface?}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2q}{7\varepsilon_0}$, $\frac{q}{12\varepsilon_0}$...
4
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20048
$\text{A charge of } 10 \, \mu\text{C is placed at the origin. Where should a charge of } 40 \, \mu\text{C be placed on the } x\text{-axis so that the electric field at } x = 2 \text{ units is zero?}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$-2 \text{ units}$, $4 \text{ units}$...
3
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20047
$\text{Two charges, } q_1 \text{ and } q_2, \text{ separated by a distance } d, \text{ are placed in a medium with a dielectric constant } K. \text{ If these charges are placed in the air, the equivalent separation at which they experience the same force is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$d\sqrt{K}$, $\frac{K}{\sqrt{d}}$...
1
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20046
$\text{Two identical metallic spheres } A \text{ and } B \text{ when placed at a certain distance in the air repel each other with a force } F. \text{ Another identical uncharged sphere } C \text{ is first placed in contact with } A \text{ and then in contact with } B \text{ and finally placed at the midpoint between spheres } A \text{ and } B. \text{ The force experienced by sphere } C \text{ will be:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3F}{2}$, $\frac{3F}{4}$...
2
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20045
$\text{Two electric dipoles of dipole moments } 1.2 \times 10^{-30} \text{ C-m and } 2.4 \times 10^{-30} \text{ C-m are placed in two different uniform electric fields of strengths } 5 \times 10^4 \text{ NC}^{-1} \text{ and } 15 \times 10^4 \text{ NC}^{-1} \text{ respectively. The ratio of maximum torque experienced by the electric dipoles is } \frac{1}{x}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $4$...
3
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20044
$\text{A long cylindrical volume contains a uniformly distributed charge of density } \rho \text{ cm}^{-3}. \text{ The electric field inside the cylindrical volume at a distance } x = \frac{2\varepsilon_0}{\rho} \text{ m from its axis is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \text{ Vm}^{-1}$, $2 \text{ Vm}^{-1}$...
1
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20043
$\text{Two point charges, } Q \text{ each, are placed at a distance } d \text{ apart.}$ $\text{A third point charge } q \text{ is placed at a distance } x \text{ from the mid-point on the perpendicular bisector.}$ $\text{The value of } x \text{ at which charge } q \text{ will experience the maximum Coulomb's force is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$x = d$, $x = \frac{d}{2}$...
4
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20042
$\text{The three charges } \frac{q}{2}, q \text{ and } \frac{q}{2} \text{ are placed at the corners } A, B \text{ and } C$ $\text{of a square of side } a \text{ as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the}$ $\text{electric field } (E) \text{ at the corner } D \text{ of the square is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 a^2} \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} + \frac{1}{2} \right)$, $\frac{q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 a^2} \left( 1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \right)$...
1
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20041
$\text{Consider the following statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: A point charge is brought in an electric field. The value of the electric field at a point near the charge may increase if the charge is positive.}$ $\text{Statement II: An electric dipole is placed in a non-uniform electric field. The net electric force on the dipole will not be zero.}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are True.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are False.}$...
1
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20040
$\text{An inclined plane making an angle of } 30^\circ \text{ with the horizontal is placed in a uniform horizontal electric field } 200 \text{ N/C as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{A body of mass } 1 \text{ kg and charge } 5 \text{ mC is allowed to slide down from rest at a height of } 1 \text{ m.}$ $\text{If the coefficient of friction is } 0.2, \text{ find the time taken by the body to reach the bottom.}$ $[g = 9.8 \text{ m/s}^2, \sin 30^\circ = \frac{1}{2}; \cos 30^\circ = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}]$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.92 \text{ s}$, $0.46 \text{ s}$...
4
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20039
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a hollow sphere. The flux of the electric field through the sphere is zero but the electric field is not zero anywhere in the sphere.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{If } R \text{ is the radius of a solid metallic sphere and } Q \text{ be the total charge on it. The electric field at any point on the spherical surface of radius } r \ (< R) \text{ is zero but the electric flux passing through this closed spherical surface of radius } r \text{ is not zero.}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are true}$, $\text{Statement I is true but Statement II is false}$...
2
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20038
$\text{Find the electric field at point } P \text{ (as shown in the figure) on the perpendicular bisector of a uniformly charged thin wire of length } L \text{ carrying a charge } Q. \text{ The distance of point } P \text{ from the centre of the rod is } a = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}L.$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\sqrt{3}Q}{4\pi \varepsilon_0 L^2}$, $\frac{Q}{3\pi \varepsilon_0 L^2}$...
3
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20037
$\text{Two identical conducting spheres, each with negligible volume, carry initial charges of } 2.1 \text{ nC and } -0.1 \text{ nC, \ respectively.}$ $\text{The spheres are brought into contact, allowing charge to redistribute, and are then separated by a distance of } 0.5 \text{ m.}$ $\text{The electrostatic force acting between the spheres is:}$ $\left( 4\pi\varepsilon_0 = \frac{1}{9 \times 10^9} \text{ in SI units} \right)$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$36 \times 10^{-7} \text{ N}$, $36 \times 10^{-9} \text{ N}$...
2
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20036
$\text{Two small spheres each of mass } 10 \text{ mg are suspended from a point by threads } 0.5 \text{ m long.}$ $\text{They are equally charged and repel each other to a distance of } 0.20 \text{ m.}$ $\text{The charge on each of the spheres is } \frac{a}{21} \times 10^{-8} \text{ C.}$ $\text{The value of } 'a' \text{ will be:}$ $\text{(given } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$25$, $30$...
4
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20035
$\text{A charge } 'q' \text{ is placed at one corner of a cube as shown in figure. The flux of electrostatic field } \vec{E} \text{ through the shaded area is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{q}{4\varepsilon_0}$, $\frac{q}{8\varepsilon_0}$...
2
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20034
$\text{The electric field in a region is given } \vec{E} = \left( \frac{3}{5} E_0 \hat{i} + \frac{4}{5} E_0 \hat{j} \right) \frac{\text{N}}{\text{C}}.$ $\text{The ratio of the flux of the reported field through the rectangular surface of area } 0.2 \text{ m}^2 \text{ (parallel to } y - z \text{ plane) to that of the surface of area } 0.3 \text{ m}^2 \text{ (parallel to } x - z \text{ plane) is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 2$, $2 : 1$...
1
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20033
$\text{A point charge of } +12 \, \mu\text{C is at a distance } 6 \, \text{cm vertically above the centre of a square of side } 12 \, \text{cm as shown in figure.}$ $\text{The magnitude of the electric flux through the square will be:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$226 \times 10^2 \, \text{Nm}^2/\text{C}$, $226 \times 10^3 \, \text{Nm}^2/\text{C}$...
2
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20032
$\text{Two electrons are fixed at a distance of } 2d \text{ apart. A proton is placed at the midpoint between them and is displaced slightly by a distance } x \,(x \ll d) \text{ perpendicular to the line joining the two fixed electrons.}$ $\text{The proton will undergo simple harmonic motion with an angular frequency given by:}$ $\text{(here, } m \text{ is the mass of the proton, } q \text{ is the magnitude of the charge, and } \varepsilon_0 \text{ is the permittivity of free space)}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{2q^2}{\pi \varepsilon_0 m d^3}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{\pi \varepsilon_0 m d^3}{2q^2}}$...
3
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20031
$\text{A cube of side } a \text{ has point charges } +Q \text{ located at each of its vertices}$ $\text{except at the origin where the charge is } -Q. \text{ The electric field at the}$ $\text{centre of cube is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{-Q}{3\sqrt{3}\pi\varepsilon_0 a^2} \left( \hat{x} + \hat{y} + \hat{z} \right)$, $\frac{-2Q}{3\sqrt{3}\pi\varepsilon_0 a^2} \left( \hat{x} + \hat{y} + \hat{z} \right)$...
2
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20030
$\text{Consider the force } F \text{ on a charge } q \text{ due to a uniformly charged}$ $\text{spherical shell of radius } R \text{ carrying charge } Q \text{ distributed uniformly}$ $\text{over it. Which one of the following statements is true for } F, \text{ if } q \text{ is}$ $\text{placed at a distance } r \text{ from the centre of the shell?}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$F = \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \frac{Qq}{r^2} \text{ for } r > R$, $\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \frac{Qq}{R^2} > F > 0 \text{ for } r < R$...
1
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20029
$\text{Charges } Q_1 \text{ and } Q_2 \text{ are at points } A \text{ and } B \text{ of a right angle triangle } OAB \text{ (see figure).}$ $\text{The resultant electric field at point } O \text{ is perpendicular to the hypotenuse, then } \frac{Q_1}{Q_2} \text{ is proportional to:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{x_2}{x_1^2}$, $\frac{x_2^2}{x_1}$...
3
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20028
$\text{A particle of charge } q \text{ and mass } m \text{ is subjected to an electric field } E = E_0 \left(1 - ax^2\right) \text{ in the } x\text{-direction, where } a \text{ and } E_0 \text{ are constants. Initially, the particle was at rest at } x = 0. \text{ Other than the initial position the kinetic energy of the particle becomes zero when the distance of the particle from the origin is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{1}{a}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{3}{a}}$...
2
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20027
$\text{Two charged thin infinite plane sheets of uniform surface charge density } \sigma_+ \text{ and } \sigma_-, \text{ where } |\sigma_+| > |\sigma_-|, \text{ intersect at right angle.}$ $\text{Which of the following best represents the electric field lines for this system?}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sigma_+ \quad \sigma_-$, $\sigma_+ \quad \sigma_-$...
3
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20026
$\text{A small point mass carrying a positive charge is released from the edge of a table.}$ $\text{There is a uniform electric field in the horizontal direction.}$ $\text{Which of the following options correctly describes the trajectory of the mass?}$ $\text{(The curves are drawn schematically and are not to scale).}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Option 1: Concave down curve}$, $\text{Option 2: Concave up curve}$...
4
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20025
$\text{A charged particle (mass } m \text{ and charge } q) \text{ moves along X axis with velocity } V_0. \text{ When it passes through the origin it enters a region having uniform electric field } \vec{E} = -E\hat{j} \text{ which extends upto } x = d. \text{ Equation of path of electron in the region } x > d \text{ is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$y = \frac{qEd}{mV_0^2} \left( \frac{d}{2} - x \right)$, $y = \frac{qEd}{mV_0^2} (x - d)$...
1
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20024
$\text{Let a total charge } 2Q \text{ be distributed in a sphere of radius } R, \text{ with the charge density given by } \rho(r) = kr, \text{ where } r \text{ is the distance from the centre.}$ $\text{Two charges } A \text{ and } B, \text{ of } -Q \text{ each, are placed on diametrically opposite points, at equal distance, } a \text{ from the centre.}$ $\text{If } A \text{ and } B \text{ do not experience any force, then:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$a = 8^{-1/4}R$, $a = 2^{-1/4}R$...
1
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20023
$\text{Shown in the figure is a shell made of a conductor. It has inner radius } a \text{ and outer radius } b, \text{ and carries charge } Q. \text{ At its centre is a dipole } \vec{p} \text{ as shown. In this case:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{surface charge density on the inner surface is uniform and equal to } \frac{(Q/2)}{4\pi a^2}$, $\text{surface charge density on the outer surface depends on } |\vec{p}|$...
4
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20022
$\text{A simple pendulum of length } L \text{ is suspended between the plates of a}$ $\text{parallel-plate capacitor producing a uniform electric field } E, \text{ as}$ $\text{shown in the figure. The bob has a mass } m \text{ and a charge } q. \text{ The time}$ $\text{period of oscillation of the pendulum is given by:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{\sqrt{g^2 - \frac{q^2E^2}{m^2}}}}$, $2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g + \frac{qE}{m}}}$...
4
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20021
$\text{A charge } Q \text{ is placed at a distance } \frac{a}{2} \text{ above the centre of the square surface of the edge } a \text{ as shown in the figure. The electric flux through the square surface is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{Q}{6\varepsilon_0}$, $\frac{Q}{2\varepsilon_0}$...
1
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20020
$\text{An electric dipole with dipole moment } \vec{p}, \text{ inclined at an angle } \theta \text{ to the } x\text{-axis, experiences a torque } \vec{\tau}_1 = \tau \hat{k} \text{ in the field } \vec{E}_1 = E \hat{i}, \text{ and a torque } \vec{\tau}_2 = -\vec{\tau}_1 \text{ in the field } \vec{E}_2 = \sqrt{3}E \hat{j}. \text{ The angle } \theta \text{ is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$30^\circ$, $45^\circ$...
3
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20019
$\text{The region between two concentric spheres of radii } 'a' \text{ and } 'b', \text{ respectively (see figure), has volume charge density } \rho = \frac{A}{r}, \text{ where } A \text{ is a constant and } r \text{ is the distance from the centre.}$ $\text{At the centre of the spheres is a point charge } Q. \text{ The value of } A \text{ such that the electric field in the region between the spheres will be constant, is:}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{Q}{2 \pi a^2}$, $\frac{Q}{2 \pi (b^2 - a^2)}$...
1
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20018
$\text{A long cylindrical shell is uniformly charged such that the upper half of its curved surface carries a positive surface charge density } \sigma, \text{ while the lower half carries an equal negative surface charge density } -\sigma. \text{ Which of the following schematic diagrams (not drawn to scale) most accurately represents the resulting pattern of electric field lines around the cylinder?}$
1
116
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Diagram 1}$, $\text{Diagram 2}$...
1
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20017
$\text{In the sonometer experiment, a string of mass } 18 \text{ g having linear}$ $\text{mass density } 20 \text{ g/m oscillates in the fundamental mode (of}$ $\text{frequency } 50 \text{ Hz). The velocity of transverse waves in the string is:}$ $1.\ 70 \text{ m/s}$ $2.\ 60 \text{ m/s}$ $3.\ 90 \text{ m/s}$ $4.\ 110 \text{ m/s}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$70 \text{ m/s}$, $60 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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20016
$\text{In a certain organ pipe, the consecutive frequencies for resonance are in the ratio of } 1 : 3 : 5 \ldots \text{ and the } 5^{\text{th}} \text{ harmonic frequency is } 405 \text{ Hz. The length of the organ pipe is: (velocity of sound } = 345 \text{ m/s)}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{108}{115} \text{ m}$, $\frac{81}{115} \text{ m}$...
3
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20015
$\text{A source of sound is moving away from a stationary observer with constant velocity } 40 \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{Find frequency heard by observer, if original frequency of source is } 400 \text{ Hz and speed of sound in air is:}$ $360 \text{ m/s}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$330 \text{ Hz}$, $320 \text{ Hz}$...
3
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20014
$\text{The equation of a progressive wave is given by;}$ $y = A \sin(160t - 0.5x), \text{ where } x \text{ and } y \text{ are in metres and } t \text{ is in seconds. If the speed of the wave is } 10x \text{ m/s, then } x =$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
32, 23...
1
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20013
$\text{If the angular frequency of the given motion } y = \sin(\omega t) + \cos(\omega t) \text{ is } k\omega, \text{ then value of } k \text{ is:}$ $1. \frac{1}{2}$ $2. 1$ $3. 2$ $4. \text{none of these}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2}$, $1$...
2
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20012
$\text{The equation of the progressive wave is given as}$ $y = 5 \sin(6t + 0.03x)$ $\text{Find the speed of wave. (Assume all units in SI units)}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$50 \text{ m/s}$, $100 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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20011
$\text{A car is moving with speed of } 15 \text{ m/s towards a stationary wall. A person in the car press the horn and experience the change in frequency of } 40 \text{ Hz due to reflection from stationary wall. Find the frequency of horn. (Use } v_{\text{sound}} = 330 \text{ m/s)}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$420 \text{ Hz}$, $400 \text{ Hz}$...
1
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20010
$\text{For a medium, it is given that: Young's modulus} = 3.2 \times 10^{10} \text{ N/m}^2, \text{ density} = 8000 \text{ kg/m}^3. \text{ What is the speed of sound in this medium?}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$1000 \text{ m/s}$, $2000 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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20009
$\text{The train blowing a whistle of frequency } 320 \text{ Hz is moving with a}$ $\text{velocity of } 36 \text{ km/h towards a hill from which an echo is heard by the}$ $\text{train driver. The frequency of echo will be:}$ $\text{(The velocity of sound in air is } 330 \text{ m/s.)}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$430 \text{ Hz}$, $340 \text{ Hz}$...
2
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20008
$\text{In the wave equation, } y = 0.5 \sin \frac{2\pi}{\lambda} (400t - x) \text{ m, the velocity of the wave will be:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$200 \text{ m/s}$, $200\sqrt{2} \text{ m/s}$...
3
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20007
$\text{A wire of length } 30 \text{ cm, stretched between rigid supports, has its } n^{\text{th}}$ $\text{and } (n+1)^{\text{th}} \text{ harmonics at } 400 \text{ Hz and } 450 \text{ Hz, respectively. If the tension in the string is } 2700 \text{ N, its linear mass density is:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \text{ kg/m}$, $6 \text{ kg/m}$...
1
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20006
$\text{A transverse wave is represented by } y = 2 \sin(\omega t - kx) \text{ cm. The value of wavelength (in cm) for which the wave velocity becomes equal to the maximum particle velocity, will be:}$ $1. \ 4\pi$ $2. \ 2\pi$ $3. \ \pi$ $4. \ 2$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$4\pi$, $2\pi$...
1
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20005
$\text{Two waves executing simple harmonic motion travelling in the same direction with the same amplitude and frequency are superimposed.}$ $\text{The resultant amplitude is equal to the } \sqrt{3} \text{ times of amplitude of individual motions.}$ $\text{The phase difference between the two motions is:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$30^\circ$, $45^\circ$...
3
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20004
$\text{A tuning fork of frequency } 340 \text{ Hz resonates in the fundamental mode with an air column of length } 125 \text{ cm in a cylindrical tube closed at one end. When water is slowly poured in it, the minimum height of water required for observing resonance once again is:}$ $\text{(Velocity of sound in air is } 340 \text{ ms}^{-1})$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$75 \text{ cm}$, $50 \text{ cm}$...
2
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20003
$\text{The velocity of sound in a gas in which two wavelengths } 4.08 \text{ m and } 4.16 \text{ m produce } 40 \text{ beats in } 12 \text{ s, will be:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$282.8 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $175.5 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
4
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20002
$\text{An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a velocity equal to one-fifth of the velocity of sound. The percentage change in the frequency will be:}$ $1.\ 20\%$ $2.\ 10\%$ $3.\ 5\%$ $4.\ 0\%$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$20\%$, $10\%$...
1
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20001
$\text{A set of 20 tuning forks is arranged in a series of increasing frequencies. If each fork gives 4 beats with respect to the preceding fork and the frequency of the last fork is twice the frequency of the first, then the frequency of the last fork is:}$ $1.\ 152\ \text{Hz}$ $2.\ 234\ \text{Hz}$ $3.\ 134\ \text{Hz}$ $4.\ 144\ \text{Hz}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$152\ \text{Hz}$, $234\ \text{Hz}$...
1
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20000
$\text{The equations of two waves are given by:}$ $y_1 = 5 \sin 2\pi(x - vt) \text{ cm}$ $y_2 = 3 \sin 2\pi(x - vt + 1.5) \text{ cm}$ $\text{These waves are simultaneously passing through a string. The amplitude of the resulting wave is:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \text{ cm}$, $4 \text{ cm}$...
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19999
$\text{A tuning fork } A \text{ of unknown frequency produces } 5 \text{ beats per second}$ $\text{with a fork of known frequency of } 340 \text{ Hz. When fork } A \text{ is filed, the}$ $\text{beat frequency decreases to } 2 \text{ beats per second. What is the}$ $\text{frequency of fork } A?$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$342 \text{ Hz}$, $345 \text{ Hz}$...
3
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19998
$\text{The mass per unit length of a uniform wire is } 0.135 \text{ g/cm. A transverse wave of the form } y = -0.21 \sin(x + 30t) \text{ is produced in it, where } x \text{ is in meter and } t \text{ is in second. The expected value of the tension in the wire is:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$12.15 \text{ N}$, $30.12 \text{ N}$...
1
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19997
$\text{The percentage increase in the speed of transverse waves produced in a stretched string when the tension is increased by } 4\% \text{ is:}$ $1. \ 4\%$ $2. \ 3\%$ $3. \ 2\%$ $4. \ 1\%$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$4\%$, $3\%$...
3
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19996
$\text{A student is performing the experiment of resonance column. The diameter of the column tube is } 6 \text{ cm. The frequency of the tuning fork is } 504 \text{ Hz. Speed of the sound at the given temperature is } 336 \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{The zero of the meter scale coincides with the top end of the resonance column tube. The reading of the water level in the column, when the first resonance occurs is:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$13 \text{ cm}$, $16.6 \text{ cm}$...
4
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19995
$\text{Which, of the following equation represents a travelling wave?}$ $1.\ y = A \sin(15x - 2t)$ $2.\ y = Ae^{-x^2}(vt + \theta)$ $3.\ y = Ae^x \cos(\omega t - \theta)$ $4.\ y = A \sin x \cos \omega t$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$y = A \sin(15x - 2t)$, $y = Ae^{-x^2}(vt + \theta)$...
1
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19994
$\text{A heavy ball of mass } M \text{ is suspended from the ceiling of a car by a light string of mass } m (m << M).$ $\text{When the car is at rest, the speed of transverse waves in the string is } 60 \text{ ms}^{-1}.$ $\text{When the car has acceleration } a, \text{ the wave speed increases to } 60.5 \text{ ms}^{-1}.$ $\text{The value of } a, \text{ in terms of gravitational acceleration } g \text{ is closest to:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{g}{\sqrt{30}}$, $\frac{g}{\sqrt{5}}$...
1
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19993
$\text{Two cars } A \text{ and } B \text{ are moving away from each other in opposite directions.}$ $\text{Both the cars are moving with a speed of } 20 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ with respect to the ground.}$ $\text{If an observer in car } A \text{ detects a frequency } 2000 \text{ Hz of the sound coming from car } B,$ $\text{what is the natural frequency of the sound source in car } B? \text{ (speed of sound in air } = 340 \text{ ms}^{-1})$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$2060 \text{ Hz}$, $2150 \text{ Hz}$...
4
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19992
$\text{A string is clamped at both the ends and it is vibrating in its } 4^{\text{th}} \text{ harmonic. The equation of the stationary wave is}$ $Y = 0.3 \sin(0.157x) \cos(200\pi t). \text{ The length of the string is: (All quantities are in SI units.)}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$40 \text{ m}$, $80 \text{ m}$...
2
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19991
$\text{Two sitar strings } A \text{ and } B \text{ playing the note 'Dha' are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency } 5 \text{ Hz.}$ $\text{The tension of the string } B \text{ is slightly increased and the beat frequency is found to decrease by } 3 \text{ Hz.}$ $\text{If the frequency of } A \text{ is } 425 \text{ Hz, then the original frequency of } B \text{ is:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$428 \text{ Hz}$, $430 \text{ Hz}$...
4
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19990
$\text{The end correction of a resonance column is } 1\text{ cm. If the shortest length resonating with the tuning fork is } 10\text{ cm, the next resonating length should be:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$32\text{ cm}$, $40\text{ cm}$...
1
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19989
$\text{A tuning fork vibrates with frequency } 256 \text{ Hz and gives one beat per second with the third normal mode of vibration of an open pipe. What is the length of the pipe?}$ $\text{(Speed of sound in air is } 340 \text{ ms}^{-1})$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$220 \text{ cm}$, $200 \text{ cm}$...
2
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19988
$\text{A standing wave is formed by the superposition of two waves traveling in opposite directions. The transverse displacement is given by } y(x, t) = 0.5 \sin\left(\frac{5\pi}{4} x\right) \cos(200\pi t). \text{ What is the speed of the traveling wave moving in the positive } x \text{ direction?}$ $\text{(} x \text{ and } t \text{ are in meters and seconds, respectively.)}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$180 \text{ m/s}$, $160 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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19987
$\text{Two wires } W_1 \text{ and } W_2 \text{ have the same radius } r \text{ and respective densities } \rho_1 \text{ and } \rho_2 \text{ such that } \rho_2 = 4\rho_1. \text{ They are joined together at the point } O, \text{ as shown in the figure. The combination is used as a sonometer wire and kept under tension } T. \text{ The point } O \text{ is midway between the two bridges. When a stationary wave is set up in the composite wire, the joint is found to be a node. The ratio of the number of antinodes formed in } W_1 \text{ to } W_2 \text{ is:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 : 1$, $1 : 1$...
3
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19986
$\text{A train is moving with a speed of } 10 \text{ m/s towards a platform and blows a horn with frequency } 400 \text{ Hz.}$ $\text{Find the frequency heard by a passenger standing on the platform.}$ $\text{Take speed of sound } = 310 \text{ m/s.}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$405 \text{ Hz}$, $425 \text{ Hz}$...
4
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19985
$\text{A string of mass per unit length equal to } 7 \times 10^{-3} \text{ kg/m is subjected to a tension equal to } 70 \text{ N. The speed of the transverse wave on this string is equal to:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \text{ m/s}$, $50 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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19984
$\text{The equation of wave is given as } y = 0.05 \sin(2x - 4t), \text{ where } x \text{ in meters and } t \text{ in seconds. The velocity of the wave is equal to:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \text{ m/s}$, $4 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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19983
$\text{A transverse wave travels along a uniform wire with a length of } 50 \text{ cm}$ $\text{and a mass of } 10 \text{ grams at a speed of } 60 \text{ m/s. If the wire has a}$ $\text{cross-sectional area of } 2.0 \text{ mm}^2 \text{ and a Young's modulus of }$ $1.2 \times 10^{11} \text{ N/m}^2, \text{ the extension of the wire over its natural length}$ $\text{due to its tension will be:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.12 \text{ mm}$, $0.15 \text{ mm}$...
2
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19982
$\text{When a car is approaching the observer, the frequency of the horn heard by observer is } 100 \text{ Hz.}$ $\text{After passing the observer, it is } 50 \text{ Hz.}$ $\text{If the observer moves with the car, the frequency will be } \frac{x}{3} \text{ Hz.}$ $\text{Then } x =$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$100$, $150$...
3
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19981
$\text{Sound travels in a mixture of two moles of helium and } n \text{ moles of hydrogen.}$ $\text{If RMS speed of gas molecules in the mixture is } \sqrt{2} \text{ times}$ $\text{the speed of sound, then the value of } n \text{ will be:}$ $1.\ 1$ $2.\ 2$ $3.\ 3$ $4.\ 4$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $2$...
2
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19980
$\text{An observer is riding on a bicycle and moving towards a hill at } 18 \text{ kmh}^{-1}. \text{ He hears a sound from a source at some distance behind him directly as well as after its reflection from the hill. If the original frequency of the sound as emitted by the source is } 640 \text{ Hz and the velocity of the sound in air is } 320 \text{ m/s, the beat frequency between the two sounds heard by the observer will be:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$20 \text{ Hz}$, $40 \text{ Hz}$...
1
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19979
$\text{In an experiment to determine the velocity of sound in air at room temperature, a resonance is observed when the air column has a length of } 20.0 \text{ cm for a tuning fork of frequency } 400 \text{ Hz is used. The velocity of the sound at room temperature is } 336 \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{ The third resonance is observed when the air column has a length of:}$ $1. \ 100 \text{ cm}$ $2. \ 110 \text{ cm}$ $3. \ 104 \text{ cm}$ $4. \ 120 \text{ cm}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ cm}$, $110 \text{ cm}$...
3
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19978
$\text{A longitudinal wave is represented by } x = 10 \sin 2\pi \left(nt - \frac{x}{\lambda}\right) \text{ cm. The maximum particle velocity will be four times the wave velocity if the determined value of wavelength is equal to:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\pi \text{ cm}$, $5\pi \text{ cm}$...
2
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19977
$\text{Two travelling waves of equal amplitudes and equal frequencies move in opposite directions along a string. They interfere to produce a stationary wave whose equation is given by}$ $y = 10 \cos(\pi x) \sin\left(\frac{2\pi t}{T}\right) \text{ cm. The amplitude of the particle at }$ $x = \frac{4}{3} \text{ cm will be:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \text{ cm}$, $10 \text{ cm}$...
1
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19976
$\text{In a resonance tube experiment, a tuning fork resonates with the air column when the water level is at } 17.0 \text{ cm from the bottom.}$ $\text{The next resonance with the same tuning fork occurs when the water level is at } 24.5 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{Given that the speed of sound in air is } 330 \text{ m/s, the frequency of the tuning fork is:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$1100 \text{ Hz}$, $3300 \text{ Hz}$...
3
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19975
$\text{The driver of a bus approaching a big wall notices that the frequency of his bus's horn changes from } 420 \text{ Hz to } 490 \text{ Hz when he hears it after it gets reflected from the wall. Find the speed of the bus if speed of the sound is } 330 \text{ ms}^{-1}.$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$61 \text{ kmh}^{-1}$, $81 \text{ kmh}^{-1}$...
4
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19974
$\text{For a transverse wave travelling along a straight line, the distance between two peaks (crests) is } 5 \text{ m, while the distance between one crest and one trough is } 1.5 \text{ m. The possible wavelengths (in m) of the waves are:}$ $1. \ 1, 2, 3, \ldots$ $2. \ \frac{1}{1}, \frac{1}{3}, \frac{1}{5}, \ldots$ $3. \ \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{6}, \ldots$ $4. \ 1, 3, 5, \ldots$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$1, 2, 3, \ldots$, $\frac{1}{1}, \frac{1}{3}, \frac{1}{5}, \ldots$...
2
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19973
$\text{A uniform thin rope of length } 12 \text{ m and mass } 6 \text{ kg hangs vertically from a rigid support and a block of mass } 2 \text{ kg is attached to its free end.}$ $\text{A transverse short wave-train of wavelength } 6 \text{ cm is produced at the lower end of the rope.}$ $\text{What is the wavelength of the wavetrain (in cm) when it reaches the top of the rope?}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$12$, $9$...
1
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19972
$\text{Two identical strings, } X \text{ and } Z, \text{ made of the same material, have tensions } T_X \text{ and } T_Z \text{ respectively. If their fundamental frequencies are } 450 \text{ Hz and } 300 \text{ Hz, respectively, the ratio } \frac{T_X}{T_Z} =$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.44$, $1.5$...
3
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19971
$\text{A progressive wave travelling along the positive } x\text{-direction is represented by } y(x, t) = A \sin(kx - \omega t + \phi).$ $\text{Its snapshot at } t = 0 \text{ is given in the figure.}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\pi}{2}$, $\pi$...
2
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19970
The correct figure that shows, schematically, the wave pattern produced by the superposition of two waves of frequencies $9 \text{ Hz}$ and $11 \text{ Hz}$, is:
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
Option 1, Option 2...
1
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19969
$\text{A string of length } 2.0 \text{ m, fixed at both ends is driven by a } 240 \text{ Hz vibrator.}$ $\text{If the string vibrates in its third harmonic mode, the speed of the wave and its fundamental frequency, respectively, are:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$320 \text{ m/s, } 80 \text{ Hz}$, $180 \text{ m/s, } 120 \text{ Hz}$...
1
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19968
$\text{The pressure wave } P = 0.01 \sin(1000t - 3x) \text{ Nm}^{-2}, \text{ corresponds to the sound produced by a vibrating blade on a day when the atmospheric temperature is } 0^{\circ} \text{C.}$ $\text{On some other day, when the temperature is } T, \text{ the speed of sound produced by the same blade and at the same frequency is found to be } 336 \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{ The approximate value of } T \text{ is:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$4^{\circ} \text{C}$, $12^{\circ} \text{C}$...
1
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19967
$\text{A wire of length } 2L \text{ is formed by joining two wires, } A \text{ and } B, \text{ each of the same length but with different radii, } r \text{ and } 2r, \text{ respectively, and made of the same material. The wire vibrates at a frequency such that the joint between the two wires forms a node. If the number of antinodes in wire } A \text{ is } p \text{ and in wire } B \text{ is } q, \text{ the ratio } p : q \text{ is:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 : 5$, $4 : 9$...
3
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19966
$\text{A granite rod of } 60 \text{ cm length is clamped at its middle point and is set into longitudinal vibrations. The density of granite is } 2.7 \times 10^3 \text{ kg/m}^3 \text{ and it's Young's modulus is } 9.27 \times 10^{10} \text{ Pa.}$ $\text{What will be the fundamental frequency of the longitudinal vibrations?}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \text{ kHz}$, $2.5 \text{ kHz}$...
1
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19965
$\text{A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency } f \text{ in air. The pipe is dipped vertically in water so that half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{f}{2}$, $\frac{3f}{4}$...
4
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19964
$\text{A uniform string of length } 20 \text{ m is suspended from a rigid support. A short wave pulse is introduced at its lowest end. It starts moving up the string. The time taken to reach the support is: (take } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\pi \sqrt{2} \text{ s}$, $2 \text{ s}$...
3
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19963
$\text{A pipe length of } 85 \text{ cm is closed from one end. Find the number of possible natural oscillations of the air column in the pipe whose frequencies lie below } 1250 \text{ Hz. The velocity of sound in air is } 340 \text{ m/s:}$
1
114
JEE MCQ NEW
$8$, $6$...
2
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19962
$\text{Two identical positive charges } Q \text{ each are fixed at a distance of } '2a' \text{ apart from each other. Another point charge } q_0 \text{ with mass } 'm' \text{ is placed at midpoint between two fixed charges. For a small displacement along the line joining the fixed charges, the charge } q_0 \text{ executes SHM. The time period of oscillation of charge } q_0 \text{ will be:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{4\pi^3 \varepsilon_0 m a^3}{q_0 Q}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{q_0 Q}{4\pi^3 \varepsilon_0 m a^3}}$...
1
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19961
$\text{When a particle executes simple Harmonic motion, the nature of graph of velocity as a function of displacement will be:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Circular}$, $\text{Elliptical}$...
2
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19960
$\text{In figure (A), mass '2 m' is fixed on mass 'm' which is attached to two springs of spring constant } k. \text{ In figure (B), mass 'm' is attached to two springs of spring constant } k \text{ and } 2k. \text{ If mass 'm' in (A) and (B) are displaced by distance 'x' horizontally and then released, then time period } T_1 \text{ and } T_2 \text{ corresponding to (A) and (B) respectively follow the relation}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{T_1}{T_2} = \frac{3}{\sqrt{2}}$, $\frac{T_1}{T_2} = \sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}$...
2
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19959
$\text{The equation of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by } x = \sin \pi \left( t + \frac{1}{3} \right) \text{ m. At } t = 1 \text{ s, the speed of the particle will be:}$ $\text{(Given: } \pi = 3.14)$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$0 \text{ cm s}^{-1}$, $157 \text{ cm s}^{-1}$...
2
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19958
$\text{The displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator after 3 seconds starting from its mean position is equal to half of its amplitude.}$ $\text{The time period of the harmonic motion is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$6 \text{ s}$, $8 \text{ s}$...
4
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19957
$\text{Two massless springs with spring constants } 2k \text{ and } 9k, \text{ carry } 50 \text{ g and } 100 \text{ g masses at their free ends.}$ $\text{These two masses oscillate vertically such that their maximum velocities are equal.}$ $\text{Then, the ratio of their respective amplitudes will be:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 2$, $3 : 2$...
2
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19956
$\text{A particle executes SHM from the mean position with amplitude 'a' and time period } T. \text{ The displacement of the particle when its speed is half of the maximum speed is } \frac{\sqrt{x}}{2} a. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $3$...
2
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19955
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: A seconds pendulum has a time period of 1 second.}$ $\text{Statement II: A seconds pendulum takes exactly 1 second to travel between its two extreme positions.}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$, $\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$...
2
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19954
$\text{When a particle executes SHM, the nature of graphical representation of velocity as a function of displacement is:}$ $1.\ \text{circular}$ $2.\ \text{elliptical}$ $3.\ \text{parabolic}$ $4.\ \text{straight line}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{circular}$, $\text{elliptical}$...
2
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19953
$\text{A block of mass } m \text{ attached to a massless spring is performing}$ $\text{oscillatory motion of amplitude } 'A' \text{ on a frictionless horizontal plane.}$ $\text{If half of the mass of the block breaks off when it is passing through}$ $\text{its equilibrium point, the amplitude of oscillation for the remaining}$ $\text{system become } fA. \text{ The value of } f \text{ is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{2}$, $1$...
4
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19952
$\text{The displacement of a damped harmonic oscillator is given by}$ $x(t) = e^{-0.1t} \cos(10\pi t + \phi).$ $\text{Here } t \text{ is in seconds. The time taken for its amplitude of vibration to drop to half of its initial value is close to:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ s}$, $13 \text{ s}$...
3
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19951
$\text{A damped harmonic oscillator has a frequency of } 5 \text{ oscillations per second.}$ $\text{The amplitude drops to half its value for every } 10 \text{ oscillations.}$ $\text{The time it will take to } \frac{1}{1000} \text{ of the original amplitude is close to:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$50 \text{ s}$, $100 \text{ s}$...
4
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19950
$\text{A particle executes simple harmonic motion and is located at } x = a, b \text{ and } c \text{ at times } t_0, 2t_0 \text{ and } 3t_0 \text{ respectively. The frequency of the oscillation is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2\pi t_0} \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{a+c}{2b}\right)$, $\frac{1}{2\pi t_0} \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{a+2b}{3c}\right)$...
1
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19949
$\text{In an experiment to determine the period of a simple pendulum of length } 1 \text{ m, it is attached to different spherical bobs of radii } r_1 \text{ and } r_2. \text{ The two spherical bobs have uniform mass distribution. If the relative difference in the periods, is found to be } 5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ s, the difference in radii, } |r_1 - r_2| \text{ is best given by:}$ $1.\ 0.1\ \text{cm}$ $2.\ 0.01\ \text{cm}$ $3.\ 0.5\ \text{cm}$ $4.\ 1\ \text{cm}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.1\ \text{cm}$, $0.01\ \text{cm}$...
1
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19948
$\text{A 1 kg block attached to a spring vibrates with a frequency of 1 Hz on a frictionless horizontal table. Two springs identical to the original spring are attached in parallel to an 8 kg block placed on the same table. So, the frequency of vibration of the 8 kg block is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{4} \text{ Hz}$, $\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}} \text{ Hz}$...
4
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19947
$\text{The ratio of maximum acceleration to maximum velocity in a simple}$ $\text{harmonic motion is } 10 \text{ s}^{-1}. \text{ At } t = 0, \text{ the displacement is } 5 \text{ m. What}$ $\text{is the maximum acceleration?}$ $\text{(The initial phase is } \frac{\pi}{4})$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$500\sqrt{2} \text{ m/s}^2$, $500 \text{ m/s}^2$...
1
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19946
$\text{A cylindrical block of wood (density } = 650 \text{ kg m}^{-3}\text{), of base area } 30 \text{ cm}^2 \text{ and height } 54 \text{ cm, floats in a liquid of density } 900 \text{ kg m}^{-3}\text{. The block is depressed slightly and then released. The time period of the resulting oscillations of the block would be equal to that of a simple pendulum of length (nearly):}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$52 \text{ cm}$, $65 \text{ cm}$...
3
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19945
$\text{In simple harmonic motion, the total mechanical energy of given system is } E. \text{ If mass of oscillating particle } P \text{ is doubled then the new energy of the system for same amplitude is } -$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$E \sqrt{2}$, $E \sqrt{2}$...
2
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19944
$\text{A particle executing simple harmonic motion along } x\text{-axis, with amplitude } A \text{ about the origin. Then the ratio of kinetic energy and total energy at } x = \frac{A}{3} \text{ is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{8}{9}$, $\frac{7}{8}$...
1
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19943
$\text{A pendulum bob is released from angle } \theta \text{ with the vertical as shown in the figure. If its acceleration at maximum amplitude is the same as at mean position, then find } \theta.$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\tan^{-1}(\sqrt{2})$, $2 \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}\right)$...
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19942
$\text{Assertion (A): The angular velocity of the moon revolving about the earth is more than the angular velocity of the earth revolving around the sun.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The time taken by the moon to revolve around the earth is less than the time taken by the earth to revolve around the sun.}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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19941
$\text{A particle performing simple harmonic motion according to}$ $y = A \sin \omega t.$ $\text{Then its kinetic energy } (K.E.), \text{ potential energy } (P.E.), \text{ and speed } (v) \text{ at the position } Y = \frac{A}{2} \text{ are:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$K.E. = \frac{kA^2}{8}$ $P.E. = \frac{3kA^2}{8}$ $v = \frac{A}{3} \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}$, $K.E. = \frac{3kA^2}{8}$ $P.E. = \frac{kA^2}{8}$ $v = \frac{A}{2} \sqrt{\frac{3k}{m}}$...
2
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19940
$\text{A particle performing simple harmonic motion such that its amplitude is } 4 \text{ m and speed of the particle at the mean position is } 10 \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{Find the distance of the particle from the mean position where velocity becomes } 5 \text{ m/s.}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{3} \text{ m}$, $2\sqrt{3} \text{ m}$...
2
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19939
$\text{In the context of linear simple harmonic motion (SHM), consider the following statements:}$ $\text{(A) Acceleration is maximum at the mean position.}$ $\text{(B) Velocity is maximum at the extreme position.}$ $\text{(C) Acceleration is maximum at the extreme position.}$ $\text{(D) Velocity is maximum at the mean position.}$ $\text{Choose the correct option from the given ones:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{B}), (\text{C}) \text{ and } (\text{D}) \text{ only}$, $(\text{A}) \text{ and } (\text{D}) \text{ only}$...
4
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19938
$\text{A particle is performing simple harmonic motion (SHM), whose distance from the mean position varies as } x = A \sin \omega t. \text{ What would be the position of the particle from the mean position where kinetic energy and potential energy are equal?}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{A}{2} \right)$, $\left( \frac{A}{\sqrt{2}} \right)$...
2
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19937
$\text{A particle is performing SHM having position } x = A \cos(30^\circ), \text{ and } A = 40 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{If its kinetic energy at this position is } 200 \text{ J, then the value of force constant is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \text{ kN/m}$, $20 \text{ kN/m}$...
1
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19936
$\text{Which graph correctly represents the difference } (d) \text{ between the total energy and the potential energy of a particle in linear simple harmonic motion (SHM) as a function of its position } x, \text{ where } x = 0 \text{ denotes the mean position?}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
1
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19935
$\text{A body is doing SHM with amplitude } A. \text{ When it is at } x = +\frac{A}{2}, \text{ the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy would be:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 1$, $3 : 1$...
2
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19934
$\text{For a particle undergoing linear simple harmonic motion (SHM), the graph showing the variation of kinetic energy, } K \text{ with position, } x \text{ of the particle is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
4
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19933
$\text{For a particle performing linear SHM, its position } (x) \text{ as a function of time } (t) \text{ is given by } x = A \sin(\omega t + \delta).$ $\text{If, at } t = 0, \text{ particle is at } +\frac{A}{2} \text{ and is moving towards } x = +A, \text{ then } \delta = $
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\pi}{3} \text{ rad}$, $\frac{\pi}{6} \text{ rad}$...
2
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19932
$\text{The phasor of a particle performing SHM is as shown in the diagram.}$ $\text{The SHM has an angular frequency } \omega \text{ and at } t = 0, \text{ the phasor lies along } OP. \text{ At any time } t \text{ further, the projection of the phasor along the } y\text{-axis is given by:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$R \sin \left( \omega t + \frac{\pi}{6} \right)$, $R \cos \left( \omega t + \frac{\pi}{6} \right)$...
1
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19931
$\text{In the simple harmonic motion of a pendulum, the square of the time period can be plotted against the length of the pendulum } (l) \text{ as:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$T^2 \text{ vs } l \text{ (straight line passing through the origin)}$, $T^2 \text{ vs } l \text{ (negative slope)}$...
1
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19930
$\text{For the oscillations exhibited by the spring-block system, on a smooth surface (along the springs), the time period is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\pi \sqrt{\frac{m(k_1+k_2)}{k_1k_2}}$, $2\pi \sqrt{\frac{m(k_1+k_2)}{2k_1k_2}}$...
3
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19929
$\text{Which of the following graphs best represents the relation between the square of the time period and the length of a simple pendulum?}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$T^2 \text{ vs. } l \text{ (linear graph passing through origin)}$, $T^2 \text{ vs. } l \text{ (decreasing curve)}$...
1
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19928
$\text{The equations of two simple harmonic motions is given by}$ $y_1 = 10 \sin \left( \omega t + \frac{\pi}{3} \right)$ $\text{and}$ $y_2 = 5[\sin(\omega t) + \sqrt{3} \cos(\omega t)].$ $\text{The amplitude of the resultant SHM is:}$ $1. \ 10 \ \text{m}$ $2. \ 20 \ \text{m}$ $3. \ 5 \ \text{m}$ $4. \ 15 \ \text{m}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \ \text{m}$, $20 \ \text{m}$...
2
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19927
$\text{For a particle performing simple harmonic motion, the maximum potential energy is } 25 \text{ J.}$ $\text{What is the kinetic energy of the particle when it is at half of its amplitude?}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$18.75 \text{ kJ}$, $18.75 \text{ J}$...
2
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19926
$\text{A block of mass } m \text{ is connected to two identical springs of force constant } K \text{ as shown. The frequency of the block is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\pi \sqrt{\frac{2m}{K}}$, $\frac{1}{2\pi} \sqrt{\frac{K}{m}}$...
4
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19925
$\text{The relation between velocity } (v) \text{ and position } (x) \text{ of a particle moving along the x-axis is given by } 4v^2 = 50 - x^2. \text{ The time period of oscillatory motion of the particle is: (Use } \pi = \frac{22}{7})$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{88}{9} \text{ s}$, $\frac{88}{7} \text{ s}$...
2
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19924
$\text{In the shown mass-spring system, when it is set into oscillations along the spring, it has angular frequency } \omega_1 \text{ if } m = 1 \text{ kg and } \omega_2 \text{ if } m = 2 \text{ kg. Then the value of } \frac{\omega_1}{\omega_2} \text{ is equal to:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $\sqrt{2}$...
2
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19923
$\text{A particle undergoing SHM, follows the position-time equation given as } x = A \sin(\omega t + \pi/3).$ $\text{If the SHM motion has a time period of } T,$ $\text{for the first time after } t = 0, \text{ the velocity will be maximum at a time,}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{T}{2}$, $\frac{T}{3}$...
2
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19922
$\text{A particle performing simple harmonic motion with amplitude, } A \text{ starts from } x = 0 \text{ and reaches } x = A/2 \text{ in } 2 \text{ s.}$ $\text{The time required for the particle to go from } x = A/2 \text{ to } x = A \text{ is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.5 \text{ s}$, $4 \text{ s}$...
2
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19921
$\text{A particle is dropped inside a tunnel of the earth about any diameter.}$ $\text{Particle starts oscillating, with time period=}$ $(R = \text{Radius of earth}, g = \text{acceleration due to gravity on earth's surface}).$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\pi \sqrt{\frac{R}{g}}$, $\pi \sqrt{\frac{R}{g}}$...
1
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19920
$\text{A block of mass } 2 \text{ kg is attached to two identical springs, each with a force constant of } 20 \text{ N/m, as shown in the figure. The time period of the oscillation of the block is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{20}} \text{ s}$, $\pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{20}} \text{ s}$...
1
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19919
$\text{The metallic bob of a simple pendulum has a relative density equal to } 5. \text{ The time period of this pendulum is } 10 \text{ s. If the metallic bob is immersed in water, then the new time period becomes } 5\sqrt{x} \text{ s. The value of } x \text{ will be:}$ $1. \ 5$ $2. \ 7$ $3. \ 9$ $4. \ 2$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $7$...
1
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19918
$\text{The time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of length } L, \text{ suspended from the roof of a vehicle, which moves without friction down an inclined plane of inclination } \alpha, \text{ is given by:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g \cos \alpha}}$, $2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g \sin \alpha}}$...
1
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19917
$\text{As per the given figures, two springs of spring constants } k \text{ and } 2k \text{ are connected to mass } m. \text{ If the period of oscillation in figure } (a) \text{ is } 3 \text{ s, then the period of oscillation in figure } (b) \text{ is } \sqrt{x} \text{ s. The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $4$...
3
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19916
$\text{The length of a seconds pendulum at a height } h = 2R \text{ from the earth's surface will be:}$ $\text{(Given } R = \text{The radius of the earth and acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth } g = \pi^2 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2}{9} \text{ m}$, $\frac{4}{9} \text{ m}$...
4
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19915
$\text{The motion of a simple pendulum executing simple harmonic motion is represented by the equation;}$ $y = A \sin(\pi t + \phi), \text{ where time is measured in seconds. The length of the pendulum is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$97.23 \text{ cm}$, $25.3 \text{ cm}$...
3
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19914
$\text{A body is performing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of } 10 \text{ cm. The velocity of the body was tripled by air jet when it is at } 5 \text{ cm from its mean position. The new amplitude of vibration is } \sqrt{x} \text{ cm. The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$500$, $600$...
3
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19913
$\text{The time period of a simple pendulum in a stationary lift is } T. \text{ If the lift accelerates upward with an acceleration of } \frac{g}{6} \text{ (where } g \text{ is the acceleration due to gravity), then the time period of the pendulum would be:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{6}{5}} T$, $\sqrt{\frac{5}{6}} T$...
3
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19912
$\text{The time period of a simple pendulum is } T. \text{ The time taken to complete } \frac{5}{8} \text{ oscillations starting from the mean position is } \frac{\alpha}{\beta} T. \text{ The value of } \alpha \text{ is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $6$...
3
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19911
$\text{If two identical springs, each with a spring constant } k, \text{ are connected in series, the new spring constant and time period will change by a factor of:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2}, \sqrt{2}$, $\frac{1}{4}, \sqrt{2}$...
1
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19910
$\text{Assume that a tunnel is dug along a chord of the earth, at a perpendicular distance } (R/2) \text{ from the earth's center, where } 'R' \text{ is the radius of the Earth. The wall of the tunnel is frictionless. If a particle is released in this tunnel, it will execute a simple harmonic motion with a time period:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2\pi R}{g}$, $\frac{g}{2\pi R}$...
4
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19909
$\text{Point A moves with a uniform speed along the circumference of a circle of radius } 0.36 \text{ m and covers } 30^\circ \text{ in } 0.1 \text{ s.}$ $\text{The perpendicular projection 'P' from 'A' on the diameter MN represents the simple harmonic motion of 'P'.}$ $\text{The restoration force per unit mass when P touches M will be:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ N}$, $0.49 \text{ N}$...
4
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19908
$\text{The equation: } Y = A \sin(\omega t + \phi_0) \text{ represents the time-displacement relation of simple harmonic motion (SHM). At } t = 0,$ $\text{the displacement of the particle is } Y = \frac{A}{2}, \text{ and it is moving in the negative } x\text{-direction. The initial phase angle } \phi_0 \text{ is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\pi}{6}$, $\frac{\pi}{3}$...
3
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19907
$\text{Two identical springs of spring constant '2k' are attached to a block of mass } m \text{ and to fixed support (see figure).}$ $\text{When the mass is displaced from the equilibrium position on either side, it executes simple harmonic motion.}$ $\text{The time period of oscillation of this system is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}$, $\pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{2k}}$...
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19906
$\text{If the time period of a } 2 \text{ m long simple pendulum is } 2 \text{ s, the acceleration due to gravity at the place where the pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\pi^2 \text{ m/s}^2$, $2\pi^2 \text{ m/s}^2$...
2
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19905
$\text{In the given figure, a body of mass } M \text{ is held between two massless springs, on a smooth inclined plane.}$ $\text{The free ends of the springs are attached to firm supports.}$ $\text{If each spring has spring constant } k, \text{ the frequency of oscillation of given body is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2\pi} \sqrt{\frac{k}{2M}}$, $\frac{1}{2\pi} \sqrt{\frac{2k}{Mg \sin \alpha}}$...
3
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19904
$\text{In the given figure, mass } M \text{ is attached to a horizontal spring which is fixed on one side to a rigid support.}$ $\text{The spring constant of the spring is } k. \text{ The mass oscillates on a frictionless surface with time period } T \text{ and amplitude } A.$ $\text{When the mass is in an equilibrium position, as shown in the figure, another mass } m \text{ is gently fixed upon it.}$ $\text{The new amplitude of oscillation will be:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$A \sqrt{\frac{M-m}{M}}$, $A \sqrt{\frac{M}{M+m}}$...
2
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19903
$\text{When a particle of mass } m \text{ is attached to a vertical spring of spring constant } k \text{ and released, its motion is described by}$ $y(t) = y_0 \sin^2 \omega t, \text{ where 'y' is measured from the lower end of the unstretched spring. Then } \omega \text{ is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{g}{y_0}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{g}{2y_0}}$...
2
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19902
13
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19901
$\text{A ring is hung on a nail. It can oscillate, without slipping or sliding (i) in its plane with a time period } T_1 \text{ and, (ii) back and forth in a direction perpendicular to its plane, with a period } T_2. \text{ The ratio } \frac{T_1}{T_2} \text{ will be:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}$...
1
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19900
$\text{The displacement-time (} S-t \text{) graph of a particle executing simple harmonic motion (SHM) is provided (the sketch is schematic and not to scale).}$ $\text{Which of the following statements are true for this motion?}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(A) The force is zero at } t = \frac{3T}{4}.$, $\text{(B) The acceleration is maximum at } t = T.$...
4
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19899
$\text{Two masses } m \text{ and } \frac{m}{2} \text{ are connected at the two ends of a massless rigid rod of length } l. \text{ The rod is suspended by a thin wire of torsional constant } k \text{ at the center of mass of the rod-mass system (see figure).}$ $\text{Because of the torsional constant } k, \text{ the restoring torque is } \tau = k \theta \text{ for angular displacement } \theta. \text{ If the rod is rotated by } \theta_0 \text{ and released, the tension in it when it passes through its mean position will be:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3k\theta_0^2}{l}$, $\frac{2k\theta_0^2}{l}$...
3
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19898
$\text{A spring whose unstretched length is } l \text{ has a force constant } k. \text{ The spring is cut into two pieces of unstretched lengths } l_1 \text{ and } l_2 \text{ where, } l_1 = nl_2 \text{ and } n \text{ is an integer. The ratio } k_1/k_2 \text{ of the corresponding force constant, } k_1 \text{ and } k_2 \text{ will be:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{n^2}$, $\frac{1}{n}$...
2
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19897
$\text{A simple pendulum has a time period } T \text{ in air. The bob is then completely immersed and continues to oscillate freely in a non-viscous liquid whose density is } \left( \frac{1}{16} \right) \text{th of that of the bob.}$ $\text{Assuming no damping and only the effect of buoyancy, what is the new time period of oscillation?}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$2T \sqrt{\frac{1}{14}}$, $2T \sqrt{\frac{1}{10}}$...
3
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19896
$\text{A body of mass } M \text{ and a charge } q \text{ is connected to a spring of spring constant } k. \text{ It oscillates along the } x\text{-direction about its equilibrium position, taken to be at } x = 0, \text{ with an amplitude } A. \text{ An electric field } E \text{ is applied along the } x\text{-direction.}$ $\text{Which of the following statements is correct?}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{The total energy of the system is } \frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2 + \frac{1}{2} \frac{q^2 E^2}{k}.$, $\text{The new equilibrium position is at a distance } \frac{2qE}{k} \text{ from } x = 0.$...
1
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19895
$\text{A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a time period } T. \text{ It starts at its equilibrium position at } t = 0. \text{ How will the graph of its kinetic energy } (KE) \text{ versus time } (t) \text{ look like?}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\begin{array}{c} KE \\ 0 \\ T \\ t \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{c} KE \\ 0 \\ \frac{T}{2} \quad T \\ t \end{array}$...
4
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19894
$\text{A particle performs simple harmonic motion with amplitude } A. \text{ Its speed is tripled at the instant that it is at a distance } \frac{2A}{3} \text{ from the equilibrium position. The new amplitude of the motion is:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{A}{3}\sqrt{41}$, $3A$...
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19893
$x \text{ and } y \text{ displacements of a particle are given as } x(t) = a \sin \omega t \text{ and } y(t) = a \sin 2\omega t. \text{ Its trajectory will look like:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Option 1: Graph with two loops along the } y \text{-axis}$, $\text{Option 2: Graph with a single loop along the } y \text{-axis}$...
1
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19892
$\text{A simple harmonic oscillator of angular frequency } 2 \text{ rad s}^{-1} \text{ is acted upon by an external force } F = \sin t \text{ N.}$ $\text{If the oscillator is at rest in its equilibrium at } t = 0, \text{ its position at later times is proportional to:}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\cos t - \frac{1}{2} \sin 2t$, $\sin t + \frac{1}{2} \cos 2t$...
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19891
$\text{For a simple pendulum, a graph is plotted between its kinetic energy (} KE \text{) and potential energy (} PE \text{) against its displacement } d. \text{ Which one of the following represents these correctly? (graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale)}$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
2
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19890
$\text{A pendulum made of a uniform wire of cross-sectional area } A \text{ has time period } T. \text{ When an additional mass } M \text{ is added to its bob, the time period changes to } T_M. \text{ If the Young's modulus of the material of the wire is } Y \text{ then } \frac{1}{Y} \text{ is equal to:}$ $\left( g = \text{gravitational acceleration} \right)$
1
113
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{T_M}{T} \right)^2 - 1 \frac{Mg}{A}$, $1 - \left( \frac{T_M}{T} \right)^2 \frac{A}{Mg}$...
4
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19889
$\text{The temperature of a gas is } -78^\circ \text{C and the average translational kinetic energy of its molecules is } K. \text{ The temperature at which the average translational kinetic energy of the molecules of the same gas becomes } 2K \text{ is}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$-39^\circ \text{C}$, $127^\circ \text{C}$...
4
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19888
$\text{A mixture of one mole of monoatomic gas and one mole of a diatomic gas (rigid) are kept at room temperature (} 27^\circ \text{C)}.$ $\text{The ratio of specific heat of gases at constant volume respectively is:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3}{2}$, $\frac{5}{2}$...
3
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19887
$\text{Energy of 10 non rigid diatomic molecules at temperature } T \text{ is:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$35 \text{ } k_B T$, $35 \text{ } RT$...
1
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19886
$\text{A sample contains mixture of helium and oxygen gas. The ratio of root mean square speed of helium and oxygen in the sample, is:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{32}$, $\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}$...
4
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19885
$\text{The translational degrees of freedom } (f_t) \text{ and rotational degrees of freedom } (f_r) \text{ of } \text{CH}_4 \text{ molecule are –}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$f_t = 3 \text{ and } f_r = 3$, $f_t = 2 \text{ and } f_r = 3$...
1
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19884
$\text{In a container, 1 g of hydrogen and 1 g of oxygen are taken. Find the ratio of hydrogen pressure to oxygen pressure.}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$16$, $12$...
1
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19883
$\text{Find the total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen gas at } 27^\circ\text{C.}$ $\left[ \text{Take } R = \frac{25}{3} \text{ J/mol-K} \right]$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
6250 \text{ J}, 3125 \text{ J}...
1
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19882
$\text{The average speed of } \text{N}_2 \text{ at } 27^\circ \text{C is:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$476 \text{ m/s}$, $470 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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19881
$\text{The correct order of root mean square speed, } v_{\text{rms}} \text{ for Ne, Cl}_2 \text{ and OF}_6 \text{ at the same temperature is:}$ $1.\ (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{Ne}} < (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{Cl}_2} < (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{OF}_6}$ $2.\ (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{Cl}_2} < (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{Ne}} < (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{OF}_6}$ $3.\ (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{OF}_6} < (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{Cl}_2} < (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{Ne}}$ $4.\ (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{OF}_6} < (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{Ne}} < (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{Cl}_2}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$(v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{Ne}} < (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{Cl}_2} < (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{OF}_6}$, $(v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{Cl}_2} < (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{Ne}} < (v_{\text{rms}})_{\text{OF}_6}$...
3
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19880
$\text{What would be the ratio of the root mean square speed of oxygen gas molecules to that of hydrogen gas molecules, if the temperature of both the gases are the same?}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 4$, $1 : 16$...
1
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19879
$\text{The ratio of temperature in K of hydrogen and oxygen is } 2 : 1. \text{ The ratio of their average kinetic energy per molecule is:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$6 : 1$, $1 : 6$...
3
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19878
$\text{If } T \text{ is the temperature of a gas, then RMS velocity of the gas molecules is proportional to:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$T^{\frac{1}{2}}$, $T^{-\frac{1}{2}}$...
1
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19877
$\text{The ratio of density of oxygen } (\text{O}_{8}^{16}) \text{ to the density of Helium } (\text{He}_{2}^{4}) \text{ at STP is equal to:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $4$...
4
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19876
$\text{The root mean square speed of smoke particles of mass } 5 \times 10^{-17} \text{ kg}$ $\text{in their Brownian motion in air at NTP is, approximately:}$ $\left[ \text{Given } k = 1.38 \times 10^{-23} \text{ JK}^{-1} \right]$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$60 \text{ mm s}^{-1}$, $12 \text{ mm s}^{-1}$...
3
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19875
$\text{One mole of a monoatomic gas is mixed with three moles of a diatomic gas. If the molecular specific heat of the mixture at constant volume is } \frac{\alpha^2}{4} R \text{ J/mol-K, then the value of } \alpha \text{ will be:}$ $\text{(assume that the given diatomic gas has no vibrational mode)}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $4$...
3
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19874
$\text{Following statements are given:}$ $\text{(i) The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule decreases when the temperature is reduced.}$ $\text{(ii) The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule increases with increase in pressure at constant temperature.}$ $\text{(iii) The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule decreases with increases in volume.}$ $\text{(iv) Pressure of a gas increases with increase in temperature at constant pressure.}$ $\text{(v) The volume of gas decreases with increase in temperature.}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(i) and (iv) only}$, $\text{(i), (ii) and (iv) only}$...
1
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19873
$\text{A vessel contains } 16 \text{ g of hydrogen and } 128 \text{ g of oxygen at standard temperature and pressure. The volume of the vessel in } \text{cm}^3 \text{ is:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$72 \times 10^5$, $32 \times 10^5$...
3
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19872
$\text{What will be the effect on the root mean square velocity of oxygen molecules if the temperature is doubled and the oxygen molecule dissociates into atomic oxygen?}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{The velocity of atomic oxygen remains the same.}$, $\text{The velocity of atomic oxygen doubles.}$...
2
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19871
$\text{The total internal energy of two moles of a monoatomic ideal gas at temperature } T = 300 \text{ K will be:}$ $\text{(Given: } R = 8.31 \text{ J/mol.K)}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$4789 \text{ J}$, $7479 \text{ J}$...
2
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19870
$\text{For a perfect gas, two pressures } P_1 \text{ and } P_2 \text{ are shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The graph shows:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$P_1 > P_2$, $P_1 < P_2$...
1
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19869
$\text{A flask contains argon and oxygen in the ratio of } 3 : 2 \text{ in mass and the mixture is kept at } 27^\circ \text{C. The ratio of their average kinetic energy per molecule respectively will be:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 : 2$, $9 : 4$...
4
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19868
$\text{The ratio of specific heats } \left( \frac{C_p}{C_v} \right) \text{ in terms of degree of freedom } (f) \text{ is given by:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( 1 + \frac{f}{3} \right)$, $\left( 1 + \frac{2}{f} \right)$...
2
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19867
$\text{The relation between root mean square speed (} v_{\text{rms}} \text{) and most probable speed (} v_{\text{p}} \text{) for the molar mass M of oxygen gas molecule at the temperature of 300 K will be:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$v_{\text{rms}} = \sqrt{\frac{2}{3}} v_{\text{p}}$, $v_{\text{rms}} = \sqrt{\frac{3}{2}} v_{\text{p}}$...
2
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19866
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ $\text{In a diatomic molecule, the rotational energy at a given temperature obeys Maxwell's distribution.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ $\text{In a diatomic molecule, the rotational energy at a given temperature equals the translational kinetic energy for each molecule.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is false but Statement II is true.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are false.}$...
4
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19865
$\text{On the basis of kinetic theory of gases, the gas exerts pressure because its molecules:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{continuously lose their energy till it reaches wall.}$, $\text{are attracted by the walls of container.}$...
4
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19864
$\text{If the ratio of the number density per cm}^3 \text{ of the two gases is } 5 : 3$ $\text{and the ratio of the diameters of the molecules of the two gases is } 4 : 5,$ $\text{then, the ratio of the mean free path of molecules of two gases is:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{16}{15}$, $\frac{15}{16}$...
2
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19863
$\text{Number of molecules in a volume of } 4 \text{ cm}^3 \text{ of a perfect monoatomic gas at some temperature } T \text{ and at a pressure of } 2 \text{ cm of mercury is close to } ?$ $\text{(Given, mean kinetic energy of a molecule (at } T) \text{ is } 4 \times 10^{-14} \text{ erg, } g = 980 \text{ cm/s}^2, \text{ density of mercury } = 13.6 \text{ g/cm}^3 )$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$5.8 \times 10^{18}$, $5.8 \times 10^{16}$...
3
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19862
$\text{If } 10^{22} \text{ gas molecules each of mass } 10^{-22} \text{ kg collide with a surface (perpendicular to it) elastically per second over an area } 1 \text{ m}^2 \text{ with a speed } 10^4 \text{ m/s, the pressure exerted by the gas molecules will be of the order of:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$10^8 \text{ N/m}^2$, $10^4 \text{ N/m}^2$...
2
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Delete
19861
$\text{Two moles of helium are mixed with } n \text{ moles of hydrogen. If } \frac{c_p}{c_v} = \frac{3}{2} \text{ for the mixture then, the value of } n \text{ is:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $3$...
3
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19860
$\text{An ideal gas has molecules with } 5 \text{ degrees of freedom. The ratio of specific heats at constant pressure } C_P \text{ and at constant volume } C_V \text{ is:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{7}{2}$, $\frac{7}{5}$...
2
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Delete
19859
$\text{Using equipartition of energy, the specific heat (in J kg}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}\text{) of aluminum at room temperature can be estimated to be:}$ $\text{(atomic weight of aluminum=27)}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$410$, $25$...
4
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19858
$N$ \text{ moles of non-linear polyatomic gas (degree of freedom } \delta) \text{ is mixed with } 2 \text{ moles of monoatomic gas. The resultant mixture has molar-specific heat equal to that of a diatomic gas, then the number of moles } (N) \text{ is:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $5$...
1
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19857
$\text{In a mixture, } 0.5 \text{ moles of } \text{O}_2 \text{ and } 4 \text{ moles of } \text{Ne} \text{ gas are taken at temperature } T. \text{ The internal energy of the system is equal to:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{13}{2} \right) RT$, $\left( \frac{11}{4} \right) RT$...
3
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19856
$\text{In a lake of depth } 40 \text{ m a bubble is at the bottom. Assuming the temperature and density of lake water to be uniform. What will be the density of air in the bubble?}$ $\text{(assume temperature } T = 12^\circ \text{C and density water } = 10^3 \text{ kg/m}^3, \text{ molecular weight of water } = 30 \text{ g})$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$16.76 \text{ kg/m}^3$, $15.32 \text{ kg/m}^3$...
3
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Delete
19855
$\text{What is the molar-specific heat capacity of a diatomic gas in an isochoric process if it has an additional vibrational mode?}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{5}{2}R$, $\frac{3}{2}R$...
3
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Delete
19854
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: The average momentum of a molecule in a sample of an ideal gas depends on temperature.}$ $\text{Statement II: The RMS speed of oxygen molecules in a gas is } v. \text{ If the temperature is doubled and the oxygen molecules dissociate into oxygen atoms, the RMS speed will become } 2v.$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$...
4
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19853
$\text{Which of the following statements about degrees of freedom are correct?}$ $\text{(A) A molecule with } n \text{ degrees of freedom has } n^2 \text{ different ways of storing energy.}$ $\text{(B) Each degree of freedom is associated with an average energy of } \frac{1}{2}RT \text{ per mole.}$ $\text{(C) A monoatomic gas molecule has 1 rotational degree of freedom whereas a diatomic molecule has 2 rotational degrees of freedom.}$ $\text{(D) } CH_4 \text{ has a total of 6 degrees of freedom.}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{B and C only})$, $(\text{B and D only})$...
2
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19852
$\text{Same gas is filled in two vessels of the same volume at the same temperature. If the ratio of the number of molecules is } 1 : 4, \text{ then:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(A) The RMS velocity of gas molecules in two vessels will be the same.}$, $\text{(B) The ratio of pressure in these vessels will be } 1 : 4$...
3
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19851
$\text{A gas has } n \text{ degrees of freedom. The ratio of the specific heat of the gas at constant volume to the specific heat of the gas at constant pressure will be:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{n}{n+2}$, $\frac{n+2}{n}$...
1
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Delete
19850
$\text{According to the kinetic theory of gases,}$ $\text{(A) the motion of the gas molecules freezes at } 0^\circ\text{C.}$ $\text{(B) the mean free path of gas molecules decreases if the density of molecules is increased.}$ $\text{(C) the mean free path of gas molecules increases if the temperature is increased keeping the pressure constant.}$ $\text{(D) average kinetic energy per molecule per degree of freedom is } \frac{3}{2} k_B T \text{ (for monoatomic gases).}$ $\text{Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(A) and (C) only}$, $\text{(B) and (C) only}$...
2
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19849
$\text{A mixture of hydrogen and oxygen has a volume of } 2000 \ \text{cm}^3, \text{ temperature } 300 \ \text{K}, \text{ pressure } 100 \ \text{kPa and mass } 0.76 \ \text{g.}$ $\text{The ratio of the number of moles of hydrogen to the number of moles of oxygen in the mixture will be:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{3}$, $3 \colon 1$...
2
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19848
$\text{The internal energy } (U), \text{ pressure } (P), \text{ and volume } (V) \text{ of an ideal gas are related as } U = 3PV + 4. \text{ The gas is:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Diatomic only}$, $\text{Polyatomic only}$...
2
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Delete
19847
$\text{The root mean square speed of molecules of a given mass of a gas at } 27^\circ\text{C and } 1 \text{ atm is } 200 \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{The root mean square speed of molecules of the gas at } 127^\circ\text{C and } 2 \text{ atm will be:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{200}{\sqrt{3}} \text{ m/s}$, $\frac{200}{\sqrt{5}} \text{ m/s}$...
3
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19846
$\text{Initially, a gas of diatomic molecules is contained in a cylinder of volume } V_1 \text{ at a pressure } P_1 \text{ and temperature } 250 \text{ K.}$ $\text{Assume that } 25\% \text{ of the molecules get dissociated, causing a change in the number of moles.}$ $\text{The pressure of the resulting gas at temperature } 2000 \text{ K, when contained in a volume } 2V_1 \text{ is given by } P_2. \text{ The ratio } \frac{P_2}{P_1} \text{ is:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $3$...
3
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19845
$\text{Molecules of an ideal gas are known to have three translational degrees of freedom and two rotational degrees of freedom. The gas is maintained at a temperature of } T. \text{ The total internal energy, } U \text{ of a mole of this gas, and the value of } \gamma \left( = \frac{C_P}{C_V} \right) \text{ are, respectively:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$U = 5RT \text{ and } \gamma = \frac{7}{5}$, $U = \frac{5}{2}RT \text{ and } \gamma = \frac{6}{5}$...
4
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19844
$\text{Nitrogen gas is at a certain temperature } 300^\circ\text{C. At what temperature (in Kelvin) will the root mean square (rms) speed of a hydrogen molecule be equal to the rms speed of a nitrogen molecule?}$ $\text{(Given: molar mass of nitrogen molecule is } 28 \text{ g/mol and molar mass of hydrogen molecule is } 2 \text{ g/mol)}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$21 \text{ K}$, $41 \text{ K}$...
2
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19843
$\text{Match the } \frac{C_P}{C_V} \text{ ratio for ideal gases with different type of molecules:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline \text{(A) Monatomic} & \text{(I) } \frac{7}{5} \\ \text{(B) Diatomic rigid molecules} & \text{(II) } \frac{9}{7} \\ \text{(C) Diatomic non-rigid molecules} & \text{(III) } \frac{4}{3} \\ \text{(D) Triatomic rigid molecules} & \text{(IV) } \frac{5}{3} \\ \hline \end{array}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{A}-(\text{III}), \text{B}-(\text{IV}), \text{C}-(\text{II}), \text{D}-(\text{I}))$, $(\text{A}-(\text{I}), \text{B}-(\text{III}), \text{C}-(\text{I}), \text{D}-(\text{IV}))$...
4
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19842
$\text{To raise the temperature of a certain mass of gas by } 50^\circ \text{C at a constant pressure, } 160 \text{ calories of heat is required.}$ $\text{When the same mass of gas is cooled by } 100^\circ \text{C at constant volume, } 240 \text{ calories of heat is released.}$ $\text{How many degrees of freedom does each molecule of this gas have (assume the gas to be ideal)?}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $5$...
3
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19841
$\text{Consider a gas of triatomic molecules. The molecules are assumed to be triangular, composed of massless rigid rods with atoms at the vertices. The internal energy of a mole of the gas at temperature } T \text{ is:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$3RT$, $\frac{5}{2}RT$...
1
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19840
$\text{An ideal gas is confined in a closed container and slowly heated. As the temperature rises, which of the following statements are correct?}$ $\text{(A) The mean free path of gas molecules decreases.}$ $\text{(B) The mean collision time between the molecules decreases.}$ $\text{(C) The mean free path remains unchanged.}$ $\text{(D) The mean collision time remains unchanged.}$ $\text{Choose the correct option from the given ones:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(C) and (D) only}$, $\text{(A) and (B) only}$...
4
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19839
$\text{A gas mixture consists of } 3 \text{ moles of oxygen and } 5 \text{ moles of argon at temperature } T. \text{ Assuming the gases to be ideal and the oxygen bond to be rigid, the total internal energy (in units of } RT) \text{ of the mixture is:}$ $1.\ 11$ $2.\ 15$ $3.\ 20$ $4.\ 13$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$11$, $15$...
2
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19838
$\text{One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process in which pressure and volume are related by the equation:}$ $P = P_0 \left[ 1 - \frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{V_0}{V} \right)^2 \right]$ $\text{where } P_0 \text{ and } V_0 \text{ are constants. If the volume of the gas increases from } V = V_0 \text{ to } V = 2V_0, \text{ what is the resulting change in temperature?}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3}{4} \frac{P_0 V_0}{R}$, $\frac{1}{2} \frac{R}{P_0 V_0}$...
3
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19837
$\text{An HCl molecule has rotational, translational and vibrational motions.}$ $\text{If the rms velocity of HCl molecules in its gaseous phase is } \vec{v}, m \text{ is its}$ $\text{mass and } k_B \text{ is Boltzmann constant, then its temperature will be:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{mv^2}{7k_B}$, $\frac{mv^2}{6k_B}$...
4
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19836
$\text{For a given at 1 atm pressure, the rms speed of the molecules is } 200 \text{ m/s at } 127^\circ\text{C.}$ $\text{At 2 atm pressure and at } 227^\circ\text{C, the rms speed of the molecules will be:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ m/s}$, $80\sqrt{5} \text{ m/s}$...
3
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19835
$\text{The temperature of an open room of volume } 30 \text{ m}^3 \text{ increases from } 17^\circ\text{C to } 27^\circ\text{C due to the sunshine.}$ $\text{The atmospheric pressure in the room remains } 1 \times 10^5 \text{ Pa.}$ $\text{In } n_i \text{ and } n_f \text{ are the number of molecules in the room before and after heating, the } n_f-n_i \text{ will be:}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$-1.61 \times 10^{23}$, $1.38 \times 10^{23}$...
4
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19834
$\text{In an ideal gas at a temperature } T, \text{ the average force that a molecule applies on the walls of a closed container depends on } T \text{ as } T^q. \text{ A good estimate for } q \text{ is}$
1
112
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{4}$, $2$...
4
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Delete
19833
86
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19832
85
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19831
84
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19830
83
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19829
82
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19828
81
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19827
80
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19826
79
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19825
78
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19824
77
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19823
76
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19822
75
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19821
74
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19820
73
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19819
72
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19818
71
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19817
70
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19816
69
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19815
68
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19814
67
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19813
66
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19812
65
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19811
64
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19810
63
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19809
62
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19808
61
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19807
60
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19806
59
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19805
58
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19804
57
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19803
56
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19802
55
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19801
54
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19800
53
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19799
52
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19798
51
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19797
50
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19796
49
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19795
48
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19794
47
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19793
46
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19792
45
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19791
44
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19790
43
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19789
42
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19788
41
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19787
40
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19786
39
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19785
38
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19784
37
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19783
36
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19782
35
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19781
34
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19780
33
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19779
32
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19778
31
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19777
30
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19776
29
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19775
28
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19774
27
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19773
26
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19772
25
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19771
24
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19770
23
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19769
22
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19768
21
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19767
20
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19766
19
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
19765
18
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19764
17
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
19763
16
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19762
15
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19761
14
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19760
13
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19759
12
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19758
11
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
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19757
10
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19756
9
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
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19755
8
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19754
7
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19753
6
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19752
5
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19751
4
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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Edit
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19750
3
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19749
2
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19748
1
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19747
$\text{A real gas within a closed chamber at } 27^\circ \text{C undergoes the cyclic process as shown in figure.}$ $\text{The gas obeys } PV^3 = RT \text{ equation for the path A to B.}$ $\text{The net work done in the complete cycle is (assuming } R = 8 \text{ J/molK)}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$-20 \text{ J}$, $205 \text{ J}$...
2
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19746
$\text{A sample of 1 mole gas at temperature } T \text{ is adiabatically expanded to double its volume.}$ $\text{If adiabatic constant for the gas is } \gamma = \frac{3}{2}, \text{ then the work done by the gas in the process is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$RT \left[ 2 - \sqrt{2} \right]$, $RT \left[ 2 + \sqrt{2} \right]$...
1
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19745
$\text{The volume of an ideal gas } (\gamma = 1.5) \text{ is changed adiabatically from } 5 \text{ litres to } 4 \text{ litres. The ratio of initial pressure to final pressure is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{4}{5}$, $\frac{8}{5\sqrt{5}}$...
2
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19744
$\text{A total of } 48 \text{ J heat is given to one mole of helium kept in a cylinder.}$ $\text{The temperature of helium increases by } 2^\circ \text{C. The work done by the gas is:}$ $\text{(Given: } R = 8.31 \text{ Jk}^{-1} \text{mol}^{-1})$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$48 \text{ J}$, $23.1 \text{ J}$...
2
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19743
$\text{The specific heat at constant pressure of a real gas obeying}$ $PV^2 = RT$ $\text{equation is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{R}{3} + C_v$, $R$...
4
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19742
$\text{A sample of gas at temperature } T \text{ is adiabatically expanded to double its volume.}$ $\text{Adiabatic constant for the gas is } \gamma = \frac{3}{2}. \text{ The work done by the gas in the process is: } (\mu = 1 \text{ mole})$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$RT[1 - 2\sqrt{2}]$, $RT[2\sqrt{2} - 1]$...
4
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19741
80
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19740
$\text{If Carnot engines work between the freezing point and boiling point of water, then the efficiency of a Carnot engine is:}$ $1.\ 35\%$ $2.\ 27\%$ $3.\ 22\%$ $4.\ 17\%$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$35\%$, $27\%$...
2
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19739
$\text{In which of the following processes does the internal energy of a gas remain constant?}$ $1. \text{Isothermal}$ $2. \text{Isochoric}$ $3. \text{Isobaric}$ $4. \text{Adiabatic}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Isothermal}$, $\text{Isochoric}$...
1
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19738
$\text{A gas is compressed adiabatically. Which of the following statements is not correct?}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Internal energy is constant}$, $\text{Temperature increases}$...
1
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19737
$\text{A monoatomic gas initially at pressure } P \text{ and volume } V \text{ is compressed to } \left( \frac{1}{8} \right) \text{th of its volume adiabatically. The final pressure of the gas is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$4P$, $8P$...
4
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19736
$\text{A Carnot engine operates between temperatures of } 27^\circ\text{C and } 127^\circ\text{C}$ $\text{and performs } 2 \text{ kJ of work. The amount of heat energy rejected is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ kJ}$, $6 \text{ kJ}$...
2
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19735
$\text{When the amount of heat supplied to a gas in a system is equal to } 1000 \text{ J, the system in return does } 200 \text{ J of work on the surrounding.}$ $\text{What would be the change in the internal energy of the gas?}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$800 \text{ J}$, $1200 \text{ J}$...
1
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19734
$\text{For a heat engine based on the Carnot cycle source is at a temperature } 600 \text{ K.}$ $\text{Now if source temperature is doubled then efficiency also gets doubled while keeping the sink temperature same at } x \text{ K.}$ $\text{The value of } x \text{ is equal to:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$400$, $600$...
1
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19733
72
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19732
$\text{During an adiabatic process performed on a diatomic gas, } 725 \text{ J of work is done on the gas. The change in internal energy of the gas is equal to:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$495 \text{ J}$, $725 \text{ J}$...
2
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19731
70
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19730
$\text{The initial volume of 1 mole of a monoatomic gas is } 2 \text{ litres.}$ $\text{It is expanded isothermally to a volume of } 6 \text{ litres.}$ $\text{Change in internal energy of the gas is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$2R$, $4R$...
4
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19729
$\text{The pressure } P_1 \text{ and density } d_1 \text{ of diatomic gas } \left( \gamma = \frac{7}{5} \right) \text{ change suddenly to } P_2 ( > P_1) \text{ and } d_2 \text{ respectively during an adiabatic process.}$ $\text{The temperature of the gas increases and becomes:}$ $\left( \text{given } \frac{d_2}{d_1} = 32 \right)$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \text{ times its initial temperature.}$, $4 \text{ times its initial temperature.}$...
2
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19728
67
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19727
66
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19726
$7 \text{ mole of a certain monoatomic ideal gas undergoes a temperature increase of } 40 \text{ K at constant pressure. The increase in the internal energy of the gas in this process is:}$ $\text{(Given: } R = 8.3 \text{ J-K}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}\text{)}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$5810 \text{ J}$, $3486 \text{ J}$...
2
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19725
$\text{A certain amount of gas of volume } V \text{ at } 27^\circ C \text{ temperature and}$ $\text{pressure } 2 \times 10^7 \text{ Nm}^{-2} \text{ expands isothermally until its volume gets}$ $\text{doubled. Later, it expands adiabatically until its volume gets}$ $\text{redoubled. The final pressure of the gas will be: (Use } \gamma = 1.5)$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.536 \times 10^5 \text{ Pa}$, $3.536 \times 10^6 \text{ Pa}$...
2
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19724
$\text{A diatomic gas } (\gamma = 1.4) \text{ does } 400 \text{ J of work when it is expanded isobarically.}$ $\text{The heat given to the gas in the process is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$1000 \text{ J}$, $1200 \text{ J}$...
3
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19723
$\text{In a Carnot engine, the temperature of the reservoir is } 527^\circ \text{C and that of the sink is } 200 \text{ K.}$ $\text{If the work done by the engine when it transfers heat from the reservoir to sink is } 12000 \text{ kJ, the quantity of heat absorbed by the engine from the reservoir is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$12 \times 10^6 \text{ J}$, $14 \times 10^6 \text{ J}$...
3
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19722
$\text{A Carnot engine takes } 5000 \text{ kcal of heat from a reservoir at } 727^\circ\text{C}$ $\text{and gives heat to a sink at } 127^\circ\text{C. The work done by the engine is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \times 10^6 \text{ J}$, $\text{zero}$...
3
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19721
$\text{A balloon filled with helium (32}^\circ \text{C and 1.7 atm) bursts. Immediately afterwards the expansion of helium can be considered as:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{irreversible adiabatic}$, $\text{reversible adiabatic}$...
1
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19720
$\text{A diatomic gas with rigid molecules undergoes expansion at constant pressure, performing } 10 \text{ J of work in the process. What is the amount of heat energy absorbed by the gas during this process?}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$35 \text{ J}$, $40 \text{ J}$...
1
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19719
$\text{Two moles of helium gas are mixed with three moles of hydrogen molecules (taken to be rigid). What is the molar specific heat of the mixture at constant volume?}$ $\left( R = 8.3 \text{ J/mol K} \right)$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$21.6 \text{ J/mol K}$, $19.7 \text{ J/mol K}$...
4
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19718
$\text{When heat } Q \text{ is supplied to a diatomic gas of rigid molecules, at constant volume its temperature increases by } \Delta T. \text{ The heat required to produce the same change in temperature, at a constant pressure is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{7}{5}Q$, $\frac{3}{2}Q$...
1
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19717
$\text{A cylinder with fixed capacity of } 67.2 \text{ litres contains helium gas at STP. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of the gas by } 20^\circ C \text{ is: [Given that } R = 8.31 \text{ J mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}]$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$748 \text{ J}$, $350 \text{ J}$...
1
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19716
$\text{The given diagram shows four processes i.e., isochoric, isobaric, isothermal and adiabatic.}$ $\text{The correct assignment of the processes, in the same order, is given by:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$d,\ a,\ b,\ c$, $a,\ d,\ c,\ b$...
1
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19715
54
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19714
$\text{One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is compressed isothermally in a rigid vessel to double its pressure at room temperature } 27^\circ \text{C. The work done on the gas will be:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$300R$, $300R \ln(2)$...
2
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19713
52
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19712
$\text{An engine operates by taking } n \text{ moles of an ideal gas through the cycle } ABCDA \text{ shown in the figure. The thermal efficiency of the engine is:}$ $\text{(Take } C_v = 1.5R, \text{ where } R \text{ is gas constant)}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
0.32, 0.15...
2
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19711
$\text{An experiment takes 10 minutes to raise the temperature of water in a container from } 0^\circ \text{C to } 100^\circ \text{C and another 55 minutes to convert it totally into steam by a heater supplying heat at a uniform rate. Neglecting the specific heat of the container and taking the specific heat of the water to be } 1 \text{ cal/g}^\circ \text{C, the heat of vaporization according to this experiment will come out to be:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$560 \text{ cal/g}$, $550 \text{ cal/g}$...
2
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19710
$\text{A gas undergoes a cyclic-process } ABC A \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{Then the work done by the gas for } A \rightarrow B \rightarrow C \text{ is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$1800 \text{ J}$, $1200 \text{ J}$...
2
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19709
$\text{Given a cyclic process shown in an indicator diagram using SI units.}$ $\text{The work done by the gas during the process is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$300 \text{ units}$, $-300 \text{ units}$...
1
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19708
$\text{A mixture of gases with adiabatic coefficient equal to } \frac{3}{2} \text{ is compressed from initial state } (P_0, V_0) \text{ to one fourth volume adiabatically. Its final pressure will be equal to}$ $1. \ P_0$ $2. \ 2P_0$ $3. \ 4P_0$ $4. \ 8P_0$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$P_0$, $2P_0$...
4
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19707
46
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
1
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19706
$\text{A diatomic gas is taken from point } A \text{ to point } B \text{ in a thermodynamic}$ $\text{process as described in the pressure-volume graph shown. The change in}$ $\text{internal energy is equal to:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.75 \times 10^6 \text{ J}$, $2.25 \times 10^6 \text{ J}$...
1
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19705
$\text{Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{At a sink temperature of } -273^\circ \text{C, the efficiency of a Carnot engine will be 1.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\eta = 1 - \frac{T_{\text{sink}}}{T_{\text{source}}}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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19704
$\text{For a system undergoing an isothermal process, heat energy is supplied to the system. Then,}$ $\text{I. Internal energy will increase.}$ $\text{II. Internal energy will decrease.}$ $\text{III. Work done by the system is positive.}$ $\text{IV. Work done by the system is negative.}$ $\text{V. Internal energy remains constant.}$ $\text{Choose the correct option from the given ones:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(I), (III), and (V) only}$, $\text{(II) and (IV) only}$...
3
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19703
$\text{An ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic process following the relation } PT^2 = \text{ constant. Assuming symbols have their usual meaning, then the volume expansion coefficient of the gas is equal to:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2}{T^3}$, $\frac{3}{T}$...
2
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19702
$\text{In an isochoric process on an ideal gas, initial temperature is equal to } 27^\circ \text{C with an initial pressure being equal to } 270 \text{ kPa.}$ $\text{Now if the final temperature is made equal to } 36^\circ \text{C then the final pressure is equal to:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$298 \text{ kPa}$, $270 \text{ kPa}$...
4
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19701
$\text{Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column-I} & \text{Column-II} \\ \hline \text{P. Adiabatic process} & \text{A. no work done by or on gas} \\ \text{Q. Isochoric process} & \text{B. some amount of heat given is converted into internal energy} \\ \text{R. Isobaric process} & \text{C. no heat exchange} \\ \text{S. Isothermal process} & \text{D. no change in internal energy} \\ \hline \end{array}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{P} \rightarrow \text{A}, \text{Q} \rightarrow \text{B}, \text{R} \rightarrow \text{C}, \text{S} \rightarrow \text{D}$, $\text{P} \rightarrow \text{A}, \text{Q} \rightarrow \text{C}, \text{R} \rightarrow \text{D}, \text{S} \rightarrow \text{B}$...
3
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19700
$\text{In the series sequence of two engines } E_1 \text{ and } E_2 \text{ as shown.}$ $T_1 = 600 \text{ K and } T_2 = 300 \text{ K.}$ $\text{It is given that both the engines working on the Carnot principle have the same efficiency, then temperature } T \text{ at which exhaust of } E_1 \text{ is fed into } E_2 \text{ is equal to:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$300\sqrt{2} \text{ K}$, $200\sqrt{2} \text{ K}$...
1
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19699
$\text{A Carnot engine working between a source and a sink at } 200 \text{ K has an efficiency of } 50\%. \text{ Another Carnot engine working between the same source and another sink with an unknown temperature } T \text{ has an efficiency of } 75\%. \text{ The value of } T \text{ is equal to:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$400 \text{ K}$, $300 \text{ K}$...
4
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19698
$\text{A thermodynamic system is taken from an original state } D \text{ to an}$ $\text{intermediate state } E \text{ by a linear process, as shown in the figure. Its}$ $\text{volume is then reduced to the original volume from } E \text{ to } F \text{ by an}$ $\text{isobaric process. The total work done by the gas from } D \text{ to } E \text{ to } F$ $\text{will be:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$-450 \text{ J}$, $450 \text{ J}$...
2
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19697
$\text{In 1}^{\text{st}} \text{ case, Carnot engine operates between temperatures 300 K and 100 K.}$ $\text{In 2}^{\text{nd}} \text{ case, as shown in the figure, a combination of two engines is used.}$ $\text{The efficiency of this combination (in 2}^{\text{nd}} \text{ case) will be:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{same as the 1}^{\text{st}} \text{ case.}$, $\text{always greater than the 1}^{\text{st}} \text{ case.}$...
3
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19696
$\text{Let } \eta_1 \text{ is the efficiency of an engine at } T_1 = 447 \, ^\circ\text{C} \text{ and } T_2 = 147 \, ^\circ\text{C} \text{ while } \eta_2 \text{ is the efficiency at } T_1 = 947 \, ^\circ\text{C} \text{ and } T_2 = 47 \, ^\circ\text{C} . \text{ The ratio } \frac{\eta_1}{\eta_2} \text{ will be:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.41$, $0.56$...
2
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19695
$\text{Starting with the same initial conditions, an ideal gas expands from volume } V_1 \text{ to } V_2 \text{ in three different ways. The work done by the gas is } W_1 \text{ if the process is purely isothermal, } W_2 \text{ if the process is purely adiabatic and } W_3 \text{ if the process is purely isobaric. Then,}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$W_1 < W_2 < W_3$, $W_2 < W_3 < W_1$...
4
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19694
$300$ \text{ calories of heat is given to a heat engine and it rejects } 225 \text{ calories of heat. If source temperature is } 227^\circ \text{C, then the temperature of sink will be:}$ $1. \ 102^\circ \text{C}$ $2. \ 90^\circ \text{C}$ $3. \ 110^\circ \text{C}$ $4. \ 120^\circ \text{C}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$102^\circ \text{C}$, $90^\circ \text{C}$...
1
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19693
$\text{A cylinder of a fixed capacity of } 44.8 \text{ litres contains helium gas at standard temperature and pressure. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of the gas in the cylinder by } 20.0^{\circ}\text{C will be:}$ $\text{(Given: gas constant } R = 8.3 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1})$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$249 \text{ J}$, $415 \text{ J}$...
3
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19692
$\text{A sample of an ideal gas is taken through the cyclic process } ABC A \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{It absorbs, } 40 \text{ J of heat during part } AB, \text{ no heat during } BC, \text{ and rejects } 60 \text{ J of heat during } CA.$ $\text{A work of } 50 \text{ J is done on the gas during part } BC. \text{The internal energy of the gas at } A \text{ is } 1560 \text{ J.}$ $\text{The work done by the gas during the part } CA \text{ is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$20 \text{ J}$, $30 \text{ J}$...
2
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19691
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{When } \mu \text{ amount of an ideal gas undergoes adiabatic}$ $\text{change from state } (P_1, V_1, T_1) \text{ to state } (P_2, V_2, T_2),$ $\text{the work done is } W = \frac{\mu R (T_2 - T_1)}{1 - \gamma}, \text{ where } \gamma = \frac{C_P}{C_V} \text{ and } R =$ $\text{universal gas constant,}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{In the above case, when work is done on the gas, the}$ $\text{temperature of the gas would rise.}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$...
1
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19690
$\text{A thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal gas of molecular mass } M \text{ and a specific heat ratio of } 1.4. \text{ The vessel is moving with speed } v \text{ and is suddenly brought to rest. Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings, then the vessel temperature of the gas increases by: } (R = \text{universal gas constant})$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{Mv^2}{7R}$, $\frac{Mv^2}{5R}$...
2
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19689
$\text{The efficiency of a Carnot's engine, working between the steam point and ice point, will be:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$26.81\%$, $37.81\%$...
1
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19688
$\text{A monoatomic gas performs a work of } \frac{Q}{4} \text{ where } Q \text{ is the heat}$ $\text{supplied to it. During this transformation, the molar heat capacity of}$ $\text{the gas will be: } (R \text{ is the gas constant.})$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$R$, $2R$...
2
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19687
$\text{A Carnot engine whose heat sinks at } 27^\circ\text{C, has an efficiency of } 25\%. \text{ By how many degrees should the temperature of the source be changed to increase the efficiency by } 100\% \text{ of the original efficiency?}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Increase by } 18^\circ\text{C}$, $\text{Increase by } 200^\circ\text{C}$...
2
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19686
$\text{One mole of a rigid diatomic gas performs a work of } \frac{Q}{5} \text{ when heat } Q \text{ is supplied to it. The molar heat capacity of the gas during this transformation is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{15}{8} R$, $\frac{5}{8} R$...
3
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19685
$\text{The volume } V \text{ of a given mass of monoatomic gas changes with temperature } T \text{ according to the relation } V = KT^{2/3}. \text{ The work done when temperature changes by } 90 \text{ K will be:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$60R$, $30R$...
1
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19684
$\text{The thermodynamic process is shown below on a } P-V \text{ diagram for one mole of an ideal gas. If } V_2 = 2V_1 \text{ then the ratio of temperature } T_2/T_1 \text{ is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2}$, $2$...
3
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19683
$\text{In a certain thermodynamical process, the pressure of a gas depends on its volume as } kV^3. \text{ The work done when the temperature changes from } 100^\circ\text{C to } 300^\circ\text{C will be:}$ $\text{(where } n \text{ denotes number of moles of a gas)}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$20nR$, $30nR$...
4
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19682
$\text{A diatomic gas, having } C_P = \frac{7}{2} R \text{ and } C_V = \frac{5}{2} R \text{ is heated at constant pressure. The ratio of } dU : dQ : dW \text{ is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 : 7 : 3$, $5 : 7 : 2$...
2
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19681
$\text{If one mole of an ideal gas at } (p_1, V_1) \text{ is allowed to expand reversibly and isothermally } (A \rightarrow B), \text{ its pressure is reduced to one-half of the original pressure (see figure).}$ $\text{This is followed by a constant-volume cooling till its pressure is reduced to one-fourth of the initial value } (B \rightarrow C). \text{ Then it is restored to its initial state by a reversible adiabatic compression}(C \rightarrow A). \text{ The net work done by the gas is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$RT \left( \ln 2 - \frac{1}{2(\gamma - 1)} \right)$, $-\frac{RT}{2(\gamma - 1)}$...
1
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19680
$\text{Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I} & \text{List-II} \\ \hline (a) \ \text{Isothermal process} & (i) \ \text{Pressure constant} \\ (b) \ \text{Isochoric process} & (ii) \ \text{Temperature constant} \\ (c) \ \text{Adiabatic process} & (iii) \ \text{Volume constant} \\ (d) \ \text{Isobaric process} & (iv) \ \text{Heat content is constant} \\ \hline \end{array}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$(a) \rightarrow (i), \ (b) \rightarrow (iii), \ (c) \rightarrow (ii), \ (d) \rightarrow (iv)$, $(a) \rightarrow (ii), \ (b) \rightarrow (iii), \ (c) \rightarrow (iv), \ (d) \rightarrow (i)$...
2
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19679
$n$ \text{ moles of a perfect gas undergoes a cyclic process } ABCA \text{ (see figure) consisting of the following processes.} $A \rightarrow B$ \text{ Isothermal expansion at temperature } T \text{ so that the volume is doubled from } V_1 \text{ to } V_2 = 2V_1 \text{ and pressure changes from } P_1 \text{ to } P_2. $B \rightarrow C$ \text{ Isobaric compression at pressure } P_2 \text{ to initial volume } V_1. $C \rightarrow A$ \text{ Isochoric change leading to change of pressure from } P_2 \text{ to } P_1. \text{Total work done in the complete cycle } ABCA \text{ is:}
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
nRT \left( \ln 2 - \frac{1}{2} \right), nRT \ln 2...
2
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19678
$\text{In an adiabatic process, the density of a diatomic gas becomes } 32 \text{ times its initial value. The final pressure of the gas is found to be } n \text{ times the initial pressure. The value of } n \text{ is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$326$, $\frac{1}{32}$...
4
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19677
$\text{Three different processes that can occur in an ideal monoatomic gas are shown in the } P \text{ vs } V \text{ diagram.}$ $\text{The paths are labelled as } A \rightarrow B, A \rightarrow C \text{ and } A \rightarrow D.$ $\text{The change in internal energies during these processes are taken as } E_{AB}, E_{AC} \text{ and } E_{AD}$ $\text{and the work done as } W_{AB}, W_{AC} \text{ and } W_{AD}. \text{ The correct relation between these parameters are:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$E_{AB} = E_{AC} = E_{AD}, W_{AB} > 0, W_{AC} = 0, W_{AD} < 0$, $E_{AB} < E_{AC} < E_{AD}, W_{AB} > 0, W_{AC} > W_{AD}$...
1
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19676
$\text{The change in the magnitude of the volume of an ideal gas when a small additional pressure } \Delta P \text{ is applied at constant temperature, is the same as the change when the temperature is reduced by a small quantity } \Delta T \text{ at constant pressure. The initial temperature and pressure of the gas were } 300 \text{ K and } 2 \text{ atm. respectively. If } |\Delta T| = C|\Delta P| \text{ then the value of } C \text{ in (K/atm) is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$50$, $100$...
3
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19675
$\text{Match the thermodynamic processes taking place in a system with the correct conditions. In the table: } \Delta Q \text{ is the heat supplied, } \Delta W \text{ is the work done and } \Delta U \text{ is change in internal energy of the system.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Process} & \text{Condition} \\ \hline (\text{I}) \text{ Adiabatic} & (\text{A}) \Delta W = 0 \\ (\text{II}) \text{ Isothermal} & (\text{B}) \Delta Q = 0 \\ (\text{III}) \text{ Isochoric} & (\text{C}) \Delta U \neq 0, \Delta W \neq 0, \Delta Q \neq 0 \\ (\text{IV}) \text{ Isobaric} & (\text{D}) \Delta U = 0 \\ \hline \end{array}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{I}) - (\text{B}), (\text{II}) - (\text{A}), (\text{III}) - (\text{D}), (\text{IV}) - (\text{C})$, $(\text{I}) - (\text{A}), (\text{II}) - (\text{B}), (\text{III}) - (\text{C}), (\text{IV}) - (\text{D})$...
4
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19674
$\text{A closed vessel contains } 0.1 \text{ mole of a monatomic ideal gas at } 200 \text{ K.}$ $\text{If } 0.05 \text{ mole of the same gas at } 400 \text{ K is added to it, the final}$ $\text{equilibrium temperature (in K) of the gas in the vessel will be closed to:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$133$, $57$...
3
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19673
$\text{If minimum possible work is done by a refrigerator in converting 100 grams of water at } 0^\circ \text{C to ice, how much heat (in calories) is released to the surroundings at temperature } 27^\circ \text{C (Latent heat of ice = 80 cal/gram) to the nearest integer?}$ $1. \ 3242$ $2. \ 8791$ $3. \ 1634$ $4. \ 100$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$3242$, $8791$...
2
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19672
$\text{An engine takes in } 5 \text{ moles of air at } 20^\circ \text{ C and } 1 \text{ atm, and compresses it adiabatically to } \frac{1}{10} \text{ th of the original volume.}$ $\text{Assuming air to be a diatomic ideal gas made up of rigid molecules, the change in its internal energy during this process comes out to be:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$46 \text{ J}$, $46 \text{ kJ}$...
2
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19671
$\text{A sample of an ideal gas is taken through the cyclic process } abca \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The change in the internal energy of the gas along the path } ca \text{ is } -180 \text{ J.}$ $\text{The gas absorbs } 250 \text{ J of heat along the path } ab \text{ and } 60 \text{ J along the path } bc.$ $\text{The work done by the gas along the path } abc \text{ is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$140 \text{ J}$, $130 \text{ J}$...
2
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19670
$n$ \text{ moles of an ideal gas with constant volume heat capacity } $C_V$ \text{ undergo an isobaric expansion by a certain volume. The ratio of the work done in the process, to the heat supplied is:}
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{nR}{C_V + nR}$, $\frac{nR}{C_V - nR}$...
1
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19669
$\text{The following figure shows two processes } A \text{ and } B \text{ for a gas. If } \Delta Q_A \text{ and } \Delta Q_B \text{ are the amount of heat absorbed by the system in two cases, and } \Delta U_A \text{ and } \Delta U_B \text{ are changes in internal energies, respectively, then:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\Delta Q_A > \Delta Q_B, \ \Delta U_A > \Delta U_B$, $\Delta Q_A < \Delta Q_B, \ \Delta U_A < \Delta U_B$...
3
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19668
$C_P \text{ and } C_V \text{ are specific heats at constant pressure and constant volume respectively. It is observed that}$ $C_P - C_V = a \text{ for hydrogen gas}$ $C_P - C_V = b \text{ for nitrogen gas}$ $\text{The correct relation between } a \text{ and } b \text{ is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$a = \frac{1}{14}b$, $a = b$...
3
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19667
$'n'$ \text{ moles of an ideal gas undergo a process } A \rightarrow B \text{ as shown in the figure. The maximum temperature of the gas during the process will be:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{9P_0V_0}{4nR}$, $\frac{3P_0V_0}{2nR}$...
1
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19666
$\text{An ideal gas undergoes a quasi-static, reversible process in which its molar heat capacity } C \text{ remains constant. If during this process the relation of pressure } P \text{ and volume } V \text{ is given by } PV^n = \text{ constant, then } n \text{ is given by: (here } C_P \text{ and } C_V \text{ are molar specific heat at constant pressure and constant volume, respectively)}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$n = \frac{C_P}{C_V - C_P}$, $n = \frac{C - C_V}{C_P - C}$...
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19665
$\text{An ideal gas goes through a reversible cycle } a \rightarrow b \rightarrow c \rightarrow d \text{ has the } V-T \text{ diagram as shown below.}$ $\text{Process } d \rightarrow a \text{ and } b \rightarrow c \text{ are adiabatic.}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Option 1: Diagram with } P \text{ and } V \text{ axes, cycle } d \rightarrow a \rightarrow b \rightarrow c$, $\text{Option 2: Diagram with } P \text{ and } V \text{ axes, cycle } a \rightarrow b \rightarrow c \rightarrow d$...
3
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19664
$\text{Consider an ideal gas confined in an isolated closed chamber. As the gas undergoes an adiabatic expansion, the average time of collision between molecules increases as } V^q, \text{ where } V \text{ is the volume of the gas. The value of } q \text{ is: } \left( \gamma = \frac{C_P}{C_V} \right)$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3\gamma + 5}{6}$, $\frac{3\gamma - 5}{6}$...
3
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19663
$\text{Consider a spherical shell of radius } R \text{ at temperature } T. \text{ The black body radiation inside it can be considered as an ideal gas of photons}$ $\text{with internal energy per unit volume } u = \frac{U}{V} \propto T^4 \text{ and } P = \frac{1}{3} \left( \frac{U}{V} \right).$ $\text{If the shell now undergoes an adiabatic expansion the relation between } T \text{ and } R \text{ is:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$T \propto e^{-R}$, $T \propto e^{-3R}$...
3
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19662
$\text{One mole of a diatomic ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process } ABC \text{ as shown in figure. The process } BC \text{ is adiabatic. The temperatures at } A, B \text{ and } C \text{ are } 400 \text{ K, } 800 \text{ K and } 600 \text{ K respectively. Choose the correct statement:}$
1
111
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{The change in internal energy in the process } CA \text{ is } 700 R$, $\text{The change in internal energy in the process } AB \text{ is } -350 R$...
3
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19661
$\text{An object cools down from } 80^\circ\text{C to } 60^\circ\text{C in } 5 \text{ min in a surrounding of temperature } 20^\circ\text{C.}$ $\text{The time taken to cool from } 60^\circ\text{C to } 40^\circ\text{C will be:}$ $\text{(Assume Newton's law of cooling to be valid.)}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{25}{3} \text{ min}$, $5 \text{ min}$...
1
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19660
$\text{A uniform rectangular plate has a circular hole of diameter } d \text{ as shown in the figure. The coefficient of linear expansion of the plate is } \alpha. \text{ What will be the change in the diameter of the hole if the temperature of the plate is increased by } \Delta T?$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\alpha \Delta T$, $d \alpha \Delta T$...
2
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19659
$\text{Read the following statements:}$ $\text{A. When small temperature difference between a liquid and its surrounding is doubled the rate of loss of heat of the liquid becomes twice.}$ $\text{B. Two bodies P and Q having equal surface areas are maintained at temperature 10}^\circ\text{C and 20}^\circ\text{C. The thermal radiation emitted in a given time by P and Q are in the ratio 1 : 1.15}$ $\text{C. A car engine working between 100 \text{ K and } 400 \text{ K has an efficiency of 75\%}}$ $\text{D. When small temperature difference between a liquid and its surrounding is quadrupled, the rate of loss of heat of the liquid becomes twice.}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A, B, C only}$, $\text{A, B only}$...
1
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19658
$\text{An ice cube of dimensions } 60 \text{ cm} \times 50 \text{ cm} \times 20 \text{ cm is placed in an insulation box of wall thickness } 1 \text{ cm. The box keeping the ice cube at } 0^\circ\text{C of temperature is brought to a room of temperature } 40^\circ\text{C. The rate of melting of ice is approximately:}$ $\text{(Latent heat of fusion of ice is } 3.4 \times 10^5 \text{ J kg}^{-1} \text{ and thermal conducting of insulation wall is } 0.05 \text{ Wm}^{-1} \text{ } ^\circ\text{C}^{-1})$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$61 \times 10^{-3} \text{ kg s}^{-1}$, $61 \times 10^{-5} \text{ kg s}^{-1}$...
2
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19657
$\text{A lead bullet penetrates into a solid object and melts. Assuming that }$ $40\% \text{ of its kinetic energy is used to heat it, the initial speed of the bullet is: (Given, the initial temperature of the bullet = } 127^\circ\text{C,}$ $\text{Melting point of the bullet = } 327^\circ\text{C,}$ $\text{Latent heat of fusion of lead = } 2.5 \times 10^4 \text{ J Kg}^{-1}, \text{ Specific heat capacity of lead = } 125 \text{J/kg K)}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$125 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $500 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
2
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19656
$\text{A copper block of mass } 5.0 \text{ kg is heated to a temperature of } 500^\circ\text{C}$ $\text{and is placed on a large ice block. The maximum amount of ice that}$ $\text{can melt is: [Specific heat of copper: } 0.39 \text{ Jg}^{-1}\text{C}^{-1}\text{ and latent heat}$ $\text{of fusion of water: } 335 \text{ J g}^{-1} ]$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.5 \text{ kg}$, $5.8 \text{ kg}$...
3
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19655
$\text{A solid metallic cube having a total surface area of } 24 \text{ m}^2 \text{ is uniformly heated. If its temperature is increased by } 10^\circ\text{C, the increase in the volume of the cube is:}$ $\text{(Given: } \alpha = 5.0 \times 10^{-4}\text{C}^{-1}\text{)}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.4 \times 10^6 \text{ cm}^3$, $1.2 \times 10^5 \text{ cm}^3$...
2
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19654
$\text{A 100 g of iron nail is hit by a 1.5 kg hammer striking at a velocity of 60 ms}^{-1}. \text{ What will be the rise in the temperature of the nail if one-fourth of the energy of the hammer goes into heating the nail?}$ $\text{[Specific heat capacity of iron = 0.42 Jg}^{-1} \cdot \text{°C}^{-1}]$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$675\text{°C}$, $1600\text{°C}$...
3
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19653
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{When a rod lying freely is heated, no thermal stress is developed in it.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{On heating the length of the rod increases.}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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19652
$\text{A bullet of mass } 5 \text{ g, travelling with a speed of } 210 \text{ m/s, strikes a fixed wooden target.}$ $\text{One half of its kinetic energy is converted into heat in the bullet while the other half is converted into heat in the wood.}$ $\text{The rise of temperature of the bullet if the specific heat of its material is } 0.03 \text{ cal/gm}^\circ\text{C (1 cal } = 4.2 \times 10^7 \text{ ergs) close to:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$83.3^\circ\text{C}$, $87.5^\circ\text{C}$...
2
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19651
$\text{The specific heat of water} = 4200 \text{ Jkg}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}$ $\text{and the latent heat of ice} = 3.4 \times 10^5 \text{ Jkg}^{-1}$. $100 \text{ grams of ice at } 0^\circ \text{C is placed in } 200 \text{ g of water at } 25^\circ\text{C}$. $\text{The amount of ice that will melt as the temperature of the water reaches } 0^\circ\text{C is close to (in grams):}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
61.7, 69.3...
1
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19650
$\text{A calorimeter of water equivalent } 20 \text{ g contains } 180 \text{ g of water at } 25^\circ \text{ C.}$ $'m' \text{ grams of steam at } 100^\circ \text{ C is mixed in it till the temperature of the mixture is } 31^\circ \text{ C.}$ $\text{The value of } 'm' \text{(in grams) is close to: (Latent heat of water } = 540 \text{ cal g}^{-1}, \text{ specific heat of water } = 1 \text{ cal g}^{-1}{}^\circ \text{C}^{-1})$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
2, 2.6...
1
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19649
$\text{A rod of length } L \text{ at room temperature and uniform area of the cross-section } A, \text{ is made of a metal having a coefficient of linear expansion } \alpha/^{\circ}\text{C.}$ $\text{It is observed that an external compressive force } F, \text{ is applied on each of its ends, preventing any change in the length of the rod, when it temperature rises by } \Delta T K.$ $\text{Young's modulus } Y, \text{ for this metal is:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{F}{A \alpha \Delta T}$, $\frac{F}{A \alpha (\Delta T - 273)}$...
1
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19648
$\text{The temperature difference of } 120^\circ \text{C is maintained between two ends of a uniform rod } AB \text{ of length } 2L. \text{ Another bent rod } PQ, \text{ of the same cross-section as } AB \text{ and the length } \frac{3L}{2}, \text{ is connected across } AB \text{ (see figure). In steady state, the temperature difference between } P \text{ and } Q \text{ will be close to:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$45^\circ \text{C}$, $75^\circ \text{C}$...
1
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19647
$\text{A thermally insulated vessel contains } 150 \text{ g of water at } 0^\circ \text{C.}$ $\text{Then the air from the vessel is pumped out adiabatically.}$ $\text{A fraction of water turns into ice and the rest evaporates at } 0^\circ \text{C itself.}$ $\text{The mass of evaporated water will be closest to:}$ $\text{(Latent heat of vaporization of water } = 2.10 \times 10^6 \text{ Jkg}^{-1}$ $\text{and Latent heat of fusion of water } = 3.36 \times 10^5 \text{ Jkg}^{-1})$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$130 \text{ g}$, $35 \text{ g}$...
4
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19646
$\text{A heating element has a resistance of } 100 \, \Omega \text{ at room temperature.}$ $\text{When it is connected to a supply of } 220 \, \text{V} \text{ a steady current of } 2 \, \text{A}$ $\text{passes in it and temperature is } 500^\circ \text{C more than room temperature.}$ $\text{What is the temperature coefficient of resistance of the heating element?}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \times 10^{-4} \, ^\circ \text{C}^{-1}$, $2 \times 10^{-4} \, ^\circ \text{C}^{-1}$...
2
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19645
$\text{A steel rail of length } 5 \text{ m and cross-sectional area } 40 \text{ cm}^2 \text{ is rigidly fixed at both ends, preventing it from expanding when the temperature rises by } 10^\circ \text{C.}$ $\text{Given that the coefficient of linear expansion of steel is } 1.2 \times 10^{-5} \text{ K}^{-1} \text{ and its Young's modulus is } 2 \times 10^{11} \text{ Nm}^{-2}, \text{ the approximate force developed in the rail is:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.2 \times 10^9 \text{ N}$, $3 \times 10^{-5} \text{ N}$...
4
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19644
$\text{In an experiment a sphere of aluminum of mass } 0.20 \text{ kg is heated up to } 150^\circ\text{C.}$ $\text{Immediately, it is put into the water of volume } 150 \text{ cc at } 27^\circ\text{C}$ $\text{kept in a calorimeter of water equivalent of } 0.025 \text{ kg.}$ $\text{The final temperature of the system is } 40^\circ\text{C.}$ $\text{The specific heat of aluminum is:}$ $\text{(take } 4.2 \text{ joule } = 1 \text{ calorie)}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$315 \text{ J kg}^{-1}\text{C}^{-1}$, $378 \text{ J kg}^{-1}\text{C}^{-1}$...
4
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19643
$\text{A compressive force } F \text{ is applied at the two ends of a long thin steel rod. It is heated, simultaneously, such that its temperature increases by } \Delta T. \text{ The net change in its length is zero. Let } l \text{ be the length of the rod, } A \text{ its area of cross-section, } Y \text{ is Young's modulus and } \alpha \text{ is coefficient of linear expansion. Then, the force } F \text{ is equal to:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{AY}{\alpha \Delta T}$, $AY \alpha \Delta T$...
2
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19642
$\text{A copper ball of mass } 100 \text{ g is at a temperature } T. \text{ It is dropped into a copper calorimeter of mass } 100 \text{ g, containing } 170 \text{ g of water at room temperature. The final temperature of the system is found to be } 75^\circ\text{C. The initial temperature } T \text{ of the copper ball is:}$ $\text{(Given: room temperature } = 30^\circ\text{C, specific heat of copper } = 0.1 \text{ cal/g }^\circ\text{C)}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$800^\circ\text{C}$, $885^\circ\text{C}$...
2
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19641
$\text{For an object radiating heat at } 300 \text{ K, the wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity is } \lambda. \text{ When the temperature of the body increases by } 300 \text{ K, the new wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity becomes:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\lambda}{2}$, $2\lambda$...
1
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19640
$\text{The temperature of body drops from } 60^\circ \text{C to } 40^\circ \text{C in } 7 \text{ min. The surrounding temperature is } 10^\circ \text{C.}$ $\text{The temperature of body drops from } 40^\circ \text{C to } T^\circ \text{C in } 7 \text{ min. The value of } T \text{ is:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$16^\circ \text{C}$, $20^\circ \text{C}$...
3
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19639
$\text{The heat passing through the cross-section of a conductor, varies with time } t \text{ as } Q(t) = \alpha t - \beta t^2 + \gamma t^3 \ (\alpha, \beta \text{ and } \gamma \text{ are positive constants}).$ $\text{The minimum heat current through the conductor is:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$\alpha - \frac{\beta^2}{2\gamma}$, $\alpha - \frac{\beta^2}{3\gamma}$...
2
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19638
$\text{The temperature of hot soup in a bowl goes } 98^\circ \text{C to } 86^\circ \text{C in 2 min.}$ $\text{The temperature of the surrounding is } 22^\circ \text{C.}$ $\text{What is the time taken for the temperature of the soup to go from } 75^\circ \text{C to } 69^\circ \text{C?}$ $\text{(Assume Newton's law of cooling is valid)}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \text{ min}$, $1.4 \text{ min}$...
2
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19637
$K_1 \text{ and } K_2 \text{ are the thermal conductivities, } L_1 \text{ and } L_2 \text{ are the lengths, and } A_1 \text{ and } A_2 \text{ are the cross-sectional areas of steel and copper rods respectively such that } \frac{K_2}{K_1} = 9, \frac{A_1}{A_2} = 2 \text{ and } \frac{L_1}{L_2} = 2.$ $\text{Then, for the arrangement as shown in the figure, the value of the temperature } T \text{ of the steel-copper junction in the steady-state will be:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$18^\circ \text{C}$, $14^\circ \text{C}$...
3
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19636
$\text{A unit scale is to be prepared whose length does not change with temperature and remains } 20 \text{ cm, using a bimetallic strip made of brass and iron, each of different lengths. The length of both components would change in such a way that the difference between their lengths remains constant. If the length of the brass is } 40 \text{ cm, then the length of the iron will be:}$ $\left( \alpha_{\text{iron}} = 1.2 \times 10^{-5} \text{ K}^{-1} \text{ and } \alpha_{\text{brass}} = 1.8 \times 10^{-5} \text{ K}^{-1} \right).$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$20 \text{ cm}$, $40 \text{ cm}$...
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19635
$\text{At what temperature a gold ring of diameter } 6.230 \text{ cm be heated so that it can be fitted on a wooden bangle of diameter } 6.241 \text{ cm? Both diameters have been measured at room temperature } (27^\circ\text{C}). \text{ (Given: coefficient of linear thermal expansion of gold, } \alpha_L = 1.4 \times 10^{-5}\text{K}^{-1})$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$125.7^\circ\text{C}$, $91.7^\circ\text{C}$...
4
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19634
$\text{As per the given figure, two plates } A \text{ and } B \text{ of thermal conductivity } K \text{ and } 2K \text{ are joined together to form a compound plate.}$ $\text{The thickness of the plates are } 4.0 \text{ cm and } 2.5 \text{ cm respectively and the area of the cross-section is } 120 \text{ cm}^2 \text{ for each plate.}$ $\text{The equivalent thermal conductivity of the compound plate is } \left(1 + \frac{5}{\alpha}\right) K, \text{ then the value of } \alpha \text{ will be:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
21, 10...
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19633
$\text{In an experiment to verify Newton's law of cooling, a graph is plotted}$ $\text{between the temperature difference } (\Delta T) \text{ of the water and}$ $\text{surroundings and time as shown in the figure. The initial temperature}$ $\text{of the water is taken as } 80^\circ \text{C. The value of } t_2 \text{ as mentioned in the}$ $\text{graph will be:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$12$, $14$...
3
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19632
$\text{Two metallic blocks } M_1 \text{ and } M_2 \text{ of the same area of the cross-section are connected to each other (as shown in the figure). If the thermal conductivity of } M_2 \text{ is } K, \text{ then the thermal conductivity of } M_1 \text{ will be:}$ $\text{(Assume steady state heat conduction)}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$10K$, $8K$...
2
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19631
$\text{The temperature } \theta \text{ at the junction of two insulating sheets, having thermal resistances } R_1 \text{ and } R_2 \text{ as well as top and bottom temperatures } \theta_1 \text{ and } \theta_2 \text{ (as shown in the figure) is given by:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\theta_2 R_2 - \theta_1 R_1}{R_2 - R_1}$, $\frac{\theta_1 R_2 - \theta_2 R_1}{R_2 - R_1}$...
3
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19630
$\text{A cube is constructed from a metal sheet such that each of its sides has a length } a \text{ at room temperature } T. \text{ The coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is } \alpha. \text{ The entire cube is then heated uniformly so that its temperature increases by a small amount } \Delta T, \text{ making the new temperature } T + \Delta T. \text{ Assuming the expansion is small and isotropic, what is the cube's volume increase due to this heating?}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$3a^3\alpha\Delta T$, $4a^3\alpha\Delta T$...
1
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19629
$\text{Three rods of identical cross-sections and lengths are made of three different materials of thermal conductivity } K_1, K_2, K_3, \text{ respectively. They are joined together at their ends to make a long rod (see figure). One end of the long rod is maintained at } 100^\circ C \text{ and the other at } 0^\circ C \text{ (see figure). If the joints of the rod are at } 70^\circ C \text{ and } 20^\circ C \text{ in a steady state and there is no loss of energy from the surface of the rod, the correct relationship between } K_1, K_2, \text{ and } K_3 \text{ is:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$K_1 : K_3 = 2 : 3; K_2 : K_3 = 2 : 5$, $K_1 < K_2 < K_3$...
1
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19628
$\text{Two different wires having lengths } L_1 \text{ and } L_2, \text{ and respective temperature coefficient of linear expansion } \alpha_1 \text{ and } \alpha_2, \text{ are joined end-to-end. Then the effective temperature coefficient of linear expansion is:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\alpha_1 \alpha_2}{\alpha_1 + \alpha_2} \frac{L_2 L_1}{(L_2 + L_1)^2}$, $2 \sqrt{\alpha_1 \alpha_2}$...
4
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19627
$\text{When the temperature of a metal wire is increased from } 0^\circ \text{C to } 10^\circ \text{C, its length increases by } 0.02\%. \text{ What is the percentage decrease in its mass density?}$ $1.\ 0.008\%$ $2.\ 0.06\%$ $3.\ 0.8\%$ $4.\ 2.3\%$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.008\%$, $0.06\%$...
2
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19626
$\text{A uniform cylindrical rod of length } L \text{ and radius } r, \text{ is made from a material whose Young's modulus of Elasticity equals } Y. \text{ When this rod is heated by temperature } T \text{ and simultaneously subjected to a net longitudinal compressional force } F, \text{ its length remains unchanged. The coefficient of volume expansion, of the material of the rod, is (nearly) equal to:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3F}{\pi r^2 Y T}$, $\frac{6F}{\pi r^2 Y T}$...
1
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19625
$\text{When } M_1 \text{ gram of ice at } -10^\circ\text{C (specific heat = 0.5 cal g}^{-1} \circ\text{C}^{-1}) \text{ is added to } M_2 \text{ gram of water at } 50^\circ\text{C,}$ $\text{It is observed that no ice is left and the water is at } 0^\circ\text{C.}$ $\text{The value of latent heat of ice, in cal g}^{-1} \text{ is:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{50M_2}{M_1} - 5$, $\frac{M_1}{50M_2}$...
1
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19624
$\text{Two materials having coefficients of thermal conductivity } 3K \text{ and } K \text{ and thickness } d \text{ and } 3d \text{ respectively, are joined to form a slab as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The temperatures of the outer surfaces are } \theta_1 \text{ and } \theta_2 \text{ respectively, } (\theta_2 > \theta_1).$ $\text{The temperature at the interface is:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\theta_2 + \theta_1}{2}$, $\frac{\theta_1}{2} + \frac{2\theta_2}{3}$...
3
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19623
$\text{Two identical beakers } A \text{ and } B \text{ contain equal volumes of two different liquids at } 60^\circ C \text{ each and left to cool down.}$ $\text{Liquid in } A \text{ has density of } 8 \times 10^2 \text{ kg/m}^3 \text{ and specific heat of } 2000 \text{ Jkg}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}$ $\text{while liquid in } B \text{ has density of } 10^3 \text{ kgm}^{-3} \text{ and specific heat of } 4000 \text{ Jkg}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}.$ $\text{Which of the following best describes their temperature versus time graph schematically?}$ $\text{(assume the emissivity of both the beakers to be the same)}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$\begin{array}{c} T \\ 60^\circ C \end{array} \quad \begin{array}{c} A \text{ and } B \\ \quad \end{array} \quad t$, $\begin{array}{c} T \\ 60^\circ C \end{array} \quad \begin{array}{c} B \\ A \end{array} \quad t$...
2
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19622
$\text{An external pressure } P \text{ is applied on a cube at } 0^\circ C \text{ so that it is equally compressed from all sides. } K \text{ is the bulk modulus of the material of the cube and } \alpha \text{ is its coefficient of linear expansion.}$ $\text{Suppose we want to bring the cube to its original size by heating. The temperature should be raised by:}$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{P}{3 \alpha K}$, $\frac{P}{\alpha K}$...
1
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19621
$\text{The pressure that has to be applied to the ends of a steel wire of length } 10 \text{ cm to keep its length constant when its temperature is raised by } 100^\circ \text{C is:}$ $\text{(Young's modulus of steel is } 2 \times 10^{11} \text{ Nm}^{-2} \text{ and coefficient of thermal expansion is } 1.1 \times 10^{-5} \text{ K}^{-1})$
1
110
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.2 \times 10^9 \text{ Pa}$, $2.2 \times 10^7 \text{ Pa}$...
4
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19620
$\text{A spherical ball of radius } 1 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m and density } 10^5 \text{ kg/m}^3 \text{ falls freely under gravity through a distance } h \text{ before entering a tank of water.}$ $\text{If after entering in water the velocity of the ball does not change, then the value of } h \text{ is approximately:}$ $\text{(The coefficient of viscosity of water is } 9.8 \times 10^{-6} \text{ N s/m}^2)$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$2296 \text{ m}$, $2518 \text{ m}$...
2
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19619
$\text{The excess pressure inside a soap bubble is thrice the excess}$ $\text{pressure inside a second soap bubble. The ratio between the volume}$ $\text{of the first and the second bubble is:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 81$, $1 : 9$...
3
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19618
$\text{A sphere of relative density } \sigma \text{ and diameter } D \text{ has concentric cavity of diameter } d. \text{ The ratio of } D/d, \text{ if it just floats on water in a tank is:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{\sigma - 1}{\sigma} \right)^{1/3}$, $\left( \frac{\sigma}{\sigma - 1} \right)^{1/3}$...
2
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19617
$\text{Correct Bernoulli's equation is (symbols have their usual meaning):}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$P + \rho gh + \frac{1}{2} \rho v^2 = \text{constant}$, $P + \rho gh + \rho v^2 = \text{constant}$...
1
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19616
$\text{Pressure inside a soap bubble is greater than the pressure outside by an amount:}$ $\text{(Given: R = Radius of bubble, S = Surface tension of bubble)}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{4R}{S}$, $\frac{4S}{R}$...
2
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19615
$\text{A small ball of mass } m \text{ and density } \rho \text{ is dropped in a viscous liquid of density } \rho_0. \text{ After sometime, the ball falls with constant velocity. The viscous force on the ball is:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$mg \left( \frac{\rho_0}{\rho} - 1 \right)$, $mg \left( 1 - \rho \rho_0 \right)$...
4
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19614
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement - I: The contact angle between a solid and a liquid is a property of the solid and liquid as well.}$ $\text{Statement - II: The rise of a liquid in a capillary tube does not depend on the radius of the tube.}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is false but Statement II is true.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are false.}$...
4
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19613
$\text{Out of air and liquid, which substance is more viscous?}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Air}$, $\text{Liquid}$...
2
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19612
$\text{The excess pressure inside a soap bubble of radius } R \text{ and surface tension } T \text{ is:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{T}{R}$, $\frac{2T}{R}$...
4
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19611
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Clothes containing oil or grease stains cannot be cleaned by water wash}$ $\text{Reason (R): Because the angle of contact between the oil/grease and water is obtuse.}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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19610
$\text{The diameter of an air bubble which was initially } 2 \text{ mm, rises steadily through a solution of density } 1750 \text{ kgm}^{-3} \text{ at the rate of } 0.35 \text{ cms}^{-1}. \text{ The coefficient of viscosity of the solution is (in the nearest integer):}$ $\text{(The density of air is negligible).}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$15 \text{ poise}$, $9 \text{ poise}$...
4
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19609
$\text{A drop of liquid of density } \rho \text{ is floating half immersed in a liquid } \sigma$ $\text{and surface tension } 7.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ Ncm}^{-1}. \text{ The radius of drop in cm}$ $\text{will be: (Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{15}{\sqrt{2\rho - \sigma}}$, $\frac{15}{\sqrt{\rho - \sigma}}$...
1
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19608
$\text{A liquid of density } 750 \text{ kgm}^{-3} \text{ flows smoothly through a horizontal pipe that tapers in cross-sectional area from } A_1 = 1.2 \times 10^{-2} \text{ m}^2 \text{ to } A_2 = \frac{A_1}{2} . \text{ The pressure difference between the wide and narrow sections of the pipe is } 4500 \text{ Pa. The rate of flow of liquid is:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$20 \times 10^{-3} \text{ m}^{-3}\text{s}^{-1}$, $30 \times 10^{-3} \text{ m}^{-3}\text{s}^{-1}$...
4
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19607
$\text{A water drop of radius } 1 \, \mu m \text{ falls in a situation where the effect of buoyant force is negligible.}$ $\text{Co-efficient of viscosity of air is } 1.8 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{Nsm}^{-2} \text{ and its density is negligible as compared to that of water } 10^6 \, \text{gm}^{-3}. \text{ Terminal velocity of the water drop is:}$ $\text{(Take acceleration due to gravity } = 10 \, \text{ms}^{-2})$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$145.4 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{ms}^{-1}$, $118.0 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{ms}^{-1}$...
4
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19606
$\text{An ideal fluid of density } 800 \text{ kgm}^{-3}, \text{ flows smoothly through a bent pipe (as shown in the figure) that tapers in cross-sectional area from } a \text{ to } \frac{a}{2}. \text{ The pressure difference between the wide and narrow sections of the pipe is } 4100 \text{ Pa. At the wider section, the velocity of the fluid is } \frac{\sqrt{x}}{6} \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is: (Given: } g = 10 \text{ m}^{-2})$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$124$, $236$...
3
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19605
$\text{The terminal velocity } (v_T) \text{ of a spherical raindrop depends on the radius } (r) \text{ of the raindrop as follows:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$r^{1/2}$, $r$...
3
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19604
$\text{The pressure inside two soap bubbles are } 1.01 \text{ and } 1.02 \text{ atmosphere, respectively. The ratio of their volumes is:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 : 1$, $2 : 1$...
3
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19603
$\text{The top of a water tank is open to air and its water level is maintained. It is giving out } 0.74 \ \text{m}^3 \text{ water per minute through a circular opening of } 2 \ \text{cm} \text{ radius in its wall. The depth of the centre of the opening from the level of water in the tank is close to:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$6.0 \ \text{m}$, $4.8 \ \text{m}$...
2
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19602
$\text{Two tubes of radii } r_1 \text{ and } r_2, \text{ and length } l_1 \text{ and } l_2, \text{ respectively, are connected in series and a liquid flows through each of them in streamlined conditions. } P_1 \text{ and } P_2 \text{ are pressure differences across the two tubes. If } P_2 = 4P_1 \text{ and } l_2 = \frac{l_1}{4}, \text{ then the radius } r_2 \text{ will be equal to:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$2r_1$, $\frac{r_1}{2}$...
2
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19601
$\text{If two glass plates have water between them and are separated by a very small distance (see figure), it is very difficult to pull them apart. It is because the water in between forms a cylindrical surface on the side that gives rise to lower pressure in the water in comparison to the atmosphere. If the radius of the cylindrical surface is } R \text{ and the surface tension of water is } T \text{ then the pressure in water between the plates is lower by:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2T}{R}$, $\frac{4T}{R}$...
4
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19600
$\text{A liquid drop of radius } R \text{ is divided into } 27 \text{ identical drops. If the surface tension of the drops is } T, \text{ then the work done in this process is:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$4\pi R^2 T$, $3\pi R^2 T$...
3
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19599
$\text{Consider the two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{A capillary tube is first dipped in hot water and then in cold water. The water rises higher in the hot water.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{A capillary tube is first dipped in cold water and then in hot water. The water rises higher in the cold water.}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.}$, $\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$...
2
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19598
$\text{The pressures at the ends of a horizontal pipe are given for water.}$ $\text{The speed } v \text{ at end 2 if the speed at end 1 is } 10 \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{(density of water } = 1000 \text{ kg/m}^3).$ $\text{Then the speed } v \text{ (in m/s) is:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$22$, $33$...
3
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19597
$\text{Water is flowing inside the conical type tube having a ratio of area of cross-section } 6 : 1. \text{ If the speed of the water outlet through a smaller area is } 60 \text{ m/s, then the pressure difference across these two cross-sections is:}$ $\text{(assume incompressible fluid, density of water } = 1000 \text{ kg/m}^3 )$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$175 \times 10^4 \text{ Pa}$, $175 \times 10^3 \text{ Pa}$...
1
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19596
$\text{Six identical small liquid drops, each falling with a terminal velocity of } 10 \text{ m/s, coalesce to form a single larger spherical drop. Assuming the drops fall through the same viscous medium under gravity and obey Stokes' law, what will be the terminal velocity of the larger drop?}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \times (6)^{1/3} \text{ m/s}$, $10 \times (6)^{2/3} \text{ m/s}$...
2
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19595
$\text{An air bubble having volume } 1 \ \text{cm}^3 \text{ at depth } 40 \ \text{m inside water comes to surface.}$ $\text{What will be the volume of the bubble at the surface?}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \ \text{cm}^3$, $2 \ \text{cm}^3$...
1
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19594
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{When toothpaste is pressed (squeezed), it follows Pascal's law.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{When pressure is applied to a fluid, it is transmitted equally throughout the fluid in all directions and on the walls of the container.}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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19593
$\text{A ball with mass } m, \text{ radius } r, \text{ and density } \rho \text{ is dropped into a liquid with density } \rho_0. \text{ After a period of motion, the speed of the ball becomes constant, equal to } v_0. \text{ The coefficient of viscosity of the liquid is:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{mg}{6 \pi r v_0} \left( 1 - \frac{\rho_0}{\rho} \right)$, $\frac{mg}{6 \pi r v_0} \left( 1 + \frac{\rho_0}{\rho} \right)$...
1
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19592
$\text{A drop of mercury is divided into } 125 \text{ drops of equal radius } 10^{-3} \text{ m each.}$ $\text{If the surface tension of mercury is equal to } 0.45 \text{ N/m.}$ $\text{The magnitude of change in surface energy is equal to nearly:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.14 \times 10^{-4} \text{ J}$, $7.06 \times 10^{-4} \text{ J}$...
4
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19591
$\text{A drop of water of } 10 \text{ mm radius is divided into } 1000 \text{ droplets. If the surface tension of the water surface is equal to } 0.073 \text{ J/m}^2 \text{ then increment in surface energy while breaking down the bigger drop in small droplets as mentioned is equal to:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$8.25 \times 10^{-5} \text{ J}$, $9.17 \times 10^{-4} \text{ J}$...
4
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19590
$\text{The amount of work required to expand the soap bubble from a radius of } r_1 = 3.5 \text{ cm to } r_2 = 7.0 \text{ cm is:}$ $\text{(given surface tension of soap solution, } T = 0.03 \text{ N/m)}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.14 \text{ mJ}$, $1.4 \text{ mJ}$...
4
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19589
$\text{A big drop is divided into 1000 identical droplets. If the big drop had surface energy } U_i \text{ and all small droplets together had a surface energy } U_f, \text{ then } \frac{U_i}{U_f} \text{ is equal to:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{100}$, $10$...
3
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19588
$\text{A water drop of a radius 1 cm is broken into 729 equal droplets. If the surface tension of water is 75 dyne/cm, then the gain in surface energy up to first decimal place will be:}$ $\text{[Given } \pi = 3.14]$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$8.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ J}$, $8.2 \times 10^{-4} \text{ J}$...
3
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19587
$\text{A small spherical ball of radius } 0.1 \text{ mm and density } 10^4 \text{ kg-m}^{-3} \text{ falls freely under gravity through a distance of } h \text{ before entering a tank of water. If after entering the water, the velocity of the ball does not change and it continues to fall with the same constant velocity inside the water, then the value of } h \text{ will be:}$ $\text{(given } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2, \text{ the viscosity of water } = 1.0 \times 10^{-5} \text{ N-sm}^{-2})$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$15 \text{ m}$, $25 \text{ m}$...
3
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19586
$\text{A water drop of diameter 2 cm is broken into 64 equal droplets. The surface tension of water is 0.075 N/m. In this process the gain in surface energy will be:}$ $1.\ 2.8 \times 10^{-4} \text{ J}$ $2.\ 1.5 \times 10^{-3} \text{ J}$ $3.\ 1.9 \times 10^{-4} \text{ J}$ $4.\ 9.4 \times 10^{-5} \text{ J}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.8 \times 10^{-4} \text{ J}$, $1.5 \times 10^{-3} \text{ J}$...
1
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19585
$\text{The area of the cross-section of a large tank is } 0.5 \text{ m}^2. \text{ It has a narrow opening near the bottom having an area of cross-section } 1 \text{ cm}^2. \text{ A load of } 25 \text{ kg is applied on the water at the top of the tank. Neglecting the speed of water in the tank, the velocity of the water, coming out of the opening at the time when the height of the water level in the tank is } 40 \text{ cm above the bottom, will be: [Take } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2}]$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $2 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
3
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19584
$\text{The velocity of a small ball of mass } m \text{ and density } d_1, \text{ when dropped in a container filled with glycerine, becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is } d_2, \text{ then the viscous force acting on the ball will be:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$mg \left( 1 - \frac{d_1}{d_2} \right)$, $mg \left( 1 - \frac{d_2}{d_1} \right)$...
2
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19583
$\text{If } \rho \text{ is the density and } \eta \text{ is the coefficient of viscosity of fluid which flows with a speed } v \text{ in the pipe of diameter } d, \text{ the correct formula for the Reynolds number } R_e \text{ is:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$R_e = \frac{\eta d}{\rho v}$, $R_e = \frac{\rho v}{\eta d}$...
3
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19582
$\text{The velocity of the upper layer of water in a river is } 36 \text{ kmh}^{-1}. \text{ Shearing stress between horizontal layers of water is } 10^{-3} \text{ Nm}^{-2}. \text{ The depth of the river is:}$ $\text{(coefficient of viscosity of water is } 10^{-2} \text{ Pa-s)}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ m}$, $200 \text{ m}$...
1
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19581
$\text{A large number of water drops, each of radius } r, \text{ combine to have a drop of radius } R. \text{ If the surface tension is } T \text{ and mechanical equivalent of heat is } J, \text{ the rise in heat energy per unit volume will be:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2T}{J} \left( \frac{1}{r} - \frac{1}{R} \right)$, $\frac{2T}{Jr}$...
4
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19580
$\text{A hydraulic press can lift } 100 \text{ kg when a mass } m \text{ is placed on the smaller piston.}$ $\text{If the diameter of the larger piston is increased by a factor of } 4 \text{ and the diameter of the smaller piston is reduced by a factor of } 4,$ $\text{while keeping the same mass } m \text{ on the smaller piston, the press can lift:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$2500 \text{ kg}$, $50000 \text{ kg}$...
3
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19579
$\text{A fluid is flowing through a horizontal pipe of varying cross-sections, with speed } v \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ at a point where the pressure is } P \text{ pascal.}$ $\text{At another point where pressure is } \frac{P}{2} \text{ pascal, its speed is } v \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{If the density of the fluid is } \rho \text{ kg-m}^{-3} \text{ and the flow is streamlined, then } v \text{ is equal to:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{P}{2\rho} + v^2}$, $\sqrt{\frac{P}{\rho} + v^2}$...
2
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19578
$\text{In an experiment to verify Stokes's law, a small spherical ball of radius } r \text{ and density } \rho \text{ falls under gravity through a distance } h \text{ in air before entering a tank of water.}$ $\text{If the terminal velocity of the ball inside water is the same as its velocity just before entering the water surface, then the value of } h \text{ is proportional to: (Ignore viscosity of air)}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$r$, $r^4$...
2
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19577
$\text{A hollow spherical shell at the outer radius } R \text{ floats just submerged under the water surface. The inner radius of the shell is } r. \text{ If the specific gravity of the shell material is } \frac{27}{8} \text{ with respect to water, the value of } r \text{ is: } \left[ \text{Given: } \left( 19^{\frac{1}{3}} = \frac{8}{3} \right) \right]$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{4}{9} R$, $\frac{8}{9} R$...
2
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19576
$\text{Two identical cylindrical vessels are kept on the ground and each contain the same liquid of density } d. \text{ The area of the base of both vessels is } S \text{ but the height of liquid in one vessel is } x_1 \text{ and in the other, } x_2. \text{ When both cylinders are connected through a pipe of negligible volume very close to the bottom, the liquid flows one vessel to the other until it comes to equilibrium at a new height. The change in energy of the system in the process is:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3}{4} gdS(x_2 - x_1)^2$, $\frac{1}{4} gdS(x_2 - x_1)^2$...
2
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19575
$\text{A air bubble of radius } 1 \text{ cm in water has an upward acceleration } 9.8 \text{ cm/s}^2. \text{ The density of water is } 1 \text{ gm/cm}^3 \text{ and water offers negligible drag force on the bubble. The mass of the bubble is: } (g = 980 \text{ cm/s}^2)$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.15 \text{ gm}$, $1.52 \text{ gm}$...
4
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19574
$\text{When a long glass capillary tube of radius } 0.015 \text{ cm is dipped in a liquid, the liquid rises to a height of } 15 \text{ cm within it.}$ $\text{If the contact angle between the liquid and glass to close to } 0^\circ, \text{ the surface tension of the liquid, in milliNewton m}^{-1}, \text{ is:}$ $\left[ \rho(\text{liquid}) = 900 \text{ kgm}^{-3}, \ g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2} \right] \text{ (Give answer in closest integer).}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$200$, $101$...
2
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19573
$\text{A capillary tube made of glass of radius } 0.15 \text{ mm is dipped vertically in a beaker filled with methylene iodide (surface tension } T = 0.05 \text{ Nm}^{-1}, \text{ density } \rho = 667 \text{ kg m}^{-3}) \text{ which rises to height } h \text{ in the tube.}$ $\text{It is observed that the two tangents drawn from liquid-glass interfaces (from opp. sides of the capillary) make an angle of } 60^\circ \text{ with one another.}$ $\text{Then } h \text{ is close to:}$ $\text{(take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.137 \text{ m}$, $0.172 \text{ m}$...
3
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19572
$\text{A cylindrical vessel containing a liquid is rotated about its axis so that the liquid rises at its sides as shown in the figure. The radius of vessel is } 5 \text{ cm and the angular speed of rotation is } \omega \text{ rads}^{-1}. \text{ The difference in the height, } h \text{ (in cm) of liquid at the centre of vessel and at the side will be:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{25\omega^2}{2g}$, $\frac{2\omega^2}{5g}$...
1
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19571
$\text{A solid sphere, of radius } R, \text{ acquires a terminal velocity } v_1 \text{ when falling (due to gravity) through a viscous fluid having a coefficient of viscosity } \eta. \text{ The sphere is broken into } 27 \text{ identical solid spheres.}$ $\text{If each of these spheres acquires a terminal velocity, } v_2, \text{ when falling through the same fluid, the ratio } \left( \frac{v_1}{v_2} \right) \text{ equals:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{9}$, $\frac{1}{27}$...
3
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19570
$\text{A cubical block of side } 0.5 \text{ m floats on water with } 30\% \text{ of its volume under water.}$ $\text{What is the maximum weight that can be put on the block without fully submerging it underwater?}$ $\text{(take, density of water } = 10^3 \text{ kg/m}^3)$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$30.1 \text{ kg}$, $87.5 \text{ kg}$...
2
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19569
$\text{A submarine experiences a pressure of } 5.05 \times 10^6 \text{ Pa at a depth of } d_1 \text{ in a sea.}$ $\text{When it goes further to a depth of } d_2, \text{ it experiences a pressure of } 8.08 \times 10^6 \text{ Pa.}$ $\text{Then } d_2 - d_1 \text{ is approximately: (density of water } = 10^3 \text{ kg/m}^3 \text{ and acceleration due to gravity } = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$600 \text{ m}$, $400 \text{ m}$...
3
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19568
$\text{Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards with an initial speed of } 1.0 \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{The cross-sectional area of the tap is } 10^{-4} \text{ m}^2.$ $\text{Assume that the pressure is constant throughout the stream of water and that the flow is streamlined.}$ $\text{The cross-sectional area of the stream, } 0.15 \text{ m below the tap would be:}$ $\text{(Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}^2$, $2 \times 10^{-5} \text{ m}^2$...
3
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19567
$\text{A wooden block is initially floating in a bucket of water with } \frac{4}{5} \text{ of its volume submerged.}$ $\text{When a certain amount of oil is poured into the bucket, the block is found to be just under the oil surface with half of its volume submerged in water and half in oil.}$ $\text{What is the density of the oil relative to that of water?}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.7$, $0.5$...
4
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19566
$\text{If } M \text{ is the mass of water that rises in a capillary tube of radius } r, \text{ then mass of water which will rise in a capillary tube of radius } 2r \text{ is:}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$M$, $4M$...
4
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19565
$\text{Water from a pipe is coming at a rate of 100 liters per minute. If the radius of the pipe is 5 cm, the Reynolds number for the flow is of the order of- (density of water = 1000 kg/m}^3\text{, coefficient of viscosity of water = 1 m Pa s)}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$10^4$, $10^3$...
1
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19564
$\text{If it takes } 5 \text{ minutes to fill a } 15 \text{ litre bucket from a water tap of diameter } \frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi}} \text{ cm, then the Reynolds number for the flow is:}$ $\text{(density of water } = 10^3 \text{ kg/m}^3 \text{ and viscosity of water } = 10^{-3} \text{ Pa.s)}$
1
109
JEE MCQ NEW
$11,000$, $550$...
4
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19563
$\text{If the area of the cross-section is halved and the length of the wire having Young's modulus } Y \text{ is doubled, then its Young's modulus will become:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$Y$, $4Y$...
1
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19562
$\text{A rod is fixed at one end and other end is pulled with force } F = 62.8 \text{ kN, Young's modulus of rod is } 2 \times 10^{11} \text{ N/m}^2. \text{ If the radius of cross-section of rod is } 20 \text{ mm the strain produced in rod is}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.5 \times 10^{-3}$, $2.5 \times 10^{-4}$...
2
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19561
$\text{A wire of length } l, \text{ cross-sectional area } A \text{ is pulled as shown. } Y \text{ is Young's modulus of wire. The elongation in wire is:}$ $\left(F = 100 \text{ N}, A = 10 \text{ cm}^2, l = 1 \text{ m}, Y = 5 \times 10^{10} \text{ N/m}^2\right)$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$10^{-6} \text{ m}$, $10^{-5} \text{ m}$...
3
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19560
$\text{Choose the option showing the correct relation between Poisson's ratio } (\sigma), \text{ Bulk modulus } (B), \text{ and Modulus of rigidity } (G).$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sigma = \frac{3B - 2G}{2G + 6B}$, $\sigma = \frac{6B + 2G}{3B - 2G}$...
1
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19559
$\text{If the length of a wire is doubled and its radius is halved compared to their respective initial values, then, Young's modulus of the material of the wire will:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{remain the same.}$, $\text{become 8 times its initial value.}$...
1
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19558
$\text{The force required to stretch a wire of cross-section } 1 \text{ cm}^2 \text{ to double its length will be:}$ $\text{(Given Young's modulus of the wire } = 2 \times 10^{11} \text{ N/m}^2)$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.1 \times 10^7 \text{ N}$, $1.5 \times 10^7 \text{ N}$...
3
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19557
$\text{A square aluminium (shear modulus is } 25 \times 10^9 \text{ Nm}^{-2}\text{) slab of side } 60 \text{ cm and thickness of } 15 \text{ cm is subjected to a shearing force (on its narrow face) of } 18.0 \times 10^4 \text{ N. The lower edge is riveted to the floor. The displacement of the upper edge is:}$ $1.\ 30\ \mu\text{m}$ $2.\ 48\ \mu\text{m}$ $3.\ 16\ \mu\text{m}$ $4.\ 64\ \mu\text{m}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$30\ \mu\text{m}$, $48\ \mu\text{m}$...
2
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19556
$\text{A wire of length } L \text{ and radius } r \text{ is clamped rigidly at one end. When the other end of the wire is pulled by a force } F, \text{ its length increases by } 5 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{Another wire of the same material of length } 4L \text{ and radius } 4r \text{ is pulled by a force } 4F \text{ under the same conditions. The increase in length of this wire is:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \text{ cm}$, $5 \text{ cm}$...
2
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19555
$\text{A wire of natural length } L \text{ is suspended vertically from a fixed point.}$ $\text{The length changes to } L_1 \text{ and } L_2 \text{ when masses 1 kg and 2 kg are}$ $\text{suspended, respectively, from its free end. The value of } L \text{ is:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{L_1 L_2}$, $\frac{L_1 + L_2}{2}$...
3
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19554
$\text{The bulk modulus of a liquid is } 3 \times 10^{10} \text{ Nm}^{-2}. \text{ The pressure required to reduce the volume of liquid by } 2\% \text{ is:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \times 10^8 \text{ Nm}^{-2}$, $9 \times 10^8 \text{ Nm}^{-2}$...
3
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19553
$\text{A uniform metallic wire is elongated by } 0.04 \text{ m when subjected to a linear force } F. \text{ The elongation, if its length and diameter are doubled and subjected to the same force will be:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \text{ cm}$, $2 \text{ cm}$...
2
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19552
$\text{A body of mass } m = 10 \text{ kg is attached to one end of a wire of length } 0.3 \text{ m.}$ $\text{The maximum angular speed (in } \text{rad s}^{-1}\text{) with which it can be rotated about its other end in the space station is:}$ $\text{(Breaking stress of wire } = 4.8 \times 10^7 \text{ Nm}^{-2} \text{ and area of cross-section of the wire } = 10^{-2} \text{ cm}^{-2})$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ rad s}^{-1}$, $6 \text{ rad s}^{-1}$...
1
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19551
$\text{Two forces } F_1 \text{ and } F_2 \text{ are applied on two rods } P \text{ and } Q \text{ of the same materials such that elongation in rods are same.}$ $\text{If the ratio of their radii is } x : y \text{ and the ratio of length is } m : n, \text{ then the ratio of forces } F_1 : F_2 \text{ is:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{y}{x} \right)^2 \frac{n}{m}$, $\left( \frac{x}{y} \right)^2 \frac{n}{m}$...
2
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19550
$\text{A uniform wire has length } L \text{ and radius } r. \text{ It is acted on by a force } F \text{ as shown. The elongation is } \Delta L. \text{ If } F \text{ and } r \text{ are both halved, then the new elongation will be:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\Delta L}{2}$, $\Delta L$...
4
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19549
$\text{A sphere of small size is at the bottom of a lake of depth } 200 \text{ m. Due to pressure its fractional change in volume is } \alpha \times 10^{-7}. \text{ What is the value of } \alpha, \text{ if the bulk modulus of the sphere is } 5 \times 10^{12} \text{ Pa? (Use } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $4$...
2
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19548
$\text{Wire } A \text{ and } B \text{ have their Young's moduli in the ratio } 1:3 \text{, area of the cross-section in the ratio of } 1:2 \text{ and lengths in the ratio of } 3:4. \text{ If the same force is applied on the two wires to elongate then the ratio of elongation is equal to:}$ $1.\ 8:1$ $2.\ 1:12$ $3.\ 1:8$ $4.\ 9:2$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$8:1$, $1:12$...
4
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19547
$\text{Two blocks, one with a mass of } 2 \text{ kg and the other with a mass of } 1.14 \text{ kg, are suspended by steel and brass wires, respectively, as shown in the figure. Given Young's moduli for steel and brass as } 2 \times 10^{11} \text{ N/m}^2 \text{ and } 1 \times 10^{11} \text{ N/m}^2 \text{ respectively, what is the change in the length for the steel wire?}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.2 \ \mu \text{m}$, $1.6 \ \mu \text{m}$...
1
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19546
$\text{A uniform rod of mass } 10 \text{ kg and length } 6 \text{ m is hanged from the ceiling as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{Given the area of the cross-section of rod } 3 \text{ mm}^2 \text{ and Young's modulus is } 2 \times 10^{11} \text{ N/m}^2.$ $\text{The extension in the rod's length is:}$ $\text{(Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \text{ mm}$, $0.5 \text{ mm}$...
2
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19545
$\text{A metal wire of length } 0.5 \text{ m and cross-sectional area } 10^{-4} \text{ m}^2 \text{ has breaking stress } 5 \times 10^8 \text{ Nm}^{-2}. \text{ A block of } 10 \text{ kg is attached at one end of the string and is rotating in a horizontal circle. The maximum linear velocity of the block will be:}$ $1. \ 15 \ \text{m/s}$ $2. \ 50 \ \text{m/s}$ $3. \ 25 \ \text{m/s}$ $4. \ 40 \ \text{m/s}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$15 \ \text{m/s}$, $50 \ \text{m/s}$...
2
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19544
$\text{In an experiment to determine Young's modulus, steel wires of five different lengths (} 1, 2, 3, 4 \text{ and } 5 \text{ m) but of the same cross-section (} 2 \text{ mm}^2) \text{ were taken and curves between extension and load were obtained. The slope (extension/load) of the curves was plotted with the wire length and the following graph is obtained. If Young's modulus of a given steel wire is } x \times 10^{11} \text{ N/m}^2, \text{ then the value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $2$...
2
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19543
$\text{A steel wire of length } 3.2 \text{ m } (Y_S = 2.0 \times 10^{11} \text{ N m}^{-2}) \text{ and a copper wire of length } 4.4 \text{ m } (Y_C = 1.1 \times 10^{11} \text{ N m}^{-2}), \text{ both having a radius } 1.4 \text{ mm, are connected end to end.}$ $\text{When a load is applied, the net stretch of the combined wires is found to be } 1.4 \text{ mm.}$ $\text{The magnitude of the load applied, in Newtons, will be: } \left( \text{use, } \pi = \frac{22}{7} \right)$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
360, 180...
4
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19542
$\text{A uniform heavy rod of mass } 20 \text{ kg, cross-sectional area of } 0.4 \text{ m}^2 \text{ and length of } 20 \text{ m is hanging from a fixed support. Neglecting the lateral contraction, the elongation in the rod due to its own weight is:}$ $\text{(Given: Young's modulus } Y = 2 \times 10^{11} \text{ N-m}^{-2} \text{ and } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$12 \times 10^{-9} \text{ m}$, $30 \times 10^{-9} \text{ m}$...
3
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19541
$\text{The area of cross-section of the rope used to lift a load by a crane is } 2.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}^2. \text{ The maximum lifting capacity of the crane is } 10 \text{ metric tons.}$ $\text{To increase the lifting capacity of the crane to } 25 \text{ metric tons, the required area of the cross-section of the rope should be: (Take } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$6.25 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}^2$, $10 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}^2$...
1
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19540
$\text{The elongation of a wire on the surface of the Earth is } 10^{-4} \text{ m. The same wire, of the same dimensions, elongates by } 6 \times 10^{-5} \text{ m on another planet. The acceleration due to gravity on the planet will be:}$ $\text{(take acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth as } 10 \text{ m s}^{-2})$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \text{ ms}^{-2}$, $6 \text{ ms}^{-2}$...
2
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19539
$\text{The elastic behaviour of a material for linear stress and linear strain is captured in the graph below. The energy density, for a linear strain of } 5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ is:}$ $\text{(assume that the material is elastic up to the linear strain of } 5 \times 10^{-4})$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$15 \text{ kJ/m}^3$, $20 \text{ kJ/m}^3$...
3
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19538
$\text{The length of a metallic wire is } l_1, \text{ when the tension in it is } T_1 \text{ and is } l_2 \text{ when the tension is } T_2. \text{ The original (natural) length of the wire is:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{l_1 + l_2}{2}$, $\frac{T_2 l_1 + T_1 l_2}{T_1 + T_2}$...
3
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19537
$\text{The normal density of a material is } \rho \text{ and its bulk modulus of elasticity is } K. \text{ The magnitude of the increase in the density of material when a pressure } P \text{ is applied uniformly on all sides, will be:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\rho K}{P}$, $\frac{\rho P}{K}$...
2
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19536
$\text{A cube of metal is subjected to a hydrostatic pressure of } 4 \text{ GPa. The percentage change in the length of the side of the cube is close to:}$ $\text{(Given bulk modulus of metal, } B = 8 \times 10^{10} \text{ Pa)}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $20$...
4
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19535
$\text{The elastic limit of brass is } 400 \text{ MPa. What should be the minimum diameter of a brass rod if it is to support a } 400\pi \text{ N load without exceeding its elastic limit?}$ $1. \ 1 \text{ mm}$ $2. \ 1.5 \text{ mm}$ $3. \ 2 \text{ mm}$ $4. \ 2.5 \text{ mm}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \text{ mm}$, $1.5 \text{ mm}$...
3
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19534
$\text{In an experiment, brass and steel wires of length } 1 \text{ m each with areas of cross section } 1 \text{ mm}^2 \text{ are used.}$ $\text{The wires are connected in series and one end of the combined wire is connected to a rigid support and the other end is subjected to elongation.}$ $\text{The stress required to produce a net elongation of } 0.2 \text{ mm is,}$ $\text{[Given, the Young's Modulus for steel and brass are, respectively, } 120 \times 10^9 \text{ N/m}^2 \text{ and } 60 \times 10^9 \text{ N/m}^2]}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$4.0 \times 10^6 \text{ N/m}^2$, $1.2 \times 10^6 \text{ N/m}^2$...
4
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19533
$\text{Young's moduli of two wires } A \text{ and } B \text{ are in the ratio } 10 : 4.$ $\text{Wire } A \text{ is } 2 \text{ m long and has radius } R.$ $\text{Wire } B \text{ is } 1.6 \text{ m long and has radius } 2 \text{ mm}.$ $\text{If the two wires stretch by the same length for a given load,}$ $\text{then the value of } R \text{ is close to:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{2} \text{ mm}$, $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \text{ mm}$...
1
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19532
$\text{A boy's catapult is made of rubber cord which is } 42 \text{ cm long, with } 6 \text{ mm diameter of a cross-section and of negligible mass. The boy keeps a stone weighing } 0.02 \text{ kg on it and stretches the cord by } 20 \text{ cm by applying a constant force. When released, the stone flies off with a velocity of } 20 \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{ Neglect the change in the area of cross-section of the cord while stretched. The Young's modulus of rubber is closest to:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$10^3 \text{ Nm}^{-2}$, $10^4 \text{ Nm}^{-2}$...
3
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19531
$\text{A steel wire having a radius of } 2.0 \text{ mm, carrying a load of } 4 \text{ kg, is hanging from a ceiling. Given that } g = 3.1\pi \text{ m/s}^2, \text{ what will be the tensile stress that would be developed in the wire?}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$5.2 \times 10^6 \text{ N/m}^2$, $6.2 \times 10^6 \text{ N/m}^2$...
4
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19530
$\text{A solid sphere of radius } r \text{ made of a soft material of bulk modulus } K$ $\text{is surrounded by a liquid in a cylindrical container. A massless piston}$ $\text{of area } a \text{ floats on the surface of the liquid, covering the entire cross-section}$ $\text{of the cylindrical container. When a mass } m \text{ is placed on the}$ $\text{surface of the piston to compress the liquid, the fractional decrement}$ $\text{in the radius of the sphere, } \left( \frac{dr}{r} \right) \text{ is:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{Ka}{mg}$, $\frac{Ka}{3mg}$...
3
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19529
$\text{A man transforms into a giant such that all his linear dimensions become 9 times their original values. Assuming his density remains unchanged, the stress on his legs changes by a factor of:}$
1
108
JEE MCQ NEW
$9$, $\frac{1}{9}$...
1
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19528
$\text{A satellite of } 103 \text{ kg mass is revolving in circular orbit of radius } 2R. \text{ If } \frac{10^4R}{6} \text{ J energy is supplied to the satellite, it would revolve in a new circular orbit of radius: (use } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2, R = \text{ radius of earth})$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.5 R$, $6 R$...
2
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19527
$\text{An astronaut takes a ball of mass } m \text{ from earth to space. He throws the ball into a circular orbit about earth at an altitude of } 318.5 \text{ km.}$ $\text{From earth's surface to the orbit, the change in total mechanical energy of the ball is } x \frac{G M_e m}{21 R_e}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is (take } R_e = 6370 \text{ km)}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$11$, $10$...
1
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19526
$\text{Two planets } A \text{ and } B \text{ having masses } m_1 \text{ and } m_2 \text{ move around the sun in circular orbits of } r_1 \text{ and } r_2 \text{ radii respectively.}$ $\text{If angular momentum of } A \text{ is } L \text{ and that of } B \text{ is } 3L, \text{ the ratio of time period } (T_A/T_B) \text{ is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{27} \left( \frac{m_2}{m_1} \right)^3$, $\left( \frac{r_1}{r_2} \right)^3$...
1
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19525
$\text{Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, a body weighed } 300 \text{ N on the surface of earth. How much it would weight at } \frac{R}{4} \text{ depth under surface of earth?}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$300 \text{ N}$, $75 \text{ N}$...
3
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19524
$\text{To project a body of mass } m \text{ from earth's surface to infinity, the required kinetic energy is (assume, the radius of earth is } R_E, g = \text{acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth):}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$mgR_E$, $\frac{1}{2}mgR_E$...
1
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19523
$\text{A 90 kg body placed at } 2R \text{ distance from surface of earth experiences gravitational pull of } (R = \text{Radius of earth}, g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ N}$, $300 \text{ N}$...
1
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19522
$\text{Correct formula for height of a satellite from earth's surface is -}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{T^2 R^2 g}{4 \pi^2} \right)^{1/3} - R$, $\left( \frac{T^2 R^2 g}{4 \pi} \right)^{1/2} - R$...
1
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19521
$\text{Suppose a situation in which two planet orbits around the sun in the same orbit. If the mass of planet 1 is twice the mass of planet 2, then what do they have same?}$ $1. \text{Potential energy}$ $2. \text{Kinetic energy}$ $3. \text{Total energy}$ $4. \text{Velocity}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Potential energy}$, $\text{Kinetic energy}$...
4
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19520
$\text{A satellite is moving around earth surface. How much minimum speed should be increased so that it escapes from earth surface?}$ $\text{(g = acceleration due to gravity, R = radius of earth)}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\sqrt{gR}$, $\left(\sqrt{2} - 1\right)\sqrt{gR}$...
2
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19519
$\text{If a planet } A' \text{ has density } \rho \text{ and radius } r, \text{ planet } B' \text{ has density } \frac{\rho}{3} \text{ and radius } 4r. \text{ Then, find ratio of their acceleration due to gravity at their surface}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 : 4$, $4 : 3$...
1
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19518
$\text{Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Acceleration due to gravity is minimum at equator.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Rotation of earth influences acceleration.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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19517
$\text{If the time period for one revolution by satellite near the Earth's surface is } T, \text{ then, the time period of revolution of the satellite at a height equal to the radius of the Earth will be:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{8} \, T$, $\sqrt{2} \, T$...
1
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19516
$\text{The mass and radius of orbit for the two satellites are } (m, r) \text{ and } (3m, 3r) \text{ respectively. What will be the ratio of their orbital velocity about the Earth?}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{3} : 1$, $1 : \sqrt{3}$...
1
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19515
$\text{An object weighs } 200 \ N \text{ at the surface of earth. Find the weight at a depth of } \frac{R}{2}, \text{ where } R \text{ is the radius of earth.}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \ N$, $300 \ N$...
1
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19514
$\text{Which of the following expressions gives the value of acceleration}$ $\text{due to gravity } (g') \text{ at the altitude } h \text{ above the surface of the Earth?}$ $(R : \text{radius of Earth}; g : \text{acceleration due to gravity at the surface of Earth})$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$g' = g \frac{h^2}{R^2}$, $g' = \frac{gR^2}{(R+h)^2}$...
2
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19513
$\text{If } W \text{ is the weight on the surface of the Earth, then the weight of the same body at a height of } \frac{R_e}{4} \text{ above the surface of Earth is equal to: } (R_e = \text{radius of Earth})$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{4}{5}W$, $\frac{16}{25}W$...
2
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19512
$\text{On a planet } \rho \text{ (mass density) is same as that of earth while mass of planet is twice than that of earth. Ratio of weight of a body on surface of planet to that on earth is equal to:}$ $1.\ 1$ $2.\ (2)^{1/3}$ $3.\ (2)^{-1/3}$ $4.\ 2$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $(2)^{1/3}$...
2
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19511
$\text{Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Earth has atmosphere and moon doesn’t.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Escape speed on moon is less than that of earth.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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19510
$\text{The ratio of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet 1 and planet 2 is } x \text{ while the ratio of radii of respective planets is } y. \text{ The ratio of respective escape velocity on the surface of planet 1 and planet 2 is equal to:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{x}{y}}$, $\frac{x}{y}$...
3
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19509
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{The value of acceleration due to gravity is same at all the points inside earth assuming it to be made up of uniform density.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{The value of gravitational field increases as we go towards centre in a uniform spherical shell.}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are True.}$, $\text{Statement I is True but Statement II is False.}$...
4
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19508
$\text{A body has weight } W \text{ on the surface of earth. What is the weight at a height } 9 \text{ times the radius of the earth?}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{W}{100}$, $\frac{W}{81}$...
1
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19507
$\text{What is the ratio of acceleration due to gravity at an altitude } h = R$ $\text{to the value at the surface of the earth? (where } R = \text{radius of earth})$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 2$, $1 : 4$...
2
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19506
$\text{An object of mass } 1 \text{ kg is taken to a height from the surface of the Earth which is equal to three times the Earth's radius. The gain in potential energy of the object will be:}$ $\text{(Given: } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2} \text{ and radius of Earth } = 6400 \text{ km)}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$48 \text{ MJ}$, $24 \text{ MJ}$...
1
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19505
$\text{If the acceleration due to gravity experienced by a point mass at a height } h \text{ above the surface of the earth is the same as that of the acceleration due to gravity at a depth } \alpha h \,(h \ll R_e) \text{ from the earth's surface. The value of } \alpha \text{ will be:}$ $\text{(Use } R_e = 6400 \text{ km)}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
1, 2...
2
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19504
$\text{If the radius of the earth shrinks by } 2\% \text{ while its mass remains the same. The acceleration due to gravity on the earth's surface will approximately:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{decrease by } 2\%$, $\text{decrease by } 4\%$...
4
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19503
$\text{A body of mass } m \text{ is projected with velocity } \lambda v_e \text{ in vertically upward}$ $\text{direction from the surface of the earth into space. It is given that } v_e \text{ is}$ $\text{escape velocity and } \lambda < 1. \text{ If air resistance is considered to be}$ $\text{negligible, then the maximum height from the centre of earth, to}$ $\text{which the body can go, will be: } (R: \text{ radius of earth})$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{R}{1+\lambda^2}$, $\frac{R}{1-\lambda^2}$...
2
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19502
$\text{Two satellites, } A \text{ and } B, \text{ have masses in the ratio of } 4 : 3 \text{ and are revolving in circular orbits with radii } 3r \text{ and } 4r \text{ respectively around the Earth. The ratio of the total mechanical energy of the satellite } A \text{ to that of the satellite } B \text{ is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$9 : 16$, $16 : 9$...
2
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19501
$\text{An object is taken to a height above the surface of earth at a distance } \frac{5}{4} R \text{ from the centre of the earth. Where radius of earth, } R = 6400 \text{ km. The percentage decrease in the weight of the object will be:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$36\%$, $50\%$...
1
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19500
$\text{The time period of a satellite revolving around the Earth in a given orbit is } 7 \text{ hours.}$ $\text{If the radius of the orbit is increased to three times its previous value,}$ $\text{then the approximate new time period of the satellite will be:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$40 \text{ hours}$, $36 \text{ hours}$...
2
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19499
$\text{The escape velocity of a body on a planet } A \text{ is } 12 \text{ kms}^{-1}. \text{ The escape velocity of the body on another planet } B, \text{ whose density is four times and radius is half of the planet } A, \text{ is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$12 \text{ kms}^{-1}$, $24 \text{ kms}^{-1}$...
1
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19498
$\text{Two objects of equal masses placed at certain distance from each other attracts each other with a force of } F. \text{ If one-third mass of one object is transferred to the other object, then the new force will be:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2}{9}F$, $\frac{16}{9}F$...
3
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19497
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: The law of gravitation holds good for any pair of bodies in the universe.}$ $\text{Statement II: The weight of any person becomes zero when the person is at the centre of the earth.}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$...
2
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19496
$\text{The height of point } P \text{ above the surface of the earth is equal to the diameter of the earth.}$ $\text{The value of acceleration due to gravity at point } P \text{ will be:}$ $\text{(Given } g = \text{ acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth)}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{g}{2}$, $\frac{g}{4}$...
4
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19495
$\text{The distance between Sun and Earth is } R. \text{ The duration of the year if the distance between Sun and Earth becomes } 3R \text{ will be:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{3} \text{ years}$, $3 \text{ years}$...
4
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19494
$\text{The approximate height from the surface of the earth at which the weight of the body becomes } \frac{1}{3} \text{ of its weight on the surface of the earth is: [Radius of earth } R = 6400 \text{ km and } \sqrt{3} = 1.732]$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$3840 \text{ km}$, $4685 \text{ km}$...
2
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19493
$\text{The mass density of a planet of radius } R \text{ varies with the distance } r$ $\text{from its centre as } \rho(r) = \rho_0 \left(1 - \frac{r^2}{R^2}\right)$ $\text{Then the gravitational field is maximum at:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$r = \sqrt{\frac{3}{4}} R$, $r = \sqrt{\frac{5}{9}} R$...
2
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19492
$\text{If the angular momentum of a planet of mass } m, \text{ moving around the sun in a circular orbit is } L \text{ about the center of the sun, its areal velocity is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{L}{m}$, $\frac{4L}{m}$...
3
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19491
$\text{A solid sphere of mass } 'M' \text{ and radius } 'a' \text{ is surrounded by a uniform concentric spherical shell of thickness } 2a \text{ and mass } 2M. \text{ The gravitational field at distance } '3a' \text{ from the centre will be:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{GM}{9a^2}$, $\frac{2GM}{9a^2}$...
4
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19490
$\text{A rocket has to be launched from earth in such a way that it never returns. If } E \text{ is the minimum energy delivered by the rocket launcher, what should be the minimum energy that the launcher should have if the same rocket is to be launched from the surface of the moon? Assume that the density of the earth and the moon are equal and that the earth's volume is } 64 \text{ times the volume of the moon.}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{E}{4}$, $\frac{E}{32}$...
3
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19489
$\text{The relative uncertainty in the period of a satellite orbiting around the earth is } 10^{-2}. \text{ If the relative uncertainty in the radius of the orbit is negligible, the relative uncertainty in the mass of the earth is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \times 10^{-2}$, $6 \times 10^{-2}$...
1
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19488
$\text{Take the mean distance of the moon and the sun from the earth to be } 0.4 \times 10^6 \text{ km and } 150 \times 10^6 \text{ km respectively. Their masses are } 8 \times 10^{22} \text{ kg and } 2 \times 10^{30} \text{ kg respectively. The radius of the earth is } 6400 \text{ km. Let } \Delta F_1 \text{ be the difference in the forces exerted by the moon at the nearest and farthest point on the earth and } \Delta F_2 \text{ be the difference in the force exerted by the sun at the nearest and farthest points on the earth. Then, the number closest to } \frac{\Delta F_1}{\Delta F_2} \text{ is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$6$, $10^{-2}$...
3
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19487
$\text{A body of mass } m \text{ is moving in a circular orbit of radius } R \text{ about a planet of mass } M. \text{ At some instant, it splits into two equal masses.}$ $\text{The first mass moves in a circular orbit of radius } \frac{R}{2}, \text{ and the other mass, in a circular orbit of radius } \frac{3R}{2}. \text{ The difference between the final and initial total energies is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$+\frac{Gm}{6R}$, $-\frac{GMm}{2R}$...
3
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19486
$\text{If the Earth has no rotational motion, the weight of a person on the equator is } W. \text{ Determine the speed with which the Earth would have to rotate about its axis so that the person at the equator will weigh } \frac{3}{4} W.$ $\text{(The radius of the Earth is } 6400 \text{ km and } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.28 \times 10^{-3} \text{ rad/s}$, $1.1 \times 10^{-3} \text{ rad/s}$...
4
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19485
$\text{Which of the following most closely depicts the correct variation of the gravitation potential } V(r) \text{ due to a large planet of radius } R \text{ and uniform mass density? (figures are not drawn to scale)}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Option 1: Graph with initial increase and then constant}$, $\text{Option 2: Graph with initial decrease}$...
3
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19484
$\text{A very long (length } L) \text{ cylindrical galaxy is made of uniformly}$ $\text{distributed mass and has radius } R (R \gg L). \text{ A star outside the}$ $\text{galaxy is orbiting the galaxy in a plane perpendicular to the galaxy}$ $\text{and passing through its centre. If the time period of the star is } T \text{ and}$ $\text{its distance from the galaxy's axis is } r, \text{ then:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$T \propto r$, $T \propto \sqrt{r}$...
4
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19483
$\text{A planet at a distance } r \text{ from the sun takes 200 days to complete one revolution around the sun.}$ $\text{What will be time period for a planet at distance } \frac{r}{4} \text{ from the sun?}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$50 \text{ days}$, $25 \text{ days}$...
2
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19482
$\text{If an object has the same weight at the same distance above and below the surface of the earth, then its distance from the surface of the earth is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{R}{2}$, $(\sqrt{5} - 1) \frac{R}{2}$...
2
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19481
$\text{If the diameter of the earth becomes half keeping mass constant,}$ $\text{then the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth}$ $\text{becomes:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{half}$, $\text{four times}$...
2
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19480
$\text{Two identical particles each of mass } m, \text{ move in circular path due to their own mutual gravitational force.}$ $\text{Find the velocity of the particle if the radius of circular path is } a$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{4Gm}{a}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{Gm}{2a}}$...
4
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19479
$\text{A particle is released from a height equal to radius of earth, } R. \text{ Its velocity when it strikes the ground is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{gR}$, $\sqrt{\frac{gR}{2}}$...
1
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19478
$\text{Planet } A \text{ has a density and radius represented by } \rho \text{ and } R \text{ respectively, while planet } B \text{ has a density of } \frac{\rho}{2} \text{ and a radius of } 1.5R. \text{ If } g_{AS} \text{ and } g_{BS} \text{ denote the acceleration at the surface of planets } A \text{ and } B \text{ respectively, then the ratio } \frac{g_{BS}}{g_{AS}} =$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3}{2}$, $\frac{3}{4}$...
2
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19477
$\text{A planet has a mass equal to 16 times the mass of Earth, and a radius equal to 4 times that of Earth. The ratio of the escape speed of the planet to that of Earth will be:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 : 1$, $1 : 2$...
1
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19476
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: If total energy of a satellite revolving around earth in circular path is } E, \text{ then potential energy of satellite is } 2E.$ $\text{Statement II: Kinetic energy is also twice of total energy.}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$...
4
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19475
$\text{The weight of an object on the earth's surface is } 400 \text{ N. What would be the weight of the same object at a depth } \frac{R}{2} \text{ from the surface?}$ $\text{(where } R \text{ is the radius of the earth)}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ N}$, $300 \text{ N}$...
3
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19474
$\text{Consider the following statements:}$ $\text{(A) Planets revolve around the Sun with constant linear speed.}$ $\text{(B) The energy of a planet in an elliptical orbit is constant.}$ $\text{(C) A satellite in circular motion has constant energy.}$ $\text{(D) A body falling towards the Earth results in negligible displacement of the Earth.}$ $\text{Choose the incorrect statement from the given ones:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{A}) \text{ only}$, $(\text{B}) \text{ only}$...
1
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19473
$\text{If mass of a planet is 9 times that of the earth and radius is 2 times that of the earth, then the escape speed from this planet is:}$ $\left(v_e \text{ is escape speed from the Earth.}\right)$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{v_e}{\sqrt{2}}$, $\frac{v_e}{2\sqrt{2}}$...
3
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19472
$\text{At depth } d \text{ from the surface of the earth acceleration due to gravity is}$ $\text{same as its value at height } d \text{ above the surface of the earth. If the}$ $\text{earth is a sphere of radius } 6400 \text{ km, then the value of } d \text{ is equal to:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$2975 \text{ km}$, $3955 \text{ km}$...
2
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19471
$\text{A particle is released at a height equal to the radius of the earth above the surface of the earth. Its velocity when it hits the surface of the earth is equal to:}$ $\text{(Where, } M_e = \text{mass of earth, } R_e = \text{radius of the earth.)}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{2GM_e}{R_e}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{GM_e}{2R_e}}$...
3
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19470
$\text{Two point masses (mass } m \text{ each) are moving in a circle of radius } R \text{ under mutual gravitational attraction. What is the speed of each mass?}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{GM}{4R}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{GM}{2R}}$...
1
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19469
$\text{An object of mass } m \text{ is placed at a height } R_e \text{ from the surface of the earth.}$ $\text{What is the increase in potential energy of the object if the height of the object is increased to } 2R_e \text{ from the surface?}$ $(R_e : \text{ Radius of the earth})$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{3}mgR_e$, $\frac{1}{6}mgR_e$...
2
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19468
$\text{The period of a pendulum at the earth's surface is } T. \text{ The time period of the pendulum at distance (from centre) which is twice the radius of the earth is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{T}{4}$, $4T$...
4
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19467
$\text{If the weight of an object at the Earth's surface is } 18 \text{ N, what will be its weight when taken to a height of } 3200 \text{ km above the surface?}$ $\text{(Given: radius of Earth } = 6400 \text{ km)}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$9 \text{ N}$, $8 \text{ N}$...
2
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19466
$\text{A body is projected vertically upwards from the surface of the earth with a velocity equal to one-third of escape velocity. The maximum height attained by the body will be:}$ $\text{(take the radius of the Earth } R = 6400 \text{ km and } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2 )$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$800 \text{ km}$, $1600 \text{ km}$...
1
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19465
$\text{The percentage decrease in the weight of a rocket, when it is taken to a height of } 32 \text{ km above the surface of the Earth will be:}$ $\text{(radius of the Earth } R = 6400 \text{ km)}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$1\%$, $3\%$...
1
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19464
$\text{Three identical particles } A, B, \text{ and } C \text{ of mass } 100 \text{ kg each are placed in a straight line with } AB = BC = 13 \text{ m.}$ $\text{The gravitational force on a fourth particle } P \text{ of the same mass is } F, \text{ when placed at a distance of } 13 \text{ m from particle } B \text{ on the perpendicular bisector of the line } AC. \text{ The value of } F \text{ will be approximately:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$21G$, $100G$...
2
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19463
$\text{Two planets } A \text{ and } B \text{ of equal masses are having their periods of revolution } T_A \text{ and } T_B \text{ such that } T_A = 2T_B. \text{ These planets are revolving in the circular orbits of radii } r_A \text{ and } r_B \text{ respectively. Which of the following would be the correct relationship of their orbits?}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$2r_A^2 = r_B^2$, $r_A^3 = 2r_B^3$...
3
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19462
$\text{Four spheres each of mass } m \text{ form a square of side } d \text{ (as shown in the figure).}$ $\text{A fifth sphere of mass } M \text{ is situated at the centre of the square.}$ $\text{The total gravitational potential energy of the system is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$-\frac{Gm}{d} \left[(4 + \sqrt{2})m + 4\sqrt{2}M\right]$, $-\frac{GM}{d} \left[(4 + \sqrt{2})M + 4\sqrt{2}m\right]$...
1
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19461
$\text{Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of}$ $\text{acceleration due to gravity } g \text{ with distance } r \text{ from the centre of the}$ $\text{Earth? Assume } R \text{ is the radius of the Earth.}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
1
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19460
$\text{Two satellites } S_1 \text{ and } S_2 \text{ are revolving in circular orbits around a planet with radius } R_1 = 3200 \text{ km and } R_2 = 800 \text{ km respectively.}$ $\text{The ratio of the speed of the satellite } S_1 \text{ to the speed of the satellite } S_2 \text{ in their respective orbits would be:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2}$, $\frac{1}{3}$...
1
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19459
$\text{In the reported figure of earth, the value of acceleration due to gravity is same at point } A \text{ and } C \text{ but it is smaller than that of its value at point } B \text{ (surface of the earth). The value of } OA : OB \text{ will be:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 : 5$, $5 : 4$...
1
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19458
$\text{A planet revolving in an elliptical orbit has:}$ $\text{(A) A constant velocity of revolution.}$ $\text{(B) Has the least velocity when it is nearest to the Sun.}$ $\text{(C) Its areal velocity is directly proportional to its velocity.}$ $\text{(D) Areal velocity is inversely proportional to its velocity.}$ $\text{(E) To follow a trajectory such that the areal velocity is constant.}$
1
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JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{(A) only}$, $\text{(D) only}$...
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19457
$\text{Determine the gravitational force of attraction between a ring and a sphere as shown in the figure, where the plane of the ring is perpendicular to the line joining their centres.}$ $\text{Given that the distance between the centres of the ring (of mass } m \text{) and the sphere (of mass } M \text{) is } \sqrt{8}R, \text{ and both have the same radius } R.$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\sqrt{8}}{9} \cdot \frac{GmM}{R}$, $\frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3} \cdot \frac{GMm}{R^2}$...
4
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19456
$\text{The initial velocity } v_i \text{ required to project a body vertically upward from the surface of the earth to reach a height of } 10R, \text{ where } R \text{ is the radius of the earth, may be described in terms of escape velocity } v_e \text{ such that } v_i = \sqrt{\frac{x}{y}} \times v_e. \text{ The value of } x \text{ will be:}$ $1. \ 10$ $2. \ 20$ $3. \ 30$ $4. \ 40$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$10$, $20$...
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19455
$\text{Select the correct option based on the statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The escape velocities of planets } A \text{ and } B \text{ are the same. But } A \text{ and } B \text{ are of unequal mass.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The product of their mass and radius must be the same, } M_1R_1 = M_2R_2.$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{(A) is True but (R) is False.}$...
2
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19454
$\text{A solid sphere of radius } R \text{ gravitationally attracts a particle placed at } 3R \text{ form its centre with a force } F_1. \text{ Now a spherical cavity of radius } \frac{R}{2} \text{ is made in the sphere (as shown in figure) and the force becomes } F_2. \text{ The value of } F_1 : F_2 \text{ is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$25 : 36$, $36 : 25$...
3
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19453
$\text{Two satellites A and B of masses 200 kg and 400 kg are revolving round the earth at height of 600 km and 1600 km respectively.}$ $\text{If } T_A \text{ and } T_B \text{ are the time periods of } A \text{ and } B \text{ respectively then the value of } T_B - T_A \text{ is:}$ $\text{[Given : radius of earth = 6400 km, mass of earth = } 6 \times 10^{24} \text{]}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.33 \times 10^3 \text{ s}$, $3.33 \times 10^2 \text{ s}$...
1
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19452
$\text{A body weighs } 49 \text{ N on a spring balance at the north pole. What will be its weight recorded on the same weighing machine, if it is shifted to the equator? (use } g = \frac{GM}{R^2} = 9.8 \text{ ms}^{-2} \text{ radius of earth, } R = 6400 \text{ km.})$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$49 \text{ N}$, $48.83 \text{ N}$...
2
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19451
$\text{Consider two satellites, } S_1 \text{ and } S_2, \text{ with periods of revolution } 1 \text{ hr and } 8 \text{ hr, respectively revolving around a planet in circular orbits.}$ $\text{The ratio of the angular velocity of the satellite } S_1 \text{ to the angular velocity of the satellite } S_2 \text{ is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$8 : 1$, $1 : 4$...
1
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19450
$\text{Four identical particles of equal masses } 1 \text{ kg made to move along the circumference of a circle of radius } 1 \text{ m under the action of their own mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle will be:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{G}{2} \left(1 + 2\sqrt{2}\right)}$, $\sqrt{G \left(1 + 2\sqrt{2}\right)}$...
4
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19449
$\text{Two stars of masses } m \text{ and } 2m \text{ at a distance } d \text{ rotate about their common centre of mass in free space. The period of revolution is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2\pi} \sqrt{\frac{d^3}{3Gm}}$, $2\pi \sqrt{\frac{d^3}{3Gm}}$...
2
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19448
$\text{Two planets have masses } M \text{ and } 16M \text{ and their radii are } a \text{ and } 2a, \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{The separation between the centres of the planets is } 10a. \text{ A body of mass } m \text{ is fired from the surface of the larger planet}$ $\text{towards the smaller planet along the line joining their centres.}$ $\text{For the body to be able to reach at the surface of smaller planet, the}$ $\text{minimum firing speed needed is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{GM^2}{ma}}$, $\frac{3}{2} \sqrt{\frac{5GM}{a}}$...
2
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19447
$\text{A satellite is in an elliptical orbit around a planet } P. \text{ It is observed that the velocity of the satellite when it is farthest from the planet is } 6 \text{ times less than that when it is closest to the planet. The ratio of distances between the satellite and the planet at closest and farthest points is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 3$, $1 : 2$...
4
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19446
$\text{The acceleration due to gravity on the earth's surface at the poles is } g$ $\text{and the angular velocity of the earth about the axis passing through the pole is } \omega.$ $\text{An object is weighed at the equator and at a height } h$ $\text{above the poles by using a spring balance. If the weights are found to be same, then } h \text{ is: } (h \ll R, \text{ where } R \text{ is the radius of the earth})$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{R^2 \omega^2}{8g}$, $\frac{R^2 \omega^2}{4g}$...
4
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19445
$\text{The value of the acceleration due to gravity is } g_1 \text{ at a height } h = \frac{R}{2} \ (R = \text{radius of the earth}) \text{ from the surface of the earth. It is again equal to } g_1 \text{ at a depth } d \text{ below the surface of the earth. The ratio } \frac{d}{R} \text{ equals:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{7}{9}$, $\frac{4}{9}$...
4
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19444
$\text{A body is moving in a low circular orbit about a planet of mass } M \text{ and radius } R. \text{ The radius of the orbit can be taken to be } R \text{ itself.}$ $\text{Then the ratio of the speed of this body in the orbit to the escape velocity from the planet is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{2}$, $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$...
2
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19443
$\text{On the } x\text{-axis at a distance } x \text{ from the origin, the gravitational field}$ $\text{due to a mass distribution is given by } \frac{Ax}{(x^2+a^2)^{3/2}} \text{ in the } x\text{-direction.}$ $\text{The magnitude of gravitational potential on the } x\text{-axis at a distance } x,$ $\text{taking its value to be zero at infinity, is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{(x^2+a^2)^{3/2}}$, $A(x^2+a^2)^{1/2}$...
4
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19442
$\text{A satellite is moving in a low nearly circular orbit around the earth. Its radius is roughly equal to that of the earth's radius } R_e. \text{ By firing rockets attached to it, its speed is instantaneously increased in the direction of its motion so that is become } \sqrt{\frac{3}{2}} \text{ times larger. Due to this the farthest distance from the centre of the earth that the satellite reaches is } R. \text{ Value of } R \text{ is ?}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$2R_e$, $2.5R_e$...
3
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19441
$\text{The height } 'h' \text{ at which the weight of a body will be the same as that at the same depth } 'h' \text{ from the surface of the earth is (Radius of the earth is } R \text{ and effect of the rotation of the earth is neglected):}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\sqrt{5}R - R}{2}$, $\frac{\sqrt{5}}{2} R - R$...
1
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19440
$\text{The mass density of a spherical galaxy varies as } \frac{K}{r} \text{ over a large distance } r \text{ from its centre.}$ $\text{In that region, a small star is in a circular orbit of radius } R. \text{ Then the period of revolution, } T \text{ depends on } R \text{ as:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$T \propto R$, $T^2 \propto \frac{1}{R^3}$...
3
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19439
$\text{The energy required to take a satellite to a height } h \text{ above the Earth's surface (radius of Earth } R = 6.4 \times 10^3 \text{ km) is } E_1 \text{ and kinetic energy required for the satellite to be in a circular orbit at this height is } E_2. \text{ The value of } h \text{ for which } E_1 \text{ and } E_2 \text{ are equal is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.6 \times 10^3 \text{ km}$, $3.2 \times 10^3 \text{ km}$...
2
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19438
$\text{The ratio of the weights of a body on the Earth's surface to that on}$ $\text{the surface of a planet is } 9 : 4. \text{ The mass of the planet is } \left( \frac{1}{9} \right)^{\text{th}}$ $\text{that of the Earth. If } R \text{ is the radius of the Earth, what is the radius of}$ $\text{the planet? (Take the planets to have the same mass density)}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{R}{9}$, $\frac{R}{2}$...
2
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19437
$\text{The value of acceleration due to gravity at Earth's surface is } 9.8 \text{ ms}^{-2}. $ $\text{The altitude above its surface at which the acceleration due to gravity decreases to } 4.9 \text{ ms}^{-2}, \text{ is close to:}$ $\text{(Radius of earth = } 6.4 \times 10^6 \text{ m)}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$6.4 \times 10^6 \text{ m}$, $9.0 \times 10^6 \text{ m}$...
3
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19436
$\text{A test particle is moving in a circular orbit in the gravitational field produced by a mass density } \rho(r) = \frac{K}{r^2}. \text{ Identify the correct relation between the radius } R \text{ of the particle's orbit and its period } T:$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{T}{R^2} \text{ is a constant}$, $\frac{T}{R} \text{ is a constant}$...
2
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19435
$\text{Four identical particles of mass } M \text{ are located at the corners of a square of side } 'a'. \text{ What should be their speed if each of them revolves under the influence of another gravitational field in a circular orbit circumscribing the square?}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.16 \sqrt{\frac{GM}{a}}$, $1.21 \sqrt{\frac{GM}{a}}$...
1
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19434
$\text{A satellite is revolving in a circular orbit at a height } h \text{ from the earth's surface (radius of earth } R; h \ll R).$ $\text{The minimum increase in its orbital velocity required, so that the satellite could escape from the earth's gravitational field is close to: (Neglect the effect of the atmosphere.)}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{2gR}$, $\sqrt{gR}$...
4
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19433
$\text{Four particles, each of mass } M \text{ and equidistant from each other, move along a circle of radius } R \text{ under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle is:}$
1
107
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{2\sqrt{2} \frac{GM}{R}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{GM}{R} \left(1 + 2\sqrt{2}\right)}$...
3
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19432
$\text{A heavy iron bar, of weight } W \text{ is having its one end on the ground and the other on the shoulder of a person. The bar makes an angle } \theta \text{ with the horizontal. The weight experienced by the person is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{W}{2}$, $W \sin \theta$...
1
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19431
$\text{Three bodies } A, B \text{ and } C \text{ have equal kinetic energies and their masses are } 400 \text{ g, } 1.2 \text{ kg and } 1.6 \text{ kg respectively. The ratio of their linear momenta is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : \sqrt{3} : 2$, $1 : \sqrt{3} : \sqrt{2}$...
1
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19430
$\text{When kinetic energy of a body becomes } 36 \text{ times of its original value, the percentage increase in the momentum of the body will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$600\%$, $500\%$...
2
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19429
$\text{Four particles A, B, C, D of mass } \frac{m}{2}, \ m, \ 2m, \ 4m \text{ have the same momentum, respectively. The particle with maximum kinetic energy is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A}$, $\text{D}$...
1
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19428
$\text{What is the centre of gravity of semi-circular disc of radius } (R)?$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2R}{\pi}$, $\frac{4R}{3\pi}$...
2
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19427
$\text{A uniform solid sphere is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface.}$ $\text{The ratio of translational kinetic energy to the total kinetic energy is } \frac{5}{x}. \text{ Find the value of } x.$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $3$...
4
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19426
$\text{Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Fan spins even after switch is in OFF.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Fan in rotation has rotational inertia.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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19425
$\text{For a uniform disc, the moment of inertia about diameter is } \frac{MR^2}{4},$ $\text{where } M \text{ is mass and } R \text{ is radius of the disc.}$ $\text{The moment of inertia about tangent parallel to diameter is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3}{4}MR^2$, $\frac{5}{4}MR^2$...
2
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19424
$\text{A massless rod is arranged as shown in the figure. The tension in the string is:}$ $\text{(Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\text{)}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$320 \text{ N}$, $640 \text{ N}$...
1
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19423
$\text{The torque of a force } 5\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - 7\hat{k} \text{ about the origin is } \tau. \text{ If the force acts on a particle whose position vector is } 2\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + \hat{k}, \text{ then the value of } \tau \text{ will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$11\hat{i} + 19\hat{j} - 4\hat{k}$, $-11\hat{i} + 9\hat{j} - 16\hat{k}$...
3
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19422
$\text{The radius of gyration of a cylindrical rod of length } 10\sqrt{3} \text{ m about an axis of rotation perpendicular to its length and passing through the center will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \text{ m}$, $3 \text{ m}$...
1
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19421
$\text{A disc of mass } 1 \text{ kg and radius } R \text{ is free to rotate about a horizontal axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to the plane of the disc. A body of the same mass as that of the disc is fixed at the highest point of the disc. Now the system is released. When the body comes to the lowest position, its angular speed will be: (take } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \sqrt{\frac{5}{3R}} \text{ rad/s}$, $4 \sqrt{\frac{4}{3R}} \text{ rad/s}$...
1
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19420
$\text{Three identical spheres, each of mass } M, \text{ are placed at the corners of a right-angled triangle with mutually perpendicular sides equal to } 3 \text{ m each.}$ $\text{Taking the point of intersection of mutually perpendicular sides as the origin, the magnitude of the position vector of the centre of mass of the system will be } \sqrt{x} \text{ m.}$ $\text{The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
4, 5...
3
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19419
$\text{The moment of Inertia (M.I.) of four bodies having the same mass } M \text{ and radius } 2R \text{ are as follows:}$ $1.\ I_1 = \text{M.I. of a solid sphere about its diameter}$ $2.\ I_2 = \text{M.I. of solid cylinder about its axis}$ $3.\ I_3 = \text{M.I. of a solid circular disc about its diameter}$ $4.\ I_4 = \text{M.I. of a thin circular ring about its diameter}$ $\text{If } 2(I_2 + I_3) + I_4 = xI_1, \text{ then the value of } x \text{ will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $5$...
2
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19418
$\text{If a force } \vec{F} = 3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} - 2\hat{k} \text{ acts on a particle having a position vector } 2\hat{i} + \hat{j} + 2\hat{k}, \text{ then the torque about the origin will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} - 2\hat{k}$, $-10\hat{i} + 10\hat{j} + 5\hat{k}$...
2
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19417
$\text{A person with a mass of } 80 \text{ kg is standing on the rim of a circular platform with a mass of } 200 \text{ kg and rotating about its axis at a speed of } 5 \text{ revolutions per minute (rpm). As the person moves toward the centre of the platform, what will be the platform's new rotational speed (in rpm) once the person reaches its centre?}$ $1.\ 3$ $2.\ 6$ $3.\ 9$ $4.\ 12$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $6$...
3
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19416
$\text{Two uniform circular discs are rotating independently in the same direction around their common axis passing through their centres.}$ $\text{The moment of inertia and angular velocity of the first disc are } 0.1 \text{ kg-m}^2 \text{ and } 10 \text{ rad s}^{-1} \text{ respectively}$ $\text{while those for the second one are } 0.2 \text{ kg-m}^2 \text{ and } 5 \text{ rad s}^{-1} \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{At some instant, they get stuck together and start rotating as a single system about their common axis with some angular speed.}$ $\text{The Kinetic energy of the combined system is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{10}{3} \text{ J}$, $\frac{2}{3} \text{ J}$...
4
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19415
$\text{A solid sphere of mass } M \text{ and radius } R \text{ is divided into two unequal parts.}$ $\text{The first part has a mass of } \frac{7M}{8} \text{ and is converted into a uniform disc of radius } 2R.$ $\text{The second part is converted into a uniform solid sphere.}$ $\text{Let } I_1 \text{ be the moment of inertia of the disc about its axis and } I_2 \text{ be the moment of inertia of the new sphere about its axis.}$ $\text{The ratio } \frac{I_1}{I_2} \text{ is given by:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
65, 140...
2
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19414
$\text{Two coaxial discs, having moments of inertia } I_1 \text{ and } \frac{I_1}{2} \text{ are rotating}$ $\text{with respective angular velocities } \omega_1 \text{ and } \frac{\omega_1}{2}, \text{ about their common}$ $\text{axis. They are brought in contact with each other and thereafter they}$ $\text{rotate with a common angular velocity. If } E_f \text{ and } E_i \text{ are the final and}$ $\text{initial total energies, then } (E_f - E_i) \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{I_1 \omega_1^2}{6}$, $\frac{3}{8} I_1 \omega_1^2$...
4
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19413
$\text{A thin circular plate of mass } M \text{ and radius } R \text{ has its density varying as } \rho(r) = \rho_0 r \text{ with } \rho_0 \text{ as constant and } r \text{ is the distance from its center.}$ $\text{The moment of inertia of the circular plate about an axis perpendicular to the plate and passing through its edge is } I = \alpha MR^2. \text{ The value of the coefficient } \alpha \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3}{2}$, $\frac{1}{2}$...
3
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19412
$\text{A thin circular disk is in the } xy \text{ plane as shown in the figure. The ratio of its moment of inertia about } z \text{ and } z' \text{ axes will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 4$, $1 : 5$...
3
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19411
$\text{Suppose that the angular velocity of the rotation of the earth is increased. Then as a consequence:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Weight of the objects everywhere on the earth will decrease}$, $\text{Weight of the objects everywhere on the earth will increase}$...
3
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19410
$\text{A force of } 40 \text{ N acts on a point } B \text{ at the end of an } L\text{-shaped object}$ $\text{as shown in the figure. The angle } \theta \text{ that will produce the maximum}$ $\text{moment of the force about the point } A \text{ is given by:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\tan \theta = 4$, $\tan \theta = \frac{1}{4}$...
3
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19409
$\text{The moment of inertia of an equilateral triangular lamina } ABC, \text{ about the axis passing through its centre } O \text{ and perpendicular to its plane is } I_0 \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{A cavity } DEF \text{ is cut out from the lamina, where } D, E, F \text{ are the midpoints of the sides.}$ $\text{The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the lamina about the same axis is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{31}{32} I_0$, $\frac{3}{4} I_0$...
4
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19408
$\text{A uniform disc of radius } R \text{ and mass } M \text{ is free to rotate only about its axis.}$ $\text{A string is wrapped over its rim and a body of mass } m \text{ is tied to the free end of the string as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The body is released from rest. Then the acceleration of the body is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2Mg}{2m+M}$, $\frac{2m+M}{2Mg}$...
2
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19407
$\text{A physical balance operates on the principle of moments. When a weight of } 5 \text{ mg is placed on the left pan, the beam becomes horizontal. The two empty pans are of equal mass. Which of the following statements is correct?}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{The left arm is shorter than the right arm.}$, $\text{Both arms are of equal length.}$...
1
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19406
$\text{A uniform thin rod } AB \text{ of length } L \text{ has linear mass density } \mu(x) = a + \frac{bx}{L}, \text{ where } x \text{ is measured from } A.$ $\text{If the centre of mass of the rod lies at a distance of } \left(\frac{7}{12}\right)L \text{ from } A, \text{ then } a \text{ and } b \text{ are related as:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$a = 2b$, $2a = b$...
2
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19405
$\text{A particle of mass } 2 \text{ kg is on a smooth horizontal table and moves in a circular path of radius } 0.6 \text{ m.}$ $\text{The height of the table from the ground is } 0.8 \text{ m.}$ $\text{If the angular speed of the particle is } 12 \text{ rad s}^{-1},$ $\text{the magnitude of its angular momentum about a point on the ground right under the centre of the circle is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$14.4 \text{ kg m}^2\text{s}^{-1}$, $8.64 \text{ kg m}^2\text{s}^{-1}$...
1
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19404
$\text{A uniform solid cylindrical roller of mass } 'm' \text{ is being pulled on a horizontal surface with force } F \text{ parallel to the surface and applied at its centre.}$ $\text{If the acceleration of the cylinder is } 'a' \text{ and it is rolling without slipping then the value of } 'F' \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$ma$, $2ma$...
4
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19403
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ is projected with speed } v \text{ at an angle of } 30^\circ \text{ with the horizontal.}$ $\text{When the particle is at the maximum height, its angular momentum about the point of projection is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{mv^3}{16g}$, $\frac{\sqrt{3}mv^3}{16g}$...
2
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19402
$\text{A solid cylinder is placed gently over an inclined plane of inclination } 60^\circ. \text{ The acceleration of the cylinder, when it starts rolling without slipping, is } \frac{g}{\sqrt{x}}, \text{ where } \mu \text{ is coefficient of friction.}$ $\left( \text{Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2 \right)$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
3, 2...
1
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19401
$\text{A uniform ring and uniform solid sphere roll down the same inclined plane at the same distance. If the ratio of their translational kinetic energies is } \frac{7}{x} \text{ then } x \text{ is: (Given mass and radius of the ring and sphere are equal)}$ $1. \ 10$ $2. \ 15$ $3. \ 20$ $4. \ 35$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$10$, $15$...
1
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19400
$\text{A man holding a rod of mass } m \text{ as shown in the figure. Find the weight of the rod experienced by him.}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{mg}{2}$, $\frac{mg}{4}$...
2
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19399
$\text{For the given system (see figure), the moment of inertia about the diagonal is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \text{ kg-m}^2$, $2 \text{ kg-m}^2$...
3
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19398
$\text{A body of mass } 1000 \text{ kg is moving horizontally with a velocity } 6 \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{Another body of mass } 200 \text{ kg is added gently.}$ $\text{Then what will be its new velocity?}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \text{ m/s}$, $4 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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19397
$\text{What is the ratio of the radius of gyration of a solid sphere to that of a solid cylinder, given that both objects have the same mass and radius?}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}}$, $\frac{\sqrt{5}}{2}$...
1
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19396
$\text{A force of } 54.4 \text{ N is applied on the free end of a string wrapped around a solid cylinder of mass } 15 \text{ kg and radius } 10 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder?}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$94.10 \text{ rad/s}^2$, $72.5 \text{ rad/s}^2$...
2
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19395
$\text{Solid sphere rolls on horizontal plane. Ratio of angular momentum about COM to total energy is } \frac{\pi}{22}. \text{ The angular velocity of the solid sphere in (rad/s) is:}$ $1.\ 4$ $2.\ 3$ $3.\ 2$ $4.\ 1$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $3$...
1
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19394
$\text{What is the displacement of point } A \text{ on the top of the disc rolling without slipping on horizontal surface with angular speed } \omega, \text{ in half rotation?}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$R \sqrt{\pi^2 + \frac{2}{4}}$, $R \sqrt{\pi^2 + \frac{1}{4}}$...
3
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19393
$\text{Two bodies with equal linear momentum have a kinetic energy ratio of } 16 : 9. \text{ What is the ratio of their masses?}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{9}{16}$, $\frac{4}{3}$...
1
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19392
$\text{A body is rotating with kinetic energy, } E. \text{ If the angular velocity of the body is increased to three times of the initial angular velocity then kinetic energy becomes } nE. \text{ What would be the value of } n?$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $7$...
3
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19391
$\text{A force } \vec{F} = -c\hat{k} \text{ is acting on a particle at the origin. The torque of this force about the point } (-2, 3, 0) \text{ is given by } -c(A\hat{i} + B\hat{j}).$ $\text{If } \frac{A}{B} = \frac{x}{2}, \text{ then the value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2}{3}$, $3$...
2
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19390
$\text{Earth shrinks to } \frac{1}{64} \text{ times of its initial volume. Time period of earth rotation is found to be } \frac{24}{x} \text{ hrs. The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$16$, $20$...
1
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19389
$\text{A body of mass } 5 \text{ kg has the linear momentum of } 100 \text{ kg ms}^{-1} \text{ and acted upon by the force of } 2 \text{ N for } 2 \text{ seconds, then change in kinetic energy in Joule is:}$ $1. \ 100 \text{ J}$ $2. \ 90 \text{ J}$ $3. \ 204 \text{ J}$ $4. \ 81.6 \text{ J}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ J}$, $90 \text{ J}$...
4
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19388
$\text{Momentum of a particle is increased by } 50\% \text{ by keeping its mass constant. Percentage increase in kinetic energy of particle is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$50\%$, $125\%$...
2
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19387
$\text{The moment of inertia of a semi-circular ring of mass } M \text{ and radius } R \text{ about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$MR^2$, $\frac{1}{2}MR^2$...
1
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19386
$\text{A solid sphere and a ring have equal masses and equal radii of gyration. If the sphere is rotating about its diameter and the ring about an axis passing through and perpendicular to its plane, then the ratio of the radii is } \sqrt{\frac{x}{2}}. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $2$...
1
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19385
$\text{Two solid spheres of mass } m = \frac{1}{2} \text{ kg each are connected at the ends of a light rod as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The assembly rotates about axis AA'. Then moment of inertia of the assembly is equal to } \frac{x}{5} \text{ kgm}^2 \text{ value of } x \text{ is equal to:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
1.27, 3.14...
1
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19384
$\text{A uniform solid cylinder of radius } R, \text{ is released from a } 600 \text{ m long}$ $\text{ramp, inclined at } 30^\circ \text{ from the horizontal. The time taken to reach the}$ $\text{bottom of the ramp is:}$ $\text{(Consider sufficient friction for pure rolling.)}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$60 \text{ s}$, $6\sqrt{10} \text{ s}$...
2
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19383
$\text{Two discs of the same mass, radii } r_1, r_2, \text{ thickness 1 mm and 0.5 mm, have densities in the ratio } 3 : 1. \text{ The ratio of their moment of inertia about their diameter is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$6 : 1$, $1 : 6$...
2
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19382
$\text{Match the physical quantities given in Column-I with the physical dimensions in Column-II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column-I} & \text{Column-II} \\ \hline \text{(A) Torque} & \text{(P)} \ [ML^{-1}T^{-2}] \\ \text{(B) Stress} & \text{(Q)} \ [ML^2T^{-2}] \\ \text{(C) Pressure Gradient} & \text{(R)} \ [ML^{-2}T^{-2}] \\ \text{(D) Angular momentum} & \text{(S)} \ [ML^{-2}T^{-1}] \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct option from the given ones:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A - S, B - P, C - R, D - Q}$, $\text{A - Q, B - P, C - R, D - S}$...
2
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19381
$\text{A solid sphere is rolling on a smooth surface with kinetic energy equal to } 7 \times 10^{-3} \text{ J. If the mass of the sphere is 1 kg, then the speed of the centre of mass is: (Consider pure rolling)}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \text{ m/s}$, $10 \text{ cm/s}$...
2
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19380
$\text{A disc of radius } R \text{ is given by } \omega_0 \text{ angular speed and placed gently on a rough horizontal surface.}$ $\text{What is the velocity of center of the disc when pure rolling starts?}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{R\omega_0}{3}$, $R\omega_0$...
1
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19379
$\text{A solid sphere is released from point } O \text{ at the top of an incline as shown.}$ $\text{If the sphere rolls down the inclined plane without slipping,}$ $\text{the velocity of centre of mass of the sphere at the bottommost point}$ $\text{of the incline is: } (g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \text{ m/s}$, $7 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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19378
$\text{A disk and a solid sphere (dark boundary) of the same radius are rotated as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{If masses of disk and solid sphere are 4 kg and 5 kg respectively then,}$ \frac{I_{\text{disc}}}{I_{\text{solid sphere}}} = $
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
\frac{7}{5}, \frac{25}{28}...
3
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19377
$\text{Let } I_{cm} \text{ be the moment of Inertia of the disc passing through centre}$ $\text{and perpendicular to its plane. } I_{AB} \text{ be the moment of inertia about}$ $\text{axis } AB \text{ that is in the plane of the disc and } \frac{2r}{3} \text{ distance from centre.}$ $\text{Then } \frac{I_{cm}}{I_{AB}} =$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{4}$, $\frac{18}{25}$...
2
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19376
$\text{A ring of uniform wire and radius } 5 \text{ cm is made to rotate about a coplanar axis, which is at a distance of } 10 \text{ cm from the centre of the ring as shown. The radius of gyration of the ring about the axis is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{15}{\sqrt{3}} \text{ cm}$, $15 \text{ cm}$...
4
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19375
$\text{The radius of gyration for the uniform solid sphere of radius } 5 \text{ cm}$ $\text{about the axis } PQ, \text{ as shown in the figure is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \text{ cm}$, $10 \text{ cm}$...
3
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19374
$\text{Two bodies of masses } 1 \text{ kg and } 3 \text{ kg have position vectors } (\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + \hat{k}) \text{ and } (-3\hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + \hat{k}) \text{ respectively. The magnitude of the position vector of the centre-of-mass of this system will be similar to the magnitude of the vector:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + \hat{k}$, $-3\hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + \hat{k}$...
1
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19373
$\text{Four identical discs each of mass } M \text{ and diameter } a \text{ are arranged in}$ $\text{a small plane as shown in figure. If the moment of inertia of the}$ $\text{system about } OO' \text{ is } \frac{x}{4}Ma^2. \text{ Then, the value of } x \text{ will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $3$...
2
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19372
$\text{A solid cylinder is suspended symmetrically through two massless strings, as shown in the figure. The distance from the initial rest position, the cylinder should be unbinding, for the strings to achieve a speed of } 4 \text{ ms}^{-1}, \text{ is:}$ $\text{(take } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ cm}$, $110 \text{ cm}$...
3
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19371
$\text{A pulley of radius } 1.5 \text{ m is rotated about its axis by a force, } F = (12t - 3t^2) \text{ N applied tangentially (while } t \text{ is measured in seconds).}$ $\text{If the moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis of rotation is } 4.5 \text{ kg-m}^2, \text{ the number of rotations made by the pulley before its direction of motion is reversed, will be } \frac{K}{\pi}. \text{ The value of } K \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$12$, $14$...
4
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19370
$\text{A solid cylinder and a solid sphere, having same mass } M \text{ and radius } R, \text{ roll down the same inclined plane from top without slipping. They start from rest. The ratio of the velocity of the solid cylinder to that of the solid sphere, with which they reach the ground, will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{5}{3}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{4}{5}}$...
4
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19369
$\text{A spherical shell of } 1 \text{ kg mass and radius } R \text{ is rolling with angular speed } \omega \text{ on a horizontal plane (as shown in the figure). The magnitude of angular momentum of the shell about the origin } O \text{ is } \frac{a}{3} R^2 \omega. \text{ The value of } a \text{ will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $3$...
3
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19368
$\text{A uniform disc with mass } M = 4 \text{ kg and radius } R = 10 \text{ cm is mounted on a fixed horizontal axle as shown in the figure. A block with mass } m = 2 \text{ kg hangs from a massless cord that is wrapped around the rim of the disc. During the fall of the block, the cord does not slip and there is no friction at the axle. The tension in the cord is: (Take } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$12 \text{ N}$, $20 \text{ N}$...
3
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19367
$\sqrt{34} \text{ m long ladder weighing } 10 \text{ kg leans on a frictionless wall. Its feet rest on the floor } 3 \text{ m away from the wall as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{If } F_f \text{ and } F_w \text{ are the reaction forces of the floor and the wall, then ratio of } F_w/F_f \text{ will be: (Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{6}{\sqrt{110}}$, $\frac{3}{\sqrt{113}}$...
3
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19366
$\text{A ball experiences an angular acceleration given by:}$ $\alpha = (6t^2 - 2t),$ $\text{where } t \text{ is in seconds.}$ $\text{At } t = 0, \text{ the ball has an angular velocity of } 10 \text{ rad/s and an angular}$ $\text{position of } 4 \text{ rad. Which of the following expressions correctly}$ $\text{represents the angular position } \theta(t) \text{ of the ball?}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3}{2}t^4 - t^2 + 10t$, $\frac{t^4}{2} - \frac{t^3}{3} + 10t + 4$...
2
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19365
$\text{The position vector of a 1 kg object is } \vec{r} = (3\hat{i} + \hat{j}) \text{ m and its velocity vector is } \vec{v} = (3\hat{j} + \hat{k}) \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{ If the magnitude of its angular momentum is } \sqrt{x} \text{ N-ms, then the value of } x \text{ will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$67$, $91$...
2
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19364
$\text{Match List-I with List-II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I} & \text{List-II} \\ \hline \text{(A) Moment of inertia of a solid sphere of radius } R \text{ about any tangent} & \text{(I) } \frac{5}{3} MR^2 \\ \text{(B) Moment of inertia of a hollow sphere of radius } R \text{ about any tangent} & \text{(II) } \frac{7}{5} MR^2 \\ \text{(C) Moment of inertia of a circular ring of radius } R \text{ about its diameter} & \text{(III) } \frac{1}{4} MR^2 \\ \text{(D) Moment of inertia of a circular disk of radius } R \text{ about any diameter} & \text{(IV) } \frac{1}{2} MR^2 \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Codes:}$ $\text{1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III}$ $\text{2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III}$ $\text{3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV}$ $\text{4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III}$, $\text{A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III}$...
1
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19363
$\text{Two blocks of masses } 10 \text{ kg and } 30 \text{ kg are placed on the same straight line with coordinates } (0, 0) \text{ cm and } (x, 0) \text{ cm respectively.}$ $\text{The block of } 10 \text{ kg is moved on the same line through a distance of } 6 \text{ cm towards the other block.}$ $\text{The distance through which the block of } 30 \text{ kg must be moved to keep the position of centre of mass of the system unchanged is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ cm towards the } 10 \text{ kg block}$, $2 \text{ cm away from the } 10 \text{ kg block}$...
3
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19362
$\text{A solid spherical ball is rolling on a frictionless horizontal plane surface about its axis of symmetry. The ratio of the rotational kinetic energy of the ball to its total kinetic energy is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2}{5}$, $\frac{2}{7}$...
2
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19361
$\text{A thin circular ring of mass } M \text{ and radius } R \text{ is rotating with a constant angular velocity of } 2 \text{ rad/sec in a horizontal plane about an axis vertical to its plane and passing through the centre of the ring. If two objects each of mass } m \text{ be attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring, the ring will then rotate with an angular velocity of:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{M}{M + m} \text{ rad/s}$, $\frac{M + 2m}{2M} \text{ rad/s}$...
3
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19360
$\text{A flywheel is accelerated uniformly from rest and rotates through } 5 \text{ rad in the first second. The angle rotated by the flywheel in the next second will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$7.5 \text{ rad}$, $15 \text{ rad}$...
2
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19359
$\text{A metre scale is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins, each of mass 10 g are put, one on the top of the other at the } 10.0 \text{ cm mark, the scale is found to be balanced at the } 40.0 \text{ cm mark. The mass of the metre scale is found to be } x \times 10^{-2} \text{ kg. The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $4$...
4
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19358
$\text{Two masses } A \text{ and } B, \text{ each of mass } M \text{ are fixed together by a massless spring.}$ $\text{A force acts on the mass } B \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{If mass } A \text{ starts moving away from mass } B \text{ with acceleration } a,$ $\text{then the acceleration of mass } B \text{ will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{Ma - F}{M}$, $\frac{MF}{F + Ma}$...
3
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19357
$\text{A cord is wound around the circumference of the wheel of radius } r. \text{ The axis of the wheel is horizontal and the moment of inertia about it is } I. \text{ A weight } mg \text{ is attached to the cord at the end. The weight falls from rest. After falling through a distance } h', \text{ the square of the angular velocity of the wheel will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2mgh}{I + 2mr^2}$, $\frac{2mgh}{I + mr^2}$...
2
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19356
$\text{As shown in the figure, four identical solid spheres, each of mass } m \text{ and radius } a, \text{ are placed at the corners of a square of side length } b. \text{ What is the moment of inertia of the system about a vertical axis that lies along one side of the square (i.e., passes through the centres of the two adjacent spheres on that side)?}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{4}{5}ma^2 + 2mb^2$, $\frac{8}{5}ma^2 + mb^2$...
3
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19355
$\text{A sphere of radius } 'a' \text{ and mass } 'm' \text{ rolls along a horizontal plane with constant speed } v_0. \text{ It encounters an inclined plane at angle } \theta \text{ and climbs upward. Assuming that it rolls without slipping, how far up the sphere will travel?}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{7v_0^2}{10g \sin \theta}$, $\frac{v_0^2}{5g \sin \theta}$...
1
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19354
$\text{A uniform thin bar of mass } 6 \text{ kg and length } 2.4 \text{ meter is bent to make an equilateral hexagon. The moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass and perpendicular to the plane of hexagon is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.8 \text{ kg m}^2$, $0.4 \text{ kg m}^2$...
1
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19353
$\text{A circular hole of radius } \frac{a}{2} \text{ is cut out of a circular disc of radius, } a \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The centroid (centre-of-mass) of the remaining circular portion with respect to the point, } O \text{ will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{6}a$, $\frac{10}{11}a$...
3
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19352
$\text{The moments of inertia of four bodies, all having the same mass and radius, are reported as follows:}$ $I_1 \text{ Moment of inertia of thin circular ring about its diameter}$ $I_2 \text{ Moment of inertia of circular disc about an axis perpendicular to the disc and going through the centre}$ $I_3 \text{ Moment of inertia of solid cylinder about its axis}$ $I_4 \text{ Moment of inertia of solid sphere about its diameter}$ $\text{Which of the following relationships is correct?}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$I_1 + I_3 < I_2 + I_4$, $I_1 + I_2 = I_3 + \frac{5}{2} I_4$...
3
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19351
$\text{The centre-of-mass of a solid hemisphere of radius } 8 \text{ cm is located at a distance of } x \text{ cm from the centre of its flat circular surface. The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $7$...
1
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19350
$\text{The linear mass density of a thin rod AB of length L varies from A to B as } \lambda(x) = \lambda_0 \left(1 + \frac{x}{L}\right), \text{ where } x \text{ is the distance from A. If the mass } M \text{ of the rod is } \frac{3 \lambda_0 L}{2}, \text{ then its moment of inertia about an axis passing through A and perpendicular to the rod is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{5}{12} ML^2$, $\frac{3}{7} ML^2$...
4
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19349
$\text{Shown in the figure is a hollow ice cream cone (it is open at the top).}$ $\text{If its mass is } M, \text{ radius of its top, } R \text{ and height, } H, \text{ then its moment}$ $\text{of Inertia about its axis is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{M \left(R^2 + H^2\right)}{4}$, $\frac{MR^2}{3}$...
3
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19348
$\text{Four point masses, each of mass } m \text{ are fixed at the corners of a square of side } l. \text{ The square is rotating with angular frequency } \omega, \text{ about an axis passing through one of the corners of the square and parallel to its diagonal, as shown in the figure. The angular momentum of the square about this axis is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$2ml^2\omega$, $ml^2\omega$...
3
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19347
$\text{A thin rod of mass } 0.9 \text{ kg and length } 1 \text{ m is suspended, at rest, from one end so that it can freely oscillate in the vertical plane.}$ $\text{A particle of mass } 0.1 \text{ kg moving in a straight line with velocity } 80 \text{ m/s hits the rod at its bottom most point and sticks to it (see figure).}$ $\text{The angular speed (in rad/s) of the rod immediately after the collision will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$20$, $40$...
1
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19346
$\text{A force } \vec{F} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \text{ N acts at a point } 4\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - \hat{k} \text{ m. Let the magnitude of the torque about the point } \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + \hat{k} \text{ m be } \sqrt{x} \text{ N-m.}$ $\text{The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$145$, $195$...
2
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19345
$\text{A wheel is rotating freely with an angular speed } \omega \text{ on a shaft. The moment of inertia of the wheel is } I \text{ and the moment of inertia of the shaft is negligible.}$ $\text{Another wheel of moment of inertia } 3I \text{ initially at rest is suddenly coupled to the same shaft.}$ $\text{The resultant fractional loss in the kinetic energy of the system is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$0$, $\frac{1}{4}$...
3
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19344
$\text{For a uniform rectangular sheet shown in the figure, if } I_O \text{ and } I_{O'} \text{ be moments of inertia about the axes perpendicular to the sheet and passing through } O \text{ (the centre of mass) and } O' \text{ (corner point), then:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$I_{O'} = I_O$, $I_{O'} < I_O$...
3
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19343
$\text{Consider two uniform discs of the same thickness and different radii } R_1 = R \text{ and } R_2 = \alpha R \text{ made of the same material.}$ $\text{If the ratio of their moments of inertia } I_1 \text{ and } I_2, \text{ respectively, about their axes is } I_1 : I_2 = 1 : 16 \text{ then the value of } \alpha \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{2}$, $4$...
3
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19342
$\text{A circular disc of mass } M \text{ and radius } R \text{ is rotating about its axis with angular speed } \omega_1. \text{ If another stationary disc having radius } \frac{R}{2} \text{ and same mass } M \text{ is dropped co-axially on to the rotating disc. Gradually both discs attain constant angular speed } \omega_2. \text{ The energy lost in the process is } p\% \text{ of the initial energy. Value of } p \text{ is:}$ $1. \ 10$ $2. \ 20$ $3. \ 30$ $4. \ 40$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$10$, $20$...
2
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19341
$ABC$ \text{ is a plane lamina of the shape of an equilateral triangle. } D, E \text{ are mid points of } AB, AC \text{ and } G \text{ is the centroid of the lamina. The moment of inertia of the lamina about an axis passing through } G \text{ and perpendicular to the plane } ABC \text{ is } I_0. \text{ If part } ADE \text{ is removed, the moment of inertia of the remaining part about the same axis is } \frac{NI_0}{16} \text{ where } N \text{ is an integer. Value of } N \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $20$...
3
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19340
$\text{An massless equilateral triangle } EFG \text{ of side } a \text{ (As shown in figure)}$ $\text{has three particles of mass } m \text{ situated at its vertices.}$ $\text{The moment of inertia of the system about the line } EX \text{ perpendicular to } EG$ $\text{in the plane of } EFG \text{ is } \frac{N}{20}ma^2 \text{ where } N \text{ is an integer.}$ $\text{The value of } N \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$10$, $15$...
4
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19339
$\text{Moment of inertia of a cylinder of mass } M, \text{ length } L \text{ and radius } R \text{ about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to the axis of the cylinder is } I = M \left( \frac{R^2}{4} + \frac{L^2}{12} \right).$ $\text{If such a cylinder is to be made for a given mass of a material, the ratio } \frac{L}{R} \text{ for it to have minimum possible } I \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2}{3}$, $\frac{3}{2}$...
4
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19338
$\text{A square shaped hole of side } l = \frac{a}{2} \text{ is carved out at a distance } d = \frac{a}{2} \text{ from the centre } 'O' \text{ of a uniform circular disk of radius } a. \text{ If the distance of the centre of mass of the remaining portion from } O \text{ is } -\frac{a}{x} \text{ value of } x \text{ (to the nearest integer) is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$12$, $23$...
2
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19337
$\text{A uniform cylinder of mass } M \text{ and radius } R \text{ is to be pulled over a step of height } a \,(a < R) \text{ by applying a force } F \text{ at its centre } 'O' \text{ perpendicular to the plane through the axes of the cylinder on the edge of the step (see figure). The minimum value of } F \text{ required is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$Mg \sqrt{1 - \frac{a^2}{R^2}}$, $Mg \sqrt{\left(\frac{R}{R-a}\right)^2 - 1}$...
4
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19336
$\text{In the figure, there's a rigid and uniform rod } AB, \text{ one meter long, held horizontally by two strings tied to its ends and attached to the ceiling.}$ $\text{The rod has a mass of } m \text{ and another weight of the mass } 2m \text{ is hung at a distance of } 75 \text{ cm from } A. \text{ The tension in the string at the point } A \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$2mg$, $0.5mg$...
4
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19335
$\text{Three particles of masses } 100 \text{ g, } 150 \text{ g, and } 200 \text{ g respectively are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of a side } 0.5 \text{ m long.}$ $\text{What is the position of the centre of mass of three particles?}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{5}{18}, \frac{1}{3\sqrt{3}} \right)$, $\left( \frac{1}{4}, 0 \right)$...
1
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19334
$\text{A man (mass = 50 kg) and his son (mass = 20 kg) are standing on a frictionless surface facing each other. The man pushes his son so that he starts moving at a speed of } 0.70 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ with respect to the man. The speed of the man with respect to the surface is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.28 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $0.47 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
3
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19333
$\text{A circular disc of radius } b \text{ has a hole of radius } a \text{ at its centre (see figure).}$ $\text{If the mass per unit area of the disc varies as } \left( \frac{\sigma_0}{r} \right), \text{ then the radius of gyration of the disc about its axis passing through the centre is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{a+b}{3}$, $\sqrt{\frac{a^2+b^2+ab}{3}}$...
2
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19332
$\text{The time dependence of the position of a particle with mass}$ $m = 2 \text{ kg is given by:}$ $\vec{r}(t) = (2t\hat{i} - 3t^2\hat{j}) \text{ m.}$ $\text{Its angular momentum, with respect to the origin, at time } t = 2 \text{ s is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$36 \hat{k} \text{ kg-m}^2/\text{s}$, $-48 \hat{k} \text{ kg-m}^2/\text{s}$...
2
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19331
$\text{A metal coin of mass } 5 \text{ g and radius } 1 \text{ cm is fixed to a thin stick } AB \text{ of negligible mass as shown in the figure. The system is initially at rest. The constant torque, that will make the system rotate about } AB \text{ at } 25 \text{ rotations per second in } 5 \text{ s, is close to:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$7.9 \times 10^{-6} \text{ Nm}$, $4.0 \times 10^{-6} \text{ Nm}$...
3
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19330
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ is moving along a trajectory given by:}$ $x = x_0 + a \cos \omega_1 t$ $y = y_0 + b \sin \omega_2 t$ $\text{The torque, acting on the particle about the origin, at } t = 0 \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$-m \left( x_0 b \omega_2^2 - y_0 a \omega_1^2 \right) \hat{k}$, $\text{zero}$...
3
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19329
$\text{A thin disc of mass } M \text{ and radius } R \text{ has mass per unit area } \sigma(r) = kr^2 \text{ where } r \text{ is the distance from its centre.}$ $\text{Its moment of inertia about an axis going through its centre of mass and perpendicular to its plane is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2MR^2}{3}$, $\frac{MR^2}{6}$...
1
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19328
$\text{The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is } 1.5 \text{ kg-m}^2.$ $\text{Initially, the body is at rest. In order to produce rotational kinetic}$ $\text{energy of } 1200 \text{ J, the angular acceleration of } 20 \text{ rad/s}^2 \text{ must be}$ $\text{applied about the axis for a duration of:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \text{ s}$, $3 \text{ s}$...
4
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19327
$\text{A thin smooth rod of length } L \text{ and mass } M \text{ is rotating freely with angular speed } \omega_0 \text{ about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through its center.}$ $\text{Two beads of mass } m \text{ and negligible size are at the center of the rod initially.}$ $\text{The beads are free to slide along the rod.}$ $\text{The angular speed of the system, when the beads reach the opposite ends of the rod, will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{M \omega_0}{M + 3m}$, $\frac{M \omega_0}{M + 2m}$...
4
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19326
$\text{A stationary horizontal disc is free to rotate about its axis. When a torque is applied on it, its kinetic energy as a function of } \theta, \text{ where } \theta \text{ is the angle by which it has rotated, is given as } k\theta^2 \text{ (where } k \text{ is constant). If its moment of inertia is } I, \text{ then the angular acceleration of the disc is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{k}{I} \theta$, $\frac{k}{2I} \theta$...
4
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19325
$\text{A uniform rectangular thin sheet } ABCD \text{ of mass } M \text{ has length } a \text{ and breadth } b. \text{ If the shaded portion } HBGO \text{ is removed, the coordinates of the centre-of-mass of the remaining portion will be:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{5a}{3}, \frac{5b}{3} \right)$, $\left( \frac{2a}{3}, \frac{2b}{3} \right)$...
3
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19324
$\text{A rectangular solid box of length } 0.3 \text{ m is held horizontally, with one of its sides on the edge of a platform of height } 5 \text{ m.}$ $\text{When released, it slips off the table in a very short time } \tau = 0.01 \text{ s, remaining essentially horizontal.}$ $\text{The angle by which it would rotate when it hits the ground will be (in radians) close to:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.5$, $0.02$...
1
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19323
$\text{A solid sphere and solid cylinder of identical radii approach an incline}$ $\text{with the same linear velocity (See figure). Both roll without slipping all}$ $\text{throughout. The two climb maximum heights } h_s \text{ and } h_c \text{ on the}$ $\text{incline. The ratio } \frac{h_s}{h_c} \text{ is given by:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}}$, $\frac{14}{15}$...
2
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19322
$\text{A uniform rod } AB \text{ is suspended from a point } X, \text{ at a variable distance } x \text{ from } A, \text{ as shown in the figure. To make the rod horizontal, a mass } m \text{ is suspended from its end } A. \text{ A set of } (m, x) \text{ values is recorded. The appropriate variables that are given a straight line, when plotted are:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$m, x^2$, $m, \frac{1}{x^2}$...
3
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19321
$\text{From a uniform circular disc of radius } R \text{ and mass } 9M, \text{ a small disc of radius } \frac{R}{3} \text{ is removed as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing through centre of the disc is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$4MR^2$, $\frac{40}{9}MR^2$...
1
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19320
$\text{Seven identical circular planar disks, each of mass } M \text{ and radius } R \text{ are welded symmetrically as shown.}$ $\text{The moment of inertia of the arrangement about the axis normal to the plane and passing through the point } P \text{ is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{19}{2} MR^2$, $\frac{55}{2} MR^2$...
4
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19319
$\text{A circular hole of radius } \frac{R}{4} \text{ is made in a thin uniform disc having a mass } M \text{ and a radius } R, \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The moment of inertia of the remaining portion of the disc about an axis passing through the point } O \text{ and perpendicular to the plane of the disc is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{219 \, MR^2}{256}$, $\frac{197 \, MR^2}{256}$...
4
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19318
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ is moving along side of a square of side } 'a', \text{ with a uniform speed } v \text{ in the x-y plane as shown in the figure:}$ $\text{Which of the following statements is false for the angular momentum } \vec{L} \text{ about the origin?}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\vec{L} = -\frac{mvR}{\sqrt{2}} \hat{k} \text{ when the particle is moving from } A \text{ to } B.$, $\vec{L} = mv \left[ \frac{R}{\sqrt{2}} + a \right] \hat{k} \text{ when the particle is moving from } C \text{ to } D.$...
4
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19317
$\text{Consider a thin, uniform square sheet made of a rigid material. If its side is } a, \text{ mass } m \text{ and moment of inertia } I \text{ about one of its diagonals, then:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$I > \frac{ma^2}{12}$, $I = \frac{ma^2}{12}$...
2
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19316
$\text{From a solid sphere of mass } M \text{ and radius } R \text{ a cube of maximum possible volume is cut.}$ $\text{The moment of inertia of a cube about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to one of its faces is:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{MR^2}{32\sqrt{2\pi}}$, $\frac{MR^2}{16\sqrt{2\pi}}$...
3
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19315
$\text{Distance of the centre of mass of a solid uniform cone from its vertex is } Z_0. \text{ If the radius of its base is } R \text{ and its height is } h \text{ then } Z_0 \text{ is equal to:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{h^2}{4R}$, $\frac{3h}{4}$...
2
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19314
$\text{A mass } m \text{ is supported by a massless string wound around a uniform hollow cylinder of mass } m \text{ and radius } R. \text{ If the string does not slip on the cylinder, with what acceleration will the mass fall on release?}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{g}{2}$, $\frac{5g}{6}$...
1
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19313
$\text{A bob of mass } m \text{ attached to an inextensible string of length } l \text{ is suspended from a vertical support.}$ $\text{The bob rotates in a horizontal circle with an angular speed } \omega \text{ rad/s about the vertical.}$ $\text{About the point of suspension:}$
1
106
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{angular momentum changes in magnitude but not in direction.}$, $\text{angular momentum changes in direction but not in magnitude.}$...
2
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19312
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ moves on a straight line with its velocity}$ $\text{increasing with distance according to the equation } v = \alpha \sqrt{x}, \text{ where}$ $\alpha \text{ is a constant. The total work done by all the forces applied on the}$ $\text{particle during its displacement from } x = 0 \text{ to } x = d, \text{ will be:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{m}{2\alpha^2 d}$, $\frac{md}{2\alpha^2}$...
3
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19311
$\text{A stationary particle breaks into two parts of masses } m_\text{A} \text{ and } m_\text{B}$ $\text{which move with velocities } v_\text{A} \text{ and } v_\text{B} \text{ respectively. The ratio of their}$ $\text{kinetic energies } (K_\text{B} : K_\text{A}) \text{ is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$m_\text{B} : m_\text{A}$, $1 : 1$...
4
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19310
$\text{A bullet of mass } 50 \text{ g is fired with a speed } 100 \text{ m/s on a plywood and emerges with } 40 \text{ m/s. The percentage loss of kinetic energy is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$44\%$, $32\%$...
3
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19309
$\text{A body of } m \text{ kg slides from rest along the curve of vertical circle from point A to B in frictionless path. The velocity of the body at B is –}$ $\text{(given, } R = 14 \text{ m, } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2 \text{ and } \sqrt{2} = 1.4)}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$21.9 \text{ m/s}$, $10.6 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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19308
$\text{In a simple pendulum of length } 10 \text{ m, the string is initially kept horizontal and the bob is released. } 10\% \text{ of energy is lost till the bob reaches the lowermost position. Then find the speed of the bob at the lowermost position.}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$6 \text{ m/s}$, $6\sqrt{5} \text{ m/s}$...
2
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19307
$\text{The body of a man } 100 \text{ kg travelled } 10 \text{ m before coming to rest. If } \mu = 0.4, \text{ then work done against friction is: (motion is happening on a horizontal surface, take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$4500 \text{ J}$, $5000 \text{ J}$...
4
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19306
$\text{A variable force given by;} \ F = 5kx \ \text{(in newtons) acts on a body moving along the} \ x\text{-axis, where} \ k \ \text{is a constant.}$ $\text{What is the work done by this force as the body moves from} \ x = 2 \ m \ \text{to} \ x = 5 \ m?$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{205}{2} k \right) \ \text{J}$, $\left( \frac{105}{2} k \right) \ \text{J}$...
2
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19305
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ moving with velocity } v \text{ collides with a stationary}$ $\text{particle of mass } 2m \text{ and sticks to it. The velocity of the combined}$ $\text{mass (system) will be:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$v$, $\frac{v}{2}$...
3
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19304
$\text{A ball was dropped from } 20 \text{ m height from the ground. The height up to which it rises after the collision is: (Use } e = \frac{1}{2}, g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$ $\text{1. } 3 \text{ m}$ $\text{2. } 5 \text{ m}$ $\text{3. } 10 \text{ m}$ $\text{4. } 6 \text{ m}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \text{ m}$, $5 \text{ m}$...
2
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19303
$\text{Bob } P \text{ is released from the position of rest at the moment shown. If it collides elastically with an identical bob } Q \text{ hanging freely then the velocity of } Q \text{ just after the collision is: (Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$ $l = 20 \text{ cm}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ m/s}$, $4 \text{ cm/s}$...
3
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19302
$\text{Two cylindrical vessels having equal cross-sectional areas of } 16 \text{ cm}^2 \text{ contain water up to heights } 100 \text{ cm and } 150 \text{ cm respectively. The vessels are interconnected so that the water levels in them become equal. The work done by the force of gravity during the process is:}$ $\text{[Take density of water } = 10^3 \text{ kg/m}^3 \text{ and } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2}]}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.25 \text{ J}$, $1 \text{ J}$...
2
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19301
$\text{A body of mass } 8 \text{ kg and another of mass } 2 \text{ kg are moving with equal kinetic energy. The ratio of their respective momenta will be:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 1$, $2 : 1$...
2
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19300
$\text{A bag of sand of mass } 9.8 \text{ kg is suspended by a rope. A bullet of } 200 \text{ g traveling with speed } 10 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ gets embedded in it, then loss of kinetic energy will be:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$4.9 \text{ J}$, $9.8 \text{ J}$...
2
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19299
$\text{A body of mass } M \text{ at rest explodes into three pieces, in the ratio of masses } 1 : 1 : 2. \text{ Two smaller pieces fly off perpendicular to each other with velocities of } 30 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ and } 40 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ respectively. The velocity of the third piece will be:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$15 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $25 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
2
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19298
$\text{A man of } 60 \text{ kg is running on the road and suddenly jumps into a stationary trolly car of mass } 120 \text{ kg.}$ $\text{Then, the trolly car starts moving with a velocity of } 2 \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{ The velocity of the running man just before jumping into trolly car was:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $2 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
4
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19297
$\text{A stone tied to a string of length } L \text{ is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of the string at the centre.}$ $\text{At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its lowest position and has a speed } u. \text{The magnitude of change in its velocity, as it reaches a position where the string is horizontal, is } \sqrt{x \left( u^2 - gL \right)}. \text{The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $2$...
2
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19296
$\text{A pendulum of length 2 m consists of a wooden bob of mass 50 g. A bullet of mass 75 g is fired towards the stationary bob with a speed } v. \text{ The bullet emerges out of the bob with a speed } \frac{v}{3} \text{ and the bob just completes the vertical circle. The value of } v \text{ is: (if } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $20 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
1
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19295
$\text{What percentage of the kinetic energy of a moving particle is transferred to a stationary particle when it strikes the stationary particle of 5 times of its mass?}$ $\text{(Assume the collision to be a head-on elastic collision)}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$50.0\%$, $66.6\%$...
3
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19294
$\text{Arrange the four graphs in descending order of total work done;} \text{ where } W_1, W_2, W_3 \text{ and } W_4 \text{ are the work done corresponding to figures } a, b, c \text{ and } d \text{ respectively.}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$W_3 > W_2 > W_1 > W_4$, $W_3 > W_2 > W_4 > W_1$...
1
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19293
$\text{An object is thrown vertically upwards. At its maximum height, which of the following quantity becomes zero?}$ $1.\ \text{momentum}$ $2.\ \text{potential energy}$ $3.\ \text{acceleration}$ $4.\ \text{force}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{momentum}$, $\text{potential energy}$...
1
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19292
$\text{A particle experiences a variable force } \vec{F} = (4x \hat{i} + 3y^2 \hat{j}) \text{ in a horizontal x-y plane. Assume distance in meters and force is in newton. If the particle moves from point } (1, 2) \text{ to point } (2, 3) \text{ in the x-y plane, the kinetic energy changes by:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$50.0 \text{ J}$, $12.5 \text{ J}$...
3
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19291
$\text{Two particles having masses } 4 \text{ g and } 16 \text{ g respectively are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of their linear momentum is } n : 2. \text{ The value of } n \text{ will be:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $3$...
4
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19290
$\text{A cricket ball of mass } 0.15 \text{ kg is thrown vertically up by a bowling machine so that it rises to a maximum height of } 20 \text{ m after leaving the machine.}$ $\text{If the part pushing the ball applies a constant force } F \text{ on the ball and moves horizontally a distance of } 0.2 \text{ m while launching the ball, the value of } F \text{ (in N) is: } (g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$50$, $100$...
3
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19289
$\text{A force acts on a } 2 \text{ kg object so that its position is given as a function of time as;} \; x = 3t^2 + 5. \text{ What is the work done by this force in first } 5 \text{ seconds?}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$850 \text{ J}$, $950 \text{ J}$...
4
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19288
$\text{Three blocks } A, B \text{ and } C \text{ are lying on a smooth horizontal surface, as shown in the figure. } A \text{ and } B \text{ have equal masses, } m \text{ while } C \text{ has mass } M. \text{ Block } A \text{ is given an initial speed } v \text{ towards } B \text{ due to which it collides with } B \text{ perfectly inelastically. The combined mass collides with } C, \text{ also perfectly inelastically if } \frac{5}{6} \text{ th of the initial kinetic energy is lost in the whole process. The value of } (M/m) \text{ is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $2$...
3
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19287
$\text{A bullet of mass } 20 \text{ g has an initial speed of } 1 \text{ ms}^{-1}, \text{ just before it starts penetrating a mud wall of thickness } 20 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{If the wall offers a mean resistance of } 2.5 \times 10^{-2} \text{ N, the speed of the bullet after emerging from the other side of the wall is close to:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.3 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $0.1 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
3
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19286
$\text{A body of mass } 2 \text{ kg makes an elastic collision with a second body at rest and continues to move in the original direction but with one fourth of its original speed. What is the mass of the second body?}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.5 \text{ kg}$, $1.2 \text{ kg}$...
2
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19285
$\text{Two particles of the same mass } m \text{ are moving in circular orbits}$ $\text{because of force given by } F(r) = \left( \frac{-16}{r} - r^3 \right) . \text{ The first particle is}$ $\text{at a distance } r = 1 \text{ and the second at } r = 4. \text{ The best estimate for}$ $\text{the ratio of kinetic energies of the first and the second particle is}$ $\text{closest to:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \times 10^{-3}$, $6 \times 10^{2}$...
3
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19284
$\text{A body of mass } m \text{ starts moving from rest along the } x\text{-axis so that its velocity varies as } v = a\sqrt{s} \text{ where } a \text{ is a constant and } s \text{ is the distance covered by the body. The total work done by all the forces acting on the body in the first } t \text{ seconds after the start of the motion is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$8ma^4t^2$, $\frac{1}{4}ma^4t^2$...
4
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19283
$\text{An object is dropped from a height } h \text{ from the ground. Every time it hits the ground it loses } 50\% \text{ of its kinetic energy. The total distance covered as } t \rightarrow \infty \text{ is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{5}{3}h$, $\infty$...
4
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19282
$\text{A particle is moving in a circle of radius } r \text{ under the action of a force } F = \alpha r^2 \text{ which is directed towards centre of the circle.}$ $\text{The total mechanical energy (kinetic energy + potential energy) of the particle is:}$ $\text{(take potential energy } = 0 \text{ for } r = 0)}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2} \alpha r^3$, $\frac{5}{6} \alpha r^3$...
2
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19281
$\text{A block of mass } m = 0.1 \text{ kg is connected to a spring of unknown spring constant } k. \text{ It is compressed to a distance } x \text{ from rest.}$ $\text{After approaching half the distance } \left( \frac{x}{2} \right) \text{ from the equilibrium position, it hits another identical block and comes to rest momentarily,}$ $\text{while the other block moves with a velocity } 3 \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{ The total initial energy of the spring is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.3 \text{ J}$, $0.6 \text{ J}$...
2
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19280
$\text{A ball is released from a height of } 1 \text{ m on a smooth hemispherical surface as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The velocity of the ball when it is at a height of } 0.5 \text{ m is:}$ $\text{(Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$20 \text{ m/s}$, $10 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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19279
$\text{A particle attached to a light, inextensible string undergoes vertical circular motion. The speed at the lowest point } B \text{ is just sufficient for the particle to complete the full circle. Ignoring air resistance, what is the ratio of kinetic energy at the highest point } A \text{ to that at the lowest point } B?$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 5$, $5 : 1$...
1
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19278
$\text{The potential energy function corresponding to a conservative force is given as } U(x, y, z) = \frac{3x^2}{2} + 5y + 6z, \text{ then the force at } x = 6 \text{ is } P \text{ N. The value of } P \text{ up to its nearest integral value is:}$ $1. \ 20$ $2. \ 40$ $3. \ 30$ $4. \ 60$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$20$, $40$...
1
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19277
$\text{Two particles of masses } m_1 = 4 \text{ g and } m_2 = 25 \text{ g possess the same kinetic energy.}$ $\text{What is the ratio of the magnitudes of their linear momenta } \frac{p_1}{p_2}?$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 5$, $2 : 5$...
2
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19276
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ $\text{A truck and a car moving with equal kinetic energy are stopped by an equal retarding force. Both will cover equal distances to stop.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ $\text{A car moving towards the east suddenly changes its direction towards the north with the same speed. In this case, its acceleration will be zero.}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are True.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are False.}$...
3
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19275
$\text{A } 500 \text{ kg object slides across a horizontal surface where the coefficient of kinetic friction is } \mu = 0.7.$ $\text{To maintain a constant velocity of } 10 \text{ m/s, an external force is applied horizontally in the direction of motion.}$ $\text{The object travels a total distance of } 4 \text{ km under these conditions.}$ $\text{The work done by the external force is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.5 \times 10^6 \text{ J}$, $28 \times 10^6 \text{ J}$...
4
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19274
$\text{How much power is delivered by a force, } F \text{ at } t = 10 \text{ s (see figure), assuming the body starts from rest? (take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$50 \text{ W}$, $30 \text{ W}$...
2
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19273
$\text{A particle is constrained to move along the } x\text{-axis under the action of a force:}$ $\vec{F} = (2 + 3x)\hat{i}.$ $\text{What is the work done by this force when the particle is displaced from } x = 0 \text{ to } x = 4 \text{ m?}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$16 \text{ J}$, $32 \text{ J}$...
2
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19272
$\text{A lift with a mass of } 1400 \text{ kg moves upwards at a constant velocity of } 3 \text{ m/s, and experiences a frictional force of } 2000 \text{ N.}$ $\text{What is the power of the motor driving the lift? (take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$48 \text{ kW}$, $24 \text{ kW}$...
1
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19271
$\text{An object } A \text{ is released from a height } h \text{ such that the ratio of its speed before striking the ground and after striking the ground is } 4:1. \text{ If loss of kinetic energy is } \frac{x}{4}\% \text{ then value of } x \text{ is}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
225, 50...
3
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19270
$\text{At equilibrium position, a } 75 \text{ N force starts is acting on the block attached with the spring as shown in the figure. Maximum extension in the spring is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \text{ m}$, $3 \text{ m}$...
4
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19269
$\text{A block of mass } 100 \text{ grams is placed on a smooth surface and moves with an acceleration of } a = 2x. \text{ The change in kinetic energy can be given as } \left( \frac{x^n}{10} \right). \text{ The value of } n \text{ is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $3$...
4
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19268
$\text{If a force } F \text{ applied on an object moving along the } y\text{-axis varies with the } y\text{-coordinate as } F = 3 + 2y^2. \text{ The work done in displacing the body from } y = 2 \text{ m to } y = 5 \text{ m is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$87 \text{ J}$, $0$...
1
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19267
$\text{A lift of mass } 500 \text{ kg starts moving downwards with an initial speed of } 2 \text{ m/s and accelerates at a rate of } 2 \text{ m/s}^2. \text{ The kinetic energy of the lift when it has moved } 6 \text{ m down, is:}$ $1. \ 3 \text{ J}$ $2. \ 3 \text{ kJ}$ $3. \ 7 \text{ J}$ $4. \ 7 \text{ kJ}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \text{ J}$, $3 \text{ kJ}$...
4
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19266
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ is moving under a force whose delivered power } P \text{ is constant.}$ $\text{The initial velocity of the particle is zero.}$ $\text{The position of a particle at } t = 4 \text{ s is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{16}{3} \sqrt{\frac{2P}{m}}$, $\frac{4}{3} \sqrt{\frac{2P}{m}}$...
1
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19265
$\text{A bullet strikes a stationary ball kept at a height as shown. After the collision, range of the bullet is } 120 \text{ m and that of ball is } 30 \text{ m.}$ $\text{Collision is along horizontal direction. The initial speed of the bullet is: (Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$150 \text{ m/s}$, $90 \text{ m/s}$...
4
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19264
$\text{A particle of mass } 1 \text{ kg is moving with a velocity towards a stationary particle of mass } 3 \text{ kg.}$ $\text{After the collision, the lighter particle returns along the same path with speed } 2 \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{If the collision was elastic, then speed of } 1 \text{ kg particle before collision is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \text{ m/s}$, $6 \text{ m/s}$...
4
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19263
$\text{A constant force acts on a body of mass } 1 \text{ kg, providing it a kinetic energy of } 1800 \text{ J by the end of } 5^{\text{th}} \text{ second. If the body was initially at rest, at the beginning of the action of force, then the magnitude of the force is equal to:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$30 \text{ N}$, $12 \text{ N}$...
2
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19262
$\text{A block of mass } m \text{ (as shown in the figure) moving with kinetic energy } E \text{ compresses a spring through a distance } 25 \text{ cm when, its speed is halved. The value of the spring constant of the used spring is } nE \text{ Nm}^{-1}. \text{ The value of } n \text{ will be:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$32$, $24$...
2
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19261
$\text{The velocity of the bullet becomes one third after it penetrates 4 cm in a wooden block.}$ $\text{Assume that bullet is facing constant resistance during its motion in the block.}$ $\text{The bullet stops completely after travelling at } (4 + x) \text{ cm inside the block.}$ $\text{The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.0$, $1.0$...
3
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19260
$\text{Sand is being dropped from a stationary dropper at a rate of } 0.5 \text{ kgs}^{-1}$ $\text{on a conveyor belt moving with a velocity of } 5 \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{ The power needed to keep the belt moving with the same velocity will be:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.25 \text{ W}$, $2.5 \text{ W}$...
3
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19259
$\text{As per the given figure, two blocks each of mass } 250 \text{ g are connected to a spring of spring constant } 2 \text{ Nm}^{-1}. \text{ If both are given velocity } v \text{ in opposite directions, then the maximum elongation of the spring is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{v}{2\sqrt{2}}$, $\frac{v}{2}$...
2
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19258
$\text{A body of mass } 0.5 \text{ kg travels on a straight line path with velocity } v = (3x^2 + 4) \text{ m/s. The net work done by the force during its displacement from } x = 0 \text{ to } x = 2 \text{ m is:}$ $1. \ 64 \text{ J}$ $2. \ 60 \text{ J}$ $3. \ 120 \text{ J}$ $4. \ 128 \text{ J}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$64 \text{ J}$, $60 \text{ J}$...
2
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19257
$\text{In the given figure, the block of mass } m \text{ is dropped from point } A. \text{ The expression for the kinetic energy of the block when it reaches point } B \text{ is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2} m g y_0^2$, $\frac{1}{2} m g y^2$...
4
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19256
$\text{A particle of mass } 500 \text{ g is moving in a straight line with velocity } v = bx^{5/2}. \text{ The work done by the net force during its displacement from } x = 0 \text{ to } x = 4 \text{ m is:}$ $\text{(Take } b = 0.25 \text{ m}^{-3/2} \text{ s}^{-1})$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \text{ J}$, $4 \text{ J}$...
4
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19255
$\text{Water is falling from a } 40 \text{ m high dam at the rate of } 9 \times 10^4 \text{ kg per hour.}$ $\text{Fifty percent of gravitational potential energy can be converted}$ $\text{into electrical energy. Using this hydroelectric energy number of } 100 \text{ W}$ $\text{bulbs, that can be lit, is:}$ $\text{(Take } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$25$, $50$...
2
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19254
$\text{A block of mass } 2 \text{ kg, moving with a speed of } 4 \text{ m/s on a horizontal surface enters a rough region extending from } x = 0.5 \text{ m to } x = 1.5 \text{ m. In this region, the retarding force is given by } F = -kx \text{ with } k = 12 \text{ N/m. What will be the speed of the block as it just emerges from the rough surface?}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$0$, $1.5 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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19253
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ is moving in a circular path of constant radius } r$ $\text{such that its centripetal acceleration } (a) \text{ is varying with time } t \text{ as}$ $a = k^2 r t^2 \text{ where } k \text{ is a constant. The power delivered to the particle}$ $\text{by the force acting on it is given as:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{zero}$, $m k^2 r^2 t^2$...
3
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19252
$\text{Potential energy as a function of } r \text{ is given by;} \ U = \frac{A}{r^{10}} - \frac{B}{r^5},$ $\text{where } r \text{ is the interatomic distance, and } A \text{ and } B \text{ are positive}$ $\text{constants. The equilibrium distance between the two atoms will be:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{A}{B} \right)^{1/5}$, $\left( \frac{B}{A} \right)^{1/5}$...
3
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19251
$\text{A ball with a mass of } 100 \text{ g is dropped from a height of } h = 10 \text{ cm}$ $\text{onto a platform fixed at the top of a vertical spring (as shown in the figure).}$ $\text{The ball remains on the platform, and the platform is}$ $\text{depressed by a distance of } \frac{h}{2}. \text{ The spring constant is: (use } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ Nm}^{-1}$, $110 \text{ Nm}^{-1}$...
3
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19250
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{Body 'P' having mass } M \text{ moving with speed } 'u' \text{ has head-on collision elastically with another body 'Q' having mass } 'm' \text{ initially at rest. If } m \ll M, \text{ body 'Q' will have a maximum speed equal to } '2u' \text{ after collision.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{During elastic collision, the momentum and kinetic energy are both conserved.}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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19249
$\text{A small bob, attached to one end of a thin string of length } 1 \text{ m, is performing vertical circular motion.}$ $\text{The ratio of the maximum tension to the minimum tension in the string is } 5 : 1.$ $\text{What is the bob's velocity at the highest point?}$ $\text{(take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \text{ m/s}$, $5 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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19248
$\text{Two solids } A \text{ and } B \text{ of mass } 1 \text{ kg and } 2 \text{ kg respectively are moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio of their kinetic energies } (KE)_A : (KE)_B \text{ will be:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 2$, $2 : 1$...
2
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19247
$\text{A ball with a speed of } 9 \text{ m/s collides with another identical ball at rest.}$ $\text{After the collision, the direction of each ball makes an angle of } 30^\circ$ $\text{with the original direction. The ratio of velocities of the balls after collision is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 1$, $2 : 1$...
1
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19246
$\text{Particle } A \text{ of mass } m_1 \text{ moving with velocity } (\hat{i} + \hat{j}) \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ collides}$ $\text{with another particle } B \text{ of mass } m_2 \text{ which is at rest initially. Let } \vec{v}_1$ $\text{and } \vec{v}_2 \text{ be the velocities of particles } A \text{ and } B \text{ after collision}$ $\text{respectively. If } m_1 = 2m_2 \text{ and after collision } \vec{v}_1 = (\hat{i} - \hat{j}) \text{ ms}^{-1}$ $\text{then the final velocity of the particle } B \text{ is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$(2\hat{i} + \hat{j}) \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $(2\hat{i} - \hat{j}) \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
3
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19245
$\text{Two bodies of the same mass are moving with the same speed, but in different directions in a plane. They have a completely inelastic collision and move together thereafter with a final speed which is half of their initial speed. The angle between the initial velocities of the two bodies (in degree) is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$30^\circ$, $60^\circ$...
4
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19244
$\text{If the potential energy between two molecules is given by}$ $U = -\frac{A}{r^6} + \frac{B}{r^{12}},$ $\text{then the potential energy at equilibrium separation between molecules is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$-\frac{A^2}{2B}$, $-\frac{A^2}{4B}$...
2
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19243
$\text{A body of mass } 2 \text{ kg is driven by an engine delivering constant power } 1 \text{ J/s.}$ $\text{The body starts from rest and moves in a straight line.}$ $\text{After } 9 \text{ s, the kinetic energy of the body is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$4.5 \text{ J}$, $9 \text{ J}$...
2
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19242
$\text{A person pushes a box on a rough horizontal platform surface. He applies a force of } 200 \text{ N over a distance of } 15 \text{ m. Thereafter, he gets progressively tired and his applied force reduces linearly with distance to } 100 \text{ N. The total distance through which the box has been moved is } 30 \text{ m. What is the work done by the person during the total movement of the box?}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$5690 \text{ J}$, $3280 \text{ J}$...
4
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19241
$\text{Blocks of masses } m, 2m, 4m \text{ and } 8m \text{ are arranged in a line on a frictionless floor.}$ $\text{Another block of mass } m, \text{ moving with speed } v \text{ along the same line (see figure) collides with mass } m \text{ in perfectly inelastic manner.}$ $\text{All the subsequent collisions are also perfectly inelastic.}$ $\text{By the time the last block of mass } 8m \text{ starts moving, the total energy loss is } p\% \text{ of the original energy.}$ $\text{Value of } 'p' \text{ is close to:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
37, 94...
2
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19240
$\text{A block of mass } 1.9 \text{ kg is at rest at the edge of a table, of height } 1 \text{ m.}$ $\text{A bullet of mass } 0.1 \text{ kg collides with the block and sticks to it.}$ $\text{If the velocity of the bullet is } 20 \text{ m/s in the horizontal direction just before the collision}$ $\text{then the kinetic energy just before the combined system strikes the floor, is:}$ $[\text{Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2.]$ $\text{Assume there is no rotational motion and loss of energy after the collision is negligible.}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$21 \text{ J}$, $23 \text{ J}$...
1
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19239
$\text{A particle moves unidirectionally on a horizontal plane, under a constant power-supplying energy source. The displacement-time } (s-t) \text{ graph that describes the motion of the particle is: (graphs are drawn schematically and are not to scale)}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
1
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19238
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ is moving along the } x\text{-axis with an initial velocity } ui\hat{}. \text{ It undergoes an elastic collision with another particle of mass } 10m, \text{ which is initially at rest. After the collision, the first particle retains half of its initial kinetic energy (as shown in the figure). If } \sin \theta_1 = \sqrt{n} \sin \theta_2, \text{ then the value of } n \text{ is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $10$...
2
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19237
$\text{A small block starts slipping down from a point } B \text{ on an inclined plane } AB, \text{ which is making an angle } \theta \text{ with the horizontal. Section } BC \text{ is smooth and the remaining section } CA \text{ is rough with a coefficient of friction } \mu. \text{ It is found that the block comes to rest as it reaches the bottom (point } A) \text{ of the inclined plane. If } BC = 2AC, \text{ the coefficient of friction is given by } \mu = k \tan \theta. \text{ The value of } k \text{ is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $3$...
2
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19236
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ with an initial velocity } u\hat{i} \text{ collides perfectly}$ $\text{elastically with a mass } 3m \text{ at rest. It moves with a velocity } v\hat{j} \text{ after}$ $\text{collision, then, } v \text{ is given by:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$v = \sqrt{\frac{2}{3}} u$, $v = \frac{1}{\sqrt{6}} u$...
4
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19235
$\text{Two particles, of masses } M \text{ and } 2M, \text{ moving, as shown, with speeds of } 10 \text{ m/s and } 5 \text{ m/s, collide elastically at the origin.}$ $\text{After the collision, they move along the indicated directions with speeds } v_1 \text{ and } v_2, \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{The values of } v_1 \text{ and } v_2 \text{ are nearly:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.2 \text{ m/s and } 12.6 \text{ m/s}$, $3.2 \text{ m/s and } 6.3 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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19234
$\text{A wedge of mass } M = 4m \text{ lies on a frictionless surface. A particle of mass } m \text{ approaches the wedge with speed } v. \text{ There is no friction between the particle and the plane, nor between the particle and the wedge. The maximum height reached by the particle on the wedge is given by:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2v^2}{7g}$, $\frac{v^2}{2g}$...
3
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19233
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ is moving at a speed of } 2v \text{ and collides with another particle of mass } 2m, \text{ which is moving at a speed of } v \text{ in the same direction.}$ $\text{After the collision, the first mass comes to a complete stop, while the second mass splits into two particles, each of mass } m, \text{ which moves at an angle of } 45^\circ \text{ with respect to the original direction.}$ $\text{The speed of each of the moving particles will be:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{2}v$, $\frac{v}{2\sqrt{2}}$...
4
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19232
$\text{A uniform cable of mass } M \text{ and length } L \text{ is placed on a horizontal surface such that its } \left( \frac{1}{n} \right)^{\text{th}} \text{ part is hanging below the edge of the surface. To lift the hanging part of the cable up to the surface, the work done should be:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$nMgL$, $\frac{MgL}{2n^2}$...
2
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19231
$\text{A body of mass } m_1 \text{ moving with an unknown velocity of } v_1 \hat{i}, \text{ undergoes a collinear collision with a body of mass } m_2 \text{ moving with a velocity } v_2 \hat{i}. \text{ After collision, } m_1 \text{ and } m_2 \text{ move with velocities of } v_3 \hat{i} \text{ and } v_4 \hat{i}, \text{ respectively. If } m_2 = 0.5m_1 \text{ and } v_3 = 0.5v_1, \text{ then } v_1 \text{ is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$v_4 - \frac{v_2}{4}$, $v_4 + v_2$...
4
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19230
$\text{A particle moves in one dimension from rest under the influence of a force that varies with the distance travelled by the particle as shown in the figure. The kinetic energy of the particle after it has travelled } 3 \text{ m is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.5 \text{ J}$, $6.5 \text{ J}$...
2
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19229
$\text{It is found that if a neutron suffers an elastic collinear collision with deuterium at rest, fractional loss of its energy is } P_d; \text{ while for its similar collision with carbon nucleus at rest, fractional loss of energy is } P_c. \text{ The values of } P_d \text{ and } P_c \text{ are respectively:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.89, \ 0.28$, $0.28, \ 0.89$...
1
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19228
$\text{In a collinear collision, a particle with an initial speed } v_0 \text{ strikes a stationary particle of the same mass.}$ $\text{If the final total kinetic energy is } 50\% \text{ greater than the original kinetic energy,}$ $\text{the magnitude of the relative velocity between the two particles, after collision, is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{v_0}{4}$, $\sqrt{2}v_0$...
2
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19227
$\text{A particle is moving along a circular path with a radius } a, \text{ under the influence of an attractive force. The potential energy associated with the particle is given by: } U = -\frac{k}{2r^2}. \text{ The attractive force acting on the particle is:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{k}{4a^3}$, $\frac{k}{2a^3}$...
3
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19226
$\text{Two particles } A \text{ and } B \text{ of equal mass } M \text{ are moving with the same speed } v \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{They collide completely inelastically and move as a single particle } C. \text{ The angle } \theta \text{ that the path of } C \text{ makes with the } x\text{-axis is given by:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\tan \theta = \frac{\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{2}}{1 - \sqrt{2}}$, $\tan \theta = \frac{1 - \sqrt{3}}{1 + \sqrt{2}}$...
1
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19225
$\text{A time dependent force } F = 6t \text{ acts on a particle of mass } 1 \text{ kg. If the particle starts from rest, the work done by the force during the first } 1 \text{ s will be:}$ $1. \ 4.5 \text{ J}$ $2. \ 22 \text{ J}$ $3. \ 9 \text{ J}$ $4. \ 18 \text{ J}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$4.5 \text{ J}$, $22 \text{ J}$...
1
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19224
$\text{A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of } 10 \text{ kg}$ $\text{up to a height of } 1 \text{ m } 1000 \text{ times. Assume that the potential energy}$ $\text{lost each time he lowers the mass is dissipated. How much fat will}$ $\text{he use up considering the work done only when the weight is lifted}$ $\text{up? Fat supplies } 3.8 \times 10^7 \text{ J of energy per kg which is converted to}$ $\text{mechanical energy with a } 20\% \text{ efficiency rate. Take } g = 9.8 \text{ ms}^{-2}.$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.45 \times 10^{-3} \text{ kg}$, $6.45 \times 10^{-3} \text{ kg}$...
4
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19223
$\text{A point particle of mass } m, \text{ moves along the uniformly rough track } PQR \text{ as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction, between the particle and the rough track equals } \mu. \text{ The particle is released, from rest, from the point } P \text{ and it comes to rest at a point } R. \text{ The energies, lost by the ball, over the parts, } PQ \text{ and } QR, \text{ of the track, are equal to each other, and no energy is lost when the particle changes direction from } PQ \text{ to } QR. \text{ The values of the coefficient of friction } \mu \text{ and the distance } x \ (= QR), \text{ are, respectively close to:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.2 \text{ and } 6.5 \text{ m}$, $0.2 \text{ and } 3.5 \text{ m}$...
3
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19222
$\text{A large number } (n) \text{ of identical beads, each of mass } m \text{ and radius } r$ $\text{are strung on a thin smooth rigid horizontal rod of length } L (L \gg r)$ $\text{and are at rest at random positions. The rod is mounted}$ $\text{between two rigid supports (see figure). If one of the beads is now}$ $\text{given a speed } v, \text{ the average force experienced by each support after}$ $\text{a long time is: (assume all collisions are elastic)}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{mv^2}{2(L-nr)}$, $\frac{mv^2}{L-2nr}$...
2
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19221
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ moving in the } x \text{ direction with speed } 2v \text{ is hit by another particle of mass } 2m \text{ moving in the } y \text{ direction with speed } v. \text{ If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage loss in the energy during the collision is close to:}$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$44\%$, $50\%$...
3
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19220
$\text{When a rubber band is stretched by a distance } x, \text{ it exerts a restoring}$ $\text{force given by: } F = (ax + bx^2), \text{ where } a \text{ and } b \text{ are constants.}$ $\text{What is the total work done in stretching the rubber band from its natural}$ $\text{(unstretched) length to a length } L?$
1
105
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2}(aL^2 + bL^3)$, $\left(\frac{aL^2}{2} + \frac{bL^3}{3}\right)$...
2
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19219
$A \ 1 \ \text{kg} \ \text{mass is suspended from the ceiling by a rope of length} \ 4 \ \text{m.}$ $\text{A horizontal force} \ 'F' \ \text{is applied at the midpoint of the rope so that the rope makes an angle of} \ 45^\circ \ \text{with respect to the vertical axis as shown in figure.}$ $\text{The magnitude of} \ F \ \text{is: (Assume that the system is in equilibrium and} \ g = 10 \ \text{m/s}^2)$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \ \text{N}$, $1 \ \text{N}$...
1
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19218
$\text{A light unstretchable string passing over a smooth light pulley connects two blocks of masses } m_1 \text{ and } m_2. \text{ If the acceleration of the system is } \frac{g}{8}, \text{ then the ratio of the masses } \frac{m_2}{m_1} \text{ is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 : 3$, $5 : 3$...
4
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19217
$\text{A player caught a cricket ball of mass } 150 \text{ g moving at a speed of } 20 \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{If the catching process is completed in } 0.1 \text{ s, the magnitude of force exerted by the ball on the hand of the player is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$150 \text{ N}$, $3 \text{ N}$...
3
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19216
$\text{A body of weight } 200 \text{ N is suspended from a tree branch through a chain of mass } 10 \text{ kg. The branch pulls the chain by a force equal to (if } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2):$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$300 \text{ N}$, $150 \text{ N}$...
1
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19215
$\text{A car of } 800 \text{ kg is taking turn on a banked road of radius } 300 \text{ m and angle of banking } 30^\circ . \text{ If coefficient of static friction is } 0.2 \text{ then the maximum speed with which car can negotiate the turn safely : } ( g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2 , \sqrt{3} = 1.73 )$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$51.4 \text{ m/s}$, $102.8 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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19214
$\text{A light string passing over a smooth light pulley connects two blocks of masses } m_1 \text{ and } m_2 \text{ (where } m_2 > m_1).$ $\text{If the acceleration of the system is } \frac{g}{\sqrt{2}}, \text{ then the ratio of the masses } \frac{m_1}{m_2} \text{ is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\sqrt{3} + 1}{\sqrt{2} - 1}$, $\frac{1 + \sqrt{5}}{\sqrt{2} - 1}$...
4
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19213
$A \ 2 \ \text{kg} \ \text{brick} \ \text{begins} \ \text{to} \ \text{slide} \ \text{over} \ \text{a} \ \text{surface} \ \text{which} \ \text{is} \ \text{inclined} \ \text{at} \ \text{an} \ \text{angle} \ \text{of} \ 45^\circ \ \text{with} \ \text{respect} \ \text{to} \ \text{horizontal} \ \text{axis.}$ $\text{The} \ \text{co-efficient} \ \text{of} \ \text{static} \ \text{friction} \ \text{between} \ \text{their} \ \text{surfaces} \ \text{is} -$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $0.5$...
1
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19212
$\text{A car with a mass of } 200 \text{ kg is moving along a circular track with a radius of } 70 \text{ m at an angular velocity of } 0.2 \text{ rad/s. What is the magnitude of the centripetal force acting on the car?}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$560 \text{ N}$, $400 \text{ N}$...
1
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19211
$\text{If a body of mass } 5 \text{ kg is in equilibrium due to forces } F_1, F_2 \text{ and } F_3. F_2 \text{ and } F_3 \text{ are perpendicular to each other. If } F_1 \text{ is removed then find the acceleration of body. Given: } F_2 = 6 \text{ N and } F_3 = 8 \text{ N}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \ \text{m/s}^2$, $3 \ \text{m/s}^2$...
1
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19210
$\text{A machine gun is firing } 10 \text{ g bullets with a speed of } 250 \text{ m/s. To keep the machine gun in its position, } 125 \text{ N force is required. The number of bullets fired per second are:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$40$, $50$...
2
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19209
$\text{A block of mass } m \text{ is connected to one end of a spring and kept on a smooth surface.}$ $\text{The other end of the spring is connected to a fixed shaft rotating with constant angular speed } \omega. \text{ Find tension in spring.}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{m \omega^2 r}{2}$, $2 m \omega^2 r$...
3
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19208
$\text{A body moving horizontally has an initial speed of } 20 \text{ m/s. Due to friction, the body stops after } 5 \text{ s. If the mass of the body is } 5 \text{ kg, the coefficient of friction is: (Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.1$, $0.2$...
4
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19207
$\text{A bullet of mass } 10 \text{ g is fired from a gun (mass of } 10 \text{ kg without a bullet) with a speed of } 100 \text{ m/s. The recoil speed of the gun is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{10} \text{ m/s}$, $\frac{1}{5} \text{ m/s}$...
1
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19206
$\text{A tube of length 50 cm is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass 250 g and closed at both ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity } x \sqrt{F} \text{ rad s}^{-1}. \text{ If } F \text{ is the force exerted by the liquid at the other end then the value of } x \text{ will be:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $3$...
3
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19205
$\text{If the momentum of a body is increased by 20\%, then its kinetic energy increases by:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$36\%$, $40\%$...
3
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19204
$\text{Two bodies of masses } m_1 = 5 \text{ kg and } m_2 = 3 \text{ kg are connected by a light string going over a smooth light pulley on a smooth inclined plane as shown in the figure. The system is at rest. The force exerted by the inclined plane on the body of mass } m_1 \text{ will be:}$ $\text{[Take } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2}]$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$30 \text{ N}$, $40 \text{ N}$...
2
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19203
$\text{A balloon has a mass of } 10 \text{ g in the air. The air escapes from the balloon at a uniform rate with a velocity of } 4.5 \text{ cm/s. If the balloon shrinks in } 5 \text{ s completely. Then, the average force acting on that balloon will be (in dyne).}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $9$...
2
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19202
$\text{A block of mass } M \text{ slides down on a rough inclined plane with constant velocity.}$ $\text{The angle made by the incline plane with horizontal is } \theta.$ $\text{The magnitude of the contact force will be:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$Mg$, $Mg \cos \theta$...
1
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19201
$\text{A bag is gently dropped on a conveyor belt moving at a speed of } 2 \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{The coefficient of friction between the conveyor belt and bag is } 0.4.$ $\text{Initially, the bag slips on the belt before it stops due to friction.}$ $\text{The distance traveled by the bag on the belt during slipping motion is:}$ $[\text{Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2]$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \text{ m}$, $0.5 \text{ m}$...
2
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19200
$\text{A ball of mass } 0.15 \text{ kg hits the wall with its initial speed of } 12 \text{ ms}^{-1}$ $\text{and bounces back without changing its initial speed.}$ $\text{If the force applied by the wall on the ball during the contact is } 100 \text{ N,}$ $\text{calculate the time duration of the contact of ball with the wall.}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.018 \text{ s}$, $0.036 \text{ s}$...
2
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19199
$\text{Three masses } M = 100 \text{ kg}, m_1 = 10 \text{ kg and } m_2 = 20 \text{ kg are arranged in a system as shown in figure.}$ $\text{All the surfaces are frictionless and strings are inextensible and weightless.}$ $\text{The pulleys are also weightless and frictionless.}$ $\text{A force } F \text{ is applied on the system so that the mass } m_2 \text{ moves upward with an acceleration of } 2 \text{ m/s}^2.$ $\text{The value of } F \text{ is: (Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$3360 \text{ N}$, $3380 \text{ N}$...
3
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19198
$\text{Two billiard balls of mass } 0.05 \text{ kg each moving in opposite directions with } 10 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ collide and rebound with same speed.}$ $\text{If the time duration of contact is } t = 0.005 \text{ s, then what is the force exerted on the ball due to each other?}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ N}$, $200 \text{ N}$...
2
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19197
$\text{A block of mass } M \text{ placed inside a box descends vertically with acceleration } 'a'.$ $\text{The block exerts a force equal to one-fourth of its weight on the floor of the box.}$ $\text{The value of } 'a' \text{ will be:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{g}{4}$, $\frac{2g}{3}$...
3
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19196
$\text{A block of mass } 40 \text{ kg slides over a surface when a mass of } 4 \text{ kg is suspended through an inextensible massless string passing over a frictionless pulley as shown below. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the surface and block is } 0.02. \text{ The acceleration of the block is: (Given } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \text{ ms}^{-2}$, $\frac{1}{5} \text{ ms}^{-2}$...
4
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19195
$\text{A block of metal weighing } 2 \text{ kg is resting on a frictionless plane (as shown in the figure). It is struck by a jet releasing water at a rate of } 1 \text{ kg s}^{-1} \text{ and at a speed of } 10 \text{ m s}^{-1}. \text{ Then, the initial acceleration of the block, in m s}^{-2}, \text{ will be:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$3$, $6$...
3
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19194
$\text{One end of a massless spring of spring constant } k \text{ and natural length } l_0 \text{ is fixed while the other end is connected to a small object of mass } m \text{ lying on a frictionless table. The spring remains horizontal on the table. If the object is made to rotate at an angular velocity } \omega \text{ about an axis passing through a fixed end, then the elongation of the spring will be:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{k - m\omega^2 l_0}{m\omega^2}$, $\frac{m\omega^2 l_0}{k + m\omega^2}$...
3
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19193
$\text{A system of two blocks of masses } m = 2 \text{ kg and } M = 8 \text{ kg is placed on a smooth table as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The coefficient of static friction between two blocks is } 0.5. \text{ The maximum horizontal force } F$ $\text{that can be applied to the block of mass } M \text{ so that the blocks move together will be:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$9.8 \text{ N}$, $39.2 \text{ N}$...
3
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19192
$\text{A system of 10 balls each of mass 2 kg is connected via massless and stretchable string.}$ $\text{The system is allowed to slip over the edge of a smooth table as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{When 6}^{\text{th}} \text{ ball just leaves the table, the tension on the string between the 7}^{\text{th}} \text{ and 8}^{\text{th}} \text{ ball is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$24 \text{ N}$, $28 \text{ N}$...
4
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19191
$\text{A batsman hits back a ball of mass } 0.4 \text{ kg straight in the direction of the bowler without changing its initial speed of } 15 \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{ The impulse imparted to the ball is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \text{ Ns}$, $11 \text{ Ns}$...
3
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19190
$\text{A person is standing in an elevator. In which situation, he experiences weight loss?}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{When the elevator moves upward with constant acceleration.}$, $\text{When the elevator moves downward with constant acceleration.}$...
2
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19189
$\text{A block of mass } 200 \text{ g is kept stationary on a smooth inclined plane by applying a minimum horizontal force } F = \sqrt{x} \text{ N as shown in the figure. The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $10$...
4
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19188
$\text{A disc with a flat small bottom beaker placed on it at a distance } R \text{ from its centre is revolving about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to its plane with an angular velocity } \omega. \text{ The coefficient of static friction between the bottom of the beaker and the surface of the disc is } \mu. \text{ The beaker will revolve with the disc if:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$R \leq \frac{\mu g}{2 \omega^2}$, $R \leq \frac{\mu g}{\omega^2}$...
2
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19187
$\text{A uniform chain of } 6 \text{ m in length is placed on a table such that a part of its length is hanging over the edge of the table. The system is at rest. The coefficient of static friction between the chain and the surface of the table is } 0.5. \text{ The maximum length of the chain hanging from the table is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 \text{ m}$, $2 \text{ m}$...
2
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19186
$\text{An object of mass 5 kg is thrown vertically upwards from the ground.}$ $\text{The air resistance produces a constant retarding force of 10 N}$ $\text{throughout the motion. The ratio of time of ascent to the descent will}$ $\text{be equal to: [Use } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2}]$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 1$, $\sqrt{2} : \sqrt{3}$...
2
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19185
$\text{A stone of mass } m, \text{ tied to a string is being whirled in a vertical circle with a uniform speed. The tension in the string is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{the same throughout the motion.}$, $\text{minimum at the highest position of the circular path.}$...
2
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19184
$\text{A boy ties a stone of mass } 100 \text{ g to the end of a } 2 \text{ m long string and whirls it around in a horizontal plane.}$ $\text{The string can withstand the maximum tension of } 80 \text{ N.}$ $\text{If the maximum speed with which the stone can revolve is } \frac{K}{\pi} \text{ rev./min.}$ $\text{The value of } K \text{ is: (Assume the string is massless and unstretchable)}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
400, 300...
3
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19183
$\text{A block of mass } 10 \text{ kg starts sliding on a surface with an initial velocity of } 9.8 \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{ The coefficient of friction between the surface and block is } 0.5. \text{ The distance covered by the block before coming to rest is: [use } g = 9.8 \text{ ms}^{-2}]$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$4.9 \text{ m}$, $9.8 \text{ m}$...
2
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19182
$\text{A block of mass } 10 \text{ kg is kept on a rough inclined plane as shown in the figure. A force of } 3 \text{ N is applied to the block. The coefficient of static friction between the plane and the block is } 0.6. \text{ What should be the minimum value of force } P, \text{ such that the block does not move downward?}$ $\text{(take } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$32 \text{ N}$, $18 \text{ N}$...
1
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19181
$\text{A given object takes } n \text{ times more time to slide down a } 45^\circ \text{ rough}$ $\text{inclined plane as it takes to slide down a perfectly smooth } 45^\circ \text{ incline.}$ $\text{The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the incline is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{1 - \frac{1}{n^2}}$, $1 - \frac{1}{n^2}$...
2
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19180
$\text{A conical pendulum of length } 1 \text{ m makes an angle } \theta = 45^\circ \text{ with respect to the } z\text{-axis and moves in a circle in the } xy \text{ plane.}$ $\text{The radius of the circle is } 0.4 \text{ m and its center is vertically below } O. \text{ The speed of the pendulum, in its circular path, will be:}$ $\text{(Take } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.4 \text{ m/s}$, $2 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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19179
$\text{A block of mass } m = 10 \text{ kg rests on a horizontal table. The coefficient of friction between the block and the table is } 0.05.$ $\text{When hit by a bullet of mass } 50 \text{ g moving with speed } v \text{ that gets embedded in it, the block moves and comes to rest after moving a distance of } 2 \text{ m on the table.}$ $\text{If a freely falling object were to acquire speed } 10v \text{ after being dropped from a height } H, \text{ then neglecting energy losses taking } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2}, \text{ the value of } H \text{ is close to:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.02 \text{ km}$, $0.03 \text{ km}$...
4
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19178
$\text{If a body moving in a circular path maintains a constant speed of } 10 \text{ ms}^{-1}, \text{ then which of the following correctly describes the relation between acceleration and radius?}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\begin{array}{c} a \\ \downarrow \end{array} \quad \begin{array}{c} \text{ } \\ \text{ } \end{array} \quad r \rightarrow$, $\begin{array}{c} a \\ \text{ } \end{array} \quad \begin{array}{c} \text{ } \\ \text{ } \end{array} \quad r \rightarrow$...
1
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19177
$\text{A ball released from a height } 10 \text{ m strikes the ground and rebounds at the height of } 5 \text{ m.}$ $\text{Then the impulse imparted by the ground while collision (given the mass of the ball is } 100 \text{ g) is:}$ $\text{(Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\sqrt{2} - 1) \text{ N-s}$, $(\sqrt{2} + 2) \text{ N-s}$...
4
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19176
$\text{The acceleration of the 2 kg block is shown in the diagram is:}$ $\text{(neglect friction)}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{4g}{15}$, $\frac{2g}{15}$...
1
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19175
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{The limiting force of static friction depends on the area of contact and is independent of the nature of the materials.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{The limiting force of kinetic friction is independent of the area of contact but depends on the nature of the materials.}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.}$, $\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$...
2
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19174
$\text{A train moves along a circular track of radius } R \text{ with speed } v. \text{ The track has a width } w \,(w \ll R). \text{ To ensure safe motion without relying on friction, the outer rail is elevated above the inner rail. What should be the required elevation of the outer track?}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{v^2 w}{R g}$, $\frac{v^2 w}{2 R g}$...
1
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19173
$\text{A particle is kept at rest at } 1 \text{ cm from axis on the disc rotating with angular velocity } \omega. \text{ If angular velocity is reduced to half of its initial value, then find the distance from axis, where particle again remains at rest}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ cm}$, $6 \text{ cm}$...
1
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19172
$\text{A block moving with speed } 1 \text{ m/s comes to rest after moving for } 20 \text{ cm over a rough surface. The coefficient of friction between the block and surface is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.25$, $0.33$...
1
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19171
$\text{A particle of mass } 500 \text{ g is moving with a velocity given by:}$ $\vec{v} = (2t\hat{i} + 3t^2\hat{j}) \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{If the force acting on the particle at } t = 1 \text{ s is } \vec{F} = (\hat{i} + x\hat{j}) \text{ N,}$ $\text{then the value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$6$, $1$...
4
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19170
$\text{A block of mass } 10 \text{ kg is subjected to a force } F, \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{If the coefficient of friction is } 0.25, \text{ what is the minimum value of } F \text{ required to make the block slide?}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{200}{4\sqrt{3} + 1} \text{ N}$, $\frac{200}{4\sqrt{3} - 1} \text{ N}$...
1
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19169
$\text{A force of } 30 \text{ N is applied on a block of mass } 5 \text{ kg. the block travels a distance of } 50 \text{ m in } 10 \text{ s starting from rest. The coefficient of friction is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.5$, $0.7$...
1
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19168
$\text{A ball of mass } 1 \text{ kg is hanging from } 1 \text{ m long inextensible string}$ $\text{which can withstand a maximum tension of } 400 \text{ N. The maximum}$ $\text{speed } u \text{ that should be given to the ball is:}$ $\text{(Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{390} \text{ m/s}$, $\sqrt{410} \text{ m/s}$...
1
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19167
$\text{A force } 200 \text{ N is exerted on a disc of mass } 70 \text{ kg as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{What is the normal reaction given by the ground on the disc?}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$200 \text{ N}$, $600 \text{ N}$...
3
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19166
$\text{A block remains in equilibrium as shown. If the mass, } m = \sqrt{3} \text{ kg,}$ $\text{what is the tension in the string?}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{3}g \text{ N}$, $3g \text{ N}$...
1
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19165
$\text{Momentum-time graph of an object moving along a straight line is as shown in the figure. If } (P_2 - P_1) < P_1 \text{ and } (t_2 - t_1) = t_1 < (t - 3 - t_2) \text{ then at which points among } A, B \text{ and } C, \text{ the magnitude of force experienced by the object is maximum and minimum respectively?}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$A, B$, $A, C$...
2
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19164
$\text{A ball of mass } 2 \text{ kg is dropped from a height of } 9.8 \text{ m and rebounds to a height of } 4.9 \text{ m.}$ $\text{If it remains in contact with the ground for } 0.2 \text{ s, the average force on the ball exerted by the ground is:}$ $\text{(Take } g = 9.8 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$98(\sqrt{2} + 1) \text{ N}$, $49(\sqrt{2} + 1) \text{ N}$...
1
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19163
$\text{A car is moving on a circular track of radius } 50 \text{ cm with coefficient of friction being } 0.34. \text{ On this horizontal track, the maximum safe speed for turning is equal to:}$ $\text{(take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2 )$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.03 \text{ m/s}$, $1.7 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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19162
$\text{A block is sliding down an inclined plane of inclination } 30^\circ, \text{ with an acceleration of } \frac{g}{4}. \text{ The coefficient of friction between the block and incline is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$, $\frac{1}{2\sqrt{3}}$...
2
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19161
$\text{A block is placed on a rough inclined plane with } 45^\circ \text{ inclination. If}$ $\text{minimum force required to push the block up the incline is equal to 2}$ $\text{times the minimum force required to slide the block down the}$ $\text{inclined plane, then the value of the coefficient of friction between}$ $\text{block and incline is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
0.25, 1...
2
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19160
$\text{A car moving with a constant speed of } 2 \text{ m/s in a circle having a radius } R. \text{ A pendulum is suspended from the ceiling of the car. The angle made by the pendulum with vertical is:}$ $\text{(Take } R = \frac{8}{15} \text{ m and } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2.)$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$30^\circ$, $53^\circ$...
3
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19159
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{If the weight of the lift is equal to the tension force in the cable, then it moves with uniform velocity.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{If the lift moves downward with an acceleration, the contact force between the boy's feet and the lift floor is more than the weight of the boy.}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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19158
$\text{In the figure shown, two blocks of masses } m_1 = 4 \text{ kg and } m_2 = 1 \text{ kg are placed over a smooth fixed wedge, connected by an ideal string over a smooth pulley. As the system is released, the tension in the string will be:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$4(\sqrt{3} + 1) \text{ N}$, $10\left(1 - \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right) \text{ N}$...
1
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19157
$\text{A smooth circular groove has a smooth vertical wall as shown in the figure. A block of mass } m \text{ moves against the wall with a speed } v. \text{ Which of the following curve represents the correct relation between the normal reaction on the block by the wall } (N) \text{ and the speed of the block } (v)?$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$N \text{ vs } v^2 \text{ (parabolic)}$, $N \text{ vs } v \text{ (linear)}$...
1
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19156
$\text{In two different experiments, an object of mass } 5 \text{ kg moving with a speed of } 25 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ hits two different walls and comes to rest within } (i) \ 3 \text{ s, and } (ii) \ 5 \text{ s, respectively.}$ $\text{Choose the correct option from the following:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Impulse and average force acting on the object will be the same for both the cases.}$, $\text{Impulse will be the same for both the cases but the average force will be different.}$...
2
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19155
$\text{Two masses, } M_1 \text{ and } M_2, \text{ are connected by a light, inextensible string that passes over a frictionless pulley.}$ $\text{When the mass } M_2 \text{ is twice that of } M_1, \text{ the system experiences an acceleration } a_1.$ $\text{Similarly, when } M_2 \text{ is three times the mass of } M_1, \text{ the system's acceleration becomes } a_2.$ $\text{The ratio } \frac{a_1}{a_2} \text{ will be:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{3}$, $\frac{2}{3}$...
2
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19154
$\text{A monkey of mass } 50 \text{ kg climbs on a rope which can withstand the tension } (T) \text{ of } 350 \text{ N.}$ $\text{The monkey initially climbs down with an acceleration of } 4 \text{ m/s}^2 \text{ and then climbs up with an acceleration of } 5 \text{ m/s}^2.$ $\text{(take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$ $\text{Choose the correct option from the given ones:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$T = 700 \text{ N while climbing upward.}$, $T = 350 \text{ N while going downward.}$...
3
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19153
$\text{Four forces act on a body as shown in the figure: } 5 \text{ N to the right, } 6 \text{ N to the left, } 7 \text{ N upward and } 8 \text{ N downward.}$ $\text{What additional force (magnitude and direction measured from the positive } x\text{-axis) must be applied so that the net acceleration of the body is zero?}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{2} \text{ N, } 45^\circ$, $\sqrt{2} \text{ N, } 135^\circ$...
1
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19152
$\text{Four forces are acting at a point } P \text{ in equilibrium as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{If the ratio of force } F_1 \text{ to } F_2 \text{ is } 1 : x, \text{ then the value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$4$, $3$...
2
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19151
$\text{A hanging mass } M \text{ is connected to four times bigger mass by using a string-pulley arrangement as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The bigger mass is placed on a horizontal ice slab and pulled by } 2 \ Mg \text{ force.}$ $\text{In this situation, tension in the string is } \frac{x}{5} Mg \text{ for the value of } x:$ $\text{(Neglect the mass of the string and friction of the block (bigger mass) with ice slab.)}$ $\text{(Given } g = \text{ acceleration due to gravity)}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
6, 3...
1
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19150
$\text{In the arrangement shown in figure } a_1, a_2, a_3 \text{ and } a_4 \text{ are the accelerations of masses } m_1, m_2, m_3 \text{ and } m_4 \text{ respectively. Which of the following relation is true for this arrangement?}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$4a_1 + 2a_2 + a_3 + a_4 = 0$, $a_1 + 4a_2 + 3a_3 + a_4 = 0$...
1
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19149
$\text{A ball is released from rest from point } P \text{ of a smooth semi-spherical}$ $\text{vessel as shown in the figure. The ratio of the centripetal force and}$ $\text{the normal reaction on the ball at point } Q \text{ is } A \text{ while the angular}$ $\text{position of point } Q \text{ is } \alpha \text{ with respect to point } P. \text{ Which of the}$ $\text{following graphs represents the correct relation between } A \text{ and } \alpha$ $\text{ when the ball goes from point } Q \text{ to point } R?$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\begin{array}{c} A \\ \alpha \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{c} A \\ \alpha \end{array}$...
3
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19148
$\text{A curve in a level road has a radius of } 75 \text{ m. The maximum speed of a car turning this curved road can be } 30 \text{ m/s without skidding. If the radius of the curved road is changed to } 48 \text{ m and the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road remains the same, then the maximum allowed speed would be:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$12 \text{ m/s}$, $24 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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19147
$\text{As shown in the figure, a block of mass } \sqrt{3} \text{ kg is kept on a horizontal rough surface of coefficient of friction } \frac{1}{3\sqrt{3}}. \text{ The critical force to be applied on the vertical surface as shown at an angle } 60^\circ \text{ with horizontal such that it does not move, will be } 3x. \text{ The value of } x \text{ will be:}$ $\left( g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2; \sin 60^\circ = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}; \cos 60^\circ = \frac{1}{2} \right)$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
1.23, 4.5...
3
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19146
$\text{A boy pushes a box of mass } 2 \text{ kg with a force } \vec{F} = (20\hat{i} + 10\hat{j}) \text{ N}$ $\text{on a frictionless surface. If the box was initially at rest, then the displacement along the } x\text{-axis after } 10 \text{ s is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ m}$, $300 \text{ m}$...
3
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19145
$\text{A person standing on a spring balance inside a stationary lift measures 60 kg. The weight of that person if the lift descends with the uniform downward acceleration of 1.8 m/s}^2 \text{ will be: } [g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2]$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$321 \text{ N}$, $214 \text{ N}$...
4
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19144
$\text{A particle is projected with velocity } v_0 \text{ along } x\text{-axis.}$ $\text{A damping force is acting on the particle which is proportional to the square of the distance from the origin i.e, } ma = -\alpha x^2.$ $\text{The distance at which the particle stops:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{3mv_0^2}{2\alpha} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$, $\left( \frac{2mv_0}{3\alpha} \right)^{\frac{1}{3}}$...
4
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19143
$\text{An inclined plane is bent in such a way that the vertical cross-section is given by, } y = \frac{x^2}{4} \text{ where } y \text{ is in vertical and } x \text{ in the horizontal direction. If the upper surface of this curved plane is rough with a coefficient of friction } \mu = 0.5, \text{ the maximum height in(cm) at which a stationary block will not slip downward is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$25$, $50$...
1
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19142
$\text{The coefficient of static friction between a wooden block of mass } 0.5 \text{ kg and a vertical rough wall is } 0.2. \text{ The magnitude of horizontal force that should be applied on the block to keep it adhere to the wall will be:}$ $\text{(Take } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \text{ N}$, $25 \text{ N}$...
2
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19141
$\text{An insect is at the bottom of a hemispherical ditch of radius } 1 \text{ m.}$ $\text{It crawls up the ditch but starts slipping after it is at height } h \text{ from the bottom.}$ $\text{If the coefficient of friction between the ground and the insect is } 0.75, \text{ then } h \text{ is: } (g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.20 \text{ m}$, $0.60 \text{ m}$...
1
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19140
$\text{A spaceship in space sweeps stationary interplanetary dust. As a result, its mass increases at a rate } \frac{dM(t)}{dt} = bv^2(t), \text{ where } v(t) \text{ is its instantaneous velocity. The instantaneous acceleration of the satellite is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$-\frac{2bv^3}{M(t)}$, $\frac{bv^3}{2M(t)}$...
4
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19139
$\text{A small ball of mass } m \text{ is thrown upward with velocity } u \text{ from the ground.}$ $\text{The ball experiences a resistive force } mkv^2 \text{ where } v \text{ is its speed.}$ $\text{The maximum height attained by the ball is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2k} \ln \left( 1 + \frac{ku^2}{g} \right)$, $\frac{1}{2k} \tan^{-1} \frac{ku^2}{g}$...
1
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19138
$\text{A block starts moving up an inclined plane of inclination } 30^\circ \text{ with an initial velocity of } v_0. \text{ It comes back to its initial position with velocity } \frac{v_0}{2}. \text{ The value of the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the inclined plane is close to } \frac{I}{1000}. \text{ The nearest integer to } I \text{ is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$210$, $346$...
2
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19137
$\text{A bead of mass } m \text{ stays at point } P (a,b) \text{ on a wire bent in the shape of a parabola } y = 4Cx^2 \text{ and rotating with angular speed } \omega \text{ (see figure). The value of } \omega \text{ is (neglect friction):}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{2gC}{ab}}$, $2\sqrt{2gC}$...
2
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19136
$\text{A block of mass } 5 \text{ kg is (i) pushed in case } (A) \text{ and (ii) pulled in case } (B), \text{ by a force } F = 20 \text{ N, making an angle of } 30^\circ \text{ with the horizontal, as shown in the figures. The coefficient of friction between the block and floor is } \mu = 0.2. \text{ The difference between the accelerations of the blocks, in case } (B) \text{ and case } (A) \text{ will be: } (g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.2 \text{ ms}^{-2}$, $0.8 \text{ ms}^{-2}$...
2
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19135
$\text{A smooth wire of length } 2\pi r \text{ is bent into a circle and kept in a vertical plane.}$ $\text{A bead can slide smoothly on the wire.}$ $\text{When the circle is rotating with angular speed } \omega \text{ about the vertical diameter } AB,$ $\text{as shown in figure, the bead is at rest with respect to the circular ring at position } P \text{ as shown.}$ $\text{Then the value of } \omega^2 \text{ is equal to:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{g\sqrt{3}}{r}$, $\frac{2g}{r}$...
4
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19134
$\text{A uniform rod of length } l \text{ is being rotated in a horizontal plane with a constant angular speed about an axis passing through one of its ends.}$ $\text{If the tension generated in the rod due to rotation is } T(x) \text{ at a distance } x \text{ from the axis, then which of the following graphs depicts it most closely?}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
4
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19133
$\text{Two blocks } A \text{ and } B \text{ of masses } m_A = 1 \text{ kg and } m_B = 3 \text{ kg are kept on the table as shown in figure.}$ $\text{The coefficient of friction between } A \text{ and } B \text{ is } 0.2 \text{ and between } B \text{ and the surface of the table is also } 0.2.$ $\text{The maximum force } F \text{ that can be applied on } B \text{ horizontally, so that the block } A \text{ does not slide over the block } B \text{ is:}$ $[\text{Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2]$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$8 \text{ N}$, $40 \text{ N}$...
3
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19132
$\text{The mass of a hydrogen molecule is } 3.32 \times 10^{-27} \text{ kg. If } 10^{23} \text{ hydrogen molecules strike, per second, a fixed wall of area } 2 \text{ cm}^2 \text{ at an angle of } 45^\circ \text{ to the normal, and rebound elastically with a speed of } 10^3 \text{ m/s, then the pressure on the wall is nearly:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.35 \times 10^3 \text{ N/m}^2$, $4.70 \times 10^3 \text{ N/m}^2$...
1
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19131
$\text{A particle is moving with a uniform speed in a circular orbit of radius } R \text{ in a central force inversely proportional to the } n^{\text{th}} \text{ power of } R. \text{ If the period of rotation of the particle is } T, \text{ then:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$T \propto R^{3/2} \text{ for any } n$, $T \propto R^{n/2 + 1}$...
3
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19130
$\text{Two masses } m_1 = 5 \text{ kg and } m_2 = 10 \text{ kg, connected by an inextensible string over a frictionless pulley, are moving as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The coefficient of friction of the horizontal surface is } 0.15.$ $\text{The minimum weight } m \text{ that should be put on top of } m_2 \text{ to stop the motion is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$18.3 \text{ kg}$, $23.3 \text{ kg}$...
2
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19129
$\text{Given in the figure are two blocks } A \text{ and } B \text{ of weight } 20 \text{ N and } 100 \text{ N, respectively. These are being pressed against a wall by a force } F \text{ as shown.}$ $\text{If the coefficient of friction between the blocks is } 0.1 \text{ and between block } B \text{ and the wall is } 0.15, \text{ the frictional force applied by the wall on block } B \text{ is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ N}$, $80 \text{ N}$...
3
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19128
$\text{A block of mass } m \text{ is placed on a surface with a vertical cross section given by } y = \frac{x^3}{6}. \text{ If the coefficient of friction is } 0.5, \text{ then the maximum height above the ground at which the block can be placed without slipping is:}$
1
104
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2}{3} m$, $\frac{1}{3} m$...
4
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19127
$\text{A clock has } 75 \text{ cm, } 60 \text{ cm long second hand and minute hand respectively.}$ $\text{In } 30 \text{ minutes duration the tip of second hand will travel } x \text{ distance more than the tip of minute hand.}$ $\text{The value of } x \text{ in meter is nearly (Take } \pi = 3.14 ):$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$118.9$, $220.0$...
3
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19126
$\text{A cyclist starts from the point P of a circular ground of radius 2 km}$ $\text{and travels along its circumference to the point S. The displacement}$ $\text{of a cyclist is –}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ km}$, $6 \text{ km}$...
3
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19125
$\text{Choose the correct statement regarding a ground-to-ground projectile:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{kinetic energy is zero at highest point.}$, $\text{potential energy is highest at highest point.}$...
2
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19124
$\text{Two balls are projected with equal speed } 40 \text{ m/s, one at an angle of } 30^\circ \text{ and the other at } 60^\circ \text{ with horizontal. The ratio of maximum heights of both balls is equal to:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 4$, $3 : 1$...
3
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19123
$\text{A ball is projected with kinetic energy } E \text{ at an angle of } 60^\circ \text{ above the horizontal. What will be its kinetic energy at the highest point of its trajectory?}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$0$, $\frac{E}{2}$...
3
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19122
$\text{A body of mass 10 kg is projected at an angle of } 45^\circ \text{ with the horizontal.}$ $\text{The trajectory of the body is observed to pass through a point } (20, 10).$ $\text{If } T \text{ is the time of flight, then its momentum vector, at time } t = \frac{T}{\sqrt{2}}, \text{ is }$ $\underline{\phantom{answer}}$ $\text{[Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2]$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$100\hat{i} + (100\sqrt{2} - 200)\hat{j}$, $100\sqrt{2}\hat{i} + (100 - 200\sqrt{2})\hat{j}$...
4
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19121
$\text{Two projectiles are thrown with same initial velocity making an angle of } 45^\circ \text{ and } 30^\circ \text{ with the horizontal respectively. The ratio of their respective ranges will be}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : \sqrt{2}$, $\sqrt{2} : 1$...
3
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19120
$\text{A ball is projected from the ground with a speed } 15 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ at an angle } \theta \text{ with horizontal so that its range and maximum height are equal, then } \tan \theta \text{ will be equal to:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{4}$, $\frac{1}{2}$...
4
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19119
$\text{The motion of a particle in the } xy\text{-plane is described by the following equations:}$ $x = 4 \sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - \omega t\right) \text{ m}, \quad y = 4 \sin(\omega t) \text{ m.}$ $\text{Which of the following best describes the path traced by the particle?}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{circular}$, $\text{helical}$...
1
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19118
$\text{A projectile is launched at an angle } \alpha \text{ with the horizontal with a velocity of } 20 \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{ After } 10 \text{ s, its inclination with horizontal is } \beta'.$ $\text{The value of } \tan \beta \text{ will be: } (g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\tan \alpha + 5 \sec \alpha$, $\tan \alpha - 5 \sec \alpha$...
2
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19117
$\text{For a particle in a uniform circular motion, the acceleration } \vec{a} \text{ at any point } P(R, \theta) \text{ on the circular path of radius } R \text{ is: (when } \theta \text{ is measured from the positive x-axis and } v \text{ is uniform speed):}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$-\frac{v^2}{R} \sin \theta \hat{i} + \frac{v^2}{R} \cos \theta \hat{j}$, $-\frac{v^2}{R} \cos \theta \hat{i} + \frac{v^2}{R} \sin \theta \hat{j}$...
3
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19116
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{Two identical balls A and B thrown with the same velocity 'u' at two different angles with horizontal attained the same range R. If A and B reached the maximum height } h_1 \text{ and } h_2 \text{ respectively, then } R = 4\sqrt{h_1 h_2}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{Product of said heights, } h_1 h_2 = \left( \frac{u^2 \sin^2 \theta}{2g} \right) \cdot \left( \frac{u^2 \cos^2 \theta}{2g} \right)$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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19115
$\text{A projectile is launched with an initial speed of } 25 \text{ m/s at an angle } \theta \text{ above the horizontal.}$ $\text{After } t \text{ seconds, its velocity becomes horizontal.}$ $\text{If the horizontal range of the projectile is } R, \text{ then what is the expression for the launch angle } \theta \text{ in terms of } R \text{ and } t? \text{ (take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{2} \sin^{-1} \left( \frac{5t^2}{4R} \right)$, $\frac{1}{2} \sin^{-1} \left( \frac{4R}{5t^2} \right)$...
4
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19114
$\text{A particle is moving with a velocity } \vec{v} = K(y\hat{i} + x\hat{j}), \text{ where } K \text{ is a constant. The general equation for its path is:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$y = x^2 + \text{constant}$, $y^2 = x + \text{constant}$...
3
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19113
$\text{The displacement of a particle changes with time as}$ $x = 6t^3 - 12t^2 + 20t + 30.$ $\text{The velocity of the particle when its acceleration becomes zero (} t \text{ is time in s) is:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$12 \text{ m/s}$, $14 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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19112
$\text{A ball is thrown from point } O \text{ at the base of a staircase. Each step has dimensions of } (0.5 \text{ m} \times 0.5 \text{ m}) (\text{width} \times \text{height}). \text{ What is the minimum initial speed required for the ball to land directly on the } 5^{\text{th}} \text{ step using projectile motion?}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \sqrt{(\sqrt{2} + 1)} \text{ m/s}$, $5 \sqrt{2} \text{ m/s}$...
1
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19111
$\text{Two particles are moving along the same circular path. If the ratio of their centripetal accelerations is } 3 : 4, \text{ then the ratio of their tangential velocities is:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 : \sqrt{3}$, $\sqrt{3} : 2$...
2
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19110
$\text{A particle has an initial } (t = 0) \text{ velocity } \vec{u} = 5\hat{i} \text{ and is at its origin at this instant.}$ $\text{Its acceleration is given by } (3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j}).$ $\text{When the particle's } x \text{ co-ordinate is 16 units, then its speed is:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$13 \text{ units}$, $\sqrt{161} \text{ units}$...
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19109
$\text{The position vector of a particle is expressed as:}$ $\vec{r}(t) = (8t\hat{i} + 5t^2\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}).$ $\text{Which of the following statements correctly describes the direction of the particle's acceleration?}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{It is directed along the positive } y\text{-axis.}$, $\text{It is directed along the positive } x\text{-axis.}$...
1
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19108
$\text{A particle moving in a uniform circular motion of radius 1 m has velocity } 3\hat{j} \text{ m/s at point } B. \text{ What are the velocity } (\vec{v}) \text{ and acceleration } (\vec{a}) \text{ at diametrically opposite point } A?$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\vec{v}_A = 3\hat{j} \text{ m/s}; \; \vec{a}_A = -9\hat{i} \text{ m/s}^2$, $\vec{v}_A = -3\hat{j} \text{ m/s}; \; \vec{a}_A = 9\hat{i} \text{ m/s}^2$...
2
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19107
$\text{A particle is projected at an angle of } 30^\circ \text{ with the ground at a speed of } 40 \text{ m/s. The speed of the particle after two seconds is: (use } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$20\sqrt{2} \text{ m/s}$, $20\sqrt{3} \text{ m/s}$...
2
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19106
$\text{A particle is projected at an angle of } 30^\circ \text{ with the horizontal. It is observed that the particle reaches the same height at } 3 \text{ s and } 5 \text{ s after projection. The initial projection speed is:}$ $\left( \text{take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2 \right)$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$40 \text{ m/s}$, $50 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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19105
$\text{Two projectiles, } A \text{ and } B \text{ are projected from the same point } (O) \text{ on the ground with the same initial speed, as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The ratio of maximum height attained by the projectile } A \text{ to that attained by projectile } B \text{ is:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 : 1$, $1 : 3$...
1
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19104
$\text{If a projectile is launched at an angle of } 15^\circ \text{ with the horizontal and achieves a range of } 50 \text{ m, what will be the range when it is launched at an angle of } 45^\circ \text{ with the horizontal?}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$50 \text{ m}$, $100 \text{ m}$...
2
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19103
$\text{A projectile is launched on a horizontal surface, following a trajectory}$ $\text{described by the equation: } y = x - \frac{x^2}{20}, \text{ where the } y\text{-axis is directed}$ $\text{vertically upward. The maximum height attained by the projectile is:}$ $\text{(all quantities are expressed in SI units)}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \text{ m}$, $5 \text{ m}$...
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19102
$\text{Two particles } A \text{ and } B \text{ are projected with speeds } 40 \text{ m/s and } 60 \text{ m/s at angles } 30^\circ \text{ and } 60^\circ \text{ above the horizontal, respectively.}$ $\text{What is the ratio of the range of } A \text{ to the range of } B?$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{2} : 3$, $\sqrt{3} : 2$...
3
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19101
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The range of a horizontal projectile is maximum when}$ \text{the angle of projection is } \theta = 45^\circ.$ $\text{Reason (R): The range is maximum when } \sin(2\theta) = 1.$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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19100
$\text{A ball is thrown horizontally from height of 10 m with a speed of 5 m/s as shown.}$ $\text{What would be the speed with which it strikes the ground?}$ $\text{(Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$15 \text{ m/s}$, $5 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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19099
$\text{A particle is in a uniform circular motion with a time period of } 4 \text{ s and radius } \sqrt{2} \text{ m.}$ $\text{What is the magnitude of displacement in } 3 \text{ s?}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ m}$, $3 \text{ m}$...
3
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19098
$\text{A swimmer swims perpendicular to river flow and reaches point } B. \text{ If the velocity of the swimmer in still water is } 4 \text{ km/hr, the velocity of the river flow is:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \text{ km/hr}$, $5 \text{ km/hr}$...
1
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19097
$\text{A projectile is launched from a horizontal surface with an initial velocity } u. \text{ At its maximum height, the velocity of the projectile is } \frac{\sqrt{3}u}{2}. \text{ The time of flight of the projectile is:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\sqrt{3}u}{g}$, $\frac{2u}{g}$...
3
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19096
$\text{Two projectiles are thrown at an angle of projection } \alpha \text{ and } \beta \text{ with the horizontal. If } \alpha + \beta = 90^\circ, \text{ then the ratio of the range of two projectiles on the horizontal plane is equal to:}$ $1.\ 1 : 1$ $2.\ 2 : 1$ $3.\ 1 : 2$ $4.\ 1 : 3$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : 1$, $2 : 1$...
1
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19095
$\text{If a ball is thrown from the ground in a vertical plane and reaches a maximum height of } 360 \text{ m, the maximum horizontal distance it can cover on level ground using the same launch speed is:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$360 \text{ m}$, $720 \text{ m}$...
2
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19094
$\text{An object is projected in the air with initial velocity } u \text{ at an angle } \theta. \text{ The projectile motion is such that the horizontal range } R, \text{ is maximum. Another object is projected in the air with a horizontal range half of the range of the first object. The initial velocity remains the same in both cases. The value of the angle of projection, at which the second object is projected, will be:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$45^\circ$, $30^\circ$...
4
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19093
$\text{Two inclined planes are placed as shown in the figure. A block is projected from the point } A \text{ of the inclined plane } AB \text{ along its surface with a velocity just sufficient to carry it to the top point } B \text{ at a height of } 10 \text{ m. After reaching the point } B \text{ the block slides down on the inclined plane } BC. \text{ The time it takes to reach the point } C \text{ from the point } A \text{ is } t(\sqrt{2} + 1) \text{ s. The value of } t \text{ is: (take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $2$...
2
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19092
$\text{Two projectiles thrown at } 30^\circ \text{ and } 45^\circ \text{ with the horizontal respectively, reach the maximum height in same time. The ratio of their initial velocities is:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$1 : \sqrt{2}$, $2 : 1$...
3
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19091
$\text{A person moves from point } A \text{ to point } B \text{ along a circular arc that}$ $\text{subtends an angle of } 135^\circ \text{ at the centre } O, \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The length of the arc } AB \text{ is } 60 \text{ m. If } \cos 135^\circ = -0.7, \text{ the}$ $\text{magnitude of the displacement of the person is:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$42 \text{ m}$, $47 \text{ m}$...
2
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19090
$\text{A person can throw a ball up to a maximum range of } 100 \text{ m.}$ $\text{How high above the ground can he throw the same ball?}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$25 \text{ m}$, $50 \text{ m}$...
2
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19089
$\text{A girl standing on the road holds her umbrella at } 45^\circ \text{ with the vertical to keep the rain away. If she starts running without an umbrella with a speed of } 15\sqrt{2} \text{ km/h, the raindrops hit her head vertically. The speed of raindrops with respect to the moving girl is:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$30 \text{ km/h}$, $\frac{25}{\sqrt{2}} \text{ km/h}$...
3
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19088
$\text{The trajectory of a projectile in a vertical plane is } y = \alpha x - \beta x^2, \text{ where } \alpha \text{ and } \beta \text{ are constants and } x \text{ and } y \text{ are respectively the horizontal and vertical distances of the projectile from the point of projection. The angle of projection } \theta \text{ and the maximum height attained } H \text{ are respectively given by:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\tan^{-1} \alpha, \frac{\alpha^2}{4\beta}$, $\tan^{-1} \beta, \frac{\alpha^2}{2\beta}$...
1
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19087
$\text{A particle moves at a constant speed along the circumference of a circle with a radius } R, \text{ subject to a central fictitious force } F \text{ that is inversely proportional to } R^3. \text{ Its time period of revolution will be given by:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$T \propto R^2$, $T \propto R^{\frac{3}{2}}$...
1
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19086
$\text{When a car is at rest, its driver sees rain drops falling on it vertically.}$ $\text{When driving the car with speed } v, \text{ he sees that rain drops are coming}$ $\text{at an angle } 60^\circ \text{ from the horizontal. On further increasing the speed}$ $\text{of the car to } (1 + \beta)v, \text{ this angle changes to } 45^\circ. \text{ The value of } \beta \text{ is}$ $\text{close to:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
0.41, 0.50...
4
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19085
$\text{A clock has a continuously moving second's hand of } 0.1 \text{ m length.}$ $\text{The average acceleration of the tip of the second hand (in units of } \text{ms}^{-2}) \text{ is of the order of:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$10^{-3}$, $10^{-4}$...
1
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19084
$\text{A helicopter rises from rest on the ground vertically upwards with a constant acceleration } g. \text{ A food packet is dropped from the helicopter when it is a height } h. \text{ The time taken by the packet to reach the ground is close to } [g \text{ is the acceleration due to gravity}]:$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$t = \sqrt{\frac{2h}{3g}}$, $t = 1.8 \sqrt{\frac{h}{g}}$...
3
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19083
$\text{A particle starts from the origin at time } t = 0 \text{ with an initial velocity of } 5\hat{j} \text{ ms}^{-1}. \text{ It moves in the } XY\text{-plane under a constant acceleration of } (10\hat{i} + 4\hat{j}) \text{ ms}^{-2}. \text{ At some later time } t, \text{ the coordinates of the particle are } (20 \text{ m}, y_0 \text{ m}). \text{ The values of } t \text{ and } y_0 \text{ are, respectively:}$ $1. \ 4 \text{ s and } 52 \text{ m}$ $2. \ 5 \text{ s and } 25 \text{ m}$ $3. \ 2 \text{ s and } 18 \text{ m}$ $4. \ 2 \text{ s and } 24 \text{ m}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ s and } 52 \text{ m}$, $5 \text{ s and } 25 \text{ m}$...
3
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19082
$\text{Two particles are projected from the same point with the same speed } u, \text{ but at different angles.}$ $\text{They both cover the same horizontal range } R, \text{ but reach different maximum heights, } h_1 \text{ and } h_2.$ $\text{Which of the following relations is correct?}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$R^2 = h_1 h_2$, $R^2 = 16 h_1 h_2$...
2
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19081
$\text{The trajectory of a projectile near the surface of the earth is given as}$ $y = 2x - 9x^2.$ $\text{If it were launched at an angle } \theta_0 \text{ with speed } v_0 \text{ then:}$ $(g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\theta_0 = \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}\right) \text{ and } v_0 = \frac{5}{3} \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $\theta_0 = \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}}\right) \text{ and } v_0 = \frac{3}{5} \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
1
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19080
$\text{A shell is fired from a fixed artillery gun with an initial speed } u \text{ such that it hits the target on the ground at a distance } R \text{ from it. If } t_1 \text{ and } t_2 \text{ are the values of the time taken by it to hit the target in two possible ways, the product } t_1 t_2 \text{ is:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2R}{g}$, $\frac{R}{2g}$...
1
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19079
$\text{A particle is projected with a speed of } 2 \text{ m/s from the base of a plane inclined at } 30^\circ \text{ to the horizontal.}$ $\text{The direction of projection makes an angle of } 15^\circ \text{ above the inclined plane as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{If } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2, \text{ what is the distance along the plane from the point of projection to the point where the particle strikes the plane?}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$14 \text{ cm}$, $28 \text{ cm}$...
3
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19078
$\text{The position vector of a particle changes with time according to the relation,}$ $\vec{r}(t) = (15t^2)\hat{i} + (4 - 20t^2)\hat{j}, \text{ where } \vec{r}(t) \text{ is in metres and } t \text{ is in seconds.}$ $\text{What is the magnitude of the acceleration at } t = 1 \text{ second?}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ m/s}^2$, $40 \text{ m/s}^2$...
3
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19077
$\text{The stream of a river is flowing with a speed of } 2 \text{ km/h.}$ $\text{A swimmer can swim at a speed of } 4 \text{ km/h.}$ $\text{What should be the direction of the swimmer with respect to the flow of the river to cross the river straight?}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$60^\circ$, $90^\circ$...
4
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19076
$\text{Ship } A \text{ is sailing towards north-east with velocity } \vec{v} = 30\hat{i} + 50\hat{j} + 50\hat{k} \text{ km/hr where } \hat{i} \text{ and } \hat{j} \text{ north.}$ $\text{Ship } B \text{ is at a distance of } 80 \text{ km east and } 150 \text{ km north of Ship } A \text{ and is sailing towards west at } 10 \text{ km/hr.}$ $A \text{ will be at minimum distance from } B \text{ in:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$4.2 \text{ hrs}$, $2.2 \text{ hrs}$...
3
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19075
$\text{The machine as shown has 2 rods of length 1 m connected by a pivot at the top.}$ $\text{The end of one rod is connected to the floor by a stationary pivot and the end of the other rod has a roller that rolls along the floor in a slot.}$ $\text{As the roller goes back and forth, a 2 kg weight moves up and down.}$ $\text{If the roller is moving towards the right at a constant speed, the weight moves up with a:}$
1
103
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{speed which is } \frac{3}{4} \text{th of that of the roller when the weight is } 0.4 \text{ m above the ground}$, $\text{constant speed}$...
3
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19074
$\text{Two cars are travelling towards each other at speed of } 20 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ each.}$ $\text{When the cars are } 300 \text{ m apart, both the drivers apply brakes and the cars retard at the rate of } 2 \text{ ms}^{-2}. \text{ The distance between them when they come to rest is:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$200 \text{ m}$, $50 \text{ m}$...
3
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19073
$\text{A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance with speed } 6 \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{The other half is covered in two equal time intervals with speeds } 9 \text{ m/s and } 15 \text{ m/s respectively.}$ $\text{The average speed of the particle during the motion is:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$8.8 \text{ m/s}$, $8 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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19072
$\text{A body projected vertically upwards with a certain speed from the top of tower reaches the ground in } t_1. \text{ If it is projected vertically downwards from the same point with the same speed, it reaches the ground in } t_2. \text{ Time required to reach the ground, if it is dropped from the top of the tower is:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{t_1 + t_2}$, $\sqrt{t_1 - t_2}$...
3
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19071
$\text{A train starting from rest first accelerates uniformly up to a speed of } 80 \text{ km/h for time } t, \text{ then it moves with a constant speed for time } 3t. \text{ The average speed of the train for this duration of the journey will be (in km/h):}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$30$, $80$...
4
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19070
$\text{A particle is thrown vertically upward with initial velocity of } 150 \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{Find the ratio of its speed at } t = 3 \text{ seconds and } t = 5 \text{ seconds.}$ $\text{(take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
2:1, 1:1...
3
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19069
$\text{An object begins to move along the positive } x\text{-direction with an initial speed of } 10 \text{ m/s and a constant acceleration of } 2 \text{ m/s}^2. \text{ How much time will it take to reach a speed of } 60 \text{ m/s?}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$25 \text{ s}$, $20 \text{ s}$...
1
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19068
$\text{A train (moving with initial speed } = 20 \text{ m/s) applies brakes to stop at the incoming station which is } 500 \text{ m ahead. If brakes are applied after moving } 250 \text{ m, then how much beyond the station train would stop?}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$125 \text{ m}$, $500 \text{ m}$...
3
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19067
$\text{A car travels } 4 \text{ km distance with a speed of } 3 \text{ km/hr and next } 4 \text{ km with a speed of } 5 \text{ km/hr. What is the average speed of the car?}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{15}{2} \text{ km/hr}$, $\frac{15}{4} \text{ km/hr}$...
2
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19066
$\text{A ball is released from a height } h. \text{ If } t_1 \text{ and } t_2 \text{ be the time required to complete the first half and second half of the distance respectively.}$ $\text{Then, the correct relation between } t_1 \text{ and } t_2 \text{ is:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$t_1 = (\sqrt{2})t_2$, $t_1 = (\sqrt{2} - 1)t_2$...
4
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19065
$\text{A ball is thrown up vertically with a certain velocity so that, it reaches a maximum height } h. \text{ The ratio of the times in which it is at height } \frac{h}{3} \text{ while going up and coming down respectively is:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\sqrt{2} - 1}{\sqrt{2} + 1}$, $\frac{\sqrt{3} - \sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{2}}$...
2
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19064
$\text{An NCC parade is going on at a uniform speed of } 9 \text{ km/h under a mango tree on which a monkey is sitting at a height of } 19.6 \text{ m.}$ $\text{At any particular instant, the monkey drops a mango. A cadet will receive the mango whose distance from the tree at the time of drop is:}$ $\text{(Given } g = 9.8 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \text{ m}$, $10 \text{ m}$...
1
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19063
$\text{A block } A \text{ takes } 2 \text{ s to slide down a frictionless incline of } 30^\circ \text{ and length } l, \text{ kept inside a lift going up with uniform velocity } v. \text{ If the incline is changed to } 45^\circ, \text{ the time taken by the block, to slide down the incline, will be approximately:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.66 \text{ s}$, $0.83 \text{ s}$...
3
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19062
$\text{A small toy starts from rest and moves with a constant acceleration.}$ $\text{It travels } 10 \text{ m in the first } t \text{ seconds. How far will it travel in the next } t \text{ seconds?}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$10 \text{ m}$, $20 \text{ m}$...
3
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19061
$\text{Two balls A and B are placed at the top of a 180 m tall tower. Ball A is released from the top at } t = 0 \text{ s. Ball B is thrown vertically down with an initial velocity 'u' at } t = 2 \text{ s.}$ $\text{After a certain time, both balls meet 100 m above the ground.}$ $\text{The value of 'u' in ms}^{-1} \text{ is: [use } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2}] :$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$10$, $15$...
4
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19060
$\text{When a ball is dropped into a lake from a height } 4.9 \text{ m above the water level, it hits the water with a velocity } v \text{ and then sinks to the bottom with the constant velocity } v. \text{ It reaches the bottom of the lake } 4.0 \text{ s after it is dropped. The approximate depth of the lake is:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$19.6 \text{ m}$, $29.4 \text{ m}$...
2
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19059
$\text{From the top of a tower, a ball is thrown vertically upward which reaches the ground in 6 s.}$ $\text{A second ball thrown vertically downward from the same position with the same speed reaches the ground in 1.5 s.}$ $\text{A third ball released, from the rest from the same location, will reach the ground in:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$1$, $2$...
3
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19058
$\text{The velocity-time graphs of a car and a scooter are shown in the figure.}$ $\text{(i) The difference between the distance travelled by the car and the scooter in } 15 \text{ s and,}$ $\text{(ii) the time at which the car will catch up with the scooter respectively are:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$112.5 \text{ m and } 22.5 \text{ s}$, $337.5 \text{ m and } 25 \text{ s}$...
1
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19057
$\text{A car is standing } 200 \text{ m behind a bus, which is also at rest. The two start moving at the same instant but with different forward accelerations. The bus has acceleration } 2 \text{ m/s}^2 \text{ and the car has acceleration } 4 \text{ m/s}^2. \text{ The car will catch up with the bus after a time of:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{120} \text{ s}$, $15 \text{ s}$...
3
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19056
$\text{Which graph corresponds to an object moving with a constant negative acceleration and a positive velocity?}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1: Velocity vs. Time (decreasing)}$, $\text{Graph 2: Velocity vs. Distance (decreasing)}$...
2
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19055
$\text{If a particle starting from rest having constant acceleration covers the distance } S_1 \text{ in first } (p - 1) \text{ seconds and } S_2 \text{ in the first } p \text{ seconds, then find the time for which displacement is } S_1 + S_2.$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{2p^2 + 1} - 2p$, $\sqrt{2p^2 + 1} + 2p$...
1
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19054
$\text{An object is dropped from rest at point } P. \text{ It crosses two points } A \text{ and } B \text{ in a time interval of } 2 \text{ s, where the distance } AB = 80 \text{ m. If } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2, \text{ then what is the distance } AP \text{ in metres?}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$70$, $45$...
2
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19053
$\text{A bullet is fired into a fixed target. It loses } \frac{1}{3} \text{ rd of its velocity after travelling } 4 \text{ cm. It penetrates further } p \times 10^{-3} \text{ m before coming to rest. Find } p.$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
35, 30...
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19052
$\text{A particle is moving along a straight line, and its displacement at time } t \text{ seconds is given by:}$ $S = (2t^2 + 5) \text{ (in metres)}$ $\text{What is the velocity of the particle at } t = 1 \text{ s?}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ m/s}$, $2 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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19051
$\text{If position of particle is changing with time as } r = t^2 - 2t \text{ (m). Find the velocity at } t = 2 \text{ second}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$2 \text{ m/s}$, $3 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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19050
$\text{The position } x \text{ of a particle moving along the } x\text{-axis varies with time } t \text{ according to the equation: } x = 2.5t^2. \text{ What is the speed of the particle at } t = 5 \text{ s?}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$5 \text{ m/s}$, $10 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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19049
$\text{Two identical trains cross each other moving on parallel tracks, opposite in direction. Speed of one of the train is } 70 \text{ km/hr and second train has a speed of } 110 \text{ km/hr. If it takes } 8 \text{ seconds for two trains to cross each other then length of trains is equal to}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ m}$, $200 \text{ m}$...
2
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19048
$\text{Velocity of particle moving along a straight line is shown in figure.}$ $\text{The distance and displacement travelled by the body is}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$150 \text{ m and } 250 \text{ m}$, $250 \text{ m and } 250 \text{ m}$...
1
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19047
$\text{An object travels a distance } x \text{ with a constant speed } v_1, \text{ and then covers another equal distance } x \text{ with a different constant speed } v_2. \text{ The average velocity } v \text{ for the entire journey is given by:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$v = \frac{(v_1 + v_2)}{2}$, $\frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{v_1} + \frac{1}{v_2}$...
3
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19046
$\text{The graph shows the position-time } (x-t) \text{ relation for two students, } A \text{ and } B \text{ from school to their home.}$ $\text{Choose the correct entries:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
(a), (d), (b), (c)...
2
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19045
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: We can get displacement from the acceleration-time graph.}$ $\text{Statement II: We can get acceleration from the velocity-time graph.}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$...
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19044
$\text{A particle moves from } A \text{ to } B \text{ via } C \text{ with uniform speed of } \pi \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{The average velocity during the journey is:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{3} \text{ m/s}$, $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \text{ m/s}$...
3
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19043
$\text{A stone is thrown vertically up with speed } v_0 \text{ from a cliff of height } H. \text{ What would be the average speed of the ball till the moment it reaches ground?}$ $\text{(Given, } H = 100 \text{ m, } v_0 = 10 \text{ m/s, } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2.)$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{64}{1+\sqrt{21}} \text{ m/s}$, $55 \text{ m/s}$...
4
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19042
$\text{The position-time graph for a particle is parabolic (as shown in the figure).}$ $\text{Choose the corresponding } (v-t) \text{ graph.}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
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19041
$\text{What will be the velocity of the particle if the position of the particle is given by;} \; x = 2t^2 \; \text{at} \; t = 2 \; \text{s?}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$8 \; \text{m/s}$, $4 \; \text{m/s}$...
1
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19040
$\text{A car moving on a straight-line travels in same direction half of the}$ $\text{distance with uniform velocity } v_1 \text{ and other half of the distance with}$ $\text{uniform velocity } v_2 . \text{ The average velocity of the car is equal to:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{2v_1v_2}{v_1+v_2}$, $\frac{v_1+v_2}{2}$...
1
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19039
$\text{A juggler throws balls vertically upward with the same initial speed.}$ $\text{He throws } n \text{ balls per second. If he throws the next ball just as the}$ $\text{previous one reaches its maximum height, what is the maximum}$ $\text{height which each ball will reach?}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{g}{2n}$, $\frac{g}{n}$...
4
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19038
$\text{A bullet is shot vertically downwards with an initial velocity of } 100 \text{ m/s from a certain height.}$ $\text{Within } 10 \text{ s, the bullet reaches the ground and instantaneously comes to rest due to a perfectly inelastic collision.}$ $\text{The velocity-time curve for total time } t = 20 \text{ s is: (take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph with initial velocity } -100 \text{ m/s, decreasing to } -200 \text{ m/s at } 10 \text{ s, then } 0 \text{ m/s till } 20 \text{ s}$, $\text{Graph with initial velocity } +100 \text{ m/s, constant till } 20 \text{ s}$...
1
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19037
$\text{A particle is moving in a straight line such that its velocity is increasing at } 5 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ per meter.}$ $\text{The acceleration of the particle at a point where its velocity is } 20 \text{ ms}^{-1}, \text{ is:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$100 \text{ ms}^{-2}$, $200 \text{ ms}^{-2}$...
1
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19036
$\text{A car is moving with speed of } 150 \text{ km/h and after applying the brake, it will move } 27 \text{ m before it stops.}$ $\text{If the same car is moving with a speed of one-third the reported speed, then it will stop after travelling a distance of:}$ $1. \ 4 \text{ m}$ $2. \ 3 \text{ m}$ $3. \ 2 \text{ m}$ $4. \ 1 \text{ m}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$4 \text{ m}$, $3 \text{ m}$...
2
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19035
$\text{A car travels a distance } AB \text{ in three equal segments: the first third at a velocity of } v_1 \text{ m/s, the second third at } v_2 \text{ m/s, and the final third at } v_3 \text{ m/s.}$ $\text{Given that } v_3 = 3v_1, \ v_2 = 2v_1 \text{ and } v_1 = 11 \text{ m/s, the average velocity of the car is:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$12 \text{ m/s}$, $18 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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19034
$\text{Two buses } P \text{ and } Q \text{ start from a point at the same time and move in a straight line.}$ $\text{Their positions are represented by } X_p(t) = \alpha t + \beta t^2$ $\text{and } X_Q(t) = ft - t^2. \text{ At what time do both the buses have the same velocity?}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\alpha - f}{1 + \beta}$, $\frac{\alpha + f}{2(\beta - 1)}$...
4
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19033
$\text{A scooter accelerates from rest for time } t_1 \text{ at constant rate } a_1 \text{ and then retards at constant rate } a_2 \text{ for time } t_2 \text{ and comes to rest. The correct value of } \frac{t_1}{t_2} \text{ will be:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{a_1 + a_2}{a_2}$, $\frac{a_2}{a_1}$...
2
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19032
$\text{A stone is dropped from the top of a building. When it crosses a point } 5 \text{ m below the top, another stone starts to fall from a point } 25 \text{ m below the top.}$ $\text{Both stones reach the bottom of the building simultaneously. The height of the building is:}$ $1.\ 35 \text{ m}$ $2.\ 45 \text{ m}$ $3.\ 50 \text{ m}$ $4.\ 25 \text{ m}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$35 \text{ m}$, $45 \text{ m}$...
2
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19031
$\text{An engine of a train moving with uniform acceleration passes the signal post with velocity } u \text{ and the last compartment passes the same post with velocity } v. \text{ The velocity with which the middle point of the train passes the signal post is:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{v^2 + u^2}{2}}$, $\frac{v-u}{2}$...
1
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19030
$\text{If the velocity-time graph has the shape } AMB, \text{ what would be the shape of the corresponding acceleration-time graph?}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\begin{array}{c} \vec{a} \\ \text{(graph 1)} \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{c} \vec{a} \\ \text{(graph 2)} \end{array}$...
2
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19029
$\text{The velocity } (v) \text{ and time } (t) \text{ graph of a body in a straight-line motion is shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The point } S \text{ occurs at } 4.333 \text{ seconds.}$ $\text{The total distance covered by the body in } 6 \text{ s is:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$12 \text{ m}$, $\frac{49}{12} \text{ m}$...
4
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19028
$\text{A tennis ball is released from a height } h \text{ and after freely falling on a wooden floor it rebounds and reaches height } \frac{h}{2}. \text{ The velocity versus height of the ball during its motion may be represented graphically by: (graph are drawn schematically and on not to scale)}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
2
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19027
$\text{Train A and Train B are running on parallel tracks in opposite directions with speeds of } 36 \text{ km/h and } 72 \text{ km/h, respectively. A person is walking inside Train A in the direction opposite to the train's motion with a speed of } 1.8 \text{ km/h. What is the speed of this person as observed from Train B? (Assume the distance between the tracks is negligible.)}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$30.5 \text{ m/s}$, $29.5 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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19026
$\text{A particle is moving with speed } v = b\sqrt{x} \text{ along the positive } x\text{-axis.}$ $\text{The speed of the particle at time } t = T \text{ is: (assume that the particle is at origin at } t = 0)$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{b^2 T}{\sqrt{2}}$, $b^2 T$...
3
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19025
$\text{A ball is thrown upward with an initial velocity } v_0 \text{ from the surface of the earth.}$ $\text{The motion of the ball is affected by a drag force equal to } myv^2 \text{ (where } m \text{ is mass of the ball, } v \text{ is its instantaneous velocity and } y \text{ is a constant).}$ $\text{The time taken by the ball to rise to its zenith (maximum height) is:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{yg}} \tan^{-1}\left(\sqrt{\frac{y}{g}} v_0\right)$, $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2yg}} \tan^{-1}\left(\sqrt{\frac{2y}{g}} v_0\right)$...
1
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19024
$\text{The position of a particle as a function of time } t, \text{ is given by:}$ $x(t) = at + bt^2 - ct^3$ $\text{where } a, b \text{ and } c \text{ are constants. When the particle attains zero acceleration, then its velocity will be:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$a + \frac{b^2}{4c}$, $a + \frac{b^2}{c}$...
3
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19023
$\text{A ball is thrown vertically up (taken as } +z\text{-axis) from the ground. The correct momentum-height (} p-h \text{) diagram is:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Option 1 diagram}$, $\text{Option 2 diagram}$...
4
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19022
$\text{A particle starts from origin } O \text{ from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration along the positive } x\text{-axis. Identify all figures that correctly represent the motion qualitatively.}$ $(a = \text{acceleration}, \ v = \text{velocity}, \ x = \text{displacement}, \ t = \text{time})$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$(A) \text{ only}$, $(A), \ (B) \text{ and } (D) \text{ only}$...
2
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19021
$\text{An automobile moving at a speed of } 40 \text{ km/hr can be brought to rest by applying brakes over a distance of } 40 \text{ m.}$ $\text{If the automobile were instead moving at } 80 \text{ km/h, what would be its minimum stopping distance (assuming the braking force remains the same and no skidding occurs)?}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$150 \text{ m}$, $100 \text{ m}$...
4
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19020
$\text{The four graphs below are intended to represent the same motion.}$ $\text{However, one of them is incorrect. Identify the graph that does not}$ $\text{accurately depict the motion.}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Velocity vs. Position}$, $\text{Distance vs. Time}$...
2
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19019
$\text{A body is projected vertically upward and then allowed to fall back down under gravity. Which of the following velocity-time } (v-t) \text{ graphs correctly represents its motion throughout the ascent and descent?}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Graph 1:}$ $v$ $t$, $\text{Graph 2:}$ $v$ $t$...
3
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19018
$\text{Two stones are thrown simultaneously from the edge of a cliff 240 m high.}$ $\text{The first stone is thrown upward with an initial speed of 10 m/s, and the second with 40 m/s.}$ $\text{Assuming the stones do not bounce after hitting the ground and neglecting air resistance } (g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2),$ $\text{which of the following graphs best represents how the position of the second stone varies relative to the first stone with time?}$ $\text{(graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale)}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$(y_2 - y_1) \text{ m}$ $t \text{ (s)}$, $(y_2 - y_1) \text{ m}$ $t \text{ (s)}$...
3
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19017
$\text{From a tower of height } H, \text{ a particle is thrown vertically upwards with a speed } u. \text{ The time taken by the particle, to hit the ground, is } n \text{ times that taken by it to reach the highest point of its path. The relation between } H, u \text{ and } n \text{ is:}$
1
102
JEE MCQ NEW
$gH = (n - 2)^2 u^2$, $2gH = nu^2(n - 2)$...
2
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19016
111
N/A
N/A
N/A
N/A
N/A
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19015
$\text{The de Broglie wavelength associated with a particle of mass m and energy E is } h/\sqrt{2mE}. \text{ The dimensional formula for Planck's constant is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[M^2L^2T^{-2}]$, $[MLT^{-2}]$...
3
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19014
$\text{One main scale division of a vernier caliper is equal to } m \text{ units.}$ $\text{If } n\text{th division of main scale coincides with } (n+1)\text{th division of vernier scale,}$ $\text{the least count of the vernier caliper is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{1}{(n+1)}$, $\frac{n}{(n+1)}$...
4
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19013
$\text{The dimensional formula of latent heat is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[MLT^{-2}]$, $[ML^2T^{-2}]$...
4
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19012
$\text{The diameter of a sphere is measured using a vernier caliper whose }$ $9 \text{ divisions of main scale are equal to } 10 \text{ divisions of vernier scale.}$ $\text{The shortest division on the main scale is equal to } 1 \text{ mm.}$ $\text{The main scale reading is } 2 \text{ cm and second division of vernier scale}$ $\text{coincides with a division on main scale.}$ $\text{If mass of the sphere is } 8.635 \text{ g, the density of the sphere is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.5 \text{ g/cm}^3$, $1.7 \text{ g/cm}^3$...
3
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19011
$\text{Young's modulus is determined by the equation given by}$ $Y = 49000 \frac{m}{l} \frac{\text{dyne}}{\text{cm}^2}$ $\text{where M is the mass and I is the extension of wire used in the experiment.}$ $\text{Now error in Young modules (Y) is estimated by taking data from M I plot in graph paper.}$ $\text{The smallest scale divisions are 5 g and 0.02 cm along load axis and extension axis respectively.}$ $\text{If the value of M and I are 500 g and 2 cm respectively then percentage error of Y is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.2\%$, $0.02\%$...
3
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19010
$\text{In an expression } a \times 10^b:$ $1.\ a \text{ is order of magnitude for } b \leq 5$ $2.\ b \text{ is order of magnitude for } 5 < a \leq 10$ $3.\ b \text{ is order of magnitude for } a \geq 5$ $4.\ b \text{ is order of magnitude for } a \leq 5$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$a \text{ is order of magnitude for } b \leq 5$, $b \text{ is order of magnitude for } 5 < a \leq 10$...
4
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19009
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statements (I): Dimensions of specific heat is } [L^2T^{-2}K^{-1}]$ $\text{Statements (II): Dimensions of gas constant is } [ML^2T^{-1}K^{-1}]$ $\text{In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate}$ $\text{answer from the options given below:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both statement (I) and statement (II) are correct}$, $\text{Statement (I) is incorrect but statement (II) is correct}$...
3
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19008
$\text{In finding out refractive index of glass slab the following observations were made through travelling microscope } 50 \text{ vernier scale division} = 49 \text{ MSD} ; 20 \text{ divisions on main scale in each cm}$ $\text{For mark on paper: } MSR = 8.45 \text{ cm}, VC = 26$ $\text{For mark on paper seen through slab: } MSR = 7.12 \text{ cm}, VC = 41$ $\text{For powder particle on the top surface of the glass slab: } MSR = 4.05 \text{ cm}, VC = 1$ $(MSR = \text{Main Scale Reading}, VC = \text{Vernier Coincidence})$ $\text{Refractive index of the glass slab is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
1.24, 1.35...
3
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19007
$\text{In a Vernier caliper, when both jaws touch each other, zero or the Vernier scale shifts towards left and its 4th division coincides exactly with a certain division on main scale. If 50 Vernier scale divisions equal to 49 main scale divisions and zero error in the instrument is 0.04 mm then how many main scale divisions are there in 1 cm?}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$5$, $20$...
2
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19006
$\text{To find the spring constant (k) of a spring experimentally, a student commits } 2\% \text{ positive error in the measurement of time and } 1\% \text{ negative error in the measurement of mass. The percentage error in determining the value of } k \text{ is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$3\%$, $4\%$...
1
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19005
$\text{While measuring the diameter of a wire using a screw gauge, the following readings were noted. The main scale reading is } 1 \text{ mm, and the circular scale reading is equal to } 42 \text{ divisions. The pitch of the screw gauge is } 1 \text{ mm, and it has } 100 \text{ divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire is } \frac{x}{50} \text{ mm. The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$142$, $21$...
4
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19004
$\text{Match List I with List II}$ $\text{LIST-I}$ \quad \text{LIST-II}$ $\text{A. Torque} \quad \text{I. } \left[ M^1 L^1 T^{-2} A^{-2} \right]$ $\text{B. Magnetic field} \quad \text{II. } \left[ L^2 A^1 \right]$ $\text{C. Magnetic moment} \quad \text{III. } \left[ M^1 T^{-2} A^{-1} \right]$ $\text{D. Permeability of free space} \quad \text{IV. } \left[ M^1 L^2 T^{-2} \right]$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV}$, $\text{A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I}$...
3
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19003
$\text{Voltage and resistance for a resistor are measured as } V = 200 \pm 5 \text{ volts and } R = 20 \pm 0.2 \, \Omega. \text{ The percentage error in current } I = \frac{V}{R} \text{ is } x. \text{ Then the value of } 10x \text{ is:}$ $1. \ 45$ $2. \ 35$ $3. \ 30$ $4. \ 60$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$45$, $35$...
2
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19002
$\text{Statement I: Positive zero error is added in measurement.}$ $\text{Statement II: Defects may occur during the manufacturing of measuring instruments}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.}$, $\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$...
2
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19001
$\left( P - \frac{a}{V^2} \right) (V - b) = nRT$, \text{ where } P, V, R \text{ and } T \text{ are pressure, volume, universal gas constant, and temperature, then } \frac{a}{b^2} \text{ has the same dimensional formula as that of:}$ $1. \ R$ $2. \ PV$ $3. \ RT$ $4. \ P$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$R$, $PV$...
4
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19000
$\text{A spherometer is used to measure:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{the radius of curvature of a lens}$, $\text{length of rod}$...
1
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18999
$\text{Consider the following Assertion and Reason:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{If radius of ball (5} \pm 0.1\text{) mm, then error in terminal velocity is 4\%.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{Terminal velocity is directly proportional to radius (r).}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.}$, $\text{Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.}$...
3
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18998
$\text{If the height of the tower used for L.O.S is increased by } 21\% \text{ then the percentage change in range is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$10\%$, $21\%$...
1
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18997
$\text{Statement-I: Light year, parsec and AU are units for measuring distance.}$ $\text{Statement-II: (1 light year) > (1 parsec) > 1 AU}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both statements I and II are correct}$, $\text{Statement I is correct, statement II is incorrect}$...
2
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18996
$\text{Mark the option correctly matching the following columns with appropriate dimensions.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline \text{(A) Surface Tension} & \text{(P)} \ [ML^{-1}T^{-2}] \\ \text{(B) Pressure} & \text{(Q)} \ [MT^{-2}] \\ \text{(C) Viscosity} & \text{(R)} \ [MLT^{-1}] \\ \text{(D) Impulse} & \text{(S)} \ [ML^{-1}T^{-1}] \\ \hline \end{array}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A - Q, B - P, C - R, D - S}$, $\text{A - Q, B - P, C - S, D - R}$...
2
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18995
$\text{Match List-I with List-II.}$ $\text{List-I}$ \quad \text{List-II}$ $\text{A. Torque} \quad \text{I. N} \cdot \text{m s}^{-1}$ $\text{B. Stress} \quad \text{II. J} \cdot \text{kg}^{-1}$ $\text{C. Latent Heat} \quad \text{III. N} \cdot \text{m}$ $\text{D. Power} \quad \text{IV. N} \cdot \text{m}^{-2}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV}$, $\text{A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I}$...
2
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18994
$\text{A travelling microscope has 20 divisions per cm on the main scale while its Vernier scale has total 50 divisions and 25 Vernier scale divisions are equal to 24 main scale divisions, what is the least count of the travelling microscope?}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.001 \text{ cm}$, $0.002 \text{ mm}$...
3
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18993
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{The time period of oscillation of a liquid drop depends on surface tension } (S) \text{ if the density of the liquid is } \rho \text{ and the radius of the drop is } r, \text{ then } T = k \sqrt{\frac{\rho r^3}{S^{3/2}}} \text{ is dimensionally correct, where } k \text{ is dimensionless.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{Using dimensional analysis, we get RHS having different dimensions than that of the time period.}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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18992
$\text{The dimensions of } \left( \frac{B^2}{\mu_0} \right) \text{ will be:}$ $\text{(if } \mu_0 : \text{ permeability of free space and B: magnetic field)}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[ML^2T^{-2}]$, $[MLT^{-2}]$...
3
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18991
$\text{An expression of energy density is given by } u = \frac{\alpha}{\beta} \sin \left( \frac{\alpha x}{kt} \right), \text{ where } \alpha, \beta \text{ are constants, } x \text{ is displacement, } k \text{ is Boltzmann constant and } t \text{ is the temperature. The dimensions of } \beta \text{ will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[M L^2 T^{-2} \theta^{-1}]$, $[M^0 L^2 T^{-2}]$...
4
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18990
$\text{The one division of the main scale of vernier callipers reads 1 mm and 10 divisions of the Vernier scale are equal to the 9 divisions on the main scale.}$ $\text{When the two jaws of the instrument touch each other the zero of the Vernier lies to the right of zero of the main scale and its fourth division coincides with a main scale division.}$ $\text{When a spherical bob is tightly placed between the two jaws, the zero of the Vernier scale lies between 4.1 cm and 4.2 cm and 6}^{\text{th}} \text{ Vernier division coincides with a main scale division.}$ $\text{The diameter of the bob will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.24 \times 10^{-2} \text{ cm}$, $2.40 \times 10^{-2} \text{ cm}$...
4
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18989
$\text{A screw gauge of pitch } 0.5 \text{ mm is used to measure the diameter of uniform wire of length } 6.8 \text{ cm, the main scale reading is } 1.5 \text{ mm and circular scale reading is } 7. \text{ The calculated curved surface area of wire to the appropriate significant figures is:}$ $[\text{Screw gauge has } 50 \text{ divisions on the circular scale}]$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$6.8 \text{ cm}^2$, $3.4 \text{ cm}^2$...
2
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18988
$\text{The maximum error in the measurement of resistance, current and time for which current flows in an electrical circuit are } 1\% , 2\% \text{ and } 3\% \text{ respectively. The maximum percentage error in the detection of the dissipated heat will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$2$, $4$...
4
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18987
$\text{Which of the following physical quantities have the same dimensions?}$ $1. \text{Electric displacement } (\vec{D}) \text{ and surface charge density}$ $2. \text{Displacement current and electric field}$ $3. \text{Current density and surface charge density}$ $4. \text{Electric potential and energy}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Electric displacement } (\vec{D}) \text{ and surface charge density}$, $\text{Displacement current and electric field}$...
1
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18986
$\text{If momentum } [P], \text{ area } [A] \text{ and time } [T] \text{ are taken as fundamental quantities, then the dimensional formula for coefficient of viscosity is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[PA^{-1}T^0]$, $[PAT^{-1}]$...
1
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18985
$\text{The Vernier constant of Vernier callipers is } 0.1 \text{ mm and it has zero error of } (-0.05) \text{ cm.}$ $\text{While measuring the diameter of a sphere, the main scale reading is } 1.7 \text{ cm and the coinciding Vernier division is } 5.$ $\text{The corrected diameter will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.75 \times 10^{-2} \text{ cm}$, $1.80 \times 10^{-2} \text{ cm}$...
2
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18984
$\text{In Vander Wall's equation } \left[ P + \frac{a}{V^2} \right] \left[ V - b \right] = RT; \ P \text{ is pressure, } V \text{ is volume, } R \text{ is universal gas constant and } T \text{ is temperature. The ratio of constants } \frac{a}{b} \text{ is dimensionally equal to:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{P}{V}$, $\frac{V}{P}$...
3
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18983
$\text{If } L, C \text{ and } R \text{ are the self-inductance, capacitance, and resistance respectively, which of the following does not have the dimension of time?}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$RC$, $\frac{L}{R}$...
4
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18982
$\text{The SI unit of a physical quantity is pascal-second.}$ $\text{The dimensional formula of this quantity will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[\text{ML}^{-1}\text{T}^{-1}]$, $[\text{ML}^{-1}\text{T}^{-2}]$...
1
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18981
$\text{A silver wire has a mass } (0.6 \pm 0.006) \text{ g, radius } (0.5 \pm 0.005) \text{ mm}$ $\text{and length } (4 \pm 0.04) \text{ cm. The maximum percentage error in the}$ $\text{measurement of its density will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$4\%$, $3\%$...
1
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18980
$\text{A travelling microscope is used to determine the refractive index of a glass slab. If } 40 \text{ divisions are there in } 1 \text{ cm on the main scale and } 50 \text{ Vernier scale divisions are equal to } 49 \text{ main scale divisions, then the least count of the travelling microscope is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$3 \times 10^{-6} \text{ m}$, $4 \times 10^{-6} \text{ m}$...
3
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18979
$\text{The dimension of mutual inductance is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[\text{ML}^2\text{T}^{-2}\text{A}^{-1}]$, $[\text{ML}^2\text{T}^{-3}\text{A}^{-1}]$...
3
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18978
$\text{An expression for a dimensionless quantity } P \text{ is given by}$ $P = \frac{\alpha}{\beta} \log_e \left( \frac{kt}{\beta x} \right);$ $\text{where } \alpha \text{ and } \beta \text{ are constants, } x \text{ is distance; } k \text{ is Boltzmann constant and } t \text{ is the temperature.}$ $\text{Then the dimension of } \alpha \text{ will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[M^0 L^{-1} T^0]$, $[ML^0 T^{-2}]$...
3
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18977
$\text{If } Z = \frac{A^2B^3}{C^4}, \text{ then the relative error in } Z \text{ will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{\Delta A}{A} + \frac{\Delta B}{B} + \frac{\Delta C}{C}$, $\frac{2\Delta A}{A} + \frac{3\Delta B}{B} + \frac{4\Delta C}{C}$...
3
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18976
$\text{Identify the pair of physical quantities that have the same dimensions.}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Velocity gradient and decay constant}$, $\text{Wien's constant and Stefan's constant}$...
1
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18975
$\text{The pair of physical quantities which have different dimensions are:}$ $1. \text{Wave number and Rydberg's constant}$ $2. \text{Stress and Coefficient of elasticity}$ $3. \text{Coercivity and Magnetisation}$ $4. \text{Specific heat capacity and Latent heat}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Wave number and Rydberg's constant}$, $\text{Stress and Coefficient of elasticity}$...
4
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18974
$\text{A student measuring the diameter of a pencil of circular cross-section with the help of a vernier scale records the following four readings } 5.50 \text{ mm}, 5.55 \text{ mm}, 5.45 \text{ mm}, 5.65 \text{ mm}. \text{ The average of these four readings is } 5.5375 \text{ mm} \text{ and the standard deviation of the data is } 0.07395 \text{ mm}. \text{ The average diameter of the pencil should therefore be recorded as:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$(5.5375 \pm 0.0739) \text{ mm}$, $(5.538 \pm 0.074) \text{ mm}$...
3
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18973
$\text{A physical quantity } z \text{ depends on four observables } a, b, c \text{ and } d, \text{ as}$ $z = \frac{a^2 b^{\frac{3}{2}}}{\sqrt{cd^3}}$ $\text{The percentage of error in the measurement of } a, b, c \text{ and } d \text{ is } 2\%, 1.5\%, 4\% \text{ and } 2.5\% \text{ respectively. The percentage of error in } z \text{ is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
12.25\%, 14.5\%...
2
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18972
$\text{The dimensional formula for thermal conductivity is: (here } K \text{ denotes the temperature)}$ $1. \ [MLT^{-2}K]$ $2. \ [MLT^{-3}K]$ $3. \ [MLT^{-3}K^{-1}]$ $4. \ [MLT^{-2}K^{-2}]$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[MLT^{-2}K]$, $[MLT^{-3}K]$...
3
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18971
$\text{The amount of solar energy received on the earth's surface per unit area per unit time is defined as a solar constant. Dimension of solar constant is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[ML^2T^{-2}]$, $[M^2L^0T^{-1}]$...
4
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18970
$\text{Using a screw gauge with pitch } 0.1 \text{ cm and } 50 \text{ divisions on its circular scale, the thickness of an object is measured. It should be accurately recorded as:}$ $1.\ 2.124\ \text{cm}$ $2.\ 2.121\ \text{cm}$ $3.\ 2.125\ \text{cm}$ $4.\ 2.123\ \text{cm}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.124\ \text{cm}$, $2.121\ \text{cm}$...
1
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18969
$\text{A copper wire is stretched to make it } 0.5\% \text{ longer. The percentage change in its electric resistance, if its volume remains unchanged, is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.0\%$, $2.5\%$...
3
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18968
$\text{Which of the following combinations has the dimension of electrical resistance (}$ \varepsilon_0 \text{ is the permittivity of the vacuum and } \mu_0 \text{ is the permeability of vacuum)?}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{\varepsilon_0}{\mu_0}}$, $\frac{\varepsilon_0}{\mu_0}$...
4
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18967
$\text{The area of a square is } 5.29 \text{ cm}^2. \text{ The area of } 7 \text{ such squares taking into account the significant figures is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$37.03 \text{ cm}^2$, $37.0 \text{ cm}^2$...
1
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18966
$\text{If surface tension } (S), \text{ Moment of Inertia } (I) \text{ and Planck's constant } (h), \text{ were to be taken as the fundamental units, the dimensional formula for linear momentum would be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$S^{3/2}I^{1/2}h^0$, $S^{1/2}I^{1/2}h^{-1}$...
4
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18965
$\text{In SI units, the dimensions of } \sqrt{\frac{\varepsilon_0}{\mu_0}} \text{ is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$A T^{-3} M L^{3/2}$, $A^{-1} T M L^3$...
4
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18964
$\text{The percentage errors in quantities } P, Q, R \text{ and } S \text{ are } 0.5\%, 1\%, 3\% \text{ and } 1.5\% \text{ respectively in the measurement of a physical quantity } A = \frac{P^3Q^2}{\sqrt{RS}}. \text{ The maximum percentage error in the value of } A \text{ will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$6.5\%$, $7.5\%$...
1
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18963
$\text{The relative error in the determination of the surface area of a sphere is } \alpha. \text{ Then the relative error in the determination of its volume is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{3}{2} \alpha$, $\frac{2}{3} \alpha$...
1
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18962
$\text{In a screw gauge, } 5 \text{ complete rotations of the screw cause it to move a linear distance of } 0.25 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{There are } 100 \text{ circular scale divisions.}$ $\text{The thickness of a wire measured by this screw gauge gives a reading of } 4 \text{ main scale divisions and } 30 \text{ circular scale divisions.}$ $\text{Assuming negligible zero error, the thickness of the wire is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.4300 \text{ cm}$, $0.3150 \text{ cm}$...
4
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18961
$\text{The density of a material in the shape of a cube is determined by measuring three sides of the cube and its mass.}$ $\text{If the relative errors in measuring the mass and length are respectively } 1.5\% \text{ and } 1\%, \text{the maximum error in determining the density is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.5\%$, $3.5\%$...
3
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18960
$\text{A physical quantity } P \text{ is described by the relation } P = a^{\frac{1}{2}}b^2c^3d^{-4}. \text{ If the relative errors in the measurement of } a, b, c \text{ and } d \text{ respectively are } 2\%, 1\%, 3\% \text{ and } 5\%, \text{ then the relative error in } P \text{ will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$25\%$, $12\%$...
4
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18959
$\text{Time } (T), \text{ velocity } (C) \text{ and angular momentum } (h) \text{ are chosen as fundamental quantities instead of mass, length, and time. In terms of these, the dimensions of mass would be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[M] = [T^{-1}C^2h]$, $[M] = [T^{-1}C^{-2}h^{-1}]$...
3
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18958
$\text{A beaker contains a fluid of density } p \text{ kg/m}^3, \text{ specific heat } S \text{ J/kg}^\circ\text{C and viscosity } \eta. \text{ The beaker is filled up to height } h. \text{ To estimate the rate of heat transfer per unit area } Q/A \text{ by convection when the beaker is put on a hot plate, a student proposes that it should depend on } \eta, \left( \frac{S \Delta \theta}{h} \right), \text{ and } \left( \frac{1}{pg} \right) \text{ when } \Delta \theta \text{ (in } ^\circ\text{C) is the difference in the temperature between the bottom and top of the fluid. In that situation, the correct option for } (Q/A) \text{ is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\eta \left( \frac{S \Delta \theta}{h} \right) \left( \frac{1}{pg} \right)$, $\eta \left( \frac{S \Delta \theta}{\eta h} \right) \left( \frac{1}{pg} \right)$...
4
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18957
$\text{If electronic charge } e, \text{ electron mass } m, \text{ speed of light in vacuum } c$ $\text{ and Planck's constant } h \text{ are taken as fundamental quantities,}$ $\text{the permeability of vacuum } \mu_0 \text{ can be expressed in units of:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{h}{me^2} \right)$, $\left( \frac{hc}{me^2} \right)$...
3
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18956
$\text{The diameter of a steel ball is measured using vernier calipers which have divisions of } 0.1 \text{ cm on its main scale (MS) and 10 divisions of its vernier scale (VS) match 9 divisions on the main scale. Three such measurements for a ball are given as:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline \text{S.No} & \text{MS (cm)} & \text{VS divisions} \\ \hline 1 & 0.5 & 8 \\ 2 & 0.5 & 4 \\ 3 & 0.5 & 6 \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{If the zero error is } -0.03 \text{ cm, then the mean corrected diameter is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.53 \text{ cm}$, $0.56 \text{ cm}$...
3
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18955
$\text{Which of the following equations is dimensionally consistent according to the principle of homogeneity, where } T \text{ is the time period, } G \text{ is the gravitational constant, } M \text{ is mass, and } r \text{ is the orbital radius?}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$T^2 = \frac{4\pi^2 r^3}{GM}$, $T^2 = \frac{4\pi^2 r^2}{GM}$...
1
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18954
$\text{A physical quantity } Q \text{ depends on other physical quantities } a, b \text{ and } c$ $\text{as } Q = \frac{a^4b^3}{c^2}. \text{ If the maximum percentage error in measurement of }$ $a, b \text{ and } c \text{ are } 3\%, 4\% \text{ and } 5\% \text{ respectively, then the maximum}$ $\text{percentage error in measurement of } Q \text{ is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$34\%$, $40\%$...
1
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18953
$\text{Statement I: Linear momentum and moment of force have the same dimensions.}$ $\text{Statement II: Planck's constant and angular momentum have the same dimension.}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.}$, $\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$...
2
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18952
$\text{The velocity } v \text{ is expressed in terms of wavelength } \lambda, \text{ acceleration due to gravity } g, \text{ and density of water } \rho \text{ as:}$ $v = \lambda^a g^b \rho^c.$ $\text{If this equation is dimensionally consistent, what are the values of } a, b, \text{ and } c?$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left( \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}, 0 \right)$, $\left( 1, \frac{1}{2}, 0 \right)$...
1
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18951
$\text{Pressure } (P), \text{ volume } (V), \text{ temperature } (T) \text{ are related to each other as per the following relation:}$ $\left( P + \frac{a}{V^2} \right) (V-b) = RT$ $\text{Dimensions of } \frac{a}{b} \text{ are:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[MLT^{-2}]$, $[M^2LT^{-2}]$...
3
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18950
$\text{If } m = 5 \pm 0.2 \text{ and } v = 20 \pm 0.4, \text{ the error in measurement of K.E is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$4\%$, $8\%$...
2
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18949
$\text{The density } (\rho) \text{ of a body depends on the force applied } (F), \text{ its speed, and time of motion } (t) \text{ according to the relation:}$ $\rho = KF^a v^b t^c,$ $\text{where } K \text{ is a dimensionless constant. Then the values of } a, b, \text{ and } c \text{ are:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$a = 1, \ b = -4, \ c = -2$, $a = 2, \ b = -4, \ c = -1$...
1
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18948
$\text{What is the maximum percentage error in the measurement of the quantity}$ $I = \frac{a^2b^3}{c\sqrt{d}},$ $\text{if the percentage errors in the measurements of } a, b, c, \text{ and } d \text{ are } 1\%, 2\%, 3\%, \text{ and } 4\%, \text{ respectively?}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
11\%, 12\%...
4
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18947
$\text{Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column-I} & \text{Column-II} \\ \hline \text{I. Torque} & (a) \ [M^0LT^{-2}] \\ \text{II. Stress} & (b) \ [ML^{-1}T^{-2}] \\ \text{III. Coefficient of viscosity} & (c) \ [ML^{-1}T^{-1}] \\ \text{IV. Gravitational potential gradient} & (d) \ [ML^2T^{-2}] \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct option from the given ones:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{I} \rightarrow (a), \text{II} \rightarrow (c), \text{III} \rightarrow (b), \text{IV} \rightarrow (d)$, $\text{I} \rightarrow (d), \text{II} \rightarrow (b), \text{III} \rightarrow (c), \text{IV} \rightarrow (a)$...
3
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18946
$\text{The dimension of } \frac{1}{\mu_0 \varepsilon_0} \text{ is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[MLT^{-1}]$, $[M^0LT^{-2}]$...
4
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18945
$\text{If mass, radius of cross-section and height of a cylinder are } (0.4 + 0.01) \text{ g},$ $ (6 + 0.03) \text{ m and height } (8 + 0.04) \text{ m. The maximum}$ $\text{percentage error in the measurement of density of cylinder is:}$ $1. \ 1\%$ $2. \ 4\%$ $3. \ 8\%$ $4. \ 7\%$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$1\%$, $4\%$...
2
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18944
$\text{If universal gravitational constant } (G), \text{ Planck's constant } (h) \text{ and speed of light } (c) \text{ are taken as fundamental quantities then dimension of mass is equal to:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{Gh}{c}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{G}{hc}}$...
4
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18943
$\left( P + \frac{an^2}{V^2} \right) \left( V - bn \right) = nRT$. $\text{If symbols have their usual meaning, then the dimensions of } \frac{V^2}{an^2} \text{ is same as that of:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{compressibility}$, $\text{bulk modulus}$...
1
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18942
$\text{If } R, X_L \text{ and, } X_C \text{ denote resistance, inductive reactance, and}$ $\text{capacitive reactance respectively. Then which of the following}$ $\text{options shows the 'dimensionless' physical quantity?}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{X_L X_C}{R}$, $\frac{R}{\sqrt{X_L X_C}}$...
2
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18941
$\text{Column-I lists a few physical quantities and Column-II lists their dimensions. Choose the correct option matching two lists correctly.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column-I} & \text{Column-II} \\ \hline \text{(P) pressure gradient} & \text{(A) } M^1L^2T^{-2} \\ \text{(Q) energy density} & \text{(B) } M^1L^1T^{-1} \\ \text{(R) torque} & \text{(C) } M^1L^{-2}T^{-2} \\ \text{(S) impulse} & \text{(D) } M^1L^{-1}T^{-2} \\ \hline \end{array}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$(\text{P} - \text{C}), (\text{Q} - \text{A}), (\text{R} - \text{B}), (\text{S} - \text{D})$, $(\text{P} - \text{A}), (\text{Q} - \text{C}), (\text{R} - \text{B}), (\text{S} - \text{D})$...
2
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18940
$\text{If the dimensional formula of the pressure gradient is } X, \text{ the electric field has } Y, \text{ energy density has } W \text{ and latent heat has } Z. \text{ Then the dimensional formula of } \frac{[X][Y]}{[Z][W]} \text{ is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[ML^{-2}T^{-1}A]$, $[ML^{-2}T^{-1}A^{-1}]$...
2
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18939
$\text{Match the following quantities in List I with their dimensions in List II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List I} & \text{List II} \\ \hline \text{(P) Young's modulus} & \text{(A) } [ML^2T^{-1}] \\ \text{(Q) Planck's constant} & \text{(B) } [ML^{-1}T^{-2}] \\ \text{(R) Work function} & \text{(C) } [ML^{-1}T^{-1}] \\ \text{(S) Coefficient of viscosity} & \text{(D) } [ML^2T^{-2}] \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Codes:}$ $\begin{array}{l} 1. \ P \rightarrow A, \ Q \rightarrow B, \ R \rightarrow C, \ S \rightarrow D \\ 2. \ P \rightarrow B, \ Q \rightarrow A, \ R \rightarrow D, \ S \rightarrow C \\ 3. \ P \rightarrow D, \ Q \rightarrow A, \ R \rightarrow C, \ S \rightarrow B \\ 4. \ P \rightarrow D, \ Q \rightarrow A, \ R \rightarrow B, \ S \rightarrow C \end{array}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$P \rightarrow A, \ Q \rightarrow B, \ R \rightarrow C, \ S \rightarrow D$, $P \rightarrow B, \ Q \rightarrow A, \ R \rightarrow D, \ S \rightarrow C$...
2
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18938
$\text{In an experiment to determine the diameter of a wire using a screw gauge, the following observations were recorded:}$ $\text{(a) The screw moves 0.5 mm on the main scale in one complete rotation.}$ $\text{(b) Total divisions on circular scale = 50.}$ $\text{(c) The main scale reading is 2.5 mm.}$ $\text{(d) 45}^{\text{th}} \text{ division of the circular scale is in the pitch line.}$ $\text{(e) The instrument has 0.03 mm negative error.}$ $\text{Then the diameter of the wire is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.92 \text{ mm}$, $2.54 \text{ mm}$...
3
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18937
$\text{A torque meter is calibrated to reference standards of mass, length, and time each with 5\% accuracy. After calibration, the measured torque with this torque meter will have net accuracy of:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$15\%$, $25\%$...
2
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18936
$\text{A torque meter is calibrated to reference standards of mass, length, and time each with 5\% accuracy. After calibration, the measured torque with this torque meter will have net accuracy of:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$15\%$, $25\%$...
2
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18935
$\text{In a Vernier Calipers, 10 divisions of the Vernier scale is equal to the 9 divisions of the main scale.}$ $\text{When both jaws of Vernier calipers touch each other, the zero of the Vernier scale is shifted to the left of zero of the main scale and 4}^{\text{th}} \text{ Vernier scale division exactly coincides with the main scale reading.}$ $\text{One main scale division is equal to 1 mm.}$ $\text{While measuring diameter of a spherical body, the body is held between two jaws.}$ $\text{It is now observed that zero of the Vernier scale lies between 30 and 31 divisions of main scale reading and 6}^{\text{th}} \text{ Vernier scale division exactly coincides with the main scale reading.}$ $\text{The diameter of the spherical body will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.02 \text{ cm}$, $3.06 \text{ cm}$...
2
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18934
$\text{A student in the laboratory measured thickness of a wire using a screw gauge. The readings are } 1.22 \text{ mm, } 1.23 \text{ mm, } 1.19 \text{ mm and } 1.20 \text{ mm. The percentage error is } \frac{x}{121} \%. \text{ The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$100$, $200$...
3
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18933
$\text{Velocity } (v) \text{ and acceleration } (a) \text{ in two systems of units } 1 \text{ and } 2 \text{ are related as } v_2 = \frac{n}{m^2} v_1 \text{ and } a_2 = \frac{a_1}{mn} \text{ respectively. Here } m \text{ and } n \text{ are constants. The relations for distance and time in the two systems, respectively, are:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{n^3}{m^3} L_1 = L_2 \text{ and } \frac{n^2}{m} T_1 = T_2$, $L_1 = \frac{n^4}{m^2} L_2 \text{ and } T_1 = \frac{n^2}{m} T_2$...
1
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18932
$\text{Velocity } (v) \text{ and acceleration } (a) \text{ in two systems of units 1 and 2 are related as } v_2 = \frac{n}{m^2} v_1 \text{ and } a_2 = \frac{a_1}{mn} \text{ respectively. Here } m \text{ and } n \text{ are constants. The relations for distance and time in the two systems, respectively, are:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\frac{n^3}{m^3} L_1 = L_2 \text{ and } \frac{n^2}{m} T_1 = T_2$, $L_1 = \frac{n^4}{m^2} L_2 \text{ and } T_1 = \frac{n^2}{m} T_2$...
1
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18931
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The product of pressure (P) and time (t) has the same dimension as that of the coefficient of viscosity.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Coefficient of viscosity} = \frac{\text{Force}}{\text{Velocity gradient}}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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18930
$\text{The distance of the Sun from Earth is } 1.5 \times 10^{11} \text{ m and its angular diameter is } (2000) \text{ s when observed from the earth. The diameter of the Sun will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$2.45 \times 10^{10} \text{ m}$, $1.45 \times 10^{10} \text{ m}$...
3
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18929
$\text{If 'C' and 'V' represent capacity and voltage respectively then what are the dimensions of } \lambda, \text{ where } \lambda = \frac{C}{V}?$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\left[ M^{-2} L^{-3} I^2 T^6 \right]$, $\left[ M^{-3} L^{-4} I^3 T^7 \right]$...
4
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18928
$\text{In a typical combustion engine the work done by a gas molecule is given } W = \alpha^2 \beta e^{-\frac{\beta x^2}{kT}} . \text{ where } x \text{ is the displacement, } k \text{ is the Boltzmann constant and } T \text{ is the temperature. If } \alpha \text{ and } \beta \text{ are constants, dimensions of } \alpha \text{ will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[MLT^{-2}]$, $[M^0LT^0]$...
2
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18927
$\text{If } e \text{ is the electronic charge, } c \text{ is the speed of light in free space and } h \text{ is Planck's constant, the quantity } \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \left|\frac{e^2}{hc}\right| \text{ has dimensions of:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[M^0L^0T^0]$, $[LT^{-1}]$...
1
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18926
$\text{Match List-I with List-II.}$ $\text{List-I}$ \begin{array}{ll} (a) & h \text{ (Planck's constant)} \\ (b) & E \text{ (kinetic energy)} \\ (c) & V \text{ (electric potential)} \\ (d) & p \text{ (linear momentum)} \end{array}$ $\text{List-II}$ \begin{array}{ll} (i) & [MLT^{-1}] \\ (ii) & [ML^2T^{-1}] \\ (iii) & [ML^2T^{-2}] \\ (iv) & [ML^2A^{-1}T^{-3}] \end{array}$ $\text{Choose from the given option from the given ones:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$(a) \rightarrow (iii), (b) \rightarrow (iv), (c) \rightarrow (ii), (d) \rightarrow (i)$, $(a) \rightarrow (ii), (b) \rightarrow (iii), (c) \rightarrow (iv), (d) \rightarrow (i)$...
2
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18925
$\text{The pitch of the screw gauge is } 1 \text{ mm and there are } 100 \text{ divisions on the circular scale.}$ $\text{When nothing is put in between the jaws, the zero of the circular scale lies } 8 \text{ divisions below the reference line.}$ $\text{When a wire is placed between the jaws, the first linear scale division is clearly visible while the } 72^{\text{nd}} \text{ division on a circular scale coincides with the reference line.}$ $\text{The radius of the wire is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.64 \text{ mm}$, $0.82 \text{ mm}$...
2
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18924
$\text{The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum } T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}.$ $\text{Measured value of } 'L' \text{ is } 1.0 \text{ m from meter scale having a minimum division of } 1 \text{ mm and time of one complete oscillation is } 1.95 \text{ s measured from stopwatch of } 0.01 \text{ s resolution. The percentage error in the determination of } 'g' \text{ will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$1.13\%$, $1.03\%$...
1
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18923
$\text{The work done by a gas molecule in an isolated system is given by,}$ $\text{W} = \alpha \beta^2 e^{-\frac{x^2}{\alpha k T}}, \text{ where } x \text{ is the displacement, } k \text{ is the Boltzmann}$ $\text{constant and } T \text{ is the temperature, } \alpha \text{ and } \beta \text{ are constants. Then the}$ $\text{dimensions of } \beta \text{ will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[ML^2 T^{-2}]$, $[MLT^{-2}]$...
2
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18922
$\text{The density of a solid metal sphere is determined by measuring its mass and its diameter.}$ $\text{The maximum error in the density of the sphere is } \left( \frac{x}{100} \right)\%.$ $\text{If the relative errors in measuring the mass and the diameter are } 6.0\% \text{ and } 1.5\% \text{ respectively, the value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
503, 1050...
2
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18921
$\text{A screw gauge has } 50 \text{ divisions on its circular scale. The circular scale is } 4 \text{ units ahead of the pitch scale marking, prior to use. Upon one complete rotation of the circular scale, a displacement of } 0.5 \text{ mm is noticed on the pitch scale. The nature of the zero error involved and the last count of the screw gauge are respectively:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Positive, } 10 \, \mu \text{m}$, $\text{Negative, } 2 \, \mu \text{m}$...
1
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18920
$\text{The quantities } x = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0 \varepsilon_0}}, y = \frac{E}{B} \text{ and } z = \frac{L}{CR} \text{ are defined where } C$ $\text{-capacitance, } R\text{-Resistance, } L\text{-length, } E\text{-Electric field, } B\text{-magnetic}$ $\text{field and } \varepsilon_0, \mu_0 \text{ free space permittivity and permeability respectively. Then:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Only } x \text{ and } y \text{ have the same dimension}$, $x, y \text{ and } z \text{ have the same dimension}$...
2
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18919
$\text{A quantity } x \text{ is given by } \left( \frac{IFv^2}{WL^4} \right) \text{ in terms of moment of inertia } I, \text{ force } F, \text{ velocity } v, \text{ work } W, \text{ and Length } L. \text{ The dimensional formula for } x \text{ is the same as that of:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{Coefficient of viscosity}$, $\text{Planck's constant}$...
3
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18918
$\text{If momentum } (P), \text{ area } (A), \text{ and time } (T) \text{ are taken as the fundamental physical quantities, then the dimensional formula of energy in terms of } P, A, \text{ and } T \text{ is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[PA^{-1}T^{-2}]$, $[PA^{1/2}T^{-1}]$...
2
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18917
$\text{If speed } v, \text{ area } A \text{ and force } F \text{ are chosen as fundamental units, then the dimension of Young's modulus will be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[FA^{-1}v^0]$, $[FA^2v^{-1}]$...
1
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18916
$\text{The least count of the main scale of a vernier callipers is } 1 \text{ mm. Its vernier scale is divided into } 10 \text{ divisions and coincide with } 9 \text{ divisions of the main scale.}$ $\text{When jaws are touching each other, the } 7^{\text{th}} \text{ division of vernier scale coincides with a division of main scale and the zero of vernier scale is lying right side of the zero of main scale.}$ $\text{When this vernier is used to measure length of a cylinder the zero of the vernier scale between } 3.1 \text{ cm and } 3.2 \text{ cm and } 4^{\text{th}} \text{ VSD coincides with a main scale division.}$ $\text{The length of the cylinder is: (VSD is vernier scale division)}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$3.21 \text{ cm}$, $2.99 \text{ cm}$...
4
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18915
$\text{The expression for time, in terms of the universal gravitational constant } G, \text{ Planck's constant } h, \text{ and the speed of light } c, \text{ is proportional to:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\sqrt{\frac{hc^5}{G}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{c^3}{Gh}}$...
3
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18914
$\text{In the formula } X = 5YZ^2, X \text{ and } Z \text{ have dimensions of}$ $\text{capacitance and magnetic field, respectively. What are the}$ $\text{dimensions of } Y \text{ in SI units?}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$[M^{-3}L^{-2}T^8A^4]$, $[M^{-2}L^{-2}T^6A^3]$...
1
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18913
$\text{In a simple pendulum experiment for determination of acceleration due to gravity } (g), \text{ time taken for } 20 \text{ oscillations is measured by using a watch of } 1 \text{ second least count.}$ $\text{The mean value of time taken comes out to be } 30 \text{ s.}$ $\text{The length of pendulum is measured by using a meter scale of least count } 1 \text{ mm and the value obtained is } 55.0 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{The percentage error in the determination of } g \text{ is close to:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.7\%$, $6.8\%$...
2
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18912
$\text{The following observations were taken to determine the surface tension } T \text{ of water by the capillary method:}$ $\text{diameter of the capillary, } D = 1.25 \times 10^{-2} \text{ m}$ $\text{rise of water, } h = 1.45 \times 10^{-2} \text{ m}$ $\text{Using } g = 9.80 \text{ m/s}^2 \text{ and the simplified relation, the possible error in surface tension is closest to:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.15\%$, $1.5\%$...
2
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18911
$\text{A screw gauge with a pitch of } 0.5 \text{ mm and a circular scale with } 50 \text{ divisions is used to measure the thickness of a thin sheet of Aluminium.}$ $\text{Before starting the measurement, it is found that when the two jaws of the screw gauge are brought in contact, the } 45^{\text{th}} \text{ division coincides with the main scale line and that the zero of the main scale is barely visible.}$ $\text{What is the thickness of the sheet if the main scale reading is } 0.5 \text{ mm and the } 25^{\text{th}} \text{ division coincides with the main scale line?}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$0.75 \text{ mm}$, $0.80 \text{ mm}$...
2
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18910
$\text{A student measures the time period of 100 oscillations of a simple pendulum four times. The data set is } 90 \text{ s, } 91 \text{ s, } 95 \text{ s and } 92 \text{ s. If the minimum division in the measuring clock is } 1 \text{ s, then the reported mean time should be:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$92 \pm 2 \text{ s}$, $92 \pm 5 \text{ s}$...
1
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18909
$\text{If the capacitance of a nanocapacitor is measured in terms of a unit}$ $'u'$ $\text{made by combining the electronic charge}$ $'e',$ $\text{the Bohr radius}$ $'a_0',$ $\text{and the Planck's constant}$ $'h'$ $\text{and speed of light}$ $'c'$ $\text{then:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$u = \frac{e^2 h}{e a_0}$, $u = \frac{e^2 c}{h a_0}$...
4
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18908
$\text{The period of oscillation on a simple pendulum is } T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}.$ $\text{The measured value of } L \text{ is } 20.0 \text{ cm known to have } 1 \text{ mm accuracy and the time for } 100 \text{ oscillations of the pendulum is found to be } 90 \text{ s using a wristwatch of } 1 \text{ s resolution. The accuracy in the determination of } g \text{ is:}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$2\%$, $3\%$...
2
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18907
$\text{A student measured the length of a rod and wrote its as } 3.50 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{Which instrument did he use to measure it?}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
$\text{A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in the vernier scale match with 9 divisions in the main scale and main scale has 10 divisions in } 1 \text{ cm.}$, $\text{A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as } 1 \text{ mm.}$...
1
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18906
$\text{The current-voltage relation of the diode is given by}$ $I = \left(e^{\frac{1000V}{T}} - 1\right) \text{ mA},$ $\text{where the applied voltage } V \text{ is in volts and the temperature } T \text{ is in degree Kelvin.}$ $\text{If a student makes an error measuring } \pm 0.01 \text{ V while measuring the current of } 5 \text{ mA at } 300 \text{ K,}$ $\text{what will be the error in the value of current in mA?}$
1
101
JEE MCQ NEW
0.02 \text{ mA}, 0.5 \text{ mA}...
4
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18905
$\text{The correct reactions among the following are:}$ $\text{a. MnO}_4^- + \text{H}^+ + \text{Fe}^{2+} \rightarrow 2\text{Mn}^{2+} + \text{Fe}^{3+} + \text{H}_2\text{O}$ $\text{b. C}_2\text{O}_4^{2-} + \text{MnO}_4^- + \text{H}^+ \rightarrow \text{Mn}^{2+} + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{CO}_2$ $\text{c. SO}_2 + \text{MnO}_4^- + \text{H}^+ \rightarrow \text{Mn}^{2+} + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{SO}_3$
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$\text{a and c}$, $\text{b and c}$...
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18904
$\text{Which compound cannot decolourise KMnO}_4 \text{ solution?}$
2
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$\text{CO}_3^{2-}$, $\text{NO}_2^{-}$...
1
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18903
$\text{What is produced when excessive diluted nitric acid is combined with potassium chromate?}$
2
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$\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-} \text{ and H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{Cr}^{3+} \text{ and Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-}$...
1
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18902
$\text{When KMnO}_4 \text{ solution is added to hot oxalic acid solution, the decolorization is slow in the beginning but becomes instantaneous after some time. This is because:}$
2
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$\text{Mn}^{2+} \text{ acts as auto catalyst.}$, $\text{CO}_2 \text{ is formed.}$...
1
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18901
$\text{Highest oxidation state of manganese in fluoride is } +4 \text{ (MnF}_4\text{) but the highest oxidation state in oxides is } +7 \text{ (Mn}_2\text{O}_7\text{). The reason is:}$
2
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$\text{Fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen.}$, $\text{Fluorine does not possess d orbitals.}$...
4
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18900
$\text{The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction between KI and acidified potassium dichromate solution will be:}$
2
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$+2$, $+3$...
2
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18899
$\text{Which of the following pairs of substances on reaction will not evolve gas?}$
2
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$\text{Iron, and } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ (aq)}$, $\text{Iron, and steam}$...
3
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18898
$\text{CrO}_4^{2-} \text{ (yellow) changes to } \text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-} \text{ (orange) in pH } = x \text{ and vice versa in pH } = y.$ $\text{The value of } x \text{ and } y \text{ will be:}$
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$6, \text{ and } 8$, $6, \text{ and } 5$...
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18897
$\text{A gas that can readily decolorize an acidified KMnO}_4 \text{ solution is:}$
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$\text{SO}_2$, $\text{NO}_2$...
1
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18896
$\text{HCl is not used to make the medium acidic in oxidation reaction of } \text{KMnO}_4, \text{ because}$
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$\text{Both HCl and KMnO}_4 \text{ act as oxidising agents.}$, $\text{KMnO}_4 \text{ oxidises HCl into Cl}_2, \text{ which is also an oxidising agent.}$...
2
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18895
$\text{When neutral or faintly alkaline } \text{KMnO}_4 \text{ is treated with potassium iodide, the iodide ion is converted into 'X'. The formula of 'X' is:}$
2
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$\text{I}_2$, $\text{IO}_4^-$...
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18894
$\text{The fusion of chromite ore (FeCr}_2\text{O}_4\text{) with Na}_2\text{CO}_3\text{ in air gives a yellow solution upon the addition of water. Subsequent treatment with H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{ produces an orange solution.}$ $\text{The yellow and orange colours, respectively, are due to the formation of:}$
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$\text{Na}_2\text{CrO}_4\text{ and Na}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7$, $\text{Cr(OH)}_3\text{ and Na}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7$...
1
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18893
$\text{The reaction(s) involved in the preparation of potassium dichromate from iron chromite ore is/are:}$ $1. \ \text{FeCr}_2\text{O}_4 + \text{NaOH} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{Na}_2\text{CrO}_4 + \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + \text{H}_2\text{O}$ $2. \ \text{Na}_2\text{CrO}_4 + \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ (conc.)} \rightarrow \text{Na}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 + \text{Na}_2\text{SO}_4 + \text{H}_2\text{O}$ $3. \ \text{Na}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 + \text{KCl} \rightarrow \text{K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 + \text{NaCl}$ $4. \ \text{All of the above.}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{FeCr}_2\text{O}_4 + \text{NaOH} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{Na}_2\text{CrO}_4 + \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + \text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{Na}_2\text{CrO}_4 + \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ (conc.)} \rightarrow \text{Na}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 + \text{Na}_2\text{SO}_4 + \text{H}_2\text{O}$...
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18892
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following regarding Cerium is:}$
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$\text{The +4 oxidation state of cerium is not known in solutions.}$, $\text{The +3 oxidation state of cerium is more stable than the +4 oxidation state.}$...
1
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18891
$\text{The three lanthanides that show a } +2 \text{ oxidation state are:}$
2
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$\text{Sm, Tb, Gd}$, $\text{Sm, Eu, Yb}$...
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18890
$\text{Actinide contraction is mainly related to:}$ $1. \text{Poor shielding by 5f subshell}$ $2. \text{Extraordinary decrement in } Z_{\text{eff}}$ $3. \text{Both (1) and (2)}$ $4. \text{Strong shielding by 5f subshell}$
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$\text{Poor shielding by 5f subshell}$, $\text{Extraordinary decrement in } Z_{\text{eff}}$...
1
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18889
$\text{The reason for lanthanoid contraction is:}$ $1. \text{Negligible screening effect of 'f' orbitals}$ $2. \text{Increasing nuclear charge}$ $3. \text{Decreasing nuclear charge}$ $4. \text{Decreasing screening effect}$
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$\text{Negligible screening effect of 'f' orbitals}$, $\text{Increasing nuclear charge}$...
1
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18888
$\text{The consequence(s) of lanthanoid contraction is/are:}$
2
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$\text{Similarity in the properties of second and third transition series.}$, $\text{Separation of lanthanoids is difficult.}$...
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18887
$\text{A pair among the following that have the same size is:}$
2
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$\text{Fe}^{2+}, \text{Ni}^{2+}$, $\text{Zr}^{4+}, \text{Ti}^{4+}$...
3
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18886
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is:}$
2
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$\text{There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu.}$, $\text{Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages.}$...
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18885
$\text{The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Zr and Y have about the same radius.}$, $\text{Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state.}$...
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18884
$\text{An actinoid that does not have one electron in its 6d orbital is -}$
2
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$\text{U (Atomic number. 92)}$, $\text{Np (Atomic number. 93)}$...
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18883
$\text{Consider the following statements:}$ $\text{a. Lanthanoid and actinoid belong to the f block and their general electronic}$ $\text{configuration is } nf^{1-14} n-1d^{0-1}ns^2.$ $\text{b. All lanthanides and actinoids show an oxidation state of +3.}$ $\text{c. The magnetic properties of the actinoids are more complex than those of}$ $\text{the lanthanoids.}$ $\text{d. Lanthanoids are comparatively less electropositive than actinides}$ $\text{Correct statements amongst the above are:}$
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$\text{a, b}$, $\text{c, d, a}$...
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18882
$\text{The unpaired electron in Eu}^{3+} \text{ will bear similarities to that found in:}$
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$\text{Yb}^{2+}$, $\text{Ho}^{3+}$...
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18881
$\text{Which of the following compounds cannot act as an oxidising agent?}$
2
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$\text{CrO}_3$, $\text{CrO}_4^{2-}$...
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18880
$\text{The actinoid that can show oxidation states up to } +7 \text{ is:}$
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$\text{Am}$, $\text{Th}$...
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18879
$\text{Give below are some atomic numbers:}$ $29, 59, 74, 95, 102, 104$ $\text{The atomic numbers of the inner transition elements among the above are:}$
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$29, 59, 74$, $59, 95, 102$...
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18878
$\text{From the following, which is the most basic hydroxide?}$
2
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$\text{Ce(OH)}_3$, $\text{Lu(OH)}_3$...
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18877
$\text{The correct statement regarding inner transition elements is}$
2
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$\text{The general electronic configuration of actinoids is } [\text{Xe}]^{54} 4f^{1-14}5d^{0-1}6s^2$, $\text{The general electronic configuration of lanthanoids is } [\text{Rn}]^{86} 5f^{1-14}6d^{0-1}7s^2$...
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18876
$\text{The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic no. 63), Gd (Atomic no. 64), and Tb (Atomic no. 65) are, respectively:}$
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$[\text{Xe}] 4f^6 5d^1 6s^2, [\text{Xe}]4f^7 5d^1 6s^2, \text{and } [\text{Xe}] 4f^9 6s^2$, $[\text{Xe}] 4f^6 5d^1 6s^2, [\text{Xe}]4f^7 5d^1 6s^2, \text{and } [\text{Xe}]4f^8 5d^1 6s^2$...
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18875
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is:}$
2
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$\text{Zirconium and Hofnium have identical radii of 160 pm and 159 pm, respectively, as a consequence of lanthanoid contraction.}$, $\text{Lanthanoids reveal only a +3 oxidation state.}$...
2
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18874
$\text{The electronic configuration of the last element of actinoids is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Thorium, Th: } [\text{Rn}]5f^{14}6d^17s^2$, $\text{Lawrencium, Lr: } [\text{Rn}]5f^{14}6d^17s^2$...
2
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18873
$\text{Actinoids show a greater number of oxidation states than lanthanoids because:}$
2
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$\text{4f- orbitals are more diffused than 5f-orbitals}$, $\text{Lesser energy difference between 5f, and 6d orbitals than between 4f, and 5d orbitals}$...
2
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18872
$\text{Which one of the following is a diamagnetic ion?}$
2
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$\text{La}^{3+}$, $\text{Lu}^{3+}$...
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18871
$\text{Lanthanide's most common oxidation state is:}$ $1.\ 2$ $2.\ 5$ $3.\ 3$ $4.\ 4$
2
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$2$, $5$...
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18870
$\text{The different oxidation states exhibited by the lanthanoids are:}$
2
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$+2, -3, +4$, $-2, -3, -4$...
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18869
$\text{The most common oxidation state for lanthanoids and actinoids is:}$
2
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$+5$, $-3$...
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18868
$\text{Which of the following has the highest negative } (\text{M}^{2+}/\text{M}) \text{ standard electrode potential?}$
2
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$\text{Ti}$, $\text{Cu}$...
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18867
$\text{Select the appropriate statement(s) from the following options:}$
2
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$\text{The maximum oxidation state of the d block elements appears in the middle and the minimum at the extreme ends.}$, $\text{IE}_1 \text{ of third transition series elements is smaller than IE}_1 \text{ of second and first transition series elements.}$...
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18866
$\text{Zn gives H}_2 \text{ gas with H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ and HCl but not with HNO}_3 \text{ because:}$
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$\text{Zn acts as an oxidizing agent when it reacts with HNO}_3$, $\text{HNO}_3 \text{ is weaker acid than H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ and HCl}$...
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18865
$\text{The element that has a maximum composition in Mischmetal and is used in the gas lighters is:}$
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$\text{Ce}$, $\text{Fe}$...
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18864
$\text{Match the solutions given in Column I with the colours given in Column II.}$ $\text{Column I (Aqueous solution of salt)}$ $\begin{array}{ll} \text{A. FeSO}_4 \cdot \text{7H}_2\text{O} & \text{1. Green} \\ \text{B. NiCl}_2 \cdot \text{4H}_2\text{O} & \text{2. Light pink} \\ \text{C. MnCl}_2 \cdot \text{4H}_2\text{O} & \text{3. Blue} \\ \text{D. CoCl}_2 \cdot \text{6H}_2\text{O} & \text{4. Pale green} \\ & \text{5. Pink} \end{array}$ $\text{Codes:}$ $\begin{array}{cccc} \text{A} & \text{B} & \text{C} & \text{D} \\ 2 & 3 & 4 & 1 \\ 1 & 2 & 3 & 5 \\ 5 & 4 & 3 & 2 \\ 4 & 1 & 2 & 5 \end{array}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$2, 3, 4, 1$, $1, 2, 3, 5$...
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18863
$\text{Which of the following statements is false?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{MnO}_2 \text{ dissolves in conc. HCl, but does not form Mn}^{4+} \text{ ions.}$, $\text{MnO}_2 \text{ oxidizes hot concentrated H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ liberating oxygen.}$...
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18862
$\text{An incorrect statement regarding the stability of oxidation state for the elements of the 3d series is:}$
2
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$\text{The number of oxidation states increases on moving from Sc to Mn.}$, $\text{The relative stability of the +2 oxidation state increases on moving from top to bottom.}$...
3
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18861
$\text{An example of the effect of the concentration of nitric acid on the formation of oxidation products would be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$3\text{Cu} + 8\text{HNO}_3 \rightarrow 3\text{Cu(NO}_3)_2 + 2\text{NO} + 4\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{Cu} + 4\text{HNO}_3 \rightarrow 3\text{Cu(NO}_3)_2 + 2\text{NO}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$...
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18860
$\text{The configuration that shows the outer transition element among the following is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{Rn}]7s^2$, $[\text{Xe}]4f^75d^16s^2$...
3
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18859
$\text{In the 3d series, a metal with a +1 oxidation state is:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Mn}$, $\text{Cu}$...
2
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18858
$\text{Which of the following is a coloured and paramagnetic compound?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{CuF}_2$, $\text{K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7$...
1
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18857
$\text{A diamagnetic lanthanoid ion among the following is:}$ $\text{(At. numbers: Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ce}^{2+}$, $\text{Eu}^{2+}$...
4
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18856
$\text{The native silver metal forms a water-soluble complex with a dilute aqueous solution of NaCN in the presence of:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Nitrogen}$, $\text{Oxygen}$...
2
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18855
$\text{Which of the following elements has the strongest metallic bond?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe}$, $\text{Sc}$...
4
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18854
$\text{Match the properties given in Column I with the metals given in Column II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I - (Property)} & \text{Column II - (Metal)} \\ \hline \text{A. Element with highest second ionisation enthalpy} & 1. \text{V} \\ \text{B. Element with highest third ionisation enthalpy} & 2. \text{Cr} \\ \text{C. M in M(CO)}_6 \text{ is} & 3. \text{Cu} \\ \text{D. Element with the highest heat of atomisation} & 4. \text{Zn} \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\begin{array}{cccc} 3 & 4 & 1 & 2 \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{cccc} 3 & 4 & 2 & 1 \end{array}$...
2
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18853
$\text{The spin-only magnetic moment of } \text{Ce}^{3+} \text{ is:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$3.25$, $1.73$...
2
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18852
$\text{The } E^\circ \left(\text{M}^{2+}/\text{M}\right) \text{ value for copper is positive } (+0.34 \text{ V}), \text{ because}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Copper has a high energy of atomization and a low hydration energy}$, $\text{Copper has low energy of atomization and high hydration energy}$...
1
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18851
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following about the chemistry of 3d and 4f series elements is}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{3d elements show more oxidation states than 4f series elements.}$, $\text{The energy difference between 3d and 4s orbitals is very little.}$...
4
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18850
$\text{Which of the following ions displays the d-d transition and paramagnetism?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{CrO}_4^{2-}$, $\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-}$...
4
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18849
$\text{Which of the following statements is false?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cr}^{2+} \text{ is strongly oxidizing while manganese(III) is strongly reducing.}$, $\text{Cobalt(II) is stable in an aqueous solution but in the presence of complexing reagents, it is easily oxidized.}$...
1
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18848
$\text{The addition of non-metals like B and C to the interstitial sites of a transition metal increases}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ductility}$, $\text{Melting Point}$...
2
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18847
$\text{Which of the following metals does not form amalgam?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe}$, $\text{Au}$...
1
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18846
$\text{The acidified } \text{K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ solution turns green when } \text{Na}_2\text{SO}_3 \text{ is added to it. This is due to the formation of:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{CrO}_4^{2-}$, $\text{Cr}_2(\text{SO}_3)_3$...
4
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18845
$\text{Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanised iron, but the reverse is not possible because:}$
2
222
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$\text{Zinc is lighter than iron.}$, $\text{Zinc has a lower melting point than iron.}$...
4
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18844
$\text{When iron becomes passive by "X", it is due to the formation of "Y". X and Y, respectively, are:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Dil. HCl, Fe}_2\text{O}_3$, $80\% \text{ Conc. HNO}_3, \text{ Fe}_3\text{O}_4$...
2
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18843
$\text{Which of the following statements is false?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Copper liberates hydrogen from acids.}$, $\text{In its higher oxidation states, manganese forms stable compounds with oxygen and fluorine.}$...
1
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18842
$\text{Which of the following statements is true?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cu(II)}_{\text{aq}} \text{ is more stable.}$, $\text{Cu(II)}_{\text{aq}} \text{ is less stable.}$...
1
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18841
$\text{Which of the following elements has the highest second ionization enthalpy?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cr}$, $\text{Mn}$...
1
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18840
$\text{The metallic radii of some transition elements are given below. An element that has the highest density is:}$ $\begin{array}{cc} \text{Element} & \text{Fe} \quad \text{Co} \quad \text{Ni} \quad \text{Cu} \\ \text{Metallic radii/pm} & 126 \quad 125 \quad 125 \quad 128 \end{array}$
2
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$\text{Fe}$, $\text{Ni}$...
4
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18839
$\text{Which compound exhibits colour in its solid state?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ag}_2\text{SO}_4$, $\text{CuF}_2$...
2
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18838
$\text{The correct statement regarding the element silver (Ag) is:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{It is a hard metal.}$, $\text{It is not a transition element.}$...
3
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18837
$\text{The ionization potential values of d-block elements as compared to the ionization potential values of f-block elements are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Higher}$, $\text{Equal}$...
1
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18836
$\text{For M}^{2+}/\text{M, and M}^{3+}/\text{M}^{2+}, \text{ the } E^\circ \text{ values of some metals are given in the table below:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Cr}^{+2}/\text{Cr} = -0.9 \text{ V} & \text{Cr}^{+3}/\text{Cr}^{+2} = -0.4 \text{V} \\ \hline \text{Mn}^{+2}/\text{Mn} = -1.2 \text{V} & \text{Mn}^{+3}/\text{Mn}^{+2} = +1.5 \text{V} \\ \hline \text{Fe}^{+2}/\text{Fe} = -0.4 \text{V} & \text{Fe}^{+3}/\text{Fe}^{+2} = +0.8 \text{V} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{The correct inference(s) from the above data is/are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The increasing order of their stability is Mn}^{3+}< \text{Fe}^{3+}< \text{Cr}^{3+}$, $\text{The increasing order of the above-mentioned metals ability to get oxidized is: Fe < Cr < Mn}$...
4
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18835
$\text{The basic character of the transition metal monoxides follows the order:}$ $\text{(Atomic nos. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Fe = 26)}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{VO} > \text{CrO} > \text{TiO} > \text{FeO}$, $\text{CrO} > \text{VO} > \text{FeO} > \text{TiO}$...
4
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18834
$\text{When copper is heated with conc. } \text{HNO}_3 \text{ it produces:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Cu(NO}_3\text{)}_2 \text{ and NO}_2$, $\text{Cu(NO}_3\text{)}_2 \text{ and NO}$...
1
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18833
$\text{Which of the following statements is false?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{V}^{2+} < \text{Cr}^{2+} < \text{Mn}^{2+} < \text{Fe}^{2+} : \text{Paramagnetic behaviour}$, $\text{Ni}^{2+} < \text{Co}^{2+} < \text{Fe}^{2+} < \text{Mn}^{2+} : \text{Ionic size}$...
1
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18832
$\text{Which of the following statements is false?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{On passing H}_2\text{S through acidified K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ solution, a milky colour is observed.}$, $\text{Na}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ is preferred over K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ in volumetric analysis.}$...
2
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18831
$\text{Which of the following elements can combine with chlorine to form more than one binary compound?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Zn}$, $\text{K}$...
4
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18830
$\text{The correct trend for I.E}_1 \text{ (1st Ionization Enthalpy) in the 3d series is:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ionisation energy regularly decreases on moving along the period.}$, $\text{Ionisation energy regularly increases on moving along the period.}$...
3
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18829
$\text{What is the electronic configuration of transition elements?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$(n-1)d^{1-10}ns^{0-2}$, $(n-1)d^{1-10}ns^2$...
1
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18828
$\text{Which of the following species is colourless?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{TiF}_6^{2-} \text{ and } \text{CoF}_6^{3-}$, $\text{Cu}_2\text{Cl}_2 \text{ and } \text{NiCl}_4^{2-}$...
3
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18827
$\text{Among the following, which are amphoteric oxides?}$ $1. \text{V}_2\text{O}_5, \text{Cr}_2\text{O}_3$ $2. \text{Mn}_2\text{O}_7, \text{CrO}_3$ $3. \text{CrO}, \text{V}_2\text{O}_5$ $4. \text{V}_2\text{O}_5, \text{V}_2\text{O}_4$
2
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$\text{V}_2\text{O}_5, \text{Cr}_2\text{O}_3$, $\text{Mn}_2\text{O}_7, \text{CrO}_3$...
1
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18826
$\text{In an aqueous solution, coloured ions would be:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ti}^{3+}, \text{V}^{3+}, \text{Cu}^{+}$, $\text{Sc}^{3+}, \text{Mn}^{2+}, \text{Fe}^{3+}$...
3
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18825
$\text{Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II}$ $\text{and select the correct match:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline \text{A. Co}^{3+} & \text{i. } \sqrt{8} \text{ B.M.} \\ \text{B. Cr}^{3+} & \text{ii. } \sqrt{35} \text{ B.M.} \\ \text{C. Fe}^{3+} & \text{iii. } \sqrt{15} \text{ B.M.} \\ \text{D. Ni}^{2+} & \text{iv. } \sqrt{24} \text{ B.M.} \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
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$\text{A. iv, B. iii, C. ii, D. i}$, $\text{A. i, B. ii, C. iii, D. iv}$...
1
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18824
$\text{The increasing order of oxidising power among the following species is:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{VO}_2^+ < \text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-} < \text{MnO}_4^-$, $\text{VO}_2^+ < \text{MnO}_4^- < \text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-}$...
1
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18823
$\text{The "Disproportionation" reaction means that:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{A relatively less stable oxidation state undergoes an oxidation-reduction reaction.}$, $\text{A relatively more stable oxidation state undergoes an oxidation-reduction reaction.}$...
1
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18822
$\text{Iron does not get oxidised in:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Rusting of iron sheets}$, $\text{Decolourisation of blue CuSO}_4 \text{ solution by iron}$...
3
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18821
$\text{The values of X, Y, P, and Q are, respectively:}$ $X + \text{MnO}_2 + \text{O}_2$ $\Delta$ $\text{KMnO}_4$ $Y$ $\text{Explosive oil (P) if KMnO}_4 \text{ is in excess}$ $\text{Green (Q) if Y is in excess}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{MnO}_3^+, \text{Mn}_2\text{O}_7, \text{conc. H}_2\text{SO}_4, \text{and K}_2\text{MnO}_4$, $\text{K}_2\text{MnO}_4, \text{conc. H}_2\text{SO}_4, \text{Mn}_2\text{O}_7, \text{and MnO}_3^+$...
2
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18820
$\text{Among the following, the incorrect statement regarding interstitial compounds is:}$ $\text{1. They retain metallic conductivity.}$ $\text{2. They are chemically reactive.}$ $\text{3. They are much harder than the pure metal.}$ $\text{4. They have higher melting points than the pure metal.}$
2
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$\text{They retain metallic conductivity.}$, $\text{They are chemically reactive.}$...
2
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18819
$\text{Urea reacts with water to form A, which decomposes to form B. When B is passed through Cu}^{2+}\text{ (aq), a deep blue-colored solution C is formed}$ $\text{The formula of C is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{Cu (NH}_3)_4]^{2+}$, $\text{Cu (OH)}_2$...
1
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18818
$\text{Match the following:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Ions} & \text{Number of unpaired electrons} \\ \hline \text{i. Mn}^{3+} & \text{a. 2} \\ \text{ii. Cr}^{3+} & \text{b. 4} \\ \text{iii. V}^{3+} & \text{c. 1} \\ \text{iv. Ti}^{3+} & \text{d. 3} \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\begin{array}{cccc} \text{i. c} & \text{ii. d} & \text{iii. b} & \text{iv. a} \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{cccc} \text{i. b} & \text{ii. d} & \text{iii. a} & \text{iv. c} \end{array}$...
2
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18817
$\text{Which of the following ions has the most unpaired electrons?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe}^{2+}$, $\text{Fe}^{3+}$...
2
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18816
$\text{A pair among the following that has both coloured ions in the aqueous solution is-}$ $\text{(At. no : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Co = 27)}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Ni}^{2+}, \text{Ti}^{3+}$, $\text{Sc}^{3+}, \text{Ti}^{3+}$...
1
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18815
$\text{The electronic configuration of gadolinium (atomic number of 64) is:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Xe}] 4f^3 5d^5 6s^2$, $[\text{Xe}] 4f^7 5d^2 6s^1$...
3
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18814
$\text{The pairs having similar magnetic moments are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Ti}^{3+}, \text{V}^{3+}$, $\text{Cr}^{3+}, \text{Mn}^{2+}$...
3
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18813
$\text{A set of ions among the following that have a } 3d^2 \text{ electronic configuration is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Ti}^{+}, \text{V}^{4+}, \text{Cr}^{6+}, \text{Mn}^{7+}$, $\text{Ti}^{4+}, \text{V}^{3+}, \text{Cr}^{2+}, \text{Mn}^{3+}$...
3
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18812
$\text{Transition metals and their many compounds act as good catalysts due to:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Variable oxidation states}$, $\text{Unstable intermediate}$...
4
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18811
$\text{Which of the following has the highest spin-only magnetic moment value?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ti}^{3+}$, $\text{Mn}^{2+}$...
2
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18810
$\text{The correct value of the spin-only magnetic moment of } \text{Cr}^{3+} \text{ ion is equal to:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$2.87 \text{ BM}$, $3.87 \text{ BM}$...
2
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18809
$\text{Electronic configuration of a transition element } X \text{ in } +3 \text{ oxidation state is } [\text{Ar}]3d^5. \text{ Atomic number for the element } X \text{ is:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$25$, $26$...
2
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18808
$\text{The } +2 \text{ oxidation state becomes more stable in the first half of the first-row transition elements with increasing atomic number because:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{s-Orbital is becoming more and more half-filled.}$, $\text{f-Orbital is becoming more and more half-filled.}$...
3
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18807
$\text{Match the following:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Elements} & \text{Electronic configuration} \\ \hline \text{i. 61} & \text{a. [Rn]}5f^{13}6d^0 7s^2 \\ \text{ii. 91} & \text{b. [Xe]}4f^5 6s^2 \\ \text{iii. 101} & \text{c. [Rn]}5f^{14}6d^7 7s^2 \\ \text{iv. 109} & \text{d. [Rn]} 5f^2 6d^1 7s^2 \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{i=b, ii=d, iii=a, iv=c}$, $\text{i=c, ii=a, iii=d, iv=b}$...
1
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18806
$\text{The oxo metal anions of the 3d series in which the metal exhibits an oxidation state equal to its group number is /are -}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{VO}_3^{-}$, $\text{CrO}_4^{2-}$...
4
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18805
$\text{The number of unpaired electrons in the gaseous ions } \text{Mn}^{3+}, \text{Cr}^{3+}, \text{V}^{3+}, \text{ and } \text{Ti}^{3+} \text{ are, respectively:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$3, 2, 3, \text{ and } 1$, $2, 2, 3, \text{ and } 1$...
3
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18804
$\text{Consider the following graph.}$ $\text{Based on the graph above, it can be concluded that the element with a melting point higher than 3000 K will be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$Y$, $X$...
2
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18803
$\text{Match the following characteristics to the appropriate metal:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I - Aspects} & \text{Column II - Metal} \\ \hline \text{(a) The metal which reveals the maximum number of oxidation states} & \text{(i) Scandium} \\ \text{(b) The metal although placed in 3d block is considered not as a transition element} & \text{(ii) Copper} \\ \text{(c) The metal which does not exhibit variable oxidation states} & \text{(iii) Manganese} \\ \text{(d) The metal which in +1 oxidation state in aqueous solution undergoes disproportionation} & \text{(iv) Zinc} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Select the correct option:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$(i)\ (iv)\ (ii)\ (iii)$, $(iii)\ (iv)\ (i)\ (ii)$...
2
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18802
$\text{The calculated spin-only magnetic moment of } \text{Cr}^{2+} \text{ ion is:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$4.90 \text{ BM}$, $5.92 \text{ BM}$...
1
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18801
$\text{The transition metals generally form coloured compounds due to:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Absorption of radiation to promote an electron.}$, $\text{Presence of ligands, the d-orbitals split up into two sets of orbitals.}$...
4
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18800
$\text{The correct statement(s) about transition elements are:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$+2, \text{ and } +3 \text{ oxidation states are more common for elements in the first transition series, while higher oxidation states are more common for the heavier elements.}$, $\text{The heavier transition elements form low-spin complexes only.}$...
4
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18799
$\text{The number of 3d electrons in the Cr}^{3+} \text{ ions will be:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$5$, $6$...
3
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18798
$\text{Colourless ion among the following is:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cr}^{+4}$, $\text{Sc}^{+3}$...
2
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18797
$\text{The enthalpy of atomization of transition metals is high due to:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{High effective nuclear charge}$, $\text{A large number of valence electrons}$...
4
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18796
$\text{What is the correct electronic configuration of Ti (Z = 22 atoms)?}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6 3d^2$, $1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6 3d^2 4p^6$...
4
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18795
$\text{The magnetic moment of an Mn}^{2+} \text{ ion is equal to:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$5.92 \text{ BM}$, $2.80 \text{ BM}$...
1
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18794
$\text{The correct statement(s) about transition elements is/are:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$\text{The lowest oxide of a transition metal is basic, the highest is amphoteric/acidic.}$, $\text{A transition metal exhibits the highest oxidation state in oxides and fluorides.}$...
4
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18793
$\text{An element that does not show variable oxidation state is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe}$, $\text{Mn}$...
4
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18792
$\text{Match Column I (Catalyst) with Column II (Process), and mark the appropriate option:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I - (Catalyst)} & \text{Column II - (Process)} \\ \hline \text{A. Ni in the presence of hydrogen} & \text{1. Contact process} \\ \text{B. Cu}_2\text{Cl}_2 & \text{2. Vegetable oil to ghee} \\ \text{C. V}_2\text{O}_5 & \text{3. Sandmeyer reaction} \\ \text{D. Finely divided iron} & \text{4. Haber's process} \\ & \text{5. Decomposition of KClO}_3 \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$1, 3, 4, 2, 5$, $2, 3, 1, 4$...
2
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18791
$\text{The correct statement(s) regarding the oxidation state of transition elements is/are:}$ $1.\ \text{The oxidation state can vary from } +1 \text{ to } +7$ $2.\ \text{Variable oxidation states are possible.}$ $3.\ \text{Both (1) and (2)}$ $4.\ \text{None of the above}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The oxidation state can vary from } +1 \text{ to } +7$, $\text{Variable oxidation states are possible.}$...
3
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18790
$\text{The d-block elements that may not be regarded as transition elements are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Mn, Fe, Ni because these have partially filled d-subshell.}$, $\text{Mn, Fe, Ni because these have completely filled d-subshell.}$...
3
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18789
$\text{Match the properties given in Column I with uses given in Column II}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I-(Property)} & \text{Column II-(Metal)} \\ \hline \text{A. An element that can show +8 oxidation state} & \text{1. Mn} \\ \text{B. 3d block element that can show up to +7} & \text{2. Cr} \\ \text{C. 3d block element with the highest melting point} & \text{3. Os} \\ & \text{4. Fe} \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\begin{array}{ccc} \text{A} & \text{B} & \text{C} \\ 1 & 1 & 2 \\ \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{ccc} \text{A} & \text{B} & \text{C} \\ 2 & 1 & 2 \\ \end{array}$...
1
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18788
$\text{An element among the following that exhibits the maximum oxidation state is:}$ $1. \ \text{Cr}$ $2. \ \text{Mn}$ $3. \ \text{Fe}$ $4. \ \text{V}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Cr}$, $\text{Mn}$...
2
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18787
$\text{The correct statement(s) about interstitial compounds is/are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Transition elements are large in size and contain multiple interstitial sites.}$, $\text{Transition elements can trap atoms of other elements.}$...
4
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18786
$\text{Transition metals show paramagnetic behaviour due to:}$ $1. \text{Paired electrons in the (n-1) d-orbitals}$ $2. \text{Unpaired electrons in the (n-1) d-orbitals}$ $3. \text{Due to } d^{10}, \text{ and } d^0 \text{ configuration}$ $4. \text{None of the above}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Paired electrons in the (n-1) d-orbitals}$, $\text{Unpaired electrons in the (n-1) d-orbitals}$...
2
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18785
$\text{Mn}^{2+} \text{ compounds are more stable than } \text{Fe}^{2+} \text{ compounds towards oxidation in their } +3 \text{ state because:}$
2
222
Recommended Questions
$3d^5 \text{ configuration is more stable than } 3d^6 \text{ configuration.}$, $3d^6 \text{ configuration is more stable than } 3d^5 \text{ configuration.}$...
1
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18784
$\text{Which of the following species can act as an oxidising agent?}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Cr} (\text{CO})_6]$, $[\text{Ni} (\text{CO})_4]$...
4
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18783
$\text{A metal ion present in vitamin B}_{12} \text{ is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe(II)}$, $\text{Co(III)}$...
2
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18782
$\text{The correct statement among the following regarding } \text{FeCO}_5 \text{ is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Tetranuclear}$, $\text{Mononuclear}$...
2
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18781
$\text{The correct order of energies of d-orbitals of metal ions in a square planar complex is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$d_{xy} = d_{yz} = d_{zx} > d_{x^2-y^2} = d_{z^2}$, $d_{x^2-y^2} = d_{z^2} > d_{xy} = d_{yz} = d_{zx}$...
4
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18780
$[\text{CoCl}_2(\text{NH}_3)_4]^+ + \text{Cl}^- \rightarrow [\text{CoCl}_3(\text{NH}_3)_3] + \text{NH}_3$ $\text{If in the above reaction, only one isomer of the product is obtained, then which of the following statement is true for the initial (reactant) complex?}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Compound is in cis form.}$, $\text{Compound is in trans form.}$...
2
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18779
$\text{Which of the following complex ions is Bronsted-Lowry acid?}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Cu} (\text{NH}_3)_4]^{2+}$, $[\text{FeCl}_4]^{-}$...
3
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18778
$\text{The complex that does not have a tetrahedral shape is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Cu} (\text{NH}_3)_4]^{2+}$, $[\text{Ni} (\text{CO})_4]$...
1
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18777
$\text{Which among the following is incorrect?}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Complex compounds} & \text{Type of hybridization} \\ \hline [\text{V(NH}_3)_6]^{3+} & d^2sp^3 \\ \hline [\text{CrCl}_3(\text{NMe}_3)_3] & d^2sp^3 \\ \hline [\text{Cu(CN)(NO}_2)(\text{NH}_3)(\text{py})] & dsp^2 \\ \hline \text{K}_3[\text{Co(ox)}_3] & sp^3d^2 \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{V(NH}_3)_6]^{3+} \quad d^2sp^3$, $[\text{CrCl}_3(\text{NMe}_3)_3] \quad d^2sp^3$...
4
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18776
$\text{Which of the following complexes has the highest paramagnetic behaviour?}$ $\text{(where gly = glycine, en = ethylenediamine, ox = oxalate ion and bpy = bipyridyl moieties)}$ $\text{(At no : Ti = 22, V = 23, Fe = 26, Co = 27)}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{V(gly)}_2(\text{OH})_2(\text{NH}_3)_2]^+$, $[\text{Fe(en)(bpy)(NH}_3)_2]^{2+}$...
3
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18775
$\text{The correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in complexes of Co}^{3+} \text{ is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Co(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{3+} < [\text{Co(en)}_3]^{3+} < [\text{Co(NH}_3)_6]^{3+}$, $[\text{Co(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{3+} < [\text{Co(NH}_3)_6]^{3+} < [\text{Co(en)}_3]^{3+}$...
4
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18774
$[\text{Fe} (\text{H}_2\text{O})_6]^{2+}$ $\text{and}$ $[\text{Fe} (\text{CN})_6]^{4-}$ $\text{differ in:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Geometry and magnetic moment.}$, $\text{Geometry and hybridization.}$...
3
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18773
$\text{The carbonyl compound with the strongest C-O bond is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe(CO)}_5$, $[\text{Mn(CO)}_6]^+$...
2
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18772
The hybridizations of $[\text{Ni(CO)}_4]$ and $[\text{Cr(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{3+}$, respectively, are:
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{sp}^3 \text{ and d}^3\text{sp}^2$, $\text{dsp}^2 \text{ and d}^2\text{sp}^3$...
3
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18771
$\text{A paramagnetic ion among the following, forms an outer orbital complex is:}$ $1.\ [\text{Ni(NH}_3\text{)}_6]^{2+}$ $2.\ [\text{Zn(NH}_3\text{)}_6]^{2+}$ $3.\ [\text{Cr(NH}_3\text{)}_6]^{3+}$ $4.\ [\text{Co(NH}_3\text{)}_6]^{3+}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Ni(NH}_3\text{)}_6]^{2+}$, $[\text{Zn(NH}_3\text{)}_6]^{2+}$...
1
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18770
$\text{Zero magnetic moment of the octahedral complex } \text{K}_2[\text{NiF}_6] \text{ is due to:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Low spin } d^6 \text{ Ni(IV) complex}$, $\text{Low spin } d^8 \text{ Ni(II) complex}$...
1
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18769
$\text{Aqueous solution of Ni}^{2+} \text{ contains } [\text{Ni(H}_2\text{O})_6]^{2+} \text{ and its magnetic moment is } 2.83 \text{ BM. When ammonia is added in it, the magnetic moment of solution:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Will remain the same.}$, $\text{Will increase from 2.83 BM.}$...
1
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18768
$\text{The species having highest magnetic moment is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{K}_4[\text{Fe(CN)}_6]$, $[\text{Fe(H}_2\text{O)}_6]\text{SO}_4$...
2
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18767
$\Delta_{\text{oct}} \text{(CFSE in the octahedral field) will be maximum in:}$ $\text{(Atomic number Co = 27)}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Co} (\text{H}_2\text{O})_6]^{3+}$, $[\text{Co} (\text{NH}_3)_6]^{3+}$...
3
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18766
$\text{The crystal field stabilisation energy for the high spin } d^4 \text{ octahedral complex is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$-1.8 \Delta_o$, $-1.6 \Delta_o$...
4
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18765
$\text{The crystal field stabilization energies (CFSE) of high spin and low spin } d^6 \text{ metal complexes in terms of } \Delta_0, \text{ respectively, are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$-0.4 \text{ and } -2.4$, $-2.4 \text{ and } -0.4$...
1
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18764
$\text{Spin-only magnetic moments of } [\text{Fe(NH}_3\text{)}_6]^{3+} \text{ and } [\text{FeF}_6]^{3-} \text{ in BM are, respectively:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$1.73 \text{ and } 1.73$, $5.92 \text{ and } 1.73$...
3
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18763
$\text{The expected number of unpaired electrons for the complex ion } [\text{Cr(NH}_3)_6]^{3+} \text{ are:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$2$, $3$...
2
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18762
$\text{The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex } [\text{Ni(CO)}_4] \text{ respectively are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Square planar and diamagnetic.}$, $\text{Tetrahedral and diamagnetic.}$...
2
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18761
$\text{The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) for } [\text{CoCl}_6]^{4-} \text{ is } 18000 \text{ cm}^{-1}. \text{ The CFSE for } [\text{CoCl}_4]^{2-} \text{ will be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$6000 \text{ cm}^{-1}$, $16000 \text{ cm}^{-1}$...
4
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18760
$\text{The correct statement among the following is:}$ $1.\ \text{If } \Delta_0 < P, \text{ low spin state is more stable.}$ $2.\ \text{CO is a very weak ligand.}$ $3.\ \text{The colour of a complex depends only on the nature of metal ion.}$ $4.\ \text{CO is a weak base but strong ligand.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{If } \Delta_0 < P, \text{ low spin state is more stable.}$, $\text{CO is a very weak ligand.}$...
4
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18759
$\text{A pair that contains both the ions coloured in an aqueous solution is:}$ $\text{(At. no. : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Co = 27)}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Ni}^{2+}, \text{Ti}^{3+}$, $\text{Sc}^{3+}, \text{Ti}^{3+}$...
1
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18758
$[\text{Cr} (\text{H}_2\text{O})_6]\text{Cl}_3$ $\text{(At. no. of Cr = 24)}$ $\text{has a magnetic moment of 3.83 BM.}$ $\text{What is the correct distribution of 3d electrons in the chromium of the complex:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$3d^1_{xy}, 3d^1_{yz}, 3d^1_{z^2}$, $3d^{x^2-y^2}, 3d^1_{z^2}, 3d^1_{xz}$...
4
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18757
$\text{The correct statement, among the following, regarding } [\text{Mn(CN)}_6]^{3-} \text{ is:}$ $1. \text{It is } \text{sp}^3\text{d}^2 \text{ hybridised and octahedral in shape}$ $2. \text{It is } \text{sp}^3\text{d}^2 \text{ hybridised and tetrahedral in shape}$ $3. \text{It is } \text{d}^2\text{sp}^3 \text{ hybridised and octahedral in shape}$ $4. \text{It is } \text{dsp}^2 \text{ hybridised and square planar in shape}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{It is } \text{sp}^3\text{d}^2 \text{ hybridised and octahedral in shape}$, $\text{It is } \text{sp}^3\text{d}^2 \text{ hybridised and tetrahedral in shape}$...
3
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18756
$\text{A metal ion has } d^6 \text{ configuration. In octahedral complex entity of low spin, the number of electrons present in } e_g \text{ set of orbitals will be}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$6$, $4$...
3
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18755
$\text{The electronic arrangement of an octahedral complex with a } d^4 \text{ configuration, if } \Delta_0 < \text{ pairing energy is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$t_{2g}^4 e_g^0$, $e_g^4 t_{2g}^0$...
3
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18754
$\text{The d-electron configurations of } \text{Cr}^{2+}, \text{Mn}^{2+}, \text{Fe}^{2+} \text{ and } \text{Co}^{2+} \text{ are } d^4, d^5, d^6, \text{ and } d^7 \text{ respectively. Minimum paramagnetic behavior is shown by:}$ $\text{(At. No C = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{Fe(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{2+}$, $[\text{Co(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{2+}$...
2
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18753
$\text{The crystal field splitting energy is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The heat of formation between the two levels (} e_g \text{ and } t_{2g} \text{)}$, $\text{The combined pairing energy of the two levels (} e_g \text{ and } t_{2g} \text{)}$...
4
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18752
$\text{The complex that contains only one unpaired electron is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{CoF}_6]^{3-}$, $[\text{Co(C}_2\text{O}_4)_3]^{3-}$...
3
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18751
$\text{Complexes with halide ligands are generally:}$ $1. \text{High spin complexes.}$ $2. \text{Low spin complexes.}$ $3. \text{Both high spin and low spin complexes.}$ $4. \text{None of the above.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{High spin complexes.}$, $\text{Low spin complexes.}$...
1
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18750
$\text{The correct statement among the following about } [\text{Co(CN)}_6]^{3-} \text{ is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{It has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration}$, $\text{It has four unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration}$...
1
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18749
$\text{The complex among the following with the highest value of crystal field splitting energy is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{Fe} (\text{H}_2\text{O})_6]^{+3}$, $[\text{Ru} (\text{CN})_6]^{3-}$...
2
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18748
$\text{Which among the following complexes shows a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM?}$ $1.\ [\text{Ni(CN)}_4]^{2-}$ $2.\ \text{TiCl}_4$ $3.\ [\text{CoCl}_6]^{4-}$ $4.\ [\text{Cu(NH}_3)_4]^{2+}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{Ni(CN)}_4]^{2-}$, $\text{TiCl}_4$...
4
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18747
$\text{An ion, among the following, that has a magnetic moment of 2.84 BM is:}$ $\text{(At. no. Ni = 28, Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27)}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Ni}^{2+}$, $\text{Ti}^{3+}$...
1
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18746
$\text{Among the following compounds, the paramagnetic compound with two unpaired electrons is:}$ $1. \text{K}_3[\text{Fe(CN)}_6]$ $2. \text{K}_2[\text{NiCl}_4]$ $3. \text{K}_2[\text{CoCl}_4]$ $4. \text{Na}_2[\text{Ni(CN)}_4]$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{K}_3[\text{Fe(CN)}_6]$, $\text{K}_2[\text{NiCl}_4]$...
2
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18745
$\text{The complex ion among the following that cannot absorb visible light is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Ni(CN)}_4]^{2-}$, $[\text{Cr(NH}_3)_6]^{3+}$...
1
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18744
$\text{According to Crystal Field Theory (CFT), the compound, among the following, that forms a colored complex is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{Ti} (\text{H}_2\text{O})_6]^{4+}$, $[\text{Cr} (\text{NH}_3)_6]^{3+}$...
2
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18743
$\text{The geometry and magnetic properties of } [\text{NiCl}_4]^{2-}, \text{ respectively, are:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic}$, $\text{Tetrahedral, Diamagnetic}$...
1
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18742
$\text{For a tetrahedral complex } [\text{MCl}_4]^{2-}, \text{ the spin-only magnetic moment is } 3.83 \text{ B.M. The element M is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Co}$, $\text{Cu}$...
1
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18741
$\text{The hybridisation of Ni in the complex } [\text{Ni(CN)}_4]^{2-} \text{ is:}$ $\text{(Atomic number of Ni = 28)}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{dsp}^2$, $\text{sp}^3$...
1
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18740
$\text{The low spin complex among the following is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe(CN)}_6^{3-}$, $\text{Co(NO}_2\text{)}_6^{3-}$...
4
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18739
$\text{The electronic configuration that represents the maximum magnetic moment is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$d^3$, $d^2$...
4
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18738
$\text{The hybridisation of } [\text{FeF}_6]^{3-} \text{ is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{sp}^3\text{d}^2$, $\text{d}^2\text{sp}^3$...
1
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18737
$\text{Of the following complex ions, the diamagnetic complex is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{Ni(CN)}_4]^{2-}$, $[\text{CuCl}_4]^{2-}$...
1
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18736
$\text{An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ruthenocene}$, $\text{Grignard's reagent}$...
2
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18735
$\text{The correct splitting diagram of d orbitals in an octahedral crystal field is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\begin{array}{c} \text{d}_{z^2} \quad \text{d}_{x^2-y^2} \\ \hline \text{d}_{xy} \quad \text{d}_{xz} \quad \text{d}_{yz} \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{c} \text{d}_{z^2} \quad \text{d}_{x^2-y^2} \\ \hline \text{d}_{xy} \quad \text{d}_{xz} \end{array}$...
1
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18734
$\text{Which among the following is a diamagnetic complex?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{Ni} \; (\text{CN})_4]^{2-}$, $[\text{CuCl}_4]^{2-}$...
1
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18733
$\text{The correct electronic configuration of the central atom in } \text{K}_4[\text{Fe(CN)}_6] \text{ based on crystal field theory is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$e^4 t_{2g}^2$, $t_{2g}^4 e_{g}^2$...
3
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18732
$[\text{Cr(NH}_3)_6]^{3+}$ \text{ is paramagnetic, while } [\text{Ni(CN)}_4]^{2-} \text{ is diamagnetic because:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Electrons in the 3d orbitals remain unpaired in } [\text{Ni(CN)}_4]^{2-}$, $\text{Electrons in the 3d orbitals remain unpaired in } [\text{Cr(NH}_3)_6]^{3+}$...
2
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18731
$\text{Total geometrical isomers possible for } [\text{Pd}^{2+}(\text{NH}_2-\text{CH(CH}_3)-\text{CO}_2^-)_2]^0 \text{ are -}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$2$, $3$...
1
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18730
$\text{Isomerism exhibited by } [\text{Co(EDTA)}]^{-} \text{ is/are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Optical \& geometrical isomerism.}$, $\text{Geometrical isomerism.}$...
3
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18729
$\text{Identify the complex among the following that is not expected to exhibit isomerism:}$ $1. \ [\text{Pt} (\text{NH}_3)_2\text{Cl}_2]$ $2. \ [\text{Ni} (\text{NH}_3)_2\text{Cl}_2]$ $3. \ [\text{Ni} (\text{en})_3]^{2+}$ $4. \ [\text{Ni} (\text{NH}_3)_4(\text{H}_2\text{O})_2]^{2+}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{Pt} (\text{NH}_3)_2\text{Cl}_2]$, $[\text{Ni} (\text{NH}_3)_2\text{Cl}_2]$...
2
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18728
$\text{The total number of possible co-ordination isomers for the following compounds are:}$ $[\text{Co (en)}_3][\text{Cr(C}_2\text{O}_4)_3]$ $[\text{Cu(NH}_3)_4][\text{CuCl}_4]$ $[\text{Ni(en)}_3][\text{Co(NO}_2)_6]$
2
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Recommended Questions
$4, 4, 4$, $2, 2, 2$...
4
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18727
$\text{Which among the following complexes can exhibit isomerism?}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Ag(NH}_3)_2]^+$, $[\text{Co(NH}_3)_5\text{NO}_2]^{2+}$...
2
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18726
The total number of geometrical isomers possible for an octahedral complex of $[\text{MA}_2 \text{B}_2 \text{C}_2]$ are: $(\text{M} = \text{transition metal}; \text{A, B and C are monodentate ligands})$
2
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Recommended Questions
3, 4...
3
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18725
$\text{The number of geometrical isomers of } [\text{CrCl}_2(\text{en})(\text{NH}_3)_2] \text{ are:}$ $[\text{en-ethylenediamine}]$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$2$, $3$...
2
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18724
$\text{The total number of possible isomers for the complex } [\text{Co(en)}_2\text{Cl}_2]\text{Cl are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$2$, $1$...
3
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18723
$\text{Number of geometrical isomer(s) possible for the complex } [\text{Cr}(\text{C}_2\text{O}_4)_3]^{3-} \text{ is/are:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$1$, $3$...
3
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18722
$\text{The complex that does not exhibit optical isomerism is:}$ $\text{(en-ethylenediamine)}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Co(en)}_2\text{Cl}_2]^+$, $[\text{Co(NH}_3)_3\text{Cl}_3]$...
2
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18721
$\text{Number of possible isomers for the complex } [\text{Co(en)}_2\text{Cl}_2]\text{Cl will be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$1$, $2$...
3
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18720
$\text{The existence of two different coloured complexes with the composition of } [\text{Co} (\text{NH}_3)_4\text{Cl}_2]^+ \text{ is due to:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Linkage isomerism}$, $\text{Geometrical isomerism}$...
2
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18719
$\text{The number of geometrical isomers shown by } [\text{Pt} (\text{Py})(\text{NH}_3)\text{BrCl}] \text{ are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$4$, $0$...
4
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18718
$[\text{Cr}( ext{H}_2 ext{O})_6] ext{Cl}_3$ $\text{and}$ $[\text{Cr}( ext{H}_2 ext{O})_5 ext{Cl}_2] ext{Cl} \cdot ext{H}_2 ext{O}$ $\text{are examples of:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ionisation isomers}$, $\text{Geometrical isomers}$...
3
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18717
$[\text{Co(NH}_3)_4(\text{NO}_2)_2]\text{Cl}$ \text{ can show:}
2
223
Recommended Questions
\text{Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and optical isomerism.}, \text{Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and geometrical isomerism.}...
2
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18716
$\text{The compound that gives a pair of enantiomorphs is:}$ $\text{(en = NH}_2 \text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{NH}_2\text{)}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{Co} (\text{NH}_3)_4\text{Cl}_2] \text{NO}_2$, $[\text{Cr} (\text{NH}_3)_6][\text{Co} (\text{CN})_6]$...
3
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18715
$\text{The ionization isomer of } [\text{Cr(H}_2\text{O})_4\text{Cl(NO}_2)]\text{Cl is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{Cr(H}_2\text{O})_4(\text{O}_2\text{N})]\text{Cl}_2$, $[\text{Cr(H}_2\text{O})_4\text{Cl}_2](\text{NO}_2)$...
2
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18714
$\text{The type of isomerism shown by the complex } [\text{CoCl}_2(\text{en})_2]^+ \text{ is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Geometrical isomerism}$, $\text{Coordination isomerism}$...
1
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18713
$\text{The geometry and the number of the unpaired electron(s) of } [\text{MnBr}_4]^{2-}, \text{ respectively, are:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Tetrahedral and 1}$, $\text{Square planar and 1}$...
3
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18712
$\text{Optical isomerism is exhibited by among the following is/are:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Cr(Ox)}_3]^{3+}$, $[\text{PtCl}_2(\text{en})_2]^{2+}$...
4
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18711
$\text{The complex that can exhibit linkage isomerism is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{Co} (\text{NH}_3)_5 \text{H}_2\text{O}] \text{Cl}_3$, $[\text{Co} (\text{NH}_3)_5 (\text{NO}_2)] \text{Cl}_2$...
2
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18710
$\text{The complexes } [\text{Co(NH}_3\text{)}_6][\text{Cr(CN)}_6] \text{ and } [\text{Cr(NH}_3\text{)}_6][\text{Co(CN)}_6] \text{ are examples of:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Ionisation isomerism}$, $\text{Coordination isomerism}$...
2
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18709
$\text{The isomerism displayed by } \text{K}_3[\text{Co} (\text{NO}_2)_6] \text{ and } \text{K}_3[\text{Co} (\text{ONO})_6] \text{ is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Linkage}$, $\text{Co-ordination}$...
1
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18708
$\text{An excess of AgNO}_3 \text{ is added to } 100 \text{ mL of a } 0.01\text{M solution of dichlorotetraaquachromium(III) chloride.}$ $\text{The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$0.002$, $0.003$...
4
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18707
$\text{A solution containing 2.675 g of CoCl}_3\cdot 6\text{NH}_3 \text{ (molar mass = 267.5 g mol}^{-1}\text{) is passed through a cation exchanger. The chloride ions obtained in the solution were treated with an excess of AgNO}_3 \text{ to give 4.78 g of AgCl. Formula of the complex is (Atomic mass of Ag = 108u):}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{CoCl(NH}_3)_5]\text{Cl}_2$, $\left[ \text{Co} \left( \text{NH}_3 \right)_6 \right] \text{Cl}_3$...
2
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18706
$\text{A complex has a molecular formula } \text{MSO}_4\text{Cl}\cdot 6\text{H}_2\text{O}. \text{ Its aqueous solution gives white precipitate with barium chloride solution and no precipitate is obtained when it is treated with silver nitrate solution.}$ $\text{If the secondary valence of the metal is six, the correct representation of the complex is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{M(H}_2\text{O})_4\text{Cl}]\text{SO}_4\cdot 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $[\text{M(H}_2\text{O})_6]\text{SO}_4$...
3
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18705
$\text{When 0.1 mol of CoCl}_3(\text{NH}_3)_5 \text{ is treated with an excess of AgNO}_3, 0.2 \text{ mol of AgCl is obtained. The conductivity of the solution will correspond to:}$
2
223
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$1:3 \text{ electrolyte}$, $1:2 \text{ electrolyte}$...
2
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18704
$\text{If an excess of } \text{AgNO}_3 \text{ solution is added to } 100 \text{ mL of a } 0.024 \text{ M solution of dichlorobis (ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) chloride, then the number of moles of AgCl that will be precipitated is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$0.0012$, $0.0016$...
3
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18703
$\text{The correct order of the stoichiometrics of AgCl formed when AgNO}_3 \text{ in excess is treated with the complexes:}$ $\text{CoCl}_3 \cdot 6\text{NH}_3, \text{CoCl}_3 \cdot 5\text{NH}_3, \text{CoCl}_3 \cdot 4\text{NH}_3,$ $\text{respectively, is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$1 \text{ AgCl}, 3 \text{ AgCl}, 2 \text{ AgCl}$, $3 \text{ AgCl}, 1 \text{ AgCl}, 2 \text{ AgCl}$...
3
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18702
$\text{Which of the following statements about ammonium cerium (IV) nitrate, } (\text{NH}_4)_2[\text{Ce} (\text{NO}_3)_6] \text{ is incorrect?}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{NO}_3^- \text{ acts as a monodentate ligand.}$, $\text{The Ce atom has a coordination number of 12.}$...
1
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18701
$\text{The correct order of increasing field strength of ligands is:}$
2
223
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$\text{SCN}^- < \text{F}^- < \text{CN}^- < \text{C}_2\text{O}_4^{2-}$, $\text{F}^- < \text{SCN}^- < \text{C}_2\text{O}_4^{2-} < \text{CN}^-$...
4
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18700
$\text{The correct statements about ethane-1,2-diamine as a ligand are:}$ $\begin{array}{ll} (a) & \text{It is a neutral ligand} \\ (b) & \text{It is a bidentate ligand} \\ (c) & \text{It is a chelating ligand} \\ (d) & \text{It is a unidentate ligand} \end{array}$
2
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$\text{a, b and b}$, $\text{b and c}$...
3
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18699
$\text{The incorrect option among the following is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Co(NO}_2)(\text{H}_2\text{O})(\text{en})_2]\text{Cl}_2, [\text{CoCl(NO}_2)(\text{en})_2]\text{Cl} \cdot \text{H}_2\text{O}$ \text{Hydrate isomerism}, $[\text{Cu(NH}_3)_4][\text{PtCl}_4], [\text{CuCl(NH}_3)_3][\text{PtCl}_3(\text{NH}_3)]$ \text{Co-ordination isomerism}...
4
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18698
$\text{A complex ion among the following can absorb visible light is:}$ $\text{(At. no. Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24)}$
2
223
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$[\text{Sc} (\text{H}_2\text{O})_3 (\text{NH}_3)_3]^{3+}$, $[\text{Ti} (\text{en})_2 (\text{NH}_3)_2]^{4+}$...
3
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18697
$\text{Among the following species, the one that is not expected to be a ligand is:}$
2
223
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$\text{NO}$, $\text{NH}_4^+$...
2
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18696
$\text{The denticity of EDTA is:}$
2
223
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$\text{Monodentate}$, $\text{Hexadentate}$...
2
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18695
$\text{Among the following, the compound that has the maximum coordination number is/are:}$ $1. [\text{Co(NH}_3\text{)}_6]^{3+}$ $2. [\text{Cr(C}_2\text{O}_4\text{)}_3]^{3-}$ $3. [\text{CoCl}_3(\text{H}_2\text{O})_3]$ $4. \text{All of the above have the same coordination number}$
2
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$[\text{Co(NH}_3\text{)}_6]^{3+}$, $[\text{Cr(C}_2\text{O}_4\text{)}_3]^{3-}$...
4
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18694
$\text{The species that cannot act as an ambidentate ligand is:}$
2
223
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$\text{CN}^-$, $\text{NO}_2^-$...
4
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18693
$\text{Correct IUPAC name for } \text{H}_2[\text{PtCl}_6] \text{ is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Hydrogen hexachloroplatinate(IV)}$, $\text{Dihydrogen hexachloroplatinate(IV)}$...
4
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18692
$\text{A solution of CuCl in NH}_4\text{OH is used to measure the amount of gas by simply measuring change in volume. The gas is}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{CO}_2$, $\text{H}_2$...
4
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18691
$\text{Given the following pair of isomers:}$ $[\text{Cr} (\text{NH}_3)_6][\text{Cr} (\text{NO}_2)_6]$ $\text{and}$ $[\text{Cr} (\text{NH}_3)_4(\text{NO}_2)_2][\text{Cr} (\text{NH}_3)_2(\text{NO}_2)_4]$ $\text{Aside from X-ray diffraction, how could the following pairs of isomers be distinguished from one another?}$
2
223
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$\text{Cryoscopic method}$, $\text{Measuring their molar conductance}$...
2
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18690
$\text{Total number of optical isomers } [\text{Pt} (\text{NH}_3)(\text{Br})(\text{Cl})(\text{py})] \text{ can show:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$3$, $2$...
4
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18689
$\text{The chemical formula for tris(ethane-1,2-diamine)iron(II) phosphate is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Fe} (\text{CH}_3-\text{CH} (\text{NH}_2)_2)_3] (\text{PO}_4)_3$, $[\text{Fe} (\text{H}_2\text{N-CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{NH}_2)_3] (\text{PO}_4)$...
4
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18688
$\text{The correct IUPAC name among the following is:}$
2
223
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$\text{Tris(acetylacetonato)iron(III) chloride}$, $\text{Hexachloroplatinum(IV) tetraamminedicyanoplatinate(IV)}$...
3
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18687
$\text{When an excess of aqueous KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate, what coordination entity is formed?}$
2
223
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$\text{K}_2[\text{Cu(CN)}_6]$, $\text{K}_3[\text{Cu(CN)}_4]$...
2
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18686
$\text{The correct IUPAC name for } [\text{Pt} (\text{en})_2 \text{Cl(ONO)}]^{2+} \text{ is:}$
2
223
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$\text{Chlorodiethylenediaminenitritoplatinum(IV) ion}$, $\text{Bis(ethylenediamine)chloronitro-O-platinum(IV) ion}$...
3
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18685
$\text{Aqueous copper sulphate solution gives a green precipitate of A with aqueous potassium fluoride. What would be the correct molecular formula of A?}$
2
223
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$[\text{CuF}_6]^{3-}$, $[\text{CuF}_4]^{2-}$...
2
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18684
$\text{The correct IUPAC name for } \text{Mn}_3(\text{CO})_{12} \text{ is:}$
2
223
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$\text{Dodecacarbonylmanganate(0)}$, $\text{Dodecacarbonylmanganate(II)}$...
3
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18683
$\text{The IUPAC name of } [\text{Co(ONO)(NH}_3)_5]\text{Cl}_2 \text{ is:}$
2
223
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$\text{Pentaamminenitro-O-cobalt(II)chloride}$, $\text{Pentaamminenitroso-O-cobalt(III)chloride}$...
3
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18682
$2.335 \text{ g of compound } X \text{ (empirical formula } \text{CoH}_{12}\text{N}_4\text{Cl}_3) \text{ upon treatment with excess } \text{AgNO}_3 \text{ solution produces } 1.435 \text{ g of a white precipitate. The primary and secondary valences of cobalt in compound } X, \text{ respectively are:}$ $[\text{Given Atomic mass: Co = 59, Cl = 35.5, Ag = 108}]$
2
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$3, 6$, $3, 4$...
1
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18681
$\text{The sum of the coordination number and oxidation number of the metal M in the complex } [\text{M(en)}_2(\text{C}_2\text{O}_4)]\text{Cl is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$9$, $6$...
1
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18680
$\text{The coordination number and oxidation number of Co in the complex}$ $\text{(NH}_4\text{)}_2[\text{CoF}_4] \text{ are:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$+2, 4$, $4, +2$...
2
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18679
$\text{The species that are colourless:}$ $\text{(Z of Ti = 22, Co = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28)}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{TiF}_6^{2-} \text{ and CoF}_6^{3-}$, $\text{Cu}_2\text{Cl}_2 \text{ and NiCl}_4^{2-}$...
3
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18678
$\text{Two complexes, PtCl}_4 \cdot 2 \text{NH}_3 \text{ and PtCl}_4 \cdot 2 \text{KCl, do not give a precipitate of AgCl when treated with AgNO}_3. \text{ They give zero and three moles of ions, respectively, in solutions for one mole of the complex. The structural formulae of both complexes are:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{PtCl}_2 (\text{NH}_3)_2] \text{Cl}_2 \text{ and K}_2[\text{PtCl}_6]$, $[\text{PtCl}_4 (\text{NH}_3)_2] \text{ and K}_2[\text{PtCl}_2 (\text{NH}_3)_2]$...
3
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18677
$\text{The IUPAC name for complex ion, } [\text{Fe(CN)}_6]^{3-} \text{ is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Hexacyanoiron(III) ion}$, $\text{Hexacyanitoferrate(III) ion}$...
4
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18676
The IUPAC name of $[\text{Cr(en)}_3]\text{Cl}_3$ is:
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Triethylenediaminechromium (III) chloride}$, $\text{Tris(ethylenediamine)chromium (II) chloride}$...
3
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18675
$\text{The hypothetical complex chlorodiaquatetraamminecobalt(III) chloride can be represented as:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$[\text{CoCl} (\text{NH}_3)_3 (\text{H}_2\text{O})_2] \text{Cl}_2$, $[\text{Co} (\text{NH}_3)_3 (\text{H}_2\text{O})\text{Cl}]_3$...
1
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18674
$\text{The complex } [\text{Pt (NH}_3)_2\text{Cl(NH}_2\text{CH}_3)]\text{Cl correct IUPAC name is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Diamminechlorido(methylamine)platinum(II)chloride}$, $\text{Diamminechloro(aminomethyl)platinum(II)chlorido}$...
1
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18673
$\text{Cobalt(III) chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia.}$ $\text{A compound among the following that does not give a test for chloride ions}$ $\text{with silver nitrate at 25 } ^\circ \text{C is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{CoCl}_3 \cdot 3\text{NH}_3$, $\text{CoCl}_3 \cdot 4\text{NH}_3$...
1
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18672
$\text{IUPAC name of } [\text{Pt} (\text{NH}_3)_3 (\text{Br})(\text{NO}_2)\text{Cl}]\text{Cl is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{Triamminebromidochloridonitroplatinum(IV)Chloride}$, $\text{Triamminebromonitrochloroplatinum(IV)Chloride}$...
1
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18671
$\text{If } \frac{1}{3} \text{ of the total chlorine of the compound is precipitated by adding } \text{AgNO}_3 \text{ to its aqueous solution, then the most likely structure of } \text{CrCl}_3 \cdot 6\text{H}_2\text{O} \text{ among the following is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{CrCl}_3 \cdot 6\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $[\text{Cr(H}_2\text{O})_3\text{Cl}_3](\text{H}_2\text{O})_3$...
3
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18670
$\text{A solution of } [\text{Ni(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{2+} \text{ is green, but a solution of } [\text{Ni(CN)}_4]^{2-} \text{ is colorless because:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{There are paired electrons in } [\text{Ni(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{2+} \text{ while all electrons are unpaired in } [\text{Ni(CN)}_4]^{2-}$, $\text{There are unpaired electrons in } [\text{Ni(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{2+} \text{ while all electrons are paired in } [\text{Ni(CN)}_4]^{2-}$...
2
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18669
$\text{The complex that is used as an anticancer agent is:}$
2
223
Recommended Questions
$\text{mer-}[\text{Co} (\text{NH}_3)_3\text{Cl}_3]$, $\text{cis-}[\text{PtCl}_2(\text{NH}_3)_2]$...
2
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18668
2
2
223
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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18667
$\text{The correct representation of tetrahydroxidozincate (II) is:}$
2
223
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$[\text{Zn(OH)}_4]^{2-}$, $[\text{Zn(OH)}_4]^{-}$...
1
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18666
121
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18665
120
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18664
119
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18663
118
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18662
117
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18661
116
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18660
115
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
18659
114
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18658
113
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18657
112
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18656
111
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18655
110
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
18654
109
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18653
108
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
18652
107
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18651
106
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
18650
105
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
18649
104
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
18648
103
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
18647
102
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
18646
101
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
18645
100
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
18644
99
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
18643
98
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
18642
97
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
18641
96
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
18640
95
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Delete
18639
94
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18638
93
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18637
92
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18636
91
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Delete
18635
90
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Delete
18634
89
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18633
88
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18632
87
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
18631
86
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18630
85
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
18629
84
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
18628
83
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18627
82
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
18626
81
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18625
80
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
18624
79
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
18623
78
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18622
77
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18621
76
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18620
75
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18619
74
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18618
73
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
18617
72
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18616
71
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18615
70
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18614
69
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18613
68
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18612
67
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18611
66
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18610
65
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
18609
64
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18608
63
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18607
62
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
18606
61
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
18605
60
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18604
59
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18603
58
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18602
57
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18601
56
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18600
55
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18599
54
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
18598
53
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
18597
52
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
18596
51
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18595
50
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
18594
49
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18593
48
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18592
47
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18591
46
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18590
45
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18589
44
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18588
43
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18587
42
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18586
41
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18585
40
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18584
39
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18583
38
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18582
37
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18581
36
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Delete
18580
35
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18579
34
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18578
33
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18577
32
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18576
31
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18575
30
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18574
29
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18573
28
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18572
27
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18571
26
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18570
25
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18569
24
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18568
23
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18567
22
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18566
21
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18565
20
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18564
19
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18563
18
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18562
17
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18561
16
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18560
15
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18559
14
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18558
13
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18557
12
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18556
11
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18555
10
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18554
9
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18553
8
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18552
7
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18551
6
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
3
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18550
5
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18549
4
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18548
3
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
4
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18547
2
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
2
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18546
1
2
222
N/A
1, 2...
1
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18545
$\text{The main reactions that occur in the blast furnace during iron extraction from hematite are:}$ $\text{a. } \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + 3\text{CO} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe} + 3\text{CO}_2$ $\text{b. } \text{FeO} + \text{SiO}_2 \rightarrow \text{FeSiO}_3$ $\text{c. } \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + 3\text{C} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe} + 3\text{CO}$ $\text{d. } \text{CaO} + \text{SiO}_2 \rightarrow \text{CaSiO}_3$ $\text{Choose the correct option:}$ $1. \text{ a and b}$ $2. \text{ b and c}$ $3. \text{ c and d}$ $4. \text{ a and d}$
2
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$\text{a and b}$, $\text{b and c}$...
4
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18544
$\text{An electrochemical process is used to extract:}$
2
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$\text{Iron}$, $\text{Lead}$...
3
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18543
$\text{The process of bringing the metal ore into solution by the action of a suitable chemical reagent followed by extraction of the metal either by electrolysis or by a suitable precipitating agent is called-}$ $1. \text{Electrometallurgy}$ $2. \text{Hydrometallurgy}$ $3. \text{Electrorefining}$ $4. \text{Zone refining}$
2
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$\text{Electrometallurgy}$, $\text{Hydrometallurgy}$...
2
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18542
$\text{What does copper matte contain?}$
2
220
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$\text{Sulphides of copper(I), and iron(II)}$, $\text{Sulphides of copper (II), and iron(III)}$...
1
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18541
$\text{In the metallurgy of aluminium:}$
2
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$\text{Al}^{3+} \text{ is oxidised to Al(s).}$, $\text{The graphite anode is oxidised to carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide.}$...
2
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18540
$\text{In the froth flotation process, how can zinc sulphide and lead sulphide be separated?}$ $\text{a. Using collectors.}$ $\text{b. Adjusting the proportion of oil to water.}$ $\text{c. Using depressants.}$ $\text{d. Using froth stabilizers.}$ $\text{Choose the correct option:}$
2
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$(a, b)$, $(b, c)$...
2
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18539
$\text{Iron is extracted from chalcopyrite as:}$
2
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$\text{FeO}$, $\text{FeS}$...
4
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18538
$\text{The iron ore that is used to line the reverberatory furnace to prepare the purest form of iron is-}$
2
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$\text{Haematite}$, $\text{FeO}$...
1
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18537
$2 ext{MS} + 3 ext{O}_2 \rightarrow 2 ext{MO} + 2 ext{SO}_2$ $2 ext{MO} + ext{MS} \rightarrow 3 ext{M} + ext{SO}_2$ $\text{The metal M in above-mentioned reaction is:}$
2
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$\text{Mg}$, $\text{Pb}$...
2
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18536
$\text{Consider the following reactions at } 1000 \ ^\circ\text{C.}$ $\text{(I) ZnS + } \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_2\text{(g)} \xrightarrow{\Delta} \text{ZnO(g)}; \ \Delta G^\circ = -360 \ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$ $\text{(II) Cs + } \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_2\text{(g)} \xrightarrow{\Delta} \text{CO(g)}; \ \Delta G^\circ = -460 \ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$ $\text{Choose the correct statement about the above reactions at } 1000 \ ^\circ\text{C:}$
2
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$\text{ZnO is more stable than CO}$, $\text{ZnO can be reduced to Zn by C}$...
2
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18535
$\text{Consider the following metallurgical process:}$ $\text{Sulfide} \xrightarrow{\Delta} \text{oxide} \xrightarrow{\Delta} \text{Impure metal} \rightarrow \text{pure metal}$ $\text{The processes A, B, and C in the above mentioned reaction are, respectively:}$
2
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$\text{Calcination, smelting, and electrolysis}$, $\text{Roasting, smelting, and electrolysis}$...
2
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18534
$\text{What happens in the extraction of chlorine by electrolysis of brine?}$ $1.\ \text{Oxidation of } \text{Cl}^- \text{ ion to chlorine gas occurs.}$ $2.\ \text{Reduction of } \text{Cl}^- \text{ ion to chlorine gas occurs.}$ $3.\ \text{For overall reaction } \Delta G^\circ \text{ has negative value.}$ $4.\ \text{A displacement reaction takes place.}$
2
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$\text{Oxidation of } \text{Cl}^- \text{ ion to chlorine gas occurs.}$, $\text{Reduction of } \text{Cl}^- \text{ ion to chlorine gas occurs.}$...
1
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18533
$\text{The correct match among the following is:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline \text{(a) Boron} & \text{(i) Van Arkel method} \\ \text{(b) Tin} & \text{(ii) Mond's process} \\ \text{(c) Zirconium} & \text{(iii) Liquation} \\ \text{(d) Nickel} & \text{(iv) Zone refining} \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
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$\begin{array}{cccc} (a) & (b) & (c) & (d) \\ (i) & (iii) & (iv) & (ii) \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{cccc} (a) & (b) & (c) & (d) \\ (ii) & (iii) & (i) & (iv) \end{array}$...
1
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18532
$\text{Which of the following metals can be purified by electrolytic refining?}$
2
220
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$\text{Cu, and Zn}$, $\text{Ge, and Si}$...
1
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18531
$\text{The common impurities present in bauxite are:}$ $\text{a. CuO}$ $\text{b. ZnO}$ $\text{c. Fe}_2\text{O}_3$ $\text{d. SiO}_2$ $\text{Choose the correct option:}$ $\text{1. a and b}$ $\text{2. b and c}$ $\text{3. c and d}$ $\text{4. a and d}$
2
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$\text{a and b}$, $\text{b and c}$...
3
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18530
$\text{Brine is electrolysed by using inert electrodes. The reaction at the anode is:}$ $1. \ \text{Cl}^- (\text{aq}) \rightarrow \frac{1}{2} \text{Cl}_2(\text{g}) + e^-; \ E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 1.36 \ \text{V}$ $2. \ \text{2H}_2\text{O}(\text{l}) \rightarrow \text{O}_2(\text{g}) + 4\text{H}^+ + 4e^-; \ E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 1.23 \ \text{V}$ $3. \ \text{Na}^+(\text{aq}) + e^- \rightarrow \text{Na(s)}; \ E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 2.71 \ \text{V}$ $4. \ \text{H}^+(\text{aq}) + e^- \rightarrow \frac{1}{2} \text{H}_2(\text{g}); \ E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 0.00 \ \text{V}$
2
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$\text{Cl}^- (\text{aq}) \rightarrow \frac{1}{2} \text{Cl}_2(\text{g}) + e^-; \ E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 1.36 \ \text{V}$, $\text{2H}_2\text{O}(\text{l}) \rightarrow \text{O}_2(\text{g}) + 4\text{H}^+ + 4e^-; \ E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 1.23 \ \text{V}$...
1
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18529
$\text{Aluminium is extracted from alumina } \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 \text{ by electrolysis of a molten mixture of:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 + \text{HF} + \text{NaAlF}_4$, $\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 + \text{CaF}_2 + \text{NaAlF}_4$...
3
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18528
$\text{In the extraction of aluminium by the Hall-Heroult process, purified } \text{Al}_2 \text{O}_3 \text{ is mixed with } \text{CaF}_2 \text{ to:}$ $\text{a. Lower the melting point of } \text{Al}_2 \text{O}_3$ $\text{b. Increase the conductivity of the molten mixture.}$ $\text{c. Reduce } \text{Al}^{3+} \text{ into } \text{Al(s)}$ $\text{d. Act as a catalyst}$ $\text{Choose the correct option:}$ $\text{1. a and b}$ $\text{2. b and c}$ $\text{3. c and d}$ $\text{4. a and d}$
2
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$\text{a and b}$, $\text{b and c}$...
1
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18527
$\text{A major impurity in pig iron is:}$
2
220
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$\text{Carbon}$, $\text{Silicon}$...
1
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18526
$\text{The extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with } \text{CN}^- \text{ ion. Silver is later recovered by:}$
2
220
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$\text{Liquation}$, $\text{Distillation}$...
4
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18525
$4 ext{M} + 8 ext{CN}^- + 2 ext{H}_2 ext{O} + ext{O}_2 \rightarrow 4[ ext{M(CN)}_2]^- + 4 ext{OH}^-$ $2[ ext{M(CN)}_2]^- + ext{Zn} \rightarrow [ ext{Zn(CN)}_4]^{2-} + 2 ext{M}$ $\text{The metal M in above-mentioned reaction is:}$
2
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$\text{Nickel}$, $\text{Silver}$...
2
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18524
$\text{A pair of metals among the following that can be purified by the van Arkel method are:}$
2
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$\text{Zr, and Ti}$, $\text{Ag, and Au}$...
1
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18523
$\text{(i)} \text{Zr} + 2\text{I}_2 \xrightarrow{870\text{K}} \text{ZrI}_4 \xrightarrow{2075\text{K}} \text{Zr} + 2\text{I}_2$ $\text{(ii)} \text{Ni} + 4\text{CO} \xrightarrow{330\text{K}} \text{Ni(CO)}_4 \xrightarrow{450\text{K}} \text{Ni}_{(\text{pure})} + 4\text{CO}$ $\text{The processes (ii) and (i) above, respectively, are:}$
2
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$\text{Mond's process; Van Arkel process}$, $\text{Van Arkel process; Mond's process}$...
2
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18522
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The zone refining method is very useful for producing semiconductors.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Semiconductors are of high purity.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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18521
$\text{Which metal can be purified by zone refining?}$
2
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$\text{Ni}$, $\text{Zr}$...
3
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18520
$\text{The correct statement among the following is:}$ $1. \text{Blister copper has a blistered appearance due to the evolution of } \text{CO}_2.$ $2. \text{Vapour phase refining is carried out for nickel by the Van Arkel method.}$ $3. \text{Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.}$ $4. \text{Wrought iron is impure iron with 4 \% carbon.}$
2
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$\text{Blister copper has a blistered appearance due to the evolution of } \text{CO}_2.$, $\text{Vapour phase refining is carried out for nickel by the Van Arkel method.}$...
3
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18519
$\text{From the following, the correct statements about the role of substances added}$ $\text{in the froth flotation process are:}$ $\text{a. Collectors enhance the non-wettability of the mineral particles.}$ $\text{b. Collectors enhance the wettability of gangue particles.}$ $\text{c. By using depressants in the process, two sulphide ores can be separated.}$ $\text{d. Froth stabilisers decrease the wettability of gangue.}$
2
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$\text{a and b}$, $\text{b and c}$...
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18518
$\text{In the process of extraction of silver,}$ $\text{silver ore} + \text{CN}^- + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow [\text{X}] + \text{OH}^-$ $[\text{X}] + \text{Zn} \rightarrow [\text{Y}] + \text{Ag}$ $[\text{X}], \text{and} [\text{Y}] \text{ in the above mentioned reaction are:}$
2
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$\text{X} = [\text{Ag(CN)}_2]^- ; \text{Y} = [\text{Zn(CN)}_4]^{2-}$, $\text{X} = [\text{Ag(CN)}_2]^{3-} ; \text{Y} = [\text{Zn(CN)}_4]^{2-}$...
1
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18517
$\text{Select the correct option based on the statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Zirconium can be purified by the van Arkel method.}$ $\text{Reason (R): ZrI}_4 \text{ is volatile and decomposes at 1800 K.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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18516
$\text{During the process of electrolytic refining of copper, metals that are present as impurities and settle as anode mud are:}$
2
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$\text{Ag, and Au}$, $\text{Pb, and Zn}$...
1
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18515
$\text{Match the items in Column I with the items in Column II, and assign the correct code.}$ $\text{Column I}$ \quad \text{Column II}$ $\text{A. Cyanide process}$ \quad \text{1. Ultrapure Ge}$ $\text{B. Froth flotation process}$ \quad \text{2. Dressing of ZnS}$ $\text{C. Electrolytic reduction}$ \quad \text{3. Extraction of Al}$ $\text{D. Zone refining}$ \quad \text{4. Extraction of Au}$ $\quad \text{5. Purification of Ni}$ $\text{Codes}$
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$1. \ 4 \ 2 \ 3 \ 1$, $2. \ 2 \ 3 \ 1 \ 5$...
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18514
$\text{Which of the following statement is correct?}$ $\begin{array}{l} \text{1. Cast iron is obtained by remelting pig iron with scrap iron and coke using hot air blast.} \\ \text{2. In the extraction of silver, silver is extracted as a cationic complex.} \\ \text{3. Nickel is purified by zone refining.} \\ \text{4. Zr, and Ti are purified by the van Arkel method.} \end{array}$
2
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$(a, b)$, $(b, c)$...
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18513
$\text{The method of purification that is represented by the following equation is:}$ $\text{Ti}(s) + 2\text{I}_2(g) \xrightarrow{523\ K} \text{TiI}_4(g)$ $\text{TiI}_4(g) \xrightarrow{1700\ K} \text{Ti}(s) + 2\text{I}_2(g)$
2
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$\text{Cupellation}$, $\text{Poling}$...
3
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18512
$\text{Match the items in Column I with the items in Column II and assign the correct code.}$ $\text{Column I}$ $\text{A. Coloured Bands}$ $\text{B. Impure metal to volatile complex}$ $\text{C. Purification of Ge and Si}$ $\text{D. Purification of mercury}$ $\text{Column II}$ $1. \text{Zone refining}$ $2. \text{Fractional distillation}$ $3. \text{Mond's process}$ $4. \text{Chromatography}$ $5. \text{Liquation}$ $\text{Codes}$ $\begin{array}{cccc} \text{A} & \text{B} & \text{C} & \text{D} \\ 1. & 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 \\ 2. & 4 & 3 & 1 & 2 \\ 3. & 3 & 4 & 2 & 1 \\ 4. & 5 & 4 & 3 & 2 \end{array}$
2
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$1 \ (3\%)$, $2 \ (93\%)$...
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18511
$\text{The temperature at which carbon reduce FeO to Fe and produce CO is:}$
2
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$\text{Lower than 400 } ^\circ \text{C}$, $400 ^\circ \text{C}$...
4
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18510
$\text{The correct statement for the reduction of FeO at the temperature corresponding to point D is:}$
2
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$\Delta G \text{ value for the overall reduction reaction with carbon monoxide is zero.}$, $\Delta G \text{ value for the overall reduction reaction with a mixture of 1 mol carbon, and 1 mol oxygen is positive.}$...
1
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18509
$\text{Zinc cannot be extracted from zinc oxide via CO reduction because:}$ $\text{(Given: Ellingham diagram)}$
2
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$\Delta G_f^\circ \text{ of Zn from ZnO is lower than that of CO}_2 \text{ from CO}$, $\Delta G_f^\circ \text{ of ZnO from Zn is lower than that of CO}_2 \text{ from CO}$...
2
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18508
$\text{The correct statement among the following regarding the reaction of FeO below point A in the above diagram is:}$
2
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$\text{Reduced by carbon monoxide only.}$, $\text{Reduced by both carbon monoxide and carbon.}$...
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18507
$\text{The better reducing agent for ZnO is:}$
2
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$\text{C}$, $\text{CO}$...
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18506
$\text{At 1400 } ^\circ \text{C, the } \Delta G_r^\circ \text{ value for the reaction } 2\text{FeO} + 2\text{C} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe} + 2\text{CO} \text{ is}$
2
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$-116 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $-106 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
2
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18505
$\text{Which of the following has a negative slope?}$
2
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$\text{C} \rightarrow \text{CO}$, $\text{Fe} \rightarrow \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3$...
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18504
$\text{Al can reduce MgO under the following conditions:}$
2
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$\text{Above 500 } ^\circ \text{C, Al can reduce MgO}$, $\text{Below 500 } ^\circ \text{C, Al can reduce MgO}$...
4
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18503
$\text{The correct statement among the following is:}$ $\text{1. The rate of reaction cannot be understood from the Ellingham diagram.}$ $\text{2. During the formation of metal oxide } \Delta S' \text{ becomes negative and } \Delta G \text{ becomes positive resulting in a positive slope.}$ $\text{3. There is an abrupt change in the slope of the Ellingham line when a change in phase (s} \rightarrow \text{l) or (l} \rightarrow \text{g) takes place.}$ $\text{4. All of the above.}$
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$\text{The rate of reaction cannot be understood from the Ellingham diagram.}$, $\text{During the formation of metal oxide } \Delta S' \text{ becomes negative and } \Delta G \text{ becomes positive resulting in a positive slope.}$...
4
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18502
$\text{A metal's oxide that can be reduced by Fe as a reducing agent at a temperature } T_1 \text{ is:}$
2
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$\text{Zr}$, $\text{Ca}$...
1
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18501
$\text{Ellingham's diagram for the formation of } \text{CO}_2 \text{ is a straight line in the given graph. This is due to:}$ $\begin{array}{c} c(s) + \text{o}_2(g) \rightarrow \text{CO}_2(g) \\ \Delta G^\circ \\ T(K) \end{array}$
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$\text{Increase in entropy during } \text{CO}_2 \text{ formation.}$, $\text{Decrease in entropy during } \text{CO}_2 \text{ formation.}$...
3
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18500
$\text{The correct statement among the following is:}$
2
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$\text{In the decomposition of oxide into oxygen and gaseous metal, entropy increases.}$, $\text{Decomposition of oxide is an endothermic change.}$...
4
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18499
$\text{Consider the Ellingham diagram given below.}$ $\text{The Y-axis, and X-axis in the graph are respectively:}$
2
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$\text{Gibbs energy (}\Delta G_r^\circ\text{), and Pressure}$, $\text{Gibbs energy (}\Delta G_r^\circ\text{), and temperature}$...
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18498
$\text{The thermodynamic property useful for selecting the reducing agent is:}$
2
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$\text{Gibbs free energy change.}$, $\text{Internal energy change.}$...
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18497
$\text{1. Ellingham diagram.}$ $\text{2. Orgel diagram.}$ $\text{3. Tunabo-Sugano diagram.}$ $\text{4. Born-Haber cycle.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Ellingham diagram.}$, $\text{Orgel diagram.}$...
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18496
$\text{Incorrect statement for the Hall-Heroult process is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Cryolite } \text{Na}_3\text{AlF}_6 \text{ lower the melting point of } \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3, \text{ and increase its electrical conductivity.}$, $\text{Al is obtained at the cathode, and CO}_2 \text{ at the anode.}$...
4
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18495
$\text{What is the composition of the anode mud used in the electrolytic refining of silver?}$
2
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$\text{Zn, Cu, Ag, Au}$, $\text{Zn, Ag, Au}$...
4
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18494
$\text{Why is roasting important in the iron metallurgy process?}$
2
220
Recommended Questions
$\text{FeO gets oxidized to Fe}_2\text{O}_3 \text{ which does not combine with acidic SiO}_2$, $\text{SiO}_2 \text{ is an acidic oxide which can combine with metallic oxides i.e. FeO, and Fe}_2\text{O}_3$...
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18493
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Hydrometallurgy involves dissolving the ore in a suitable reagent followed by precipitation by a more electropositive metal.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Copper is extracted by hydrometallurgy.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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18492
$\text{Which of the following ores can be reduced by carbon?}$ $\text{a. Haematite}$ $\text{b. Zincite}$ $\text{c. Iron pyrites}$ $\text{d. Sphalerite}$ $\text{Choose the correct option:}$
2
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$\text{a and b}$, $\text{b and c}$...
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18491
$\text{Among the following a non-oxide ore is:}$ $1. \text{ Malachite}$ $2. \text{ Cuprite}$ $3. \text{ Zincite}$ $4. \text{ Bauxite}$
2
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$\text{Malachite}$, $\text{Cuprite}$...
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18490
$\text{What method is used to extract zinc from zinc blende?}$
2
220
Recommended Questions
$\text{Electrolytic reduction}$, $\text{Roasting followed by reduction with carbon}$...
2
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18489
$\text{NaCN is a depressant that is used:}$
2
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$\text{To Separate PbS from ZnS by forming a complex with PbS.}$, $\text{To Separate PbS from ZnS by forming a complex with ZnS.}$...
2
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18488
$\text{Native silver metal forms a water-soluble complex with a dilute aqueous solution of NaCN in the presence of:}$
2
220
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$\text{Nitrogen}$, $\text{Oxygen}$...
2
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18487
$\text{During extraction, copper is obtained by the reduction of cupric oxide with:}$
2
220
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$\text{Cu}_2\text{S}$, $\text{SO}_2$...
1
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18486
$\text{Which of the following is an incorrect match?}$ $1.\ \text{Kaolinite} - \text{Al}_2(\text{OH})_4\text{Si}_2\text{O}_5$ $2.\ \text{Cuprite} - \text{Cu}_2\text{O}$ $3.\ \text{Siderite} - \text{FeCO}_3$ $4.\ \text{Calamine} - \text{ZnSO}_4$
2
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$\text{Kaolinite} - \text{Al}_2(\text{OH})_4\text{Si}_2\text{O}_5$, $\text{Cuprite} - \text{Cu}_2\text{O}$...
4
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18485
$\text{The substance that acts as a collector in the froth flotation method is:}$
2
220
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$\text{Sodium xenate.}$, $\text{Sodium pyrophosphate.}$...
4
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18484
$\text{Reactions among the following that occur during calcination are:}$ $\begin{array}{l} \text{a. } \text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2 \\ \text{b. } 2\text{FeS}_2 + \frac{11}{2} \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + \text{SO}_2 \\ \text{c. } \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3\cdot\text{xH}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 + \text{xH}_2\text{O} \\ \text{d. } \text{ZnS} + \frac{3}{2} \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{ZnO} + \text{SO}_2 \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct option:}$ $\text{1. a and b}$ $\text{2. b and c}$ $\text{3. c and d}$ $\text{4. a and c}$
2
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$\text{a and b}$, $\text{b and c}$...
4
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18483
$\text{Consider the following reaction.}$ $\text{Bauxite ore} + \text{NaOH (conc.)} \xrightarrow{\text{Digester} \ \Delta} (\text{A})_{\text{Soluble}}$ $\text{(A)} \xrightarrow{\text{Fresh Al(OH)}_3} (\text{B})_{\text{White}} + (\text{C})$ $\text{(B)} \xrightarrow{\Delta} (\text{D}) + \text{H}_2\text{O}$ $\text{What is the molecular formula of compound D?}$
2
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$\text{NaAlO}_2$, $\text{Al(OH)}_3$...
3
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18482
$\text{The chemical composition of "slag" formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper is:}$
2
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$\text{Cu}_2 + \text{FeS}$, $\text{FeSiO}_3$...
2
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18481
$\text{Which are the most abundant elements present inside the earth's crust?}$
2
220
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$\text{Al, and Fe}$, $\text{Al, and Cu}$...
1
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18480
$\text{The fundamental principle of froth flotation process is:}$
2
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$\text{Impurities and metal ore have different wetting properties.}$, $\text{Impurities and metal ore have different solubility.}$...
1
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18479
$\text{From the following, the ores that are concentrated by froth flotation are:}$ $\begin{array}{ll} \text{a. Haematite} & \text{b. Galena} \\ \text{c. Copper pyrites} & \text{d. Magnetite} \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct option:}$
2
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$\text{a and b}$, $\text{b and c}$...
2
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18478
$\text{Roasting of sulphides gives the gas 'X' as a by-product. This is a colourless gas}$ $\text{with the choking smell of burnt sulphur and causes great damage to}$ $\text{respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic, acts}$ $\text{as an oxidising agent, and its acid has never been isolated. The gas 'X' is:}$
2
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$\text{SO}_2$, $\text{CO}_2$...
1
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18477
$\text{Among the following an iron mineral is:}$
2
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$\text{Malachite}$, $\text{Cassiterite}$...
4
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18476
$\text{Match the items in Column I with the items in Column II and assign the correct code.}$ $\text{Column I}$ \quad \text{Column II}$ $\text{A. Pendulum}$ \quad \text{1. Chrome steel}$ $\text{B. Malachite}$ \quad \text{2. Nickel Steel}$ $\text{C. Calamine}$ \quad \text{3. Na}_3\text{AlF}_6$ $\text{D. Cryolite}$ \quad \text{4. CuCO}_3 \cdot \text{Cu (OH)}_2$ $\quad \quad \quad \quad \text{5. ZnCO}_3$
2
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$1 \quad 2 \quad 3 \quad 4$, $2 \quad 4 \quad 5 \quad 3$...
2
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18475
$\text{The active species in Zeigler-Natta polymerisation of ethylene is:}$
2
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$\text{AlCl}_3$, $\text{Et}_3\text{Al}$...
4
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18474
$\text{A small amount of phosphoric acid can be used to prevent } \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ decomposition. This an example of?}$
2
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$\text{Neutralization}$, $\text{Negative catalysis}$...
2
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18473
$\text{The compound that acts as an inhibitor for knocking in the combustion of petrol is:}$
2
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$(\text{C}_2\text{H}_5)_4\text{Pb}$, $\text{Ni(CO)}_4$...
3
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18472
$\text{KClO}_3$ $\text{on heating decomposes into}$ $\text{KCl and O}_2.$ $\text{If some MnO}_2$ $\text{is added, the reaction goes much faster because:}$ $1. \text{MnO}_2 \text{ decomposes to give oxygen.}$ $2. \text{MnO}_2 \text{ provides heat by reacting.}$ $3. \text{Better contact is provided by MnO}_2$ $4. \text{MnO}_2 \text{ acts as a catalyst.}$
2
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$\text{MnO}_2 \text{ decomposes to give oxygen.}$, $\text{MnO}_2 \text{ provides heat by reacting.}$...
4
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18471
$\text{Heterogeneous catalysis is shown in:}$
2
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$2\text{SO}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g) \xrightarrow{\text{Pt}(s)} 2\text{SO}_3(g)$, $4\text{NH}_3(g) + 3\text{H}_2(g) \xrightarrow{\text{Fe}(s)} 2\text{NH}_3(g)$...
4
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18470
$\text{Which one of the following statements about enzyme catalysis is incorrect?}$
2
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$\text{Enzymes are mostly proteinous in nature.}$, $\text{Enzyme action is specific.}$...
4
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18469
$\text{Shape selective catalysis is:}$
2
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$\text{Catalytic reaction depends upon the pore structure of the catalyst.}$, $\text{Catalytic reactions depend on the size of the reactant and the product molecules.}$...
3
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18468
$\text{Enzymes are:}$ $1. \text{Biochemical catalysts.}$ $2. \text{Protein molecules of high molecular masses.}$ $3. \text{Both (1) and (2)}$ $4. \text{None of the above.}$
2
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$\text{Biochemical catalysts.}$, $\text{Protein molecules of high molecular masses.}$...
3
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18467
$\text{Among the following surfactant molecules, the surfactant with the lowest CMC}$ $\text{in aqueous solution at ambient conditions is:}$
2
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$\text{CH}_3(\text{CH}_2)_{15}\text{N}^+(\text{CH}_3)_3\text{Br}^-$, $\text{CH}_3(\text{CH}_2)_{11}\text{OSO}_3^-\ \text{Na}^+$...
1
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18466
$\text{Milk can be preserved by adding a few drops of?}$
2
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$\text{Formic acid solution}$, $\text{Formaldehyde solution}$...
2
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18465
$\text{The charge present on micelles is:}$ $1.\ \text{Negative charge.}$ $2.\ \text{Positive charge.}$ $3.\ \text{Both negative and positive charges.}$ $4.\ \text{None of the above.}$
2
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$\text{Negative charge.}$, $\text{Positive charge.}$...
3
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18464
$\text{An emulsion is stabilised by:}$
2
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$\text{Emulsifiers.}$, $\text{Peptizing agent.}$...
1
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18463
$\text{Match the items in Column I and Column II.}$ $\text{Column I}$ \quad \text{Column II}$ $\text{A. Dialysis} \quad \text{1. Cleansing action of soap}$ $\text{B. Peptization} \quad \text{2. Coagulation}$ $\text{C. Emulsification} \quad \text{3. Colloidal sol formation}$ $\text{D. Electrophoresis} \quad \text{4. Purification}$ $\text{Codes}$
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$\text{A. 2} \quad \text{B. 3} \quad \text{C. 4} \quad \text{D. 1}$, $\text{A. 1} \quad \text{B. 2} \quad \text{C. 3} \quad \text{D. 4}$...
4
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18462
$\text{Correct statement about emulsion is:}$
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$\text{The dispersed phase and dispersion medium are liquids.}$, $\text{The dispersed phase and dispersion medium are solids.}$...
1
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18461
$\text{Emulsions can be used as:}$ $1.\ \text{For cleansing action of soaps.}$ $2.\ \text{For digestion of fats in the intestines.}$ $3.\ \text{As antiseptics and disinfectants.}$ $4.\ \text{All of the above.}$
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$\text{For cleansing action of soaps.}$, $\text{For digestion of fats in the intestines.}$...
4
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18460
$\text{Match the items given in Column I and Column II.}$ $\text{Column I}$ \quad \text{Column II}$ $\text{A. Protective colloid} \quad 1. \text{FeCl}_3 + \text{NaOH}}$ $\text{B. Liquid-liquid colloid} \quad 2. \text{Lyophilic colloids}}$ $\text{C. Positively charged colloid} \quad 3. \text{Emulsion}}$ $\text{D. Negatively charged colloid} \quad 4. \text{FeCl}_3 + \text{hot water}}$ $\text{Codes}$
2
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$1. \quad 3 \quad 2 \quad 4 \quad 1$, $2. \quad 1 \quad 4 \quad 3 \quad 2$...
3
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18459
$\text{Match the types of colloidal systems given in Column I with the names given in Column II.}$ $\text{Column I}$ $\text{A. Solid in Liquid}$ $\text{B. Liquid in Solid}$ $\text{C. Liquid in Liquid}$ $\text{D. Gas in Liquid}$ $\text{Column II}$ $1. \text{Foam}$ $2. \text{Sol}$ $3. \text{Gel}$ $4. \text{Emulsion}$ $\text{Codes}$
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$1. \ 2 \ 3 \ 4 \ 1$, $2. \ 1 \ 3 \ 4$...
1
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18458
$\text{The correct statements about micelles are:}$
2
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$\text{Formed by substances such as soaps and detergents when dissolved in water.}$, $\text{Substances whose molecules contain a hydrophobic and a hydrophilic part.}$...
4
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18457
$\text{What is a solution that isn't a lyophilic colloid?}$
2
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$\text{Milk}$, $\text{Gum}$...
3
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18456
$\text{The surface tension of lyophilic sols is:}$
2
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$\text{Lower than } \text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{More than } \text{H}_2\text{O}$...
1
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18455
$\text{Hydrophobic sols are easily coagulated as?}$
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$\text{The particles present in them come closer and form aggregates, leading to precipitation.}$, $\text{The particles present in them move farther and form aggregates, which leads to precipitation.}$...
1
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18454
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): One part of micelles is lyophilic in nature.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Micelles have a lyophillic COO group.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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18453
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): A hydrophilic sol is more stable than a hydrophobic sol.}$ $\text{Reason (R): When compared to hydrophobic sol, colloidal particles in hydrophilic sol are heavily hydrated.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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18452
$\text{The index for the Gold number is:}$
2
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$\text{Protective power of lyophilic colloid.}$, $\text{Purity of gold.}$...
1
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18451
$\text{A colloid of AgI is formed by mixing AgNO}_3 \text{ with an excess of KI. The electrolyte with the greatest coagulation value for it is:}$
2
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$\text{BaSO}_4$, $\text{NaCl}$...
4
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18450
$\text{What happens during electro-osmosis of } \text{Fe(OH)}_3 \text{ sol?}$
2
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$\text{Sol particles move towards the anode.}$, $\text{Sol particles move towards the cathode of a sol.}$...
4
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18449
$\text{Which of the following statement about multi-molecular colloid is incorrect?}$
2
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$\text{They have a diameter of less than 1 nm.}$, $\text{When these particles are dissolved in a liquid, they form sol.}$...
4
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18448
$\text{What is a colloidal solution that is commonly used to treat skin diseases?}$
2
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$\text{Colloidal sulphur.}$, $\text{Colloidal silver.}$...
1
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18447
$\text{In adding 1 mL of solution of 10 \% NaCl to 10 mL of gold solution in the presence of 0.25 g of starch, the coagulation is just prevented. Starch has a gold number equal to:}$
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$0.25$, $2.5$...
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18446
$\text{What does blood contain?}$
2
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$\text{Positively charged particles.}$, $\text{Negatively charged particles.}$...
2
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18445
$\text{What is the most effective electrolyte for precipitating } \text{Fe(OH)}_3 \text{ sol?}$
2
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$\text{NaCl}$, $\text{BaSO}_4$...
4
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18444
$10 \text{ mg starch protected } 5 \text{ mL gold sol in } 1 \text{ mL } 2\% \text{ NaCl solution. The gold number of starch is:}$
2
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$20$, $40$...
4
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18443
$\text{What is the simultaneous outcome of internal liquid from gels called?}$
2
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$\text{Synerisis}$, $\text{Thixotropy}$...
1
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18442
$\text{Silver iodide is used for producing artificial rain because AgI is:}$ $1. \text{ Easy to spray at high altitudes.}$ $2. \text{ Easy to synthesize.}$ $3. \text{ Having crystal structure similar to ice.}$ $4. \text{ Insoluble in water.}$
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$\text{Easy to spray at high altitudes.}$, $\text{Easy to synthesize.}$...
3
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18441
$1 \text{ mol of } [\text{AgI}]^- \text{ can be coagulated by -}$ $1. \text{ 1 mol of } \text{Pb(NO}_3)_2$ $2. \frac{1}{2} \text{ mol of } \text{Pb(NO}_3)_2$ $3. \frac{2}{3} \text{ mol of } \text{Pb(NO}_3)_2$ $4. \text{ None of the above.}$
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$1 \text{ mol of } \text{Pb(NO}_3)_2$, $\frac{1}{2} \text{ mol of } \text{Pb(NO}_3)_2$...
2
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18440
$\text{Incorrect statement regarding colloids is:}$
2
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$\text{When the size of the solute particle lies between 1 nm and 1000 nm, it behaves as a colloid.}$, $\text{A colloid is not a substance but a state of the substance that is dependent on the charge of the particle.}$...
2
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18439
$\text{Brownian movement is caused by:}$
2
219
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$\text{Colloidal solution.}$, $\text{True solution.}$...
1
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18438
$\text{Peptization is the process of?}$
2
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$\text{Precipitating colloidal particles.}$, $\text{Purifying colloidal particles.}$...
3
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18437
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): An ordinary filter paper impregnated with collodion solution stops the flow of colloidal particles.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The pore size of the filter paper becomes larger than the size of the colloidal particle.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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18436
$\text{What does the name "aquadag" refer to?}$
2
219
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$\text{Cu in water sol.}$, $\text{Pt in water sol.}$...
3
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18435
$\text{Brownian motion of colloidal particles is caused by:}$
2
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$\text{Temperature fluctuations within the liquid phase.}$, $\text{Attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles.}$...
3
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18434
$\text{Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the formation of a negatively charged colloidal [AgI]I}^{-} \text{ sol?}$
2
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$50 \text{ mL of } 0.1 \text{ M AgNO}_3 + 50 \text{ mL of } 0.1 \text{ M KI}$, $50 \text{ mL of } 1 \text{ M AgNO}_3 + 50 \text{ mL of } 0.5 \text{ M KI}$...
3
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18433
$\text{Which is the electrolyte that is least effective in causing coagulation of +ve ferric hydroxide sol?}$
2
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$\text{KBr}$, $\text{K}_2\text{SO}_4$...
1
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18432
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Detergents with low CMC are more economical to use.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The cleansing action of detergents involves the formation of micelles. These are formed when the concentration of detergents becomes equal to CMC.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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18431
$\text{Match the statement given in Column I with the phenomenon given in Column II.}$ $\text{Column I}$ \newline \text{A. Dispersion medium moves in an electric field} \newline \text{B. Solvent molecules pass through a semi-permeable membrane towards the solvent side} \newline \text{C. Movement of charged colloidal particles under the influence of applied electric potential towards oppositely charged electrodes} \newline \text{D. Solvent molecules pass through semi-permeable membranes towards the solution side} \newline \text{Codes}$
2
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$1.\ 2\ 3\ 4$, $2.\ 1\ 2\ 3\ 4$...
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18430
$\text{Which one of the following is the correct option?}$
2
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$\text{Solid sol - Smoke}$, $\text{Emulsion - butter}$...
2
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18429
$\text{Among the given options, which element is the minimum required for}$ $\text{precipitation of a negatively charged suspension of clay in water?}$
2
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$\text{Aluminium chloride.}$, $\text{Potassium sulphate.}$...
1
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18428
$\text{How can alum help in water purification?}$
2
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$\text{Forming Si complex with clay particles.}$, $\text{The sulphate part, which combines with the dirt and removes it.}$...
3
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18427
$\text{The method of formation of the solution is given in Column I. Match it with the type of solution given in Column II.}$ $\text{Column I}$ $\text{(A) Sulphur vapours passed through cold water}$ $\text{(B) Soap mixed with water above critical micelle concentration}$ $\text{(C) White of egg whipped with water}$ $\text{(D) Soap mixed with water below critical micelle concentration}$ $\text{Column II}$ $1. \text{Normal electrolyte solution}$ $2. \text{Molecular colloids}$ $3. \text{Associated colloid}$ $4. \text{Macromolecular colloids}$ $\text{Codes}$
2
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$1. \ 2 \ 3 \ 4$, $1. \ 2 \ 4 \ 3$...
1
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18426
$\text{What results are obtained from adding } \text{FeCl}_3 \text{ to } \text{K}_4[\text{Fe(CN)}_6] \text{ in a diluted, cold solution?}$
2
219
Recommended Questions
$\text{Prussian blue sol.}$, $\text{Fe}_4[\text{Fe(CN)}_6]_3 \text{ sol.}$...
4
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18425
$\text{Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which of the following property of a colloidal solution:}$ $\text{1. Solubility.}$ $\text{2. Stability of the colloidal particles.}$ $\text{3. Size of the colloidal particles.}$ $\text{4. Viscosity.}$
2
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$\text{Solubility.}$, $\text{Stability of the colloidal particles.}$...
2
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18424
$\text{The coagulating power of an ion depends on:}$ $1. \text{The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone}$ $2. \text{Size of the ion alone}$ $3. \text{Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion.}$ $4. \text{The sign of the charge on the ion alone.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone}$, $\text{Size of the ion alone}$...
3
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18423
$\text{The correct match amongst the following is -}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Physical states of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium} & \text{Type of colloid} \\ \hline \text{a. D.P = solid; D.M = liquid} & \text{i. Foam} \\ \text{b. D.P = solid; D.M = gas} & \text{ii. Emulsion} \\ \text{c. D.P = liquid; D.M = liquid} & \text{iii. Aerosol} \\ \text{d. D.P = gas; D.M = liquid} & \text{iv. Sol} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $(\text{D.P = dispersed phase, and D.M = dispersion medium})$
2
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$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline \text{a} & \text{b} & \text{c} & \text{d} \\ \hline \text{iv} & \text{iii} & \text{ii} & \text{i} \\ \hline \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline \text{a} & \text{b} & \text{c} & \text{d} \\ \hline \text{iii} & \text{iv} & \text{i} & \text{ii} \\ \hline \end{array}$...
1
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18422
$\text{The charge on } \text{As}_2\text{S}_3 \text{ sol is caused by the adsorption of:}$
2
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$\text{H}^+$, $\text{OH}^-$...
4
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18421
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Colloidal solutions do not show Brownian motion.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Brownian motion is responsible for the stability of sols.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
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18420
$\text{Fog is a } \underline{\hspace{1cm}} \text{ type of colloidal solution:}$
2
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$\text{Gas in liquid.}$, $\text{Solid in gas.}$...
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18419
$\text{How is the flocculation value expressed?}$
2
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$\text{Millimole per litre.}$, $\text{Mole per litre.}$...
1
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18418
$\text{The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of } \text{As}_2\text{S}_3 \text{ are given below}$ $\text{I. (NaCl) = 52, II. (BeCl}_2\text{) = 0.69, III. (MgSO}_4\text{) = 0.22}$ $\text{What is the correct order of their coagulating power?}$
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$\text{I > II > III}$, $\text{II > I > III}$...
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18417
$\text{Cloud bursts are caused by?}$
2
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$\text{Attraction towards the electrical charges on the earth.}$, $\text{Large amount of water present in the cloud.}$...
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18416
$\text{Which of the following statement about collodion is correct?}$
2
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$4\% \text{ solution of nitro-cellulose in a mixture of ethyl alcohol and ether.}$, $14\% \text{ solution nitrate in a mixture of ether and ethanol.}$...
1
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18415
$\text{Which of the following electrolytes, } \text{Na}_2\text{SO}_4, \text{CaCl}_2, \text{Al}_2(\text{SO}_4)_3, \text{ and NH}_4\text{Cl, is the most effective coagulating agent for Sb}_2\text{S}_3 \text{ sol?}$
2
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$\text{Na}_2\text{SO}_4$, $\text{CaCl}_2$...
3
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18414
$\text{The coagulating power of electrolytes with ions } \text{Na}^+, \text{ Al}^{3+}, \text{ and } \text{Ba}^{2+} \text{ rise for arsenic sulphide sol increases in the order:}$
2
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$\text{Al}^{3+} < \text{Ba}^{2+} < \text{Na}^+$, $\text{Na}^+ < \text{Ba}^{2+} < \text{Al}^{3+}$...
2
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18413
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The coagulation power of Al}^{3+} \text{ is more than Na}^{+}. $ $\text{Reason (R): Greater the valency of the flocculating ion added, the greater is its power to cause precipitation (Hardy-Schulze rule)}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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18412
$\text{Colloids can be classified on the basis of:}$
2
219
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$\text{Physical states of components.}$, $\text{Nature of dispersed phase.}$...
4
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18411
$\text{The phenomenon of the scattering of light by a colloidal solution known as:}$
2
219
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$\text{Zeeman effect.}$, $\text{Tyndall effect.}$...
2
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18410
$\text{In an adsorption experiment, a graph between } \log(x/m) \text{ versus } \log P \text{ was found to be linear with a slope of } 45^\circ. \text{ The intercept on the y-axis was found to be } 0.3. \text{ What will be the value of } x/m \text{ at a pressure of } 3 \text{ atm for the Freundlich adsorption isotherm when } 1/n \text{ remains constant?}$ $[\text{Antilog } 0.3 = 2]$
2
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$2$, $4$...
3
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18409
$\text{According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm, at high pressure, the value of } \frac{x}{m} \text{ is -}$
2
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$\text{Directly proportional to the pressure.}$, $\text{Inversely proportional to the pressure.}$...
4
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18408
$\text{Consider the following graph between } \frac{x}{m} \text{ (extent of adsorption) and pressure:}$ $\text{What is the correct relation between } T_1, T_2, \text{ and } T_3?$
2
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$T_3 < T_2 > T_1$, $T_1 < T_2 < T_3$...
3
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18407
$\text{The correct curve for Freundlich's adsorption isotherm is:}$
2
219
Recommended Questions
$\log \frac{x}{m}$ $\text{ vs }$ $\log p$ $\text{ (concave curve)}$, $\log \frac{x}{m}$ $\text{ vs }$ $\log p$ $\text{ (convex curve)}$...
3
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18406
$\text{The equation that represents a Freundlich adsorption isotherm is:}$
2
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$\frac{x}{m} = kp^{0.3}$, $\frac{x}{m} = kp^{2.5}$...
1
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18405
$\text{An adsorption isotherm is a plot between:}$
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219
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$\text{The extent of adsorption } \left( \frac{x}{m} \right) \text{ against the pressure of gas (P) at constant V.}$, $\text{The extent of adsorption } \left( \frac{x}{m} \right) \text{ against the pressure of gas (P) at constant T.}$...
2
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18404
$\text{In the Freundlich adsorption isotherm, the value of } 1/n \text{ is:}$ $1. \text{ Between 0 and 1 in all cases.}$ $2. \text{ Between 2 and 4 in all cases.}$ $3. \text{ 1 in the case of physical adsorption.}$ $4. \text{ 1 in the case of chemisorption.}$
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$\text{Between 0 and 1 in all cases.}$, $\text{Between 2 and 4 in all cases.}$...
1
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18403
$\text{The graph between } \log \frac{x}{m} \text{ vs } \log p \text{ is given below:}$ $\text{What is the value of the slope?}$
2
219
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$\left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^n$, $n$...
3
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18402
$\text{Given below are three processes:}$ $\text{a. Emulsification}$ $\text{b. Adsorption}$ $\text{c. Absorption}$ $\text{The process of froth flotation and chromatography is based on:}$
2
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$\text{a \& b}$, $\text{b \& c}$...
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18401
$\text{Among the following options, the gas that will be more readily adsorbed on the surface of charcoal is:}$ $1.\ \text{CO}_2$ $2.\ \text{NH}_3$ $3.\ \text{Br}_2$ $4.\ \text{N}_2$
2
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$\text{CO}_2$, $\text{NH}_3$...
2
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18400
$\text{Which ion is adsorbed when a diluted aqueous solution of } \text{AgNO}_3 \text{ (excess) is added to KI solution, resulting in formation of positively charged sol particles of AgI?}$
2
219
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$\text{K}^+$, $\text{Ag}^+$...
2
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18399
$\text{Water vapours can be both adsorbed and absorbed by respectively?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Silica gel and CaCl}_2$, $\text{Chalk and CaCl}_2$...
1
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18398
$\text{Which of the following statement is false?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Adsorption is a reversible process and is accompanied by a decrease in pressure.}$, $\text{Adsorption decreases with an increase in pressure.}$...
2
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18397
$\text{Incorrect statement regarding adsorption is:}$
2
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$\text{Adsorption is a surface phenomenon of accumulation of molecules of a substance at the surface rather than in the bulk of a solid or liquid.}$, $\text{Adsorption involves penetration through the surface to the bulk of the solid or liquid.}$...
2
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18396
$\text{On increasing the temperature:}$ $1.\ \text{The extent of adsorption increases in physisorption.}$ $2.\ \text{The extent of adsorption decreases in physisorption.}$ $3.\ \text{No effect on adsorption.}$ $4.\ \text{The extent of adsorption first decreases, then increases.}$
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$\text{The extent of adsorption increases in physisorption.}$, $\text{The extent of adsorption decreases in physisorption.}$...
2
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18395
$\text{The characteristics associated with adsorption are:}$ $1. \Delta G, \Delta H, \text{ and } \Delta S \text{ are all negative.}$ $2. \Delta G \text{ and } \Delta H \text{ are negative, but } \Delta S \text{ is positive.}$ $3. \Delta G \text{ and } \Delta S \text{ are negative, but } \Delta H \text{ is positive.}$ $4. \Delta G \text{ is negative, but } \Delta H \text{ and } \Delta S \text{ are positive.}$
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$\Delta G, \Delta H, \text{ and } \Delta S \text{ are all negative.}$, $\Delta G \text{ and } \Delta H \text{ are negative, but } \Delta S \text{ is positive.}$...
1
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18394
$\text{The probable reasons of the exothermic nature of adsorption is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Adsorption leads to a decrease in the residual forces on the surface of the adsorbent.}$, $\Delta S \text{ is negative.}$...
3
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18393
$\text{Why is a finely divided substance more effective as an adsorbent?}$
2
219
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$\text{Small surface area.}$, $\text{Large surface area.}$...
2
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18392
$\text{Adsorbent can be activated by:}$
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$\text{Increasing the surface area of the adsorbent.}$, $\text{Breaking adsorbent into smaller pieces or powdering it.}$...
3
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18391
$\text{The factors that influence the adsorption of a gas on a solid is/are:}$
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$\text{Nature of the gas.}$, $\text{Surface area of the solid.}$...
4
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18390
$\text{In the presence of a catalyst, the heat evolved or absorbed during the reaction:}$
2
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$\text{Increases.}$, $\text{Decreases.}$...
3
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18389
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{The enthalpy of reaction remains constant in the presence of a catalyst.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{A catalyst participating in the reaction forms a different activated complex and lowers down the activation energy but the difference in energy of the reactant and the product remains the same.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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18388
$\text{An incorrect statement regarding the catalyst is:}$
2
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$\text{It catalyzes the forward and backward reactions to the same extent.}$, $\text{It alters Gibbs free energy of the reaction.}$...
2
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18387
$\text{The factor(s) that affect the rate of a chemical reaction is/are:}$
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$\text{Concentration/Pressure of reactants.}$, $\text{Temperature.}$...
4
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18386
$\text{Match the statements in Column I and Column II:}$ $\text{Column I (Thermodynamic/Kinetic Principle)}$ $\text{A. Catalyst alters the rate of reaction}$ $\text{B. } e^{-E_a/RT}$ $\text{C. Energetically favorable reactions are sometimes slow}$ $\text{D. The area under the Maxwell-Boltzmann curve is constant}$ $\text{Column II (Impact on Reaction Dynamics)}$ $\text{1. Proper orientation is not there always}$ $\text{2. By lowering the activation energy}$ $\text{3. Total probability is one}$ $\text{4. Refers to the fraction of molecules with energy equal to or greater than the activation energy}$
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$2 \ 4 \ 1 \ 3$, $3 \ 1 \ 4 \ 2$...
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18385
$\text{The role of a catalyst is to change:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Gibbs energy of the reaction}$, $\text{Enthalpy of reaction}$...
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18384
$\text{In a reaction, the rate} = k[\text{A}]^1[\text{B}]^{-2/3} \text{ the order of the reaction is-}$
2
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$1/3$, $2$...
3
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18383
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The overall order of reaction is the sum of the power of all the reactants in the rate expression.}$ $\text{Reason (R): There are many higher-order reactions.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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18382
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{Base catalyzed hydrolysis of ethyl acetate is a first-order reversible reaction.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{The order of reaction always depends on the stoichiometry of the reaction.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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18381
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The order of the reaction can be zero or fractional.}$ $\text{Reason (R): We cannot determine order from the balanced chemical equation.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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18380
$\text{The following mechanism has been proposed for the reaction of NO with Br}_2 \text{ to form NOBr:}$ $\text{NO(g) + Br}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{NOBr}_2\text{(g)}$ $\text{NOBr}_2\text{(g) + NO(g)} \rightarrow \text{2NOBr(g)}$ $\text{If the second step is the rate determining step, the order of the reaction with respect to NO(g) will be:}$
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$1$, $0$...
4
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18379
$\text{The mechanism of a hypothetical reaction}$ $\text{X}_2 + \text{Y}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{XY} \text{ is given below:}$ $\text{(i) X}_2 \rightarrow \text{X} + \text{X (Fast)}$ $\text{(ii) X + Y}_2 \rightleftharpoons \text{XY + Y (slow)}$ $\text{(iii) X + Y} \rightarrow \text{XY (Fast)}$ $\text{The overall order of the reaction will be:}$
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$2$, $0$...
3
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18378
$\text{A reaction } \text{A}_2 + \text{B}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{AB} \text{ occurs by the following mechanism:}$ $\text{A}_2 \rightarrow \text{A} + \text{A} \quad \text{.....(slow)}$ $\text{A} + \text{B}_2 \rightarrow \text{AB} + \text{B} \quad \text{.....(fast)}$ $\text{A} + \text{B} \rightarrow \text{AB} \quad \text{.....(fast)}$ $\text{Its order would be:}$
2
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$3/2$, $1$...
2
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18377
$\text{For a given reaction the concentration of the reactant plotted against time gave a straight line with negative slope.}$ $\text{The order of the reaction will be:}$
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$3$, $2$...
4
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18376
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): For elementary reactions, the law of mass action and the rate of law expression are generally the same.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The molecularity of an elementary reaction is always one.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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18375
$\text{Match the graph given in Column I with the order of reaction given in Column II.}$ $\text{More than one item in Column I may be linked to the same item in Column II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline (i) & (a) \text{1st order} \\ (ii) & (b) \text{Zero order} \\ (iii) & \\ (iv) & \\ \hline \end{array}$
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$(i) \rightarrow (a), (ii) \rightarrow (b), (iii) \rightarrow (a), (iv) \rightarrow (b)$, $(i) \rightarrow (a), (ii) \rightarrow (b), (iii) \rightarrow (b), (iv) \rightarrow (a)$...
2
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18374
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Order and molecularity are the same.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{Order is determined experimentally, and molecularity is the sum of the stoichiometric coefficient of the rate-determining the elementary step.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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18373
$\text{The kinetic data for the reaction: } 2\text{A} + \text{B}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{AB} \text{ are as given below}$ $\begin{array}{ccc} [\text{A}]/\text{mol L}^{-1} & [\text{B}_2]/\text{mol L}^{-1} & \text{Rate}/\text{mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1} \\ 0.5 & 1.0 & 2.5 \times 10^{-3} \\ 1.0 & 1.0 & 5.0 \times 10^{-3} \\ 0.5 & 2.0 & 1 \times 10^{-2} \end{array}$ $\text{The order of reaction with respect to A and B}_2 \text{ is, respectively:}$
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$1 \text{ and } 2$, $2 \text{ and } 1$...
1
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18372
$\text{When the initial concentration of a reactant is doubled in a reaction, its half-life period is not affected. The order of the reaction will be:}$
2
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$0$, $1$...
2
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18371
$\text{Match the items in Column I and Column II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline \text{A. Mathematical expression for the rate of reaction} & \text{1. Rate constant} \\ \text{B. Rate of reaction for zero-order reaction is equal to} & \text{2. Rate law} \\ \text{C. Units of rate constant for zero-order reaction is same as that of} & \text{3. Order of slowest step} \\ \text{D. Order of a complex reaction is determined by} & \text{4. Rate of reaction} \\ \hline \end{array}$
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$\text{3 4 1 2}$, $\text{1 2 3 4}$...
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18370
$\text{The reaction below is an example of:}$ $\text{CH}_3\text{COOC}_2\text{H}_5 + \text{H}_2\text{O} \xrightarrow{H^+} \text{CH}_3\text{COOH} + \text{C}_2\text{H}_2\text{OH}$ $\text{Ethyl acetate} \quad \text{Acetic acid} \quad \text{Ethyl alcohol}$
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$\text{Pseudo-first-order reaction}$, $\text{First-order reaction}$...
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18369
$\text{The following data were obtained during the first-order thermal decomposition of } \text{SO}_2\text{Cl}_2 \text{ at a constant volume.}$ $\text{SO}_2\text{Cl}_2(g) \rightarrow \text{SO}_2(g) + \text{Cl}_2(g)$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline \text{Experiment} & \text{Time/s} & \text{Total pressure/atm} \\ \hline 1 & 0 & 0.5 \\ \hline 2 & 100 & 0.6 \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{The rate of the reaction when total pressure is 0.65 atm will be:}$
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$7.8 \times 10^{-4} \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ atm.}$, $0.8 \times 10^{-4} \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ atm.}$...
1
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18368
$\text{For a reaction A} \rightarrow \text{Product, with } k = 2.0 \times 10^{-2} \text{ s}^{-1}, \text{ if the initial concentration}$ $\text{of A is } 1.0 \text{ mol L}^{-1}, \text{ the concentration of A after 100 seconds would be:}$
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$0.23 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$, $0.18 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$...
4
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18367
$\text{A first-order reaction is 15 \% completed in 20 minutes. The amount of time required to complete 60 \% of the reaction is:}$
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$112.8 \text{ min}$, $120.7 \text{ min}$...
1
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18366
$\text{What is the percentage of the reactant molecules crossing over the energy barrier at 325 K?}$ $\text{Given that } \Delta H_{325} = 0.12 \text{ kcal, } E_{a(b)} = +0.02 \text{ kcal}$
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80.62 \%, 85.23 \%...
1
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18365
$\text{Half-life is independent of the concentration of a reactant. After 10 minutes, the volume of } \text{N}_2 \text{ gas is 10 L and after complete reaction, it is 50 L. Hence, the rate constant is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2.303}{10} \log 5 \text{ min}^{-1}$, $\frac{2.303}{10} \log 1.25 \text{ min}^{-1}$...
2
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18364
$\text{For a first-order reaction A} \rightarrow \text{Products, the rate of reaction at [A] = 0.2 M is } 1.0 \times 10^{-2} \text{ mol litre}^{-1} \text{ min}^{-1}. \text{ The half-life period for the reaction will be:}$
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$832 \text{ sec}$, $440 \text{ sec}$...
1
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18363
$\text{From the plot of } \log k \text{ vs } 1/T, \text{ following parameter can be calculated:}$ $1. \text{ Activation energy.}$ $2. \text{ Rate constant of reaction.}$ $3. \text{ Order of reaction.}$ $4. \text{ Activation energy as well as the frequency factor.}$
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$\text{Activation energy.}$, $\text{Rate constant of reaction.}$...
4
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18362
$1 \text{ mole of a gas changes linearly from its initial state } (2 \text{ atm}, 10 \text{ lt}) \text{ to its final state } (8 \text{ atm}, 4 \text{ lt}).$ $\text{The maximum rate constant is equal to } 20 \text{ sec}^{-1} \text{ and the value of activation energy is } 40 \text{ kJ}, \text{ assuming that the activation energy does not change in this temperature range.}$ $\text{The value of the rate constant, at the maximum temperature that the gas can attain, is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$0.56 \times 10^{-3} \text{ sec}^{-1}$, $3.16 \times 10^{-3} \text{ sec}^{-1}$...
3
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18361
$\text{The gas phase decomposition } 2\text{N}_2\text{O}_5 \rightarrow 4\text{NO}_2 + \text{O}_2 \text{ follows the first order rate law, } K = 7.5 \times 10^{-3} \text{ sec}^{-1}. \text{ The initial pressure of } \text{N}_2\text{O}_5 \text{ is } 0.1 \text{ atm. The time of decomposition of } \text{N}_2\text{O}_5 \text{ so that the total pressure becomes } 0.15 \text{ atm will be -}$
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$54 \text{ sec}$, $5.4 \text{ sec}$...
1
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18360
$\text{The half-life of the two samples is } 0.1 \text{ and } 0.4 \text{ seconds, respectively.}$ $\text{Their concentrations are } 200 \text{ and } 50, \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{The order of the reactions will be:}$
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$0$, $2$...
2
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18359
$\text{The slope of the given below graph is -}$
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$\frac{k}{2.303}$, $-\frac{k}{2.303}$...
1
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18358
$\text{The decomposition of sucrose follows the first-order rate law. For this decomposition, } t_{1/2} = 3.00 \text{ hours. The fraction of a sample of sucrose that remains after 8 hours would be:}$
2
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$0.13$, $0.42$...
3
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18357
$\text{A first-order reaction takes 40 min for 30 \% decomposition. The } t_{1/2} \text{ for this reaction will be:}$
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$77.7 \text{ min}$, $27.2 \text{ min}$...
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18356
$\text{The elementary reaction A + B} \rightarrow \text{products has } k = 2 \times 10^{-5} \text{ M}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ at a temperature of } 27^\circ \text{C.}$ $\text{Several experimental runs are carried out using stoichiometric proportion.}$ $\text{The reaction has a temperature coefficient value of } 2.0.$ $\text{At what temperature should the reaction be carried out if, in spite of halving the concentrations,}$ $\text{the rate of reaction is desired to be } 50\% \text{ higher than in the previous run?}$ $\left( \text{Given } \frac{\ln 6}{\ln 2} = 2.585 \right)$
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$47^\circ \text{C}$, $53^\circ \text{C}$...
2
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18355
$\text{The rate of a reaction increases 4-fold when concentration of reactant is increased 16 times.}$ $\text{If the rate of reaction is } 4 \times 10^{-6} \text{ mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1} \text{ when concentration of the reactant is } 4 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1}, \text{ the rate constant of the reaction will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$2 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}^{1/2} \text{ L}^{-1/2} \text{ s}^{-1}$, $1 \times 10^{-2} \text{ s}^{-1}$...
1
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18354
$\text{Consider the first-order gas-phase decomposition reaction given below.}$ $\text{A(g)} \rightarrow \text{B(g)} + \text{C(g)}$ $\text{The initial pressure of the system before the decomposition of A was } P_i. \text{ After the lapse of time } t, \text{ the total pressure of the system increased by } X \text{ units and became } P_t. \text{ The rate constant } k \text{ for the reaction is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$k = \frac{2.303}{t} \log \frac{P_i}{P_i - x}$, $k = \frac{2.303}{t} \log \frac{P_i}{2P_i - P_t}$...
2
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18353
$\text{The thermal decomposition of a compound is of first order. If 50 \% of a sample of the compound decomposes in 120 minutes, how long will it take for 90 \% of the compound to decompose?}$
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$399 \text{ min}$, $410 \text{ min}$...
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18352
$\text{For a general reaction A} \rightarrow \text{B, the plot of concentration of A vs time is given below:}$ $\text{The unit of the rate constant would be:}$
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$\text{mol L}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1}$, $\text{s}^{-1}$...
3
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18351
$\text{If in the fermentation of sugar in an enzymatic solution that is } 0.12 \text{ M, the concentration of the sugar is reduced to } 0.06 \text{ M in } 10 \text{ h and to } 0.03 \text{ M in } 20 \text{ h, the order of the reaction will be:}$
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$1$, $2$...
1
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18350
$\text{If the rate of reaction doubles when the temperature is raised from } 20 \, ^\circ\text{C to } 35 \, ^\circ\text{C, then the activation energy for the reaction will be:}$ $\text{(R = 8.314 J mol}^{-1} \text{ K}^{-1})$
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$342 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $269 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
3
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18349
$\text{A first-order reaction takes 40 min for 30 \% decomposition. The half life of the reaction will be:}$
2
218
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$88.8 \text{ min}$, $94.3 \text{ min}$...
4
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18348
$\text{During a nuclear explosion, one of the products is } ^{90}\text{Sr with a half-life of 28.1 years.}$ $\text{If 1 } \mu\text{g of } ^{90}\text{Sr was absorbed in the bones of a newly born baby instead of calcium,}$ $\text{the amount of } ^{90}\text{Sr that will remain after 10 years in the now grown up child would be -}$ $\text{(Given, antilog(0.108) = 1.28)}$
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$0.227 \ \mu\text{g}$, $0.781 \ \mu\text{g}$...
2
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18347
$\text{A first-order reaction is 50 \% completed in } 1.26 \times 10^{14} \text{ s. The time required for 100 \% completion of the reaction will be:}$
2
218
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$1.26 \times 10^{15} \text{ s}$, $2.52 \times 10^{14} \text{ s}$...
4
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18346
$\text{Given the following observations:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline \text{Experiment} & [A] / \text{mol L}^{-1} & [B] / \text{mol L}^{-1} & \text{Initial rate} / \text{mol L}^{-1} \text{min}^{-1} \\ \hline \text{I} & 0.1 & 0.1 & 2.0 \times 10^{-2} \\ \text{II} & X & 0.2 & 4.0 \times 10^{-2} \\ \text{III} & 0.4 & 0.4 & Y \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{The reaction between A and B is first-order with respect to A and zero-order}$ $\text{with respect to B. The values of X and Y are, respectively:}$
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$X = 0.2 \text{ mol L}^{-1}; Y = 0.08 \text{ mol L}^{-1}(\text{min})^{-1}$, $X = 0.02 \text{ mol L}^{-1}; Y = 0.08 \text{ mol L}^{-1}(\text{min})^{-1}$...
1
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18345
$\text{A first-order reaction was started with a decimolar solution of the reactant.}$ $\text{After 8 minutes and 20 seconds, its concentration was found to be } M/100. \text{ The}$ $\text{rate constant of the reaction will be:}$
2
218
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$4.6 \times 10^{-3} \text{ sec}^{-1}$, $16.6 \times 10^{-3} \text{ sec}^{-1}$...
1
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18344
$\text{The half-life for radioactive decay of } ^{14}\text{C is } 5730 \text{ y. An archaeological artifact containing wood had only } 80 \% \text{ of the } ^{14}\text{C found in a living tree. The age of the sample will be:}$
2
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$1657.3 \text{ y}$, $1845.4 \text{ y}$...
2
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18343
$\text{The correct graphical representation of first-order reaction is:}$
2
218
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$(a) \text{ and } (b)$, $(b) \text{ and } (c)$...
4
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18342
$\text{If } 60\% \text{ of a first-order reaction is completed in } 60 \text{ minutes, } 50\% \text{ of the same reaction takes approximately:}$ $\text{(log4 = 0.60, log5 = 0.69)}$
2
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$55 \text{ min}$, $45 \text{ min}$...
2
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18341
$\text{If 'a' is the initial concentration of a substance which reacts according to zero-order kinetics and k is the rate constant, the time for the reaction to go to completion will be:}$
2
218
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$\frac{a}{k}$, $\frac{2}{ka}$...
1
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18340
$\text{For the elementary reaction M} \rightarrow \text{N, the rate of disappearance of M increases by a factor of 8 upon doubling the concentration of M. The order of the reaction with respect to M will be:}$ $1.\ 4$ $2.\ 3$ $3.\ 2$ $4.\ 1$
2
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$4$, $3$...
2
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18339
$\text{For a reaction of the type } 2A + B \rightarrow 2C, \text{ the rate of the reaction is given by } k[A]^2[B].$ $\text{When the volume of the reaction vessel is reduced to } \frac{1}{4} \text{ of the original volume, the rate of reaction changes by a factor of:}$
2
218
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0.25, 16...
3
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18338
$\text{The half-life time for the decomposition of a substance dissolved in } \text{CCl}_4 \text{ is } 2.5 \text{ hours at } 30^\circ \text{C. The amount of substance that will be left after } 10 \text{ hours if the initial weight of the substance is } 160 \text{ gm is:}$
2
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$20 \text{ gm}$, $30 \text{ gm}$...
4
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18337
$\text{The rate constant of a first-order reaction is} \, 4 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{sec}^{-1}. \, \text{At a reactant concentration of} \, 0.02 \, \text{M}, \, \text{the rate of reaction would be:}$
2
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$8 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{M sec}^{-1}$, $4 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{M sec}^{-1}$...
1
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18336
$\text{The half-life of } ^{92}\text{U}_{238} \text{ against } \alpha\text{-decay is } 4.5 \times 10^9 \text{ year. The time taken in a year for the decay of the } \frac{15}{16} \text{ part of this isotope will be:}$
2
218
Recommended Questions
$9.0 \times 10^9$, $1.8 \times 10^{10}$...
2
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18335
$\text{The half-life period for a first-order reaction is 20 minutes. The time required to change the concentration of the reactants from 0.08 M to 0.01 M will be:}$
2
218
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$20 \text{ minutes}$, $60 \text{ minutes}$...
2
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18334
$\text{The graph that represents a first-order reaction is:}$
2
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$\frac{t_{1/2}}{a}$ \text{ (linear increasing)}, $\frac{t_{1/2}}{a}$ \text{ (constant)}...
2
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18333
$\text{The rate constant for a first-order reaction is } 4.606 \times 10^{-3} \text{ s}^{-1}. \text{ The time required to reduce } 2.0 \text{ g of the reactant to } 0.2 \text{ g will be:}$
2
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$200 \text{ s}$, $500 \text{ s}$...
2
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18332
$\text{A radioactive substance has a rate constant of } 4 \text{ years}^{-1}. \text{ What is its half-life?}$
2
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$0.05 \text{ years}$, $0.17 \text{ years}$...
2
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18331
$\text{An incorrect statement about the collision theory of chemical reaction is:}$
2
218
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$\text{It considers reacting molecules or atoms to be hard spheres and ignores their structural features.}$, $\text{The number of effective collisions determines the rate of reaction.}$...
3
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18330
$\text{The rate constant for the decomposition of hydrocarbons is } 2.418 \times 10^{-5} \ \text{s}^{-1} \ \text{at } 546 \ \text{K.}$ $\text{If the energy of activation is } 179.9 \ \text{kJ/mol, the value of the pre-exponential factor will be:}$
2
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$4.0 \times 10^{12} \ \text{s}^{-1}$, $7.8 \times 10^{-13} \ \text{s}^{-1}$...
1
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18329
$\text{For a chemical reaction } A \rightarrow \text{product, the postulated mechanism of the reaction is as follows.}$ $A \overset{k_1}{\underset{k_2}{\rightleftharpoons}} 3B \overset{k_3}{\rightarrow} C \text{ (R.D.S)}$ $\text{If the rate constants for individual reactions are } k_1, k_2 \text{ and } k_3, \text{ and activation energies are}$ $E_{a1} = 180 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1},$ $E_{a2} = 90 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1},$ $E_{a3} = 40 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$ $\text{then overall activation energy for the reaction given above is}$
2
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$70 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $-10 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
4
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18328
$\text{In the Arrhenius equation } K = Ae^{-E_a/RT}, \text{ the quantity } e^{-E_a/kT} \text{ is referred as:}$
2
218
Recommended Questions
$\text{Boltzmann factor.}$, $\text{Frequency factor.}$...
1
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18327
$\text{The relationship between temperature and the variance in reaction rate is:}$
2
218
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Linear increase of rate with temperature}$, $\text{Graph 2: Exponential increase of rate with temperature}$...
2
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18326
$\text{For a first-order reaction } A \rightarrow P, \text{ rate constant } (k) \text{ [dependent on temperature (T)] was found to follow the equation } \log k = \left(-2000\right) \frac{1}{T} + 6.0. \text{ The pre-exponential factor } A \text{ and the activation energy } E_a, \text{ respectively, are:}$
2
218
Recommended Questions
$1.0 \times 10^6 \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ and } 9.2 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $6.0 \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ and } 16.6 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
4
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18325
$\text{Consider the Arrhenius equation given below and choose the correct option:}$ $k = Ae^{-\frac{E_a}{RT}}$
2
218
Recommended Questions
$\text{Rate constant increases exponentially with increasing activation energy and decreasing temperature.}$, $\text{Rate constant decreases exponentially with increasing activation energy and increasing temperature.}$...
4
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18324
$\text{The first order rate constant for a certain reaction increases from}$ $1.667 \times 10^{-6} \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ at } 727^\circ\text{C to } 1.667 \times 10^{-4} \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ at } 1571^\circ\text{C. The rate constant at } 1150^\circ\text{C is:}$ $\text{(assume activation energy is constant over the given temperature range)}$
2
218
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$3.911 \times 10^{-5} \text{ s}^{-1}$, $1.139 \times 10^{-5} \text{ s}^{-1}$...
3
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18323
$\text{For a given reaction, the presence of a catalyst reduces the energy of activation by 2 kcal at 27 } ^\circ \text{C. The rate of reaction will be increased by:}$
2
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$20 \text{ times}$, $14 \text{ times}$...
3
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18322
$\text{A first-order reaction's 10 percent completion time at 298 K is the same as its 25 percent completion time at 308 K. The value of } E_a \text{ will be:}$
2
218
Recommended Questions
$76.64 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$, $66.64 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
3
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18321
$\text{For the reaction, } \text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{I} + \text{OH}^- \rightarrow \text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH} + \text{I}^- \text{ the rate constant was found to have a value of } 5.03 \times 10^{-2} \text{ mol}^{-1} \text{ dm}^3 \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ at } 289 \text{ K and } 6.71 \text{ mol}^{-1} \text{ dm}^3 \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ at } 333 \text{ K.}$ $\text{The rate constant at } 305 \text{ K will be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$1.35 \text{ mol}^{-1} \text{ dm}^3 \text{ s}^{-1}$, $0.35 \text{ mol}^{-1} \text{ dm}^3 \text{ s}^{-1}$...
2
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18320
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{The rate constant determined from the Arrhenius equation is fairly accurate for simple as well as complex molecules.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{Reactant molecules undergo chemical change irrespective of their orientation during a collision.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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18319
$\text{The rate constant for the first-order decomposition of } \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ is given by the equation:}$ $\log k = 14.34 - 1.25 \times 10^4 \frac{K}{T}. \text{ The value of } E_a \text{ for the reaction would be:}$
2
218
Recommended Questions
$249.34 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $242.64 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$...
4
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18318
$\text{When the temperature of a reaction increases from } 27^\circ \text{C to } 37^\circ \text{C, the rate increases by } 2.5 \text{ times. The activation energy in the temperature range will be:}$
2
218
Recommended Questions
$53.6 \text{ kJ}$, $12.61 \text{ kJ}$...
4
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18317
$\text{The activation energy of a chemical reaction can be calculated by:}$
2
218
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$\text{Determining the rate constant at standard temperature.}$, $\text{Determining the rate constant at two temperatures.}$...
2
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18316
$\text{Given the following reaction:}$ $\text{N}_2\text{O}_5 \; \text{as} \; \text{N}_2\text{O}_5 \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NO}_2 + (1/2)\text{O}_2$ $\text{The values of rate constants for the above reaction are} \; 3.45 \times 10^{-5} \; \text{and} \; 6.9 \times 10^{-3} \; \text{at} \; 27^\circ \text{C} \; \text{and} \; 67^\circ \text{C} \; \text{respectively. The activation energy for the above reaction is:}$
2
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$102 \times 10^2 \; J$, $488.5 \; kJ$...
4
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18315
$\text{At 400 K, the energy of activation of a reaction is decreased by 0.8 kcal in the presence of a catalyst. As a result, the rate will be:}$
2
218
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$\text{Increased by 2.71 times.}$, $\text{Increased by 1.18 times.}$...
1
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18314
$\text{The correct statement based on the graph below is:}$ $\text{Activated complex}$ $\text{Energy}$ $E_1$ $\text{Products}$ $E_2$ $\text{Reactants}$ $\text{Reaction coordinate}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The activation energy of the forward reaction is } E_1 + E_2 \text{ and the product is less stable than reactant.}$, $\text{The activation energy of the forward reaction is } E_1 + E_2 \text{ and the product is more stable than the reactant.}$...
1
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18313
$\text{The decomposition of A into product has value of k as } 4.5 \times 10^3 \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ at } 10^\circ \text{C.}$ $\text{Energy of activation of the reaction is } 60 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}.$ $\text{The temperature at which value k would become } 1.5 \times 10^4 \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ is:}$
2
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$12^\circ \text{C}$, $24^\circ \text{C}$...
2
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18312
$\text{The graph between } \ln K \text{ and } 1/T \text{ is given below:}$ $\text{The value of activation energy would be:}$
2
218
Recommended Questions
$207.8 \text{ KJ/mol}$, $-207.8 \text{ KJ/mol}$...
1
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18311
$\text{The rate of reaction triples when the temperature changes from } 20^\circ\text{C to } 50^\circ\text{C. The energy of activation for the reaction will be:}$
2
218
Recommended Questions
$28.81 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $38.51 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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18310
$\text{A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction from } 20 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ to } 10 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}. \text{ The temperature at which the uncatalysed reaction will have the same rate as that of the catalysed at } 27 ^\circ \text{C will be:}$
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$-123 ^\circ \text{C}$, $-327 ^\circ \text{C}$...
3
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18309
$\text{The correct graphical representation of relation between } \ln k \text{ and } 1/T \text{ is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Decreasing linear graph of } \ln k \text{ vs } 1/T$, $\text{Graph 2: Increasing linear graph of } \ln k \text{ vs } 1/T$...
1
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18308
$\text{The following reaction was carried out at 300 K.}$ $2\text{SO}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g) \rightarrow 2\text{SO}_3(g)$ $\text{The rate of formation of } \text{SO}_3 \text{ is related to the rate of disappearance of } \text{O}_2 \text{ by the following expression:}$
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Recommended Questions
$-\frac{\Delta [\text{O}_2]}{\Delta t} = +\frac{1}{2} \frac{\Delta [\text{SO}_3]}{\Delta t}$, $-\frac{\Delta [\text{O}_2]}{\Delta t} = \frac{\Delta [\text{SO}_3]}{\Delta t}$...
1
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18307
$\text{For the reaction, } 2A + B \rightarrow 3C + D$ $\text{Which of the following is an incorrect expression for the rate of reaction?}$
2
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$-\frac{d[C]}{3dt}$, $-\frac{d[B]}{dt}$...
1
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18306
$\text{The rate constant for a chemical reaction that takes place at 500 K is expressed as } K = A \cdot e^{-1000}. \text{ The activation energy of the reaction will be:}$
2
218
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$100 \text{ cal/mol}$, $1000 \text{ kcal/mol}$...
2
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18305
$\text{If a reaction A + B} \rightarrow \text{C is exothermic to the extent of 30 kJ/mol and the forward reaction has an activation energy of 70 kJ/mol, the activation energy for the reverse reaction will be:}$
2
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$30 \text{ kJ/mol}$, $40 \text{ kJ/mol}$...
4
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18304
$\text{When the temperature of a reaction increases from } 300 \text{ K to } 310 \text{ K, the rate of the reaction doubles. What is the activation energy for this reaction?}$ $\left( R = 8.314 \text{ J K}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1} \text{ and } \log 2 = 0.301 \right)$
2
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Recommended Questions
$53.6 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $68.6 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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18303
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): At very high temperatures (approaches to infinity), the rate}$ $\text{constant becomes equal to the collision frequency.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The collision in which molecules collide with proper orientation}$ $\text{is called an ineffective collision.}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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18302
$\text{In a first-order reaction A} \rightarrow \text{products, the concentration of the reactant decreases to } 6.25\% \text{ of its initial value in } 80 \text{ minutes. The value of the rate constant, if the initial concentration is } 0.2 \text{ mole/litre, will be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$2.17 \times 10^{-2} \text{ min}^{-1}$, $3.46 \times 10^{-2} \text{ min}^{-1}$...
2
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18301
$\text{An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to a change in:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Heat of reaction}$, $\text{Threshold energy}$...
3
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18300
$\text{The decomposition of hydrocarbons follows the equation: } k = (4.5 \times 10^{11} \text{s}^{-1}) e^{-28000 \text{K}/T}$ $\text{The activation energy (} E_a \text{) for the reaction would be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$232.79 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $245.86 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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18299
$\text{If } \Delta H \text{ of a reaction is } 100 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}, \text{ then the activation energy for the forward reaction must be}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Greater than } 100 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $\text{Less than } 100 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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18298
$ ext{For A + B} \rightarrow ext{C + D, } \Delta H = -20 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1},$ $\text{the activation energy of the forward reaction is } 85 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}.$ $\text{The activation energy for the backward reaction is...}$
2
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$105$, $85$...
1
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18297
$\text{The rate constant, the activation energy, and the Arrhenius parameter of a}$ $\text{chemical reaction at } 25^\circ\text{C are } 3.0 \times 10^{-4} \text{ s}^{-1}, 104.4 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ and } 6.0 \times 10^{14}\text{s}^{-1}$ $\text{ respectively.}$ $\text{The value of the rate constant as } T \rightarrow \infty \text{ will be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$2.0 \times 10^{18} \text{ s}^{-1}$, $6.0 \times 10^{14} \text{ s}^{-1}$...
2
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18296
$\text{The correct representation of an exothermic reaction is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph showing reactants with higher energy than products, indicating an exothermic reaction.}$, $\text{Graph showing products with higher energy than reactants, indicating an endothermic reaction.}$...
1
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18295
$\text{For a reaction } A \rightarrow B, \text{ the Arrhenius equation is given as } \log_e k = 4 - \frac{1000}{T} \text{ the activation energy in J/mol for the given reaction will be:}$ $1. \ 8314$ $2. \ 2000$ $3. \ 2814$ $4. \ 3412$
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Recommended Questions
$8314$, $2000$...
1
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18294
$\text{The nature of the reaction represented in the following graph is:}$ $\text{H}_2 + \text{I}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{HI}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Endothermic reaction}$, $\text{Exothermic reaction}$...
2
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18293
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): All collisions of reactant molecules lead to product formation.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Only those collisions in which molecules have the correct orientation and sufficient kinetic energy lead to the compound formation.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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18292
$\text{The correct statement about X in the below mentioned graph:}$
2
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$\text{X represents activation energy without catalyst.}$, $\text{X represents activation energy with catalyst.}$...
2
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18291
$\text{The correct statement about the rate constant of a reaction is:}$
2
218
Recommended Questions
$\text{Rate constant is nearly doubled with a rise in temperature by } 10 \, ^\circ \text{C}$, $\text{Rate constant becomes half with a rise in temperature by } 10 \, ^\circ \text{C}$...
1
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18290
$\text{If a reaction A + B} \rightarrow \text{C is exothermic to the extent of 30 kJ mol}^{-1}$ $\text{and the forward reaction has an activation energy of 249 kJ mol}^{-1},$ $\text{the activation energy for the reverse reaction in kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ will be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$324$, $279$...
2
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18289
$\text{A gaseous reaction } \text{A}_2(g) \rightarrow \text{B}(g) + \frac{1}{2}\text{C}(g) \text{ shows increase in pressure from } 100 \text{ mm to } 120 \text{ mm in 5 minutes. The rate of disappearance of } \text{A}_2 \text{ will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$4 \text{ mm min}^{-1}$, $8 \text{ mm min}^{-1}$...
2
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18288
$\text{From the following data, the orders with respect to A, B, C, respectively, are:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline [A] \text{ (mol/L)} & [B] \text{ (mol/L)} & [C] \text{ (mol/L)} & \text{rate (M/sec.)} \\ \hline 0.2 & 0.1 & 0.02 & 8.08 \times 10^{-3} \\ \hline 0.1 & 0.2 & 0.02 & 2.01 \times 10^{-3} \\ \hline 0.1 & 1.8 & 0.18 & 6.03 \times 10^{-3} \\ \hline 0.2 & 0.1 & 0.08 & 6.464 \times 10^{-2} \\ \hline \end{array}$
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$-1, 1, 3/2$, $-1, 1, 1/2$...
4
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18287
$\text{The decomposition of a gaseous compound yields the following information:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline \text{Initial pressure, atm} & 1.6 & 0.8 & 0.4 \\ \hline \text{Time for 50 \% reaction, min} & 80 & 113 & 160 \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{The order of the reaction will be:}$
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$1.0$, $1.5$...
2
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18286
$\text{In the following reaction: } x\text{A} \rightarrow y\text{B}$ $\log\left(-\frac{d[A]}{dt}\right) = \log\left(\frac{d[B]}{dt}\right) + 0.3$ $\text{where the -ve sign indicates the rate of disappearance of the reactant. Then, } x : y \text{ equals:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$1:2$, $2:1$...
2
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18285
$\text{For the reaction } 2\text{N}_2\text{O}_5(g) \rightarrow 4\text{NO}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g), \text{ the concentration of } \text{NO}_2$ $\text{increases by } 2.4 \times 10^{-2} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$ $\text{in 6 seconds. The rate of appearance of } \text{NO}_2 \text{ and the rate of disappearance of } \text{N}_2\text{O}_5, \text{ respectively, are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$2 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ sec}^{-1}, 4 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ sec}^{-1}$, $2 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ sec}^{-1}, 1 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ sec}^{-1}$...
4
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18284
$\text{Consider the following graph:}$ $\text{The instantaneous rate of reaction at } t = 600 \text{ sec will be:}$
2
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$-4.75 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}$, $5.75 \times 10^{-5} \text{ mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}$...
2
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18283
$\text{In a reaction between A and B, the initial rate of reaction (} r_0 \text{) was measured for different initial concentrations of A and B as given below:}$ $\begin{array}{ccc} \text{A / mol L}^{-1} & 0.20 & 0.20 & 0.40 \\ \text{B / mol L}^{-1} & 0.30 & 0.10 & 0.05 \\ r_0 / \text{mol L}^{-1} \text{s}^{-1} & 5.07 \times 10^{-5} & 5.07 \times 10^{-5} & 1.43 \times 10^{-4} \end{array}$ $\text{The order of the reaction with respect to A and B would be:}$
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$\text{The order with respect to A is 0.5 and with respect to B is zero}$, $\text{The order with respect to A is 1 and with respect to B is 0.5}$...
4
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18282
$\text{The rate of the reaction}$ $2\text{NO} + \text{Cl}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{NOCl is given by the rate equation}$ $\text{rate} = k[\text{NO}]^2[\text{Cl}_2]$ $\text{The value of the rate constant can be increased by:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Increasing the concentration of NO}$, $\text{Increasing the concentration of Cl}_2$...
3
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18281
$\text{The correct expression for the 3/4th life of a first-order reaction is:}$
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218
Recommended Questions
$\frac{k}{2.303} \log \frac{4}{3}$, $\frac{k}{2.303} \log 4$...
3
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18280
$\text{If at a given instant, for the reaction } 2\text{N}_2\text{O}_5 \rightarrow 4\text{NO}_2 + \text{O}_2 \text{ rate and rate constant are } 1.02 \times 10^{-4} \text{ and } 3.4 \times 10^{-5} \text{ sec}^{-1} \text{ respectively, then the concentration of } \text{N}_2\text{O}_5 \text{ at that time will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$1.732 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$, $3.0 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$...
2
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18279
$\text{The average rate of reaction between the time interval of 30 to 60 seconds in}$ $\text{the below mentioned pseudo 1st order reaction is:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|c|} \hline \text{t/s} & 0 & 30 & 60 & 90 \\ \hline [\text{Ester}]/\text{mol L}^{-1} & 0.55 & 0.31 & 0.17 & 0.085 \\ \hline \end{array}$
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Recommended Questions
$6.67 \times 10^{-2} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1}$, $2.67 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1}$...
3
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18278
$\text{Based on the graph below, the average rate of reaction will be:}$
2
218
Recommended Questions
$\frac{[R_2] - [R_1]}{t_2 - t_1}$, $-\left(\frac{[R_2] - [R_1]}{t_2 - t_1}\right)$...
2
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18277
$\text{True statement among the following is:}$
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$\text{The rate of a reaction decreases with the passage of time as the concentration of reactants decreases.}$, $\text{The rate of a reaction is the same at any time during the reaction.}$...
1
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18276
$\text{Consider the reaction } \text{A} \rightarrow \text{B}. \text{ The concentration of both the reactant and the product varies exponentially with time.}$ $\text{The graph that accurately depicts how reactant and product concentrations change with time is:}$
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218
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$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
2
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18275
$\text{The rate equation of a reaction is expressed as, Rate = } k (P_{\text{CH}_3\text{OCH}_3})^{3/2}$ $\text{(Unit of rate = bar min}^{-1}\text{)}$ $\text{The units of the rate constant will be:}$
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$\text{bar}^{1/2} \text{ min}$, $\text{bar}^2 \text{ min}^{-1}$...
4
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18274
$\text{For a reaction, } 2\text{A} + \text{B} \rightarrow \text{C} + \text{D}, \text{ the following observations were recorded:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline \text{Experiment} & [\text{A}]/\text{mol L}^{-1} & [\text{B}]/\text{mol L}^{-1} & \text{Initial rate of formation of D/mol L}^{-1} \text{ min}^{-1} \\ \hline \text{I} & 0.1 & 0.1 & 6.0 \times 10^{-3} \\ \text{II} & 0.3 & 0.2 & 7.2 \times 10^{-2} \\ \text{III} & 0.3 & 0.4 & 2.88 \times 10^{-1} \\ \text{IV} & 0.4 & 0.1 & 2.40 \times 10^{-2} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{The rate law applicable to the above mentioned reaction would be:}$
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$\text{Rate} = k[\text{A}]^2[\text{B}]^3$, $\text{Rate} = k[\text{A}][\text{B}]^2$...
2
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18273
$\text{Rate law for the reaction } A + 2B \rightarrow C \text{ is found to be}$ $\text{Rate} = k[\text{A}][\text{B}]$ $\text{If the concentration of reactant 'B' is doubled, keeping the concentration of A constant, then the value of the rate of the reaction will be:}$
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$\text{The same.}$, $\text{Doubled.}$...
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18272
$\text{Match the items in Column I with Column II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline \text{A. Diamond to graphite conversion} & \text{1. Short interval of time} \\ \text{B. Instantaneous rate} & \text{2. Ordinarily rate of conversion is imperceptible} \\ \text{C. Average rate} & \text{3. Long duration of time} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Codes:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline & \text{A} & \text{B} & \text{C} \\ \hline 1. & 2 & 1 & 3 \\ 2. & 1 & 2 & 3 \\ 3. & 3 & 2 & 1 \\ 4. & 1 & 3 & 2 \\ \hline \end{array}$
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$2 \ 1 \ 3$, $1 \ 2 \ 3$...
1
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18271
$\text{The decomposition of NH}_3 \text{ on a platinum surface is a zero-order reaction. The rates of production of N}_2 \text{ and H}_2 \text{ will be respectively:}$ $\text{(given ; } k = 2.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol}^{-1} \text{ L s}^{-1} \text{)}$
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$2.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ and } 5.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1}$, $2.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1} \text{ and } 7.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1}$...
2
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18270
$\text{Which of the following statements about the order of reaction is incorrect?}$
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$\text{Order is not influenced by the stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants.}$, $\text{Order of reaction is the sum of power to the concentration terms of reactants to express the rate of reaction.}$...
3
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18269
$\text{The rate constant of a particular reaction has the dimension of frequency. The order of the reaction is:}$
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$\text{Zero.}$, $\text{First.}$...
2
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18268
$\text{For the reaction, } \text{N}_2 + 3\text{H}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{NH}_3, \text{ if, } \frac{d[\text{NH}_3]}{dt} = 2 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1},$ $\text{the value of } -\frac{d[\text{H}_2]}{dt} \text{ would be:}$
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$3 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1}$, $4 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1}$...
1
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18267
$\text{During the formation of ammonia by Haber's process } \text{N}_2 + 3\text{H}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{NH}_3, \text{ the rate of appearance of NH}_3 \text{ was measured as } 2.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1}. \text{ The rate of disappearance of H}_2 \text{ will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$2.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1}$, $1.25 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ s}^{-1}$...
3
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18266
$\text{For the reaction,}$ $\text{N}_2\text{O}_5(g) \rightarrow 2\text{NO}_2(g) + \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_2(g)}$ $\text{the value of the rate of disappearance of } \text{N}_2\text{O}_5 \text{ is given as } 6.25 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}. \text{ The rate of formation of } \text{NO}_2 \text{ and } \text{O}_2 \text{ is given respectively as:}$
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$6.25 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1} \text{ and } 6.25 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}$, $1.25 \times 10^{-2} \text{ mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1} \text{ and } 3.125 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}$...
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18265
$\text{A reaction is first-order with respect to A and second-order with respect to B.}$ $\text{The concentration of B is increased three times. The new rate of the reaction would:}$
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$\text{Decrease 9 times}$, $\text{Increase 9 times}$...
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18264
$\text{The correct expression for the rate of reaction given below is:}$ $5\text{Br}^- (\text{aq}) + \text{BrO}_3^- (\text{aq}) + 6\text{H}^+ (\text{aq}) \rightarrow 3\text{Br}_2 (\text{aq}) + 3\text{H}_2\text{O} (\text{l})$
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$\frac{\Delta [\text{Br}^-]}{\Delta t} = 5 \frac{\Delta [\text{H}^+]}{\Delta t}$, $\frac{\Delta [\text{Br}^-]}{\Delta t} = \frac{6}{5} \frac{\Delta [\text{H}^+]}{\Delta t}$...
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18263
$\text{For a general reaction A} \rightarrow \text{B, the plot of the concentration of A vs. time is given in the figure.}$ $\text{The slope of the curve will be:}$
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$-k$, $-k/2$...
1
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18262
$\text{A depolariser used in dry cell batteries is:}$
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217
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ammonium chloride}$, $\text{Manganese dioxide}$...
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18261
$\text{When a lead storage battery is discharged, then:}$ $1. \ \text{SO}_2 \ \text{is evolved.}$ $2. \ \text{Lead is formed.}$ $3. \ \text{Lead sulphate is consumed.}$ $4. \ \text{Sulphuric acid is consumed.}$
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$\text{SO}_2 \ \text{is evolved.}$, $\text{Lead is formed.}$...
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18260
$\text{If hydrogen electrodes dipped in two solutions of pH} = 4 \text{ and pH} = 6 \text{ are connected by a salt bridge, the emf of the resulting cell is -}$
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$0.177 \text{ V}$, $0.3 \text{ V}$...
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18259
$\text{The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by:}$
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217
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$\frac{\Delta H}{\Delta G}$, $\frac{\Delta G}{\Delta S}$...
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18258
$\text{What happens to the voltage in a galvanic cell when the salt bridge is removed?}$
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$\text{The voltage drops to zero.}$, $\text{The voltage remains the same.}$...
1
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18257
$\text{A device that converts the energy of combustion of fuels, like hydrogen and methane, directly into electrical energy is known as:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Fuel cell.}$, $\text{Electrolytic cell.}$...
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18256
$\text{A solution containing one mole per litre each of Cu(NO}_3)_2, \text{AgNO}_3, \text{Hg}_2(\text{NO}_3)_2 \text{ and Mg(NO}_3)_2 \text{ is being electrolyzed by using inert electrodes. The values of standard electrode potentials in volt (reduction potentials) are,}$ $\text{Ag}^+/\text{Ag} = 0.80 \text{ V}, \text{Hg}_2^{2+}/2\text{Hg} = 0.79 \text{ V},$ $\text{Cu}^{2+}/\text{Cu} = +0.34 \text{ V and Mg}^{2+}/\text{Mg} = -2.37 \text{ V}$ $\text{With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Ag, Hg, Cu, Mg}$, $\text{Mg, Cu, Hg, Ag}$...
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18255
$\text{If an iron rod is dipped in } \text{CuSO}_4 \text{ solution, then:}$ $1. \text{Blue colour of the solution turns red.}$ $2. \text{Brown layer is deposited on iron rod.}$ $3. \text{No change occurs in the colour of the solution.}$ $4. \text{None of the above.}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Blue colour of the solution turns red.}$, $\text{Brown layer is deposited on iron rod.}$...
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18254
$\text{The most stable oxidized species among the following is:}$ $E^\circ_{\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-}/\text{Cr}^{3+}} = 1.33 \text{ V};$ $E^\circ_{\text{Cl}_2/\text{Cl}^-} = 1.36 \text{ V}$ $E^\circ_{\text{MnO}_4^-/\text{Mn}^{2+}} = 1.51 \text{ V};$ $E^\circ_{\text{Cr}^{3+}/\text{Cr}} = -0.74 \text{ V}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Cr}^{3+}$, $\text{MnO}_4^-$...
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18253
$\text{The negative sign in the expression } E^\circ_{\text{Zn}^{2+}/\text{Zn}} = -0.76 \text{ V indicates:}$ $1. \text{ The reactivity of the metal increases.}$ $2. \text{ The reactivity of the metal decreases.}$ $3. \text{ There is no effect on the metal's reactivity.}$ $4. \text{ None of the above.}$
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$\text{The reactivity of the metal increases.}$, $\text{The reactivity of the metal decreases.}$...
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18252
$\text{A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown below.}$ $\text{A|A}^{+}(x\ \text{M})\ ||\ \text{B}^{+}(y\ \text{M})|\text{B}}$ $\text{The Emf measured is } +0.20\ \text{V. The cell reaction is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{A}^{+} + \text{B} \rightarrow \text{A} + \text{B}^{+}$, $\text{A}^{+} + \text{e}^{-} \rightarrow \text{A} ; \text{B}^{+} + \text{e}^{-} \rightarrow \text{B}$...
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18251
$\text{Without losing its concentration, ZnCl}_2 \text{ solution cannot be kept in contact with:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Au}$, $\text{Al}$...
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18250
$\text{When a copper wire is immersed in a solution of } \text{AgNO}_3, \text{ the colour of the solution becomes blue because copper:}$ $1. \text{ Forms a soluble complex with } \text{AgNO}_3$ $2. \text{ Is oxidised to } \text{Cu}^{2+}$ $3. \text{ Is reduced to } \text{Cu}^{2-}$ $4. \text{ Splits up into atomic form and dissolves}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Forms a soluble complex with } \text{AgNO}_3$, $\text{Is oxidised to } \text{Cu}^{2+}$...
2
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18249
$\text{The standard reduction electrode potentials of three metals X, Y, and Z are given as } -1.2 \text{ V}, +0.5 \text{ V}, \text{ and } -3.0 \text{ V}, \text{ respectively. Based on these values, what is the correct order of their reducing power?}$
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Recommended Questions
$Y > X > Z$, $Z > X > Y$...
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18248
$\text{Salt with the highest electrolytic conductivity in solution is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{K}_2[\text{PtCl}_6]$, $[\text{Co(NH}_3)_3(\text{NO}_2)_3]$...
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18247
$\text{When aqueous NaCl solution is electrolysed using inert electrodes then pH of the solution-}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Increases.}$, $\text{Decreases.}$...
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18246
$\text{The correct statement about the given galvanic cell equation is -}$ $\text{Zn}_{(s)} + 2\text{Ag}^+_{(aq)} \rightarrow \text{Zn}^{2+}_{(aq)} + 2\text{Ag}_{(s)}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The current will flow from silver to zinc in the external circuit.}$, $\text{The current will flow from zinc to silver in the external circuit.}$...
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18245
$\text{An electrochemical cell can behave like an electrolytic cell when -}$
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Recommended Questions
$E_{\text{cell}} = 0$, $E_{\text{cell}} > E_{\text{ext}}$...
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18244
$\text{On electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at the anode will be:}$
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217
Recommended Questions
$\text{Oxygen gas}$, $\text{H}_2\text{S gas}$...
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18243
$\text{During discharge of a lead storage cell, the density of sulphuric acid in the cell-}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Increases.}$, $\text{Decreases.}$...
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18242
$\text{The half-cell reaction at the anode during the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride solution is represented by:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}^+(\text{aq}) + e^- \rightarrow \text{Na}(\text{s}) ; \quad E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = -2.71 \text{ V}$, $2\text{H}_2\text{O}(\text{l}) \rightarrow \text{O}_2(\text{g}) + 4\text{H}^+(\text{aq}) + 4e^- ; \quad E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 1.23 \text{ V}$...
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18241
$\text{For the electrolysis of CuSO}_4 \text{ solution the correct option is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Cathode reaction: Cu}^{2+} + 2e^- \rightarrow \text{Cu using Cu electrode.}$, $\text{Anode reaction: Cu} \rightarrow \text{Cu}^+ + e^- \text{ using Cu electrode.}$...
1
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18240
$\text{The cell that will measure the standard electrode potential of a copper electrode is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Pt(s) | H}_2\text{(g, } \frac{1}{10} \text{ bar) | H}^+\text{(aq, 1M) } || \text{ Cu}^{2+}\text{(aq, 1M) | Cu}$, $\text{Pt(s) | H}_2\text{(g, 1 bar) | H}^+\text{(aq, 1M) } || \text{ Cu}^{2+}\text{ (aq, 2M) | Cu}$...
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18239
$\text{Pairs of reactants (R) and product (P) are given below. The pair which can be used in a fuel cell is:}$ $1. \ R = \text{H}_2(g), \ \text{O}_2(g); \ P = \text{H}_2\text{O}_2(g)$ $2. \ R = \text{H}_2(g), \ \text{O}_2(g); \ P = \text{H}_2\text{O}(\ell)$ $3. \ R = \text{H}_2(g), \ \text{O}_2(g), \ \text{Cl}_2(g); \ P = \text{HClO}_4(aq)$ $4. \ R = \text{H}_2(g), \ \text{N}_2(g); \ P = \text{NH}_3(aq)$
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Recommended Questions
$R = \text{H}_2(g), \ \text{O}_2(g); \ P = \text{H}_2\text{O}_2(g)$, $R = \text{H}_2(g), \ \text{O}_2(g); \ P = \text{H}_2\text{O}(\ell)$...
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18238
$\text{Passage of three faradays of charge through an aqueous solution of } \text{AgNO}_3, \text{CuSO}_4, \text{Al(NO}_3)_3, \text{ and NaCl will deposit moles of metals at the cathode in the molar ratio of:}$
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$1 : 2 : 3 : 1$, $6 : 3 : 2 : 6$...
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18237
$\text{One liter of 0.5 M KCl solution is electrolyzed for one minute in a current of 1.608 mA. Considering 100 \% efficiency, the pH of the resulting solution will be:}$
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$7$, $9$...
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18236
$\text{During electrolysis of conc. } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4, \text{ perdisulphuric acid } (\text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_8), \text{ and } \text{O}_2 \text{ form in equimolar amount. The amount of } \text{H}_2 \text{ that will form simultaneously will be:}$
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$\text{Thrice that of } \text{O}_2 \text{ in moles.}$, $\text{Twice that of } \text{O}_2 \text{ in moles.}$...
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18235
$\text{The quantity of electricity required to reduce } 12.3 \text{ g of nitrobenzene to aniline}$ $\text{with } 50\% \text{ current efficiency is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$1 \text{ F}$, $0.6 \text{ F}$...
4
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18234
$\text{The weight of silver (atomic weight = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of } \text{O}_2 \text{ at STP will be:}$
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$5.4 \text{ g}$, $10.8 \text{ g}$...
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18233
$\text{The coulombs of charge required for the oxidation of 1 mole of } \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ to } \text{O}_2 \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$9.65 \times 10^4 \text{ C}$, $93000 \text{ C}$...
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18232
$\text{Three electrolytic cells A, B, C containing solutions of ZnSO}_4, \text{ AgNO}_3, \text{ and CuSO}_4, \text{ respectively are connected in series.}$ $\text{A steady current of 1.5 amperes was passed through them until 1.45 g of silver was deposited at the cathode of cell B. The current flow time is-}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{14 minutes}$, $\text{25 minutes}$...
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18231
$\text{Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at } 1000 \ C \ \text{to furnish aluminium metal}$ $\text{(Atomic mass = 27 amu; 1 Faraday = 96,500 Coulombs). The cathode reaction is:}$ $\text{Al}^{3+} + 3e^- \rightarrow \text{Al}$ $\text{To prepare } 5.12 \ \text{kg of aluminium metal by this method, would require:}$
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Recommended Questions
$5.49 \times 10^7 \ C \ \text{of electricity}$, $1.83 \times 10^7 \ C \ \text{of electricity}$...
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18230
$\text{Adiponitrile is manufactured electrolytically from acrylonitrile. The reaction is as follows:}$ $\text{CH}_2 = \text{CHCN} \rightarrow \text{CN} - (\text{CH}_2)_4 - \text{CN}$ $\text{How many kg of adiponitrile (molecular mass = 108) is produced in 9.65 hr using a current of 3750 A with 80 \% efficiency?}$
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Recommended Questions
$30 \text{ kg}$, $58 \text{ kg}$...
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18229
$\text{The quantity of charge required to obtain one mole of aluminium from } \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$1 \text{ F}$, $6 \text{ F}$...
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18228
$\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 \text{ is reduced by electrolysis at low potentials and high currents. If } 4.0 \times 10^4 \text{ A of current is passed through molten } \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 \text{ for 6 hours, the mass of aluminum produced is:}$ $\text{(Assume 100 \% current efficiency, the atomic mass of Al = 27 g mol}^{-1}\text{)}$
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Recommended Questions
$9.0 \times 10^3 \text{ g}$, $8.1 \times 10^4 \text{ g}$...
2
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18227
$\text{In producing chlorine through electrolysis, 100 W power at 125 V is being consumed.}$ $\text{The liberation of chlorine per min is:}$ $\text{(ECE of chlorine is } 0.367 \times 10^{-6} \text{ kg/C)}$
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$17.6 \text{ mg}$, $21.3 \text{ mg}$...
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18226
$\text{For the reduction of silver ions with copper metal, the standard cell potential was found to be } +0.46 \text{ V at } 25 \degree \text{C. The value of standard Gibbs energy, } \Delta G^\circ \text{ will be:}$ $\text{(F = 96500 C mol}^{-1}\text{)}$
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Recommended Questions
$-89.0 \text{ kJ}$, $-89.0 \text{ J}$...
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18225
$\text{A 100.0 mL dilute solution of } \text{Ag}^+ \text{ is electrolyzed for 15.0 minutes with a current of 1.25 mA and the silver is removed completely. The initial } [\text{Ag}^+] \text{ is:}$
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$2.32 \times 10^{-1} \text{ M}$, $2.32 \times 10^{-4} \text{ M}$...
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18224
$\text{The number of electrons involved in the deposition of } 63.5 \text{ g of Cu from a solution of } \text{CuSO}_4 \text{ is:}$
2
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$6.022 \times 10^{23}$, $3.011 \times 10^{23}$...
3
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18223
$\text{For the cell, Ti/Ti}^{+}(0.001\text{M})||\text{Cu}^{2+}(0.1\text{M})|\text{Cu}, E^\circ_{\text{cell}}$ $\text{at } 25\ ^\circ \text{C is } 0.83\ \text{V. } E_{\text{cell}} \text{ can be increased:}$
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$\text{By increasing } [\text{Cu}^{2+}]$, $\text{By increasing } [\text{Ti}^{+}]$...
1
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18222
$\text{A steady current of } 1.5 \text{ A flows through a copper voltmeter for } 10 \text{ min. If the electrochemical equivalent of copper is } 30 \times 10^{-5} \text{ g C}^{-1}, \text{ the mass of copper deposited on the electrode will be:}$
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$0.40 \text{ g}$, $0.50 \text{ g}$...
4
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18221
$\text{The number of Faradays required to produce 20.0 g of Ca from molten CaCl}_2 \text{ is-}$
2
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$2F$, $1F$...
2
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18220
$\text{When 0.1 mol MnO}_4^{2-} \text{ is oxidized, the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidise MnO}_4^{2-} \text{ to MnO}_4^{-} \text{ is:}$
2
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$96500 \text{ C}$, $2 \times 96500 \text{ C}$...
3
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18219
$\text{The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in 60 seconds is:}$ $\text{(Charge on electron = 1.60} \times 10^{-19} \text{ C)}$
2
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$6 \times 10^{23}$, $6 \times 10^{20}$...
3
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18218
$\text{The amount of charge required for the reduction of 1 mol of } \text{MnO}_4^- \text{ to } \text{Mn}^{2+} \text{ is -}$
2
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$4.8 \times 10^5 \text{ C}$, $3.2 \times 10^6 \text{ C}$...
1
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18217
$\text{The electricity required in coulombs for the oxidation of 1 mole of } \text{FeO to } \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 \text{ is:}$
2
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$964.87 \text{ C}$, $96487 \text{ C}$...
2
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18216
$\text{Consider the following graph of molar conductivity of KCl solution at different concentrations.}$ $\text{The value of limiting molar conductivity for KCl is } 150.0 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}. \text{ The value of the slope at point A will be:}$
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$120$, $100$...
2
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18215
$\text{Value of } \wedge_m^0 \text{ for } \text{SrCl}_2 \text{ (strong electrolyte) in water at } 25^\circ \text{C from the data below is:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline \text{Conc. (mol/litre)} & 0.25 & 1 \\ \hline \wedge_m \left(\Omega^{-1} \text{ cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}\right) & 260 & 250 \\ \hline \end{array}$
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$270 \ \Omega^{-1} \text{ cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$, $260 \ \Omega^{-1} \text{ cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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18214
$\text{Kohlrausch's law states that at:}$
2
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$\text{Finite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte.}$, $\text{Infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte depending on the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte.}$...
4
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18213
The molar conductance of $\frac{M}{32}$ solution of a weak monobasic acid is $8.0 \text{ ohm}^{-1} \text{ cm}^2$ and at infinite dilution is $400 \text{ ohm}^{-1} \text{ cm}^2$. The dissociation constant of this acid is:
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1.25 \times 10^{-5}, 1.25 \times 10^{-6}...
1
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18212
$\text{The resistance of a cell containing } 0.001 \text{ M KCl solution at } 298 \text{ K is } 1500 \, \Omega. \text{ The conductivity is } 0.146 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{S cm}^{-1}. \text{ The cell constant would be-}$
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$0.12 \, \text{cm}^{-1}$, $0.56 \, \text{cm}^{-1}$...
3
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18211
$\text{The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.001 M KCl solution at 298 K is 1500 } \Omega. \text{ The cell constant if conductivity of 0.001 M KCl solution at 298 K is } 0.146 \times 10^{-3} \text{ S cm}^{-1} \text{ will be:}$
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$0.32 \text{ cm}^{-1}$, $0.47 \text{ cm}$...
3
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18210
$\Lambda_m^\circ(\text{NH}_4\text{OH})$ $\text{is equal to -}$
2
217
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$\Lambda_m^\circ(\text{NH}_4\text{OH}) + \Lambda_m^\circ(\text{NH}_4\text{Cl}) - \Lambda_m^\circ(\text{HCl})$, $\Lambda_m^\circ(\text{NH}_4\text{Cl}) + \Lambda_m^\circ(\text{NaOH}) - \Lambda_m^\circ(\text{NaCl})$...
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18209
$\text{Molar conductivities (}\Lambda_m^\circ\text{) at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl, and CH}_3\text{COONa are 126.4, 425.9, and 91.0 S cm}^2\text{ mol}^{-1}\text{ respectively.}$ $\Lambda_m^\circ\text{ for CH}_3\text{COOH will be:}$
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$180.5 \text{ S cm}^2\text{ mol}^{-1}$, $290.8 \text{ S cm}^2$...
3
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18208
$\text{The specific conductivity of a saturated solution of KI}_3 \text{ is } 4.59 \times 10^{-6} \text{ ohm}^{-1} \text{ cm}^{-1}$ $\text{and its molar conductance is } 1.53 \text{ ohm}^{-1} \text{ cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}. \text{ The } K_{\text{sp}} \text{ of KI}_3 \text{ will be:}$
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$4 \times 10^{-12}$, $27 \times 27 \times 10^{-9}$...
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18207
$\text{The specific conductance of a 0.01 M solution of a weak monobasic acid is } 0.20 \times 10^{-3} \text{ S cm}^{-1}. \text{ The dissociation constant of the acid is-}$ $\text{[Given } \Lambda_{\text{HA}}^{\infty} = 400 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}]$
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$5 \times 10^{-2}$, $2.5 \times 10^{-5}$...
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18206
$\text{(c) The unit of molar conductivity is S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$ $\text{(d) Molar conductivity increases with an increase in concentration.}$
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(a), (a) \text{ and } (d)...
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18205
$\text{The specific conductivity of a solution depends upon:}$ $1. \text{Number of ions as well as mobility of ions.}$ $2. \text{Number of ions per cc or (cm}^3\text{) of solution.}$ $3. \text{Number of ions per cc or (cm}^3\text{) as well as mobilities of ions.}$ $4. \text{Mobilities of ions.}$
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$\text{Number of ions as well as mobility of ions.}$, $\text{Number of ions per cc or (cm}^3\text{) of solution.}$...
3
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18204
$\text{The conductivity of } 0.00241 \text{ M acetic acid is } 7.896 \times 10^{-5} \text{ S cm}^{-1}. \text{ If } \Lambda_m^0 \text{ for acetic acid is } 390.5 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}, \text{ the dissociation constant will be}$
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$2.45 \times 10^{-5} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$, $1.86 \times 10^{-5} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$...
2
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18203
$\lambda_m^0(\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4) = x \ S \ \text{cm}^2 \ \text{mol}^{-1}$ $\lambda_m^0(\text{K}_2\text{SO}_4) = y \ S \ \text{cm}^2 \ \text{mol}^{-1}$ $\lambda_m^0(\text{CH}_3\text{COOK}) = z \ S \ \text{cm}^2 \ \text{mol}^{-1}$ $\text{From the data given above, it can be concluded that } \lambda_m^0 \text{ in } (S \ \text{cm}^2 \ \text{mol}^{-1}) \text{ for CH}_3\text{COOH will be:}$
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$x - y + 2z$, $x + y + z$...
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18202
$\text{The incorrect statement about the solution of electrolytes is:}$
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$\text{Conductivity of solution depends upon the size of ions.}$, $\text{Conductivity depends upon the viscosity of solution.}$...
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18201
$\text{At 25 °C molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide is } 9.54 \, \Omega^{-1} \text{ cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1} \text{ and at infinite dilution its molar conductance is } 238 \, \Omega^{-1} \text{ cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}. \text{ The degree of ionisation of ammonium hydroxide at the same concentration and temperature is:}$
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$2.080 \%$, $20.800 \%$...
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18200
$\text{Consider the following graph.}$ $\Lambda_m \,(\text{S cm}^2\text{mol}^{-1})$ $c^{1/2}\,\text{(mol/L)}^{1/2}$ $\text{The strong electrolyte in the above graph is represented by:}$
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$\text{X}$, $\text{Y}$...
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18199
$\text{The cell constant of a conductivity cell-}$
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$\text{Changes with the change of electrolyte.}$, $\text{Changes with the change of concentration of electrolyte.}$...
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18198
$\text{The unit of specific conductance is:}$
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$\text{ohm}^{-1} \ \text{cm}^{-1}$, $\text{ohm} \ \text{cm}$...
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18197
$\text{The molar conductivity of a } 0.5 \text{ mol/dm}^3 \text{ solution of } \text{AgNO}_3 \text{ with electrolytic conductivity of } 5.76 \times 10^{-3} \text{ S cm}^{-1} \text{ at } 298 \text{ K is:}$
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$11.5 \text{ S cm}^2/\text{mol}$, $21.5 \text{ S cm}^2/\text{mol}$...
1
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18196
$\text{The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.0248 S cm}^{-1}. \text{ The molar conductivity will be -}$
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$124 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$, $134 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$...
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18195
$\text{The } k = 4.95 \times 10^{-5} \text{ S cm}^{-1} \text{ for a } 0.00099 \text{ M solution. The reciprocal of the degree of dissociation of acetic acid, if } \wedge^0_m \text{ for acetic acid is } 400 \text{ S cm}^2\text{mol}^{-1} \text{ will be:}$
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$7$, $8$...
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18194
$\text{The specific conductance of a } 0.1 \text{ M KCl solution at } 23^\circ \text{C is } 0.012 \, \Omega^{-1} \text{ cm}^{-1}. \text{ The resistance of the cell containing the solution at the same temperature was found to be } 55 \, \Omega. \text{ The cell constant will be:}$
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$0.142 \, \text{cm}^{-1}$, $0.66 \, \text{cm}^{-1}$...
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18193
$\text{At } 25^\circ \text{C, the standard emf of a cell reaction involving a two-electron exchange is found to be } 0.295 \text{ V. The equilibrium constant of the reaction is approximately:}$
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$9.50 \times 10^9$, $9.51 \times 10^7$...
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18192
$\Delta G^\circ \text{ for the reaction given below is:}$ $\frac{1}{2} \text{A(g)} + \frac{3}{2} \text{B(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{C(g)}$ $(K_{\text{eq}} = 826 \ \text{atm}^{-1} \ \text{at} \ 298 \ \text{K})$
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$-8.32 \ \text{kJ}$, $8.32 \ \text{kJ}$...
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18191
$\text{A fuel cell develops an electrical potential from the combustion of butane at 1 bar and 298 K}$ $\text{C}_4\text{H}_{10}(g) + 6.5\text{O}_2(g) \rightarrow 4\text{CO}_2(g) + 5\text{H}_2\text{O}(l); \text{E}^\circ \text{ of a cell is:}$ $\text{(Given } \Delta G^\circ = -2746 \text{ kJ/mole)}$
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$4.74 \text{ V}$, $0.547 \text{ V}$...
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18190
$\text{The equilibrium constant of the reaction:}$ $\text{Cu (s) + 2Ag}^+ \text{ (aq)} \rightarrow \text{Cu}^{2+} \text{ (aq) + 2Ag (s)};$ $E^\circ = 0.46 \text{ V at 298 K is:}$
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$2.4 \times 10^{10}$, $2.0 \times 10^{10}$...
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18189
$\text{The cell in which the following reactions occurs:}$ $2\text{Fe}^{3+}_{(aq)} + 2\text{I}^-_{(aq)} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe}^{2+}_{(aq)} + \text{I}_2_{(s)} \text{ has } E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 0.236 \text{ V at } 298 \text{ K.}$ $\text{The equilibrium constant of the cell reaction is:}$
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$9.57 \times 10^7$, $8.43 \times 10^6$...
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18188
$\text{The equilibrium constant of a 2 electron redox reaction at 298 K is } 3.8 \times 10^{-3}. \text{ The cell potential } E^\circ \text{ (in V) and the free energy change } \Delta G^\circ \text{ (in kJ mol}^{-1}\text{) for this equilibrium respectively, are -}$
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$-0.071, -13.8$, $-0.071, 13.8$...
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18187
$\text{The useful work of the reaction } \text{Ag}(s) + \frac{1}{2}\text{Cl}_2(g) \rightarrow \text{AgCl}(s) \text{ is:}$ $\text{Given,}$ $E^\circ_{\text{Cl}_2/\text{Cl}^-} = +1.36 \text{ V},$ $E^\circ_{\text{AgCl}/\text{Ag},\text{Cl}^-} = 0.22 \text{ V},$ $P_{\text{Cl}_2} = 1 \text{ atm and}$ $T = 298 \text{K}$
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$-110 \text{ kJ/mol}$, $220 \text{ kJ/mol}$...
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18186
$\text{On the electrolysis of brine (aq NaCl solution):}$ $1.\ \text{pH of the solution will rise.}$ $2.\ \text{pH of the solution will fall.}$ $3.\ \text{No change in the pH of the solution.}$ $4.\ \text{None of the above.}$
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$\text{pH of the solution will rise.}$, $\text{pH of the solution will fall.}$...
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18185
$\text{Given cell:}$ $\text{Pt(s)}|\text{H}_2(g)(P = 1 \text{ atm})| \text{CH}_3\text{COOH}(0.1 \text{ M}), \text{HCl}(0.1 \text{ M}) || \text{KCl(aq)}|\text{Hg}_2\text{Cl}_2(s)|\text{Hg}$ $\text{EMF of the cell is found to be } 0.045 \text{ V at } 298 \text{ K and the temperature coefficient is } 3.4 \times 10^{-4} \text{ V K}^{-1}. \text{ The cell entropy change of the following cell is:}$ $\text{[Given } K_a \text{ CH}_3\text{COOH} = 10^{-5} \text{ M]}$
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Recommended Questions
$70.8 \text{ J K}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1}$, $65.2 \text{ J K}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1}$...
2
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18184
$\text{For a cell involving one electron } E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 0.59 \text{ V at } 298 \text{ K.}$ $\text{The equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is:}$ $\left[ \text{Given that } \frac{2.303 \ RT}{F} = 0.059 \text{ V at } T = 298 \text{K} \right]$
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Recommended Questions
$1.0 \times 10^{30}$, $1.0 \times 10^{2}$...
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18183
38
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1, 2...
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18182
$\text{For the cell reaction}$ $2\text{Fe}^{3+}(\text{aq}) + 2\text{I}^-(\text{aq}) \rightarrow 2\text{Fe}^{2+}(\text{aq}) + \text{I}_2(\text{aq})$ $E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 0.24 \text{ V at 298 K.}$ $\text{The standard Gibbs energy } \Delta_rG^\circ \text{ of the cell reaction is:}$ $[\text{Given: F} = 96500 \text{ C mol}^{-1}]$
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23.16 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}, -46.32 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}...
2
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18181
$\text{A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH} = 10 \text{ and by passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at one atm pressure. The oxidation potential of the electrode would be:}$
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$0.59 \text{ V}$, $0.118 \text{ V}$...
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18180
$\text{The value of } \Delta G^\circ \text{ in the reaction below would be:}$ $\text{Zn(s) + Ag}_2\text{O(s)} + \text{H}_2\text{O(l)} \rightarrow \text{Zn}^{+2}\text{(aq)} + 2\text{Ag(s)} + 2\text{OH}^-\text{(aq)}$ $\text{Given: } E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 1.04V$
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$-2.13 \text{ kJ}$, $-21.3 \text{ kJ}$...
3
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18179
$\text{What is the correct order of ionic mobility of the following ions in an aqueous solution?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{K}^+ > \text{Na}^+ > \text{Rb}^+ > \text{Cs}^+$, $\text{Cs}^+ > \text{Rb}^+ > \text{K}^+ > \text{Na}^+$...
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18178
$\text{For a reaction A(s) + 2B}^+ \rightarrow \text{A}^{2+} + 2\text{B(s)} ; \ K_C \text{ has been found to be } 10^{12}. \text{ The } E^\circ_{\text{cell}} \text{ is:}$
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$0.35 \text{ V}$, $0.71 \text{ V}$...
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18177
$\text{Given:}$ $\text{(i) Cu}^{2+} + 2e^- \rightarrow \text{Cu} \quad E^\circ = 0.337 \text{ V}$ $\text{(ii) Cu}^+ + e^- \rightarrow \text{Cu} \quad E^\circ = 0.153 \text{ V}$ $\text{Electrode potential, } E^\circ \text{ for the reaction, } \text{Cu}^+ + e^- \rightarrow \text{Cu, will be:}$
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0.52 \text{ V}, 0.90 \text{ V}...
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18176
$\text{Fe}^{2+}(\text{aq}) + \text{Ag}^+(\text{aq}) \rightarrow \text{Fe}^{3+}(\text{aq}) + \text{Ag}(\text{s})$ $E^\circ_{\text{Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}^{2+}} = 0.77 \text{ V}; \; E^\circ_{\text{Ag}^+/\text{Ag}} = 0.80 \text{ V}$ $\text{The value of } \Delta G_r^\circ \text{ in the above reaction will be:}$
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$+2.89 \text{ kJ}$, $-2.89 \text{ kJ}$...
2
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18175
$\text{The value of } E_{\text{cell}} \text{ in the reaction below will be:}$ $\text{Pt}(s)|\text{Br}^- (0.010\ M)|\text{Br}_2(l) || \text{H}^+ (0.030\ M)|\text{H}_2(g)(1\ \text{bar})|\text{Pt}(s)$ $E^\circ_{\text{Br}^- / \text{Br}_2} = -1.09\ \text{V}$
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Recommended Questions
+1.298\ \text{V}, -1.398\ \text{V}...
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18174
$\text{Cu(s)}|\text{Cu}^{+2}(10^{-3} \text{ M}) || \text{Ag}^+(10^{-5} \text{ M})|\text{Ag(s)}$ $\text{if } E^\circ_{\text{Cu}^{+2}/\text{Cu}} = +0.34 \text{ V, and } E^\circ_{\text{Ag}^+/\text{Ag}} = +0.80 \text{ V}$ $E_{\text{cell}} \text{ will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$0.46 \text{ V}$, $0.46 - \frac{RT}{2F} \ln 10^7$...
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18173
$\text{Given the following cell:}$ $\text{Pt}(s)|\text{Br}_2(l)|\text{Br}^- (0.010 \ M) ||\text{H}_2(g)(1 \ \text{bar})|\text{H}^+(0.030 \ M)|\text{Pt}(s)$ $\text{If the concentration of } \text{Br}^- \text{ becomes 2 times and the concentration of } \text{H}^+ \text{ becomes half of the initial value, then emf of the cell will become:}$
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$\text{Two times.}$, $\text{Four times.}$...
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18172
$\text{At 298 K the Emf of the following cell is:}$ $\text{Pt|H}_2(1 \text{ atm})|\text{H}^+(0.02 \text{ M}) || \text{H}^+(0.01 \text{ M})|\text{H}_2(1 \text{ atm})|\text{Pt}$
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$-0.017 \text{ V}$, $0.0295 \text{ V}$...
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18171
$\text{The change in reduction potential of a hydrogen electrode when its solution}$ $\text{initially at pH = 0 is neutralised to pH = 7, is a/an-}$
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$\text{Increase by 0.059 V}$, $\text{Decrease by 0.059 V}$...
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18170
$\text{By how much will the potential of half cell Cu}^{2+}\mid\text{Cu change if the solution is diluted to 100 times at 298 K. It will -}$
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$\text{Increase by 59 mV}$, $\text{Decrease by 59 mV}$...
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18169
$\text{The electrode potential for Mg electrode varies according to the equation}$ $E_{\text{Mg}^{2+}/\text{Mg}} = E^\circ_{\text{Mg}^{2+}/\text{Mg}} - \frac{0.059}{2} \log \frac{1}{[\text{Mg}^{2+}]}$ $\text{The graph of } E_{\text{Mg}^{2+}/\text{Mg}} \text{ vs } \log [\text{Mg}^{2+}] \text{ among the following is:}$
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$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
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18168
$\text{The voltage of the cell given below increases with:}$ $\text{Cell: Sn(s) + 2Ag}^+(\text{aq}) \rightarrow \text{Sn}^{2+}(\text{aq}) + 2\text{Ag}(\text{s})$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Increase in size of the silver rod.}$, $\text{Increase in the concentration of Sn}^{2+} \text{ ions.}$...
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18167
$\text{Consider the following cell reaction}$ $2\text{Fe(s)} + \text{O}_2\text{(g)} + 4\text{H}^+\text{(aq)} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe}^{2+}\text{(aq)} + 2\text{H}_2\text{O(l)}$ $E^\circ = 1.67 \text{ V}, \text{ At } [\text{Fe}^{2+}] = 10^{-3} \text{ M}, P_{\text{O}_2} = 0.1 \text{ atm and pH} = 3, \text{ the cell potential at } 25\, ^\circ \text{C is:}$
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1.27 \text{ V}, 1.77 \text{ V}...
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18166
$\text{The electrode potential of Cu electrode dipped in 0.025 M CuSO}_4 \text{ solution at 298 K is:}$ $\text{(standard reduction potential of Cu = 0.34 V)}$
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$0.047 \text{ V}$, $0.293 \text{ V}$...
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18165
$\text{In the electrochemical cell:}$ $\text{Zn|ZnSO}_4(0.01 \text{ M}) \parallel \text{CuSO}_4(1.0 \text{M}),\text{Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is } E_1.$ $\text{When the concentration of ZnSO}_4 \text{ is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO}_4 \text{ is changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to } E_2.$ $\text{The relationship between } E_1 \text{ and } E_2 \text{ is:}$ $\text{(Given, } \frac{RT}{F} = 0.059)$
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$E_1 = E_2$, $E_1 < E_2$...
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18164
$\text{The pressure of } \text{H}_2 \text{ required to make the potential of H}_2 \text{ - electrode zero in pure water at } 298 \text{ K is:}$
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$10^{-12} \text{ atm}$, $10^{-10} \text{ atm}$...
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18163
$\text{The incorrect statement about an inert electrode in a cell is:}$
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$\text{It does not participate in the cell reaction.}$, $\text{It provides a surface either for oxidation or for the reduction reaction.}$...
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18162
$\text{Electrode potential is the potential difference between the -}$
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$\text{Electrode and the electrolyte.}$, $\text{Anode and Cathode.}$...
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18161
$\text{Calculate the emf of the given cell:}$ $\text{Zn(s)} \mid \text{Zn}^{+2} \text{ (0.1M)} \parallel \text{Sn}^{+2} \text{ (0.001M)} \mid \text{Sn(s)}$ $\text{(Given } E^0_{\text{Zn}^{+2}/\text{Zn}} = -0.76 \text{ V}, E^0_{\text{Sn}^{+2}/\text{Sn}} = -0.14 \text{ V})$
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0.62 \text{ V}, 0.56 \text{ V}...
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18160
$\text{The standard reduction potential for } \text{Fe}^{2+}|\text{Fe} \text{ and } \text{Sn}^{2+}|\text{Sn} \text{ electrodes are } -0.44 \text{ V and } -0.14 \text{ V respectively. For the cell reaction,}$ $\text{Fe}^{2+} + \text{Sn} \rightarrow \text{Fe} + \text{Sn}^{2+}, \text{ the standard Emf is -}$
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$+0.30 \text{ V}$, $0.58 \text{ V}$...
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18159
$\text{The maximum work which can be obtained from a Daniel cell}$ $\text{Zn}_{(s)} \mid \text{Zn}^{+2}_{(aq)} \parallel \text{Cu}^{+2}_{(aq)} \mid \text{Cu}_{(s)} \text{ is:}$ $\begin{array}{c|c} E^\circ_{\text{Zn}^{2+}/\text{Zn}} & -0.76 \text{ V} \\ \hline E^\circ_{\text{Cu}^{2+}/\text{Cu}} & 0.34 \text{ V} \end{array}$
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+106.15 \text{ kJ}, -212.3 \text{ kJ}...
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18158
$\text{Based on electrode potentials in the table below:}$ $\begin{array}{c|c} \text{Cu}^{2+}(\text{aq}) + \text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{Cu}^+(\text{aq}) & 0.15 \text{ V} \\ \text{Cu}^+(\text{aq}) + \text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{Cu}(\text{s}) & 0.50 \text{ V} \end{array}$ $\text{The value of } E^\circ_{\text{Cu}^{2+}/\text{Cu}} \text{ will be:}$
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$0.325 \text{ V}$, $0.650 \text{ V}$...
1
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18157
$\text{Consider the change in the oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below:}$ $\text{BrO}_4^- \xrightarrow{1.82V} \text{BrO}_3^- \xrightarrow{1.5V} \text{HBrO} \xrightarrow{1.595V} \text{Br}_2 \xrightarrow{1.065V} \text{Br}^- $ $\text{Then the species undergoing disproportionation is:}$
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$\text{BrO}_3^-$, $\text{BrO}_4^-$...
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18156
$\text{The correct statement among the following options is:}$
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$E_{\text{cell}} \text{ and } \Delta_r G \text{ of cell reaction are both extensive properties.}$, $E_{\text{cell}} \text{ and } \Delta_r G \text{ of cell reaction are both intensive properties.}$...
3
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18155
$\text{Consider the following relations for emf of an electrochemical cell:}$ $\text{(a) emf of cell} = (\text{Oxidation potential of anode}) - (\text{Reduction potential of cathode})$ $\text{(b) emf of cell} = (\text{Oxidation potential of anode}) + (\text{Reduction potential of cathode})$ $\text{(c) emf of cell} = (\text{Reduction potential of anode}) + (\text{Reduction potential of cathode})$ $\text{(d) emf of cell} = (\text{Oxidation potential of anode}) - (\text{Oxidation potential of cathode})$ $\text{The correct relation among the given options is:}$
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$\text{(a) and (b)}$, $\text{(c) and (d)}$...
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18154
$\text{If } E^\circ_{\text{Fe}^{2+}/\text{Fe}} = -0.441 \text{ V and } E^\circ_{\text{Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}^{2+}} = 0.771 \text{ V, the standard emf of the reaction:}$ $\text{Fe} + 2\text{Fe}^{3+} \rightarrow 3\text{Fe}^{2+} \text{ will be:}$
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0.330 \text{ V}, 1.653 \text{ V}...
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18153
$\text{If } E^0_{\text{Fe}^{2+}/\text{Fe}} = -0.441 \text{ V and } E^0_{\text{Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}^{2+}} = 0.771 \text{ V, the standard emf of the reaction:}$ $\text{Fe} + 2\text{Fe}^{3+} \rightarrow 3\text{Fe}^{2+} \text{ will be:}$
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$0.330 \text{ V}$, $1.653 \text{ V}$...
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18152
$\text{A gas X at 1 atm is bubbled through a solution containing a mixture of 1 M Y}^- \text{ and 1 M Z}^- \text{ at 25 } ^\circ \text{C. If the reduction potential of } Z > Y > X, \text{ then:}$
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$\text{Y will oxidize X but not Z.}$, $\text{Y will oxidize Z but not X.}$...
1
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18151
$\text{The difference between the electrode potentials of two electrodes when no current is drawn through the cell is called:}$
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$\text{Cell potential.}$, $\text{Cell emf.}$...
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18150
$\text{The metal that cannot be produced upon reduction of its oxide by aluminium is:}$
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$\text{K}$, $\text{Mn}$...
1
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18149
$\text{Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of:}$
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$\text{Free ions.}$, $\text{Free molecules.}$...
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18148
$\text{Given the standard electrode potentials:}$ $\begin{array}{l} \text{K}^+/\text{K} = -2.93\, \text{V} \\ \text{Ag}^+/\text{Ag} = 0.80\, \text{V} \\ \text{Hg}^{2+}/\text{Hg} = 0.79\, \text{V} \\ \text{Mg}^{2+}/\text{Mg} = -2.37\, \text{V} \\ \text{Cr}^{3+}/\text{Cr} = -0.74\, \text{V} \end{array}$ $\text{The correct increasing order of reducing power of the metals is:}$
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$\text{Cr} < \text{Mg} < \text{K} < \text{Ag} < \text{Hg}$, $\text{Mg} < \text{K} < \text{Ag} < \text{Hg} < \text{Cr}$...
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18147
$\text{A button cell used in watches functions as following}$ $\text{Zn(s)} + \text{Ag}_2\text{O(s)} + \text{H}_2\text{O(l)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{Ag(s)} + \text{Zn}^{2+}\text{(aq)} + 2\text{OH}^-\text{(aq)}$ $\text{If half-cell potentials are-}$ $\begin{array}{c|c} \text{Zn}^{2+}\text{(aq)} + 2\text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{Zn(s)} & E^\circ = -0.76 \text{ V} \\ \text{Ag}_2\text{O(s)} + \text{H}_2\text{O(l)} + 2\text{e}^- \rightarrow 2\text{Ag(s)} + 2\text{OH}^-\text{(aq)} & E^\circ = 0.34 \text{ V} \end{array}$ $\text{The cell potential will be:}$
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$0.42 \text{ V}$, $0.84 \text{ V}$...
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18146
$\text{The standard electrode potential for } \text{Sn}^{4+}/\text{Sn}^{2+} \text{ couple is } +0.15 \text{ V and that for the } \text{Cr}^{3+}/\text{Cr} \text{ couple is } -0.74 \text{ V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be:}$
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$+0.89 \text{ V}$, $+0.18 \text{ V}$...
1
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18145
$\text{Three aqueous solutions of NaCl are labelled as 'A', 'B' and 'C' with concentrations 0.1 M, 0.01 M and 0.001 M, respectively. The value of van't Hoff factor for these solutions will be in the order of:}$
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$i_A < i_B < i_C$, $i_A > i_B > i_C$...
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18144
$\text{If the relative decrease in vapour pressure is } 0.4 \text{ for a solution containing } 1 \text{ mol NaCl in } 3 \text{ mol of } \text{H}_2\text{O, then percentage ionisation of NaCl will be -}$
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$60\%$, $80\%$...
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18143
$0.5$ $\text{molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is } 20\% \text{ ionised. The lowering in the freezing point of the solution will be:}$ $[K_f \text{ for water } = 1.86 \text{ K kg mol}^{-1}]$
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$-1.12 \text{ K}$, $0.56 \text{ K}$...
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18142
$17.4 \% \text{ (w/v) } \text{K}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ solution at } 27^\circ \text{C is isotonic to } 5.85 \% \text{ (w/v) NaCl solution at } 27^\circ \text{C.}$ $\text{If NaCl is 100 \% ionised, the \% ionisation of } \text{K}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ in aqueous solution is-}$ $[\text{At wt. of K = 39, Na = 23}]$
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$25 \%$, $75 \%$...
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18141
$\text{A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic compound Co(NH}_3\text{)}_5\text{(NO}_2\text{)Cl freezes at } -0.0073 \, ^\circ\text{C. The number of moles of ions that 1 mol of ionic compound produces on being dissolved in water will be:}$ $\text{(}k_f = -1.86 \, ^\circ\text{C/m)}$
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$2$, $3$...
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18140
$\text{The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of a strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is:}$ $1.\ 0$ $2.\ 1$ $3.\ 2$ $4.\ 3$
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$0$, $1$...
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18139
$\text{The van't Hoff factor of a } 0.005 \text{ M aqueous solution of KCl is } 1.95. \text{ The degree of ionisation of KCl is-}$
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$0.95$, $0.97$...
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18138
$\text{The van't Hoff factor, } i, \text{ for a compound that undergoes}$ $\text{dissociation and association in a solvent is, respectively:}$
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$\text{Less than one and less than one.}$, $\text{Greater than one and less than one.}$...
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18137
$\text{The Van't Hoff factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO}_3)_2 \text{ solution is 2.74. The degree of dissociation is -}$
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$91.3 \%$, $87 \%$...
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18136
$\text{The electrolyte having the same value of Van't Hoff factor (i) as that of } \text{Al}_2(\text{SO}_4)_3 \text{ (if all are 100\% ionized) is:}$
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$\text{K}_2\text{SO}_4$, $\text{K}_3[\text{Fe(CN)}_6]$...
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18135
$\text{The type of inter molecular interactions present in}$ $\begin{array}{ll} (a) \ \text{Methanol and Acetone} & (i) \ \text{Van der Waal's forces of attraction} \\ (b) \ \text{Acetonitrile and Acetone} & (ii) \ \text{ion-dipole interaction} \\ & (iii) \ \text{dipole-dipole interaction} \end{array}$
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$(iii) \ (ii)$, $(ii) \ (ii)$...
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18134
$\text{Which of the following mixtures forms the maximum boiling azeotrope?}$
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$\text{Heptane + Octane}$, $\text{Water + Nitric acid}$...
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18133
$\text{The type of inter-molecular interactions present in:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{(a)} & \text{n-Hexane and n-octane} & \text{(i)} & \text{Van der Waal's forces of attraction} \\ \text{(b)} & \text{NaClO}_4 \text{ and water} & \text{(ii)} & \text{Ion-dipole interaction} \\ & & \text{(iii)} & \text{Dipole-dipole interaction} \\ \hline \end{array}$
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$(a) \ (i) \ \ (b) \ (ii)$, $(a) \ (ii) \ \ (b) \ (iii)$...
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18132
$\text{The azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol boils at } 78.15 \, ^\circ\text{C. When this mixture is distilled, it is possible to obtain-}$
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$\text{Pure } \text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{Pure } \text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH}$...
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18131
$\text{The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol is less than that of water and ethanol individually. The mixture shows:}$
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$\text{No deviation from Raoult's law}$, $\text{Positive deviation from Raoult's law}$...
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18130
$\text{During osmosis, the flow of water through a semi-permeable membrane is:}$
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$\text{From a solution having higher concentration only.}$, $\text{From both sides of the semi-permeable membrane with equal flow rates.}$...
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18129
$\text{Given that the pH of a 0.1 M monobasic acid is 2, what is the osmotic pressure at a given temperature T?}$
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$0.1RT$, $0.11RT$...
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18128
$\text{The amount of CaCl}_2 \ (i = 2.47) \ \text{dissolved in 2.5 litre of water such that its}$ $\text{osmotic pressure is 0.75 atm at 27 } ^\circ \text{C is:}$
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$1.02 \ \text{g}$, $4.35 \ \text{g}$...
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18127
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is:}$
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$\text{Units of atmospheric pressure and osmotic pressure are the same.}$, $\text{In reverse osmosis, solvent molecules move through a semipermeable membrane from a region of lower concentration of solute to a region of higher concentration.}$...
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18126
$\text{An unripe mango placed in a concentrated salt solution to prepare pickle shrivels because:}$
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$\text{It gains water due to osmosis.}$, $\text{It loses water due to reverse osmosis.}$...
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18125
$\text{If 'A' contains 2 \% NaCl and is separated by a semi permeable membrane from 'B', which contains 10 \% NaCl, then the event that will occur is}$
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$\text{NaCl will flow from 'A' to 'B'}$, $\text{NaCl will flow from 'B' to 'A'}$...
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18124
$\text{Preservation of fruits against bacterial action by adding sugar is an example of-}$
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$\text{Exosmosis}$, $\text{Reverse-osmosis}$...
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18123
$\text{At a given temperature, osmotic pressure of a concentrated solution of a substance:}$
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$\text{Is higher than that of a dilute solution.}$, $\text{Is lower than that of a dilute solution.}$...
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18122
$\text{An aqueous solution containing 1 g of urea boils at } 100.25 \, ^\circ\text{C.}$ $\text{The aqueous solution containing 3 g of glucose in the same volume will boil at:}$
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$100.75 \, ^\circ\text{C}$, $100.5 \, ^\circ\text{C}$...
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18121
$\text{The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K, when 10 gm glucose } (P_1), \text{ 10 gm urea } (P_2), \text{ and 10 gm sucrose } (P_3) \text{ are dissolved in 250 ml of water, is-}$
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$P_1 > P_2 > P_3$, $P_3 > P_1 > P_2$...
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18120
$\text{Aqueous solutions of } 0.004 \text{ M Na}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ and } 0.01 \text{ M Glucose are isotonic. The degree of dissociation of Na}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ is-}$
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$25\%$, $60\%$...
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18119
$\text{The osmotic pressure of 5 \% (mass-volume) solution of cane sugar at 150 °C (mol. mass of sugar = 342 g/mole) is:}$
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$4 \text{ atm}$, $5.07 \text{ atm}$...
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18118
$\text{A pair of isotonic solutions, among the following, is (assuming temperature to be the same):}$ $1.\ 0.1\ \text{(M) urea and}\ 0.1\ \text{(M) NaCl}$ $2.\ 0.1\ \text{(M) urea and}\ 0.2\ \text{(M) MgCl}_2$ $3.\ 0.1\ \text{(M) NaCl and}\ 0.1\ \text{(M) Na}_2\text{SO}_4$ $4.\ 0.1\ \text{(M) Ca(NO}_3)_2\ \text{and}\ 0.1\ \text{(M) Na}_2\text{SO}_4$
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$0.1\ \text{(M) urea and}\ 0.1\ \text{(M) NaCl}$, $0.1\ \text{(M) urea and}\ 0.2\ \text{(M) MgCl}_2$...
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18117
$\text{Isotonic solutions have the same:}$ $1. \text{Vapour pressure}$ $2. \text{Freezing temperature}$ $3. \text{Osmotic pressure}$ $4. \text{Boiling temperature}$
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$\text{Vapour pressure}$, $\text{Freezing temperature}$...
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18116
$\text{Match the items given in Column I and Column II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline \text{A. Saturated solution} & \text{1. Solution having same osmotic pressure at a given temperature as that of a given solution.} \\ \text{B. Hypertonic solution} & \text{2. A solution whose osmotic pressure is less than that of another.} \\ \text{C. Isotonic solution} & \text{3. A solution that contains the maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved in a given amount of solvent at a given temperature.} \\ \text{D. Hypotonic solution} & \text{4. A solution whose osmotic pressure is more than that of another.} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Codes:}$ $\begin{array}{cccc} \text{A} & \text{B} & \text{C} & \text{D} \\ 1. & 2 & 3 & 4 & 1 \\ 2. & 2 & 4 & 3 & 1 \\ 3. & 3 & 4 & 1 & 2 \\ 4. & 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 \\ \end{array}$
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$1 \ (3\%)$, $2 \ (5\%)$...
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18115
$\text{The salt that possesses the highest freezing point}$
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$0.01 \text{ M NaCl}$, $0.05 \text{ M Urea}$...
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18114
$\text{A solution of 18 g of glucose in 1000 g of water is cooled to -0.2 } ^\circ \text{C. The amount of ice separating out from this solution is -}$ $[K_f(\text{H}_2\text{O}) = 1.86 \text{ K molal}^{-1}]$
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$70 \text{ g}$, $140 \text{ g}$...
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18113
$\text{A 5 \% solution (by mass) of cane sugar in water has freezing point of 271 K.}$ $\text{Freezing point of 5 \% glucose in water would be: (freezing point of pure water is 273.15 K)}$
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$279.24 \text{ K}$, $-269.06 \text{ K}$...
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18112
$\text{Compound PdCl}_4\cdot 6\text{H}_2\text{O is a hydrated complex, 1 molal aqueous solution of it has freezing point 269.28 K. Assuming 100 \% ionization of complex, the molecular formula of the complex is-}$ $\left(K_f \text{ for water} = 1.86 \text{ K kg mole}^{-1}\right)$
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$\text{[Pd(H}_2\text{O)}\text{Cl}_4]$, $\text{[Pd(H}_2\text{O)}_4\text{Cl}_2]\cdot 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$...
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18111
$\text{Two elements A and B form compounds having formula AB}_2 \text{ and AB}_4. \text{ When dissolved in 20 g of benzene (C}_6\text{H}_6), 1 \text{ g of AB}_2 \text{ lowers the freezing point by 2.3 K whereas 1.0 g of AB}_4 \text{ lowers it by 1.3 K. The atomic masses of A and B are respectively:}$ $\left(K_f \text{ for benzene is 5.1 K kg mol}^{-1}\right)$
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$15.59 \text{ u and } 52.64 \text{ u}$, $25.59 \text{ u and } 42.64 \text{ u}$...
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18110
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is:}$
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$\text{Two different solutions of sucrose of the same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same depression in freezing point.}$, $\text{The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by the equation } \pi = CRT \text{ (where C is the molarity of the solution)}$...
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18109
$\text{The depression in the freezing point of water when 10 g of CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CHClCOOH is added to 250 g of water will be:}$ $\left( K_a = 1.4 \times 10^{-3}, K_f = 1.86 \text{ K kg mol}^{-1} \right)$
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0.32 \text{ K}, 2.87 \text{ K}...
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18108
$\text{Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solutions will have the lowest freezing point?}$
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$\text{Potassium Sulphate.}$, $\text{Sodium chloride.}$...
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18107
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{When NaCl is added to water a depression in freezing point is observed.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes depression in the freezing point.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
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18106
$\text{A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol}^{-1}\text{) has been prepared by}$ $\text{dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g of water.}$ $\text{The freezing point of the solution obtained will be:}$ $\left( k_f \text{ for water = 1.86 K kg mol}^{-1} \right)$
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$-0.372\ ^\circ \text{C}$, $0.372\ ^\circ \text{C}$...
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18105
$\text{The graph, amongst the following, that represents depression in the freezing point is:}$
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$\begin{array}{c} \text{Vapour pressure} \\ \uparrow \\ \text{frozen solvent} \\ \text{liquid solvent} \\ \text{solution} \\ \Delta T_f \\ T_f \\ T_f^0 \\ \text{Temperature/K} \rightarrow \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{c} \text{Vapour pressure} \\ \uparrow \\ \text{frozen solvent} \\ \text{solution} \\ \text{Liquid solvent} \\ \Delta T_f \\ T_f \\ T_f^0 \\ \text{Temperature/K} \rightarrow \end{array}$...
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18104
$\text{The freezing point depression constant for water is } 1.86 \, ^\circ\text{C m}^{-1}. \text{ If } 5.00 \, \text{g Na}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ is dissolved in } 45.0 \, \text{g H}_2\text{O}, \text{ the freezing point is changed by } -3.82 \, ^\circ\text{C}. \text{ The Van't Hoff factor for Na}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ is:}$
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$2.63$, $3.11$...
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18103
$\text{A solution containing } 6.8 \text{ g of a non-ionic solute in } 100 \text{ g of water was found to freeze at } -0.93 ^\circ \text{C.}$ $\text{The freezing point depression constant of water is } 1.86.$ $\text{The molecular weight of the solute is-}$
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$13.6 \text{ m}$, $34 \text{ m}$...
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18102
$\text{In comparison to a } 0.01 \text{ M solution of glucose, the depression in the freezing point of a } 0.01 \text{ M MgCl}_2 \text{ solution will be:}$
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$\text{Same}$, $\text{About twice}$...
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18101
$\text{Freezing point of an aqueous solution is } -0.166^\circ \text{C. Elevation of boiling point of the same solution would be-}$ $\left( K_b = 0.512 \text{ K m}^{-1} \text{ and } K_f = 1.66 \text{ K m}^{-1} \right)$
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$0.18^\circ \text{C}$, $0.05^\circ \text{C}$...
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18100
$\text{When 20 g of naphthoic acid (C}_{11}\text{H}_{8}\text{O}_{2}) \text{ is dissolved in 50 g of benzene, a freezing point depression of 2 K is observed. What is the Van't Hoff factor (i)?}$ $\left(K_f = 1.72 \text{ K kg mol}^{-1}\right)$
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$0.5$, $1$...
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18099
$\text{The freezing point of depression constant } (K_f) \text{ of benzene is } 5.12 \text{ K kg mol}^{-1}. $ $\text{The freezing point depression for the solution of molality } 0.078 \text{ m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is:} $ $\text{(rounded off up to two decimal places)}$
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$0.80 \text{ K}$, $0.40 \text{ K}$...
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18098
$\text{The molality of a solution containing a certain solute, if there is a freezing point depression of } 0.184 \, ^\circ\text{C, is-}$ $\left(K_f = 18.4\right)$
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$0.01 \, \text{m}$, $10 \, \text{m}$...
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18097
$\text{Match the laws given in Column I with expressions given in Column II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline \text{A. Raoult's law} & 1. \pi = \text{CRT} \\ \text{B. Osmotic pressure} & 2. \Delta T_f = \text{K}_f \text{m} \\ \text{C. Elevation of boiling point} & 3. p = x_1 p_1^0 + x_2 p_2^0 \\ \text{D. Depression in freezing point} & 4. \Delta T_b = \text{K}_b \text{m} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Codes}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline \text{A} & \text{B} & \text{C} & \text{D} \\ \hline 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 \\ 2 & 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 \\ 3 & 1 & 4 & 3 & 2 \\ 4 & 3 & 1 & 4 & 2 \\ \hline \end{array}$
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$1$, $2$...
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18096
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{When methyl alcohol is added to water, boiling point of water increases.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{When a volatile solute is added to a volatile solvent, elevation in boiling point is observed.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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18095
$\text{The latent heat of vaporization of water is } 540 \text{ cal g}^{-1} \text{ at } 100 \degree \text{C. } K_b \text{ for water is:}$
2
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$0.562 \text{ K m}^{-1}$, $1.86 \text{ K m}^{-1}$...
3
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18094
$\text{The lowest boiling point, if concentration is fixed at 0.1 M in aqueous solution, is given by which of the following solutions?}$ $\text{a. } \text{K}_2\text{SO}_4$ $\text{b. } \text{NaCl}$ $\text{c. } \text{Urea}$ $\text{d. } \text{Glucose}$
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$\text{a, b}$, $\text{b, c}$...
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18093
$\text{Aluminium phosphate is 100 \% ionized in 0.01 m aqueous solution. Hence, } \frac{\Delta T_b}{K_b} \text{ is-}$
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$0.01 \text{ m}$, $0.015 \text{ m}$...
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18092
$\text{The boiling point of } 0.2 \text{ mol kg}^{-1} \text{ solution of X in water is greater than the equimolal solution of Y in water. The correct statement in this case is:}$
2
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$\text{X is undergoing dissociation in water.}$, $\text{Molecular mass of X is greater than the molecular mass of Y.}$...
1
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18091
$\text{At } 100 \, ^\circ\text{C the vapour pressure of a solution of } 6.5 \, \text{g of a solute in } 100 \, \text{g water is } 732 \, \text{mm. If } K_b = 0.52, \text{ the boiling point of this solution will be:}$
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$100 \, ^\circ\text{C}$, $102 \, ^\circ\text{C}$...
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18090
$\text{Which graph represents the elevation in boiling point?}$
2
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$\text{Graph 1: Boiling point of Solvent Solution}$, $\text{Graph 2: Solution Solvent}$...
1
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18089
$\text{The unit of Ebullioscopic constant is:}$
2
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$\text{K kg mol}^{-1} \text{ or K (molality)}^{-1}$, $\text{mol kg K}^{-1} \text{ or K}^{-1} \text{ (molality)}$...
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18088
$\text{A solution containing } 3.3 \text{ g of a substance in } 125 \text{ g of benzene (b.p. } 80^{\circ} \text{C) boils at } 80.66^{\circ} \text{C. If } K_b \text{ for one litre of benzene is } 3.28^{\circ} \text{C m}^{-1}, \text{ the molecular weight of the substance shall be -}$
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$127.20 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$, $131.20 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$...
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18087
$\text{A solution that has the highest boiling point among the following is:}$
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$1.0 \text{ M NaOH}$, $1.0 \text{ M Na}_2\text{SO}_4$...
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18086
$1.00 \text{ g of non-electrolyte solute (molar mass } 250 \text{ g mol}^{-1}) \text{ was dissolved in } 51.2 \text{ g of benzene. If the freezing point depression constant, } K_f \text{ of benzene is } 5.12 \text{ mol}^{-1} \text{ kg K, the freezing point of benzene will be lowered by:}$
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$0.4 \text{ K}$, $0.3 \text{ K}$...
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18085
$\text{The mole(s) of } \text{K}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ to be dissolved in 12 moles of water to lower its vapor pressure by 10 mm of Hg at a temperature at which vapor pressure of pure water is 50 mm of Hg is:}$
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$3 \text{ mol}$, $0.5 \text{ mol}$...
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18084
$\text{The mass of a non-volatile solute (molar mass 40 g mol}^{-1}\text{) that should be dissolved in 114 g octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80 \% would be:}$
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$6 \text{ g}$, $7 \text{ g}$...
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18083
$\text{A solution containing 30 g of non-volatile solute in 90 g of water has a vapour}$ $\text{pressure of 2.8 kPa at 298 K. Further, 18 g of water is then added to the}$ $\text{solution and the new vapour pressure becomes 2.9 kPa at 298 K.}$ $\text{The molar mass of the solute will be -}$
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$23 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$, $34 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$...
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18082
$\text{Benzene and toluene form an ideal solution over the entire range of composition. The vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene at 300 K are } 50.71 \text{ mm Hg and } 32.06 \text{ mm Hg respectively.}$ $\text{The mole fraction of benzene in vapour phase, if 80 g of benzene is mixed with 100 g of toluene, would be:}$
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0.41, 0.68...
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18081
$\text{If 8 g of a non-electrolyte solute is dissolved in 114 g of n-octane to reduce its vapor pressure to 80\%, the molar mass (in g mol}^{-1}\text{) of the solute is:}$ $[\text{Molar mass of n-octane is 114 g mol}^{-1}]$
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$40$, $60$...
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18080
$\text{The equal weight of a solute is dissolved in an equal weight of two solvents A and B to form a very dilute solution.}$ $\text{The relative lowering of vapour pressure for solution B has twice the relative lowering of vapour pressure for solution A.}$ $\text{If } M_A \text{ and } M_B \text{ are the molecular weights of solvents A and B respectively, then:}$
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$M_A = M_B$, $M_B = 2M_A$...
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18079
$\text{Total vapour pressure of a mixture of 1 mol A } (p_A^\circ = 150 \text{ torr}) \text{ and 2 mol B } (p_B^\circ = 240 \text{ torr}) \text{ is 200 torr. In this case:-}$ $1. \text{ There is a positive deviation from Raoult's law}$ $2. \text{ There is a negative deviation from Raoult's law}$ $3. \text{ There is no deviation from Raoult's law}$ $4. \text{ None of these}$
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$\text{There is a positive deviation from Raoult's law}$, $\text{There is a negative deviation from Raoult's law}$...
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18078
$\text{An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. The vapour pressure of the solution can be increased by:}$ $1. \text{ Addition of NaCl}$ $2. \text{ Addition of Na}_2\text{SO}_4$ $3. \text{ Addition of 1.00 molal KI}$ $4. \text{ Addition of water}$
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$\text{Addition of NaCl}$, $\text{Addition of Na}_2\text{SO}_4$...
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18077
$\text{Lowering in vapour pressure is the highest for:}$ $1.\ 0.2\ \text{m urea}$ $2.\ 0.1\ \text{m glucose}$ $3.\ 0.1\ \text{m MgSO}_4$ $4.\ 0.1\ \text{m BaCl}_2$
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$0.2\ \text{m urea}$, $0.1\ \text{m glucose}$...
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18076
$\text{The Vapour pressure of CCl}_4 \text{ at } 25^\circ\text{C is } 143 \text{ mm Hg. } 0.5 \text{ g of a non-volatile solute (mol. wt. 65) is dissolved in } 100 \text{ ml of CCl}_4. \text{ The vapor pressure of the solution is-}$ $\text{(Density of CCl}_4 = 1.58 \text{ g/cm}^3)}$
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$141.93 \text{ mm Hg}$, $94.39 \text{ mm Hg}$...
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18075
$\text{The vapour pressure of a pure liquid solvent A is } 0.80 \text{ atm.}$ $\text{When a non-volatile substance B is added to the solvent, its vapour pressure drops to } 0.60 \text{ atm.}$ $\text{Mole fraction of the component B in the solution is:}$
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$0.50$, $0.75$...
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18074
$\text{The relative lowering of vapour caused by dissolving 71.3 g of a substance in 1000 g of water is } 7.13 \times 10^{-3}. \text{ The molecular mass of the substance is-}$
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$180 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$, $18 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$...
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18073
$\text{The vapour pressure of 1 molal solution of a non-volatile solute in water at 300 K would be:}$ $\text{(The vapour pressure of water at 300 K = 12.3 kPa)}$
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$21.08 \text{ kPa}$, $12.08 \text{ kPa}$...
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18072
$\text{The vapour pressure of water in the solution having 50 g of urea dissolved in 850 g of water is-}$ $\text{(Vapor pressure of pure water at 298 K is 23.8 mm Hg)}$
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$23.40 \text{ mm of Hg}$, $33.46 \text{ mm of Hg}$...
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18071
$\text{The largest freezing point depression among the following 0.10 m solutions is shown by:}$
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$\text{KCl}$, $\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6$...
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18070
$100 \text{ g of liquid A (molar mass } 140 \text{ g mol}^{-1}) \text{ was dissolved in } 1000 \text{ g of liquid B (molar mass } 180 \text{ g mol}^{-1}).$ $\text{The vapour pressure of pure liquid B was found to be } 500 \text{ torr.}$ $\text{If the total vapour pressure of the solution is } 475 \text{ torr, the vapour pressure of pure liquid A will be:}$
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$326 \text{ torr}$, $226 \text{ torr}$...
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18069
$\text{Heptane and octane form an ideal solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressures of the two liquid components are 105.2 kPa and 46.8 kPa respectively. The vapour pressure of a mixture of 26.0 g of heptane and 35 g of octane would be:}$
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$43.45 \text{ kPa}$, $78.96 \text{ Pa}$...
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18068
$\text{Points A and B in the below-mentioned graph represent, respectively:}$
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$\text{Partial pressures of first and second components}$, $\text{Vapour pressures of the pure second and first components}$...
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18067
$\text{The mixture that shows positive deviation from Raoult's law is-}$
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$\text{Benzene + Toluene}$, $\text{Acetone + Chloroform}$...
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18066
$\text{The law represented by given graph is -}$
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$\text{Henry's law}$, $\text{Raoult's law}$...
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18065
$\text{A solution of acetone in ethanol:}$ $1. \text{ Shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law.}$ $2. \text{ Shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law.}$ $3. \text{ Behaves like a near ideal solution.}$ $4. \text{ Obeys Raoult's law.}$
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$\text{Shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law.}$, $\text{Shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law.}$...
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18064
$\text{For an ideal solution, the correct option is:}$ $1. \Delta_{\text{mix}} G = 0 \text{ at constant T and P}$ $2. \Delta_{\text{mix}} S = 0 \text{ at constant T and P}$ $3. \Delta_{\text{mix}} V \neq 0 \text{ at constant T and P}$ $4. \Delta_{\text{mix}} H = 0 \text{ at constant T and P}$
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$\Delta_{\text{mix}} G = 0 \text{ at constant T and P}$, $\Delta_{\text{mix}} S = 0 \text{ at constant T and P}$...
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18063
$\text{For a binary ideal liquid solution, the curve that represents the variation in total vapor pressure versus composition of the solution is:}$
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$\text{a and b}$, $\text{b and c}$...
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18062
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following for an ideal solution is:}$ $1. \, \Delta H_{\text{Mix}} = 0$ $2. \, \Delta U_{\text{Mix}} = 0$ $3. \, \Delta P = P_{\text{obs.}} - P_{\text{(Calculated by Raoult's law)}} = 0$ $4. \, \Delta G_{\text{Mix}} = 0$
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$\Delta H_{\text{Mix}} = 0$, $\Delta U_{\text{Mix}} = 0$...
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18061
$\text{Which graph represents the positive deviation of vapor pressure?}$
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$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
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18060
$\text{The positive deviations from Raoult's law mean the vapour pressure is:}$
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$\text{Higher than expected.}$, $\text{Lower than expected.}$...
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18059
$\text{The type of molecular interactions in a solution of alcohol and water is:}$
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$\text{Electrostatic interaction}$, $\text{London dispersion forces}$...
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18058
$\text{The correct statement regarding a solution of two components A and B exhibiting positive deviation from ideal behaviour is:}$
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$\text{Intermolecular attractive force between A-A and B-B are stronger than those between A-B}$, $\Delta_{\text{mix}}H = 0 \text{ at constant T and P}$...
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18057
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): } \text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{I and C}_2\text{H}_5\text{Br form an ideal solution.}$ $\text{Reason (R): } \text{The interaction between the components are similar to those in the pure components.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
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18056
$\text{If partial pressure of oxygen is } 0.5 \text{ atm and } K_H = 1.4 \times 10^{-3} \text{ M/atm, then the amount of oxygen dissolved in } 100 \text{ ml water at } 298 \text{K is-}$
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$22.4 \text{ mg}$, $22.4 \text{ g}$...
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18055
$\text{The vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene are 160 and 60 torr respectively. The mole fraction of toluene in vapour phase in contact with an equimolar solution of benzene and toluene is -}$
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$0.50$, $0.6$...
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18054
$\text{An aqueous solution of } 2\% \text{ (w/w) non-volatile solute exerts a pressure of } 1.004 \text{ bar at the normal boiling point of the solvent. Molar mass of the solute would be:}$
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$23.69 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$, $41.35 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$...
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18053
$\text{The solubility of } \text{H}_2\text{S} \text{ in water at STP is } 0.195 \text{ m. The value of Henry's constant is-}$
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$274 \text{ atm}$, $285 \text{ atm}$...
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18052
$\text{The Henry's law constant for the solubility of } \text{N}_2 \text{ gas in water at } 298 \text{ K is } 1.0 \times 10^5 \text{ atm.}$ $\text{The mole fraction of } \text{N}_2 \text{ in air is } 0.8. \text{ The number of moles of } \text{N}_2 \text{ formed from air dissolved in } 10 \text{ moles of water at } 298 \text{ K and } 5 \text{ atm pressure is-}$
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$4.0 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol}$, $4.0 \times 10^{-5} \text{ mol}$...
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18051
$\text{The density of } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ solution is } 1.84 \text{ g ml}^{-1}. \text{ In a 1 litre solution if } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ is } 93 \% \text{ by (w/v) then the molality of the solution is -}$
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$9.42 \text{ m}$, $10.42 \text{ m}$...
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18050
$\text{A solution is obtained by mixing } 300 \text{ g of } 25 \% \text{ solution and } 400 \text{ g of } 40 \% \text{ solution by mass. The mass percentage of solute in the resulting solution is:}$
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$33.5 \%$, $36.5 \%$...
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18049
$\text{The value of Henry's constant } K_H:$
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$\text{Increases with an increase in temperature.}$, $\text{Decreases with an increase in temperature.}$...
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18048
$\text{A drinking water sample was found to be contaminated with chloroform at a level of } 15 \text{ ppm (by mass). What is the mass percent of chloroform in the sample?}$
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$15 \times 10^{-4}$, $1.5 \times 10^{-4}$...
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18047
$4 \text{ L of } 0.02 \text{ M aqueous solution of } \text{NaCl} \text{ was diluted by adding } 1 \text{ L of water. The molarity of the resultant solution is:}$
2
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$0.004 \text{ M}$, $0.008 \text{ M}$...
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18046
$\text{If 22 g of benzene is dissolved in 122 g of CCl}_4, \text{ the mass percentage of CCl}_4$ $\text{and benzene respectively are-}$
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Recommended Questions
$15.28\ \%, 84.72\ \%$, $84.72\ \%, 15.28\ \%$...
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18045
$\text{If the density of lake water is } 1.25 \text{ g mL}^{-1} \text{ and contains } 92 \text{ g of Na}^+ \text{ ions per kg of water, then the molality of Na}^+ \text{ ions will be:}$
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$3.24 \text{ molal}$, $4 \text{ molal}$...
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18044
$\text{The density of 68\% nitric acid by mass in an aqueous solution is 1.504 g mL}^{-1}. \text{ The molarity of the acid solution would be:}$
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$15.24 \text{ M}$, $16.23 \text{ M}$...
2
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18043
$\text{The feeling of weakness and discomfort in breathing at high altitudes is based on-}$
2
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$\text{Boyle's law}$, $\text{Charles's law}$...
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18042
$\text{A solution of glucose (M.W = 180 g mol}^{-1}\text{) in water is 10 \% w/w. The mole fraction of each component in the solution is:}$
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$\text{Mole fraction of glucose - 0.44; mole fraction of water - 0.56}$, $\text{Mole fraction of glucose - 0.056; mole fraction of water - 0.944}$...
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18041
$\text{The partial pressure of ethane over a solution containing } 6.56 \times 10^{-2} \text{ g of ethane is } 1 \text{ bar.}$ $\text{If the solution contains } 5.00 \times 10^{-2} \text{ g of ethane, the partial pressure of the gas will be:}$
2
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$0.66 \text{ bar}$, $0.96 \text{ bar}$...
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18040
$\text{Amount of oxalic acid } ((\text{COOH})_2 \cdot 2\text{H}_2\text{O}) \text{ in grams that is required to obtain } 250 \text{ ml of a semi-molar solution is -}$
2
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$17.75 \text{ g}$, $17.00 \text{ g}$...
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18039
$\text{A 500 g toothpaste sample has 0.4 g fluoride concentration. The fluoride concentration in terms of ppm will be -}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$200 \text{ ppm}$, $400 \text{ ppm}$...
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18038
$\text{The amount of benzoic acid (C}_6\text{H}_5\text{COOH) required for preparing 250 mL of 0.15 M solution in methanol is:}$
2
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$4.57 \text{ g}$, $3.57 \text{ g}$...
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18037
$\text{The unit that relates concentration of solution with its vapour pressure is:}$ $1. \text{Mole fraction.}$ $2. \text{Parts per million.}$ $3. \text{Mass percentage.}$ $4. \text{Molality.}$
2
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$\text{Mole fraction.}$, $\text{Parts per million.}$...
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18036
$\text{Henry's law constant for the solution of methane in benzene at 298 K is } 4.27 \times 10^5 \text{ mm Hg. The mole fraction of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg will be:}$
2
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$1.85 \times 10^{-5}$, $192 \times 10^{-4}$...
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18035
$\text{The graph representing Henry's law is given below:}$ $\text{The value of the slope will be}$
2
216
Recommended Questions
$4 \times 10^{-4} \text{ torr}$, $5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ torr}$...
3
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18034
$\text{To minimize the painful effects accompanying deep sea diving, oxygen diluted with less soluble helium gas is used as breathing gas by the divers. This is an example of the application of:}$
2
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$\text{Raoult's law}$, $\text{Henry's law}$...
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18033
$\text{What mass of urea is needed to prepare 2.5 kg of a 0.25 m aqueous solution?}$
2
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$73 \text{ g}$, $37 \text{ g}$...
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18032
The molarity of $\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4$ solution that has a density $1.84 \text{ g/cc}$ at $35^\circ \text{C}$ and contains $98\%$ $\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4$ by weight is-
2
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Recommended Questions
1.84 \text{ M}, 81.4 \text{ M}...
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18031
$\text{The mass percentage of aspirin (C}_9\text{H}_8\text{O}_4\text{) in acetonitrile (CH}_3\text{CN) when 6.5 g of C}_9\text{H}_8\text{O}_4\text{ is dissolved in 450 g of CH}_3\text{CN will be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$1.424\%$, $4.424\%$...
1
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18030
$\text{The incorrect formula among the following is:}$ $1. \text{X}_{\text{mole fraction}} = \frac{n_{\text{solute}}}{n_{\text{solution}}}$ $2. \text{Molarity} = \frac{\text{amount of solute (g)}}{\text{volume of solution (mL)}}$ $3. \text{Molality} = \frac{\text{Number of mole of solute}}{\text{amount of solvent (kg)}}$ $4. \text{Mass percentage} = \frac{\text{mass of the component in the solution}}{\text{Total mass of the solution}} \times 100$
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$\text{X}_{\text{mole fraction}} = \frac{n_{\text{solute}}}{n_{\text{solution}}}$, $\text{Molarity} = \frac{\text{amount of solute (g)}}{\text{volume of solution (mL)}}$...
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18029
$\text{The temperature dependent term among the following is -}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Molality}$, $\text{Molarity}$...
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18028
$\text{An antifreeze solution is prepared from } 222.6 \text{ g of ethylene glycol } (\text{C}_2\text{H}_6\text{O}_2) \text{ and } 200 \text{ g of water. The molality of the solution would be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$6.9 \text{ m}$, $17.9 \text{ m}$...
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18027
$\text{Match the terms given in Column I with expressions given in Column II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I (Term)} & \text{Column II (Expression)} \\ \hline \text{A. Mass percentage} & \frac{\text{Mass of the solute component in solution}}{\text{Total Mass of solution}} \times 100 \\ \text{B. Volume percentage} & \frac{\text{Volume of the solute component in solution}}{\text{Total volume of solution}} \times 100 \\ \text{C. Molarity} & \frac{\text{Number of moles of the solute component}}{\text{Volume of solution in litres}} \\ \text{D. Molality} & \frac{\text{Number of moles of the solute component}}{\text{Mass of solvent in kilograms}} \\ \hline \end{array}$
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$1 \ 2 \ 3 \ 4$, $2 \ 1 \ 3 \ 4$...
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18026
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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18025
$\text{Match the items given in Column I with the type of solutions given in Column II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline \text{A. Soda water} & \text{1. A solution of gas in solid} \\ \text{B. Sugar solution} & \text{2. A solution of gas in liquid} \\ \text{C. German silver} & \text{3. A solution of solid in liquid} \\ \text{D. Hydrogen gas in palladium} & \text{4. A solution of solid in solid} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Codes:}$ $\begin{array}{cccc} & \text{A} & \text{B} & \text{C} & \text{D} \\ 1. & 2 & 1 & 4 & 3 \\ 2. & 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 \\ 3. & 2 & 3 & 4 & 1 \\ 4. & 4 & 1 & 3 & 2 \\ \end{array}$
2
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$2 \ 1 \ 4 \ 3$, $1 \ 2 \ 3 \ 4$...
3
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18024
$\text{A beaker contains a solution of substance 'A'. Precipitation of substance 'A' takes place when a small amount of 'A' is added to the solution. The solution is:}$
2
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$\text{Saturated.}$, $\text{Supersaturated.}$...
2
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18023
$\text{The maximum amount of a solid solute that can be dissolved in a specified}$ $\text{amount of a given liquid solvent does not depend upon:}$
2
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$\text{Temperature}$, $\text{Nature of solute}$...
3
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18022
$\text{The insoluble compound in water is /are:}$
2
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$\text{Phenol}$, $\text{Formic acid and toluene}$...
4
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18021
$\text{Consider the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1:1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene. The correct statement is:}$ $\text{Assume that the temperature is constant at 25 } ^\circ \text{C.}$ $\text{(Given, vapour pressure data at 25 } ^\circ \text{C, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)}$
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$\text{The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.}$, $\text{The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.}$...
4
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18020
$\text{An aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid -}$ $1. \text{ Obeys Raoult's law}$ $2. \text{ Shows negative deviations from Raoult's law}$ $3. \text{ Shows positive deviations from Raoult's law}$ $4. \text{ Obeys Henry's law at all compositions}$
2
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$\text{Obeys Raoult's law}$, $\text{Shows negative deviations from Raoult's law}$...
2
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18019
$\text{The solubility of a gas in a liquid decreases with an increase in temperature because:}$
2
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$\text{Dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an endothermic process.}$, $\text{Dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an exothermic process.}$...
2
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18018
$\text{Colligative properties are dependent on which of the following factors?}$
2
216
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$\text{The nature of the solute particles dissolved in the solution.}$, $\text{The number of solute particles in the solution.}$...
2
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18017
$\text{The example of gas in a solid type solution is:}$
2
216
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$\text{Solution of hydrogen in palladium.}$, $\text{Ethanol dissolved in water.}$...
1
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18016
$\text{The correct match for the below table is:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Type of solution} & \text{Example} \\ \hline \text{a. Solid in gas} & \text{i. Aerated water} \\ \text{b. Gas in liquid} & \text{ii. Smoke} \\ \text{c. Liquid in solid} & \text{iii. Solution of hydrogen in palladium} \\ \text{d. Gas in solid} & \text{iv. Amalgams} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\begin{array}{cccc} \text{a} & \text{b} & \text{c} & \text{d} \\ 1. & \text{i} & \text{iii} & \text{iv} & \text{ii} \\ 2. & \text{ii} & \text{i} & \text{iv} & \text{iii} \\ 3. & \text{iii} & \text{i} & \text{iv} & \text{ii} \\ 4. & \text{iv} & \text{i} & \text{ii} & \text{iii} \end{array}$
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$\text{i, iii, iv, ii}$, $\text{ii, i, iv, iii}$...
2
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18015
$\text{For an ideal solution, the non-zero value will be for:}$ $1. \Delta H_{\text{mix}}$ $2. \Delta S_{\text{mix}}$ $3. \Delta V_{\text{mix}}$ $4. \Delta P = P_{\text{observed}} - P_{\text{Raoult}}$
2
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$\Delta H_{\text{mix}}$, $\Delta S_{\text{mix}}$...
2
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18014
$\text{A solution containing } 10 \text{ g/dm}^3 \text{ of urea (molecular mass = } 60 \text{ g mol}^{-1}) \text{ is isotonic with a } 5\% \text{ solution of a non-volatile solute. The molecular mass of this non-volatile solute is:}$
2
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$25 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$, $300 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$...
2
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18013
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Ferromagnetic solids become paramagnetic upon heating.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Unpaired electrons starts pairing upon heating.}$
2
215
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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18012
$\text{The magnetic substances that have lesser magnetic moment than expected is known as -}$
2
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$\text{Paramagnetic.}$, $\text{Ferrimagnetic.}$...
2
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18011
$\text{The phenomenon in which polar crystals on heating produce electricity is called:}$
2
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$\text{Pyro-electricity.}$, $\text{Piezo-electricity.}$...
1
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18010
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is:}$
2
215
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$\text{Paramagnetic substances are weakly attracted by magnetic field.}$, $\text{Ferromagnetic substances cannot be magnetised permanently.}$...
2
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18009
$\text{Which of the following arrangements shows the schematic alignment of magnetic moments of antiferromagnetic substances?}$
2
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$\uparrow \uparrow \uparrow \uparrow \uparrow \uparrow$, $\downarrow \downarrow \downarrow \downarrow \downarrow \downarrow$...
4
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18008
$\text{A ferromagnetic substance becomes a permanent magnet when it is placed in a magnetic field because:}$
2
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$\text{All the domains get oriented in the direction of the magnetic field.}$, $\text{All the domains get oriented in the direction opposite to the direction of the magnetic field.}$...
1
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18007
$\text{The electrical conductivity of semiconductors increases with a rise in temperature because:}$
2
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$\text{Electrons jump from the valence band to the conduction band.}$, $\text{Electrons jump from the conduction band to the valence band.}$...
1
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18006
$\text{Consider the following statements about semiconductors.}$ $\text{I. Silicon doped with electron-rich impurity is a p-type semiconductor.}$ $\text{II. Silicon doped with an electron-rich impurity is an n-type semiconductor.}$ $\text{III. Delocalised electrons increase the conductivity of doped silicon.}$ $\text{IV. An electron vacancy increases the conductivity of n-type semiconductor.}$ $\text{The correct statements about semiconductors are:}$
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$\text{I and II}$, $\text{II and III}$...
2
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18005
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{Semiconductors are solids with conductivities in the range from } 10^{-6} - 10^{4} \text{ ohm}^{-1} \text{ m}^{-1}. $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{Intermediate conductivity in semiconductors is due to a partially filled valence band.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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18004
$\text{I. Mg(s)}$ $\text{II. TiO(s)}$ $\text{III. I}_2\text{(s)}$ $\text{IV. H}_2\text{O(s)}$ $\text{The insulator among the given examples is -}$
2
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$\text{Only I}$, $\text{Only II}$...
3
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18003
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is -}$
2
215
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$\text{Density decreases in case of crystals with Schottky's defect.}$, $\text{NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor, silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric crystal.}$...
4
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18002
$\text{Chargewise p-type semiconductor is -}$
2
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$\text{Positive.}$, $\text{Neutral.}$...
2
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18001
$\text{If an element (at. Wt. = 50) crystallises in fcc lattice, with } a = 0.50 \text{ nm, then the density of unit cell if it contains } 0.25 \% \text{ Schottky defect is -}$ $\text{(Use } N_A = 6 \times 10^{23}\text{)}$
2
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$2.0 \text{ g/cc}$, $2.66 \text{ g/cc}$...
2
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18000
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): LiCl shows pink colour when heated in presence of lithium vapours.}$ $\text{Reason (R): LiCl shows Frenkel defect.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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17999
$(i) \ \text{Ge is doped with In}$ $(ii) \ \text{Si is doped with B.}$ $\text{The semiconductors formed in the above cases are:}$
2
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$(i) \ \text{n-type semiconductor} \ (ii) \ \text{p-type semiconductor}$, $(i) \ \text{p-type semiconductor} \ (ii) \ \text{n-type semiconductor}$...
3
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17998
$\text{Correct statement among the following regarding conductivity in solids is -}$
2
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$\kappa_{\text{metals}} \gg \kappa_{\text{insulators}} < \kappa_{\text{semiconductors}}$, $\kappa_{\text{metals}} \ll \kappa_{\text{insulators}} < \kappa_{\text{semiconductors}}$...
1
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17997
$\text{Doping causes-}$ $1. \text{Dislocation defect.}$ $2. \text{Schottky defect.}$ $3. \text{Frenkel defect.}$ $4. \text{Electronic defect.}$
2
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$\text{Dislocation defect.}$, $\text{Schottky defect.}$...
4
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17996
$\text{Match the types of defects given in Column I with the statement given in Column II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline \text{A. Impurity defect} & \text{1. NaCl with anionic sites called F-centres} \\ \text{B. Metal excess defect} & \text{2. FeO with Fe}^{3+} \\ \text{C. Metal deficiency defect} & \text{3. NaCl with Sr}^{2+} \text{ and some cationic sites vacant} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Codes}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline & \text{A} & \text{B} & \text{C} \\ \hline 1. & 2 & 3 & 1 \\ 2. & 3 & 1 & 2 \\ 3. & 1 & 2 & 3 \\ 4. & 2 & 1 & 3 \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
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$2 \ 3 \ 1$, $3 \ 1 \ 2$...
2
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17995
$\text{Silicon gives p-type of semiconductor on doping with:}$
2
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$\text{Germanium.}$, $\text{Arsenic.}$...
4
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17994
$\text{The crystal with a metal deficiency defect is -}$
2
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$\text{NaCl}$, $\text{FeO}$...
2
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17993
$\text{Dislocation defect is also known as-}$
2
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$\text{Frenkel defect.}$, $\text{Schottky defect.}$...
1
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17992
$\text{The correct statement regarding defects in a crystalline solid is:}$
2
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$\text{Schottky defects have no effect on the density of crystalline solids.}$, $\text{Frenkel defects decrease the density of crystalline solids.}$...
3
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17991
$\text{To get a n-type semiconductor from silicon, it should be doped with a substance with valency -}$
2
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$2$, $1$...
4
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17990
$\text{Match the defects given in Column I with the statements given in Column II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline \text{A. Simple vacancy defect} & \text{1. Shown by non-ionic solids and increases the density of the solid} \\ \text{B. Simple interstitial defect} & \text{2. Shown by ionic solids and decreases the density of the solid} \\ \text{C. Frenkel defect} & \text{3. Shown by non-ionic solids and decreases the density of the solid} \\ \text{D. Schottky defect} & \text{4. Shown by ionic solids and density of the solid remains the same} \\ \hline \end{array}$
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$\begin{array}{cccc} 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 \\ \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{cccc} 1 & 4 & 3 & 2 \\ \end{array}$...
1
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17989
$\text{Higher conductivity of p-type and n-type semiconductors is due to:}$
2
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$\text{Increase in the number of positive holes and mobile electrons respectively.}$, $\text{Increase in the number of electrons in both types of semiconductors.}$...
1
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17988
$\text{A defect that has an equal number of missing cations and anions is:}$
2
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$\text{Schottky defect.}$, $\text{Frenkel defect.}$...
1
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17987
$\text{The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to:}$
2
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$\text{F-centres.}$, $\text{Schottky defect.}$...
1
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17986
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{Due to Frenkel defect, the density of the crystalline solid decreases.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{In Frenkel defect cation and anion leave the crystal.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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17985
$\text{Silicon doped with electron rich impurity forms -}$ $1.\ \text{p-type semiconductor.}$ $2.\ \text{n-type semiconductor.}$ $3.\ \text{Intrinsic semiconductor.}$ $4.\ \text{Insulator.}$
2
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$\text{p-type semiconductor.}$, $\text{n-type semiconductor.}$...
2
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17984
$\text{Schottky defect occurs mainly in electrovalent compounds where:}$ $1. \text{ Positive ions have large sizes.}$ $2. \text{ Negative ions have small sizes.}$ $3. \text{ Positive and negative ions are of similar size.}$ $4. \text{ Positive ions are big and negative ions are small.}$
2
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$\text{Positive ions have large sizes.}$, $\text{Negative ions have small sizes.}$...
3
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17983
$\text{Match the items given in Column I with the items given in Column II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline \text{A. Mg in solid state} & \text{1. } p\text{-type semiconductor} \\ \text{B. MgCl}_2 \text{ in molten state} & \text{2. } n\text{-type semiconductor} \\ \text{C. Silicon with phosphorus} & \text{3. Electrolytic conductors} \\ \text{D. Germanium with boron} & \text{4. Electronic conductors} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Codes}$ $\begin{array}{cccc} \text{A} & \text{B} & \text{C} & \text{D} \\ 1. & 2 & 3 & 4 & 1 \\ 2. & 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 \\ 3. & 1 & 4 & 3 & 2 \\ 4. & 4 & 3 & 2 & 1 \\ \end{array}$
2
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$1 \ (4\%)$, $2 \ (5\%)$...
4
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17982
$\text{NaCl is doped with } 10^{-3} \text{ mol \% of SrCl}_2. \text{ The number of cation vacancies post doping would be -}$
2
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$4.022 \times 10^8$, $5.022 \times 10^{18}$...
3
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17981
$\text{Schottky defect is observed in crystals when:}$
2
215
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$\text{Some cations move from their lattice site to interstitial sites.}$, $\text{Equal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice.}$...
2
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17980
$\text{A compound that shows Schottky as well as Frenkel defect among the following is -}$
2
215
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$\text{ZnS}$, $\text{AgBr}$...
2
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17979
$\text{The correct statement among the following is -}$
2
215
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$\text{Semiconductors have a small energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band.}$, $\text{Conductors have overlapped valence band and conduction band.}$...
4
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17978
$\text{The number of octahedral void(s) per atom present in a cubic close-packed structure is:}$
2
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$1$, $3$...
1
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17977
$\text{A compound is formed by cation C and anion A. The anions form hexagonal close packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy 75 \% of octahedral voids.}$ $\text{The formula of the compound is:}$
2
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$\text{C}_3\text{A}_4$, $\text{C}_2\text{A}_3$...
1
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17976
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Total number of octahedral voids present in the unit cell of cubic close packing including the one that is present at the body center, is four.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Besides the body center there is one octahedral void present at the center of each of the six faces of the unit cell and each of which is shared between two adjacent unit cells.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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17975
$\text{A compound forms a hexagonal close-packed structure. The total number of voids in } 0.5 \text{ moles}$ $\text{of the compound will be -}$
2
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$9.033 \times 10^{23}$, $3.011 \times 10^{23}$...
1
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17974
$\text{In which of the following crystals are alternate tetrahedral voids occupied:}$
2
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$\text{NaCl}$, $\text{ZnS}$...
2
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17973
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): In an hcp structure, each sphere is surrounded by eight other spheres.}$ $\text{Reason (R): ABC, ABC ................................ represents hcp structure.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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17972
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is:}$
2
215
Recommended Questions
$\text{The fraction of the total volume occupied by the atoms in a primitive cell is 0.48.}$, $\text{Molecular solids are generally volatile.}$...
1
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17971
$\text{In a cubic close-packed structure, the coordination number of atoms is -}$
2
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$12$, $8$...
1
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17970
$\text{Match the type of packing given in Column I with the items given in Column II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column I} & \text{Column II} \\ \hline \text{A. Square close packing in two dimensions} & \text{1. Triangular voids} \\ \text{B. Hexagonal close packing in two dimensions} & \text{2. Pattern of spheres is repeated in every fourth layer} \\ \text{C. Hexagonal close packing in three dimensions} & \text{3. Coordination number = 4} \\ \text{D. Cubic close packing in three dimensions} & \text{4. Pattern of sphere is repeated in alternate layers} \\ \hline \end{array}$
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$\begin{array}{cccc} 3 & 2 & 4 & 1 \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{cccc} 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 \end{array}$...
3
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17969
$\text{Total volume of atoms present in a face centred cubic unit cell of a metal is -}$ $\text{(r is atomic radius)}$
2
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$\frac{20}{3} \pi r^3$, $\frac{24}{3} \pi r^3$...
4
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17968
$\text{In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the coordination numbers for calcium ion (Ca}^{2+}\text{) and fluoride ion (F}^-\text{) are:}$ $1.\ 4\ \text{and}\ 2$ $2.\ 6\ \text{and}\ 6$ $3.\ 8\ \text{and}\ 4$ $4.\ 4\ \text{and}\ 8$
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$4\ \text{and}\ 2$, $6\ \text{and}\ 6$...
3
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17967
$\text{The ionic radii of A}^+ \text{ and B}^- \text{ ions are } 0.98 \times 10^{-10} \text{ m and } 1.81 \times 10^{-10} \text{ m. The coordination number of each ion in AB is:}$
2
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$8$, $2$...
3
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17966
$\text{A ferric oxide crystallizes in a hexagonal close-packed array of oxide ions with two out of every three octahedral holes occupied by ferric ions. The formula of the ferric oxide is-}$
2
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$\text{FeO}$, $\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3$...
2
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17965
$\text{A cubic solid is made of two elements P and Q. Atoms of Q occupy the corners of the cube and P occupy the body centre. The formula of this compound and the coordination number of Q are respectively -}$
2
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$\text{PQ, 8}$, $\text{P}_2\text{Q, 8}$...
1
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17964
$\text{A compound is formed by two elements M and N. The element N forms ccp and atoms of M occupy } \frac{1}{3} \text{rd of tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound would be -}$
2
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$\text{MN}$, $\text{M}_3\text{N}_4$...
3
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17963
$\text{An element crystallizes in a structure having FCC unit cell of an edge length 200 pm. If 200 g of this element contains } 24 \times 10^{23} \text{ atoms, the density of the element is -}$
2
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$50.3 \text{ g/cc}$, $63.4 \text{ g/cc}$...
3
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17962
$\text{Same coordination number for cations and anions is present in:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl}^- \text{ ions form Fcc lattice and Na}^+ \text{ ions occupy all octahedral voids of the unit cell.}$, $\text{Ca}^{2+} \text{ ions form Fcc lattice and F}^- \text{ ions occupy all the eight tetrahedral voids of the unit cell.}$...
1
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17961
$\text{Copper crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice with a unit cell length of } 361 \text{ pm. The radius of the copper atom is:}$ $1. \ 128 \text{ pm}$ $2. \ 157 \text{ pm}$ $3. \ 181 \text{ pm}$ $4. \ 108 \text{ pm}$
2
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$128 \text{ pm}$, $157 \text{ pm}$...
1
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17960
$\text{In a face centred cubic lattice, atom A occupies the corner positions and atom B occupies the face centre positions. If one atom of B is missing from one of the face centred points, the formula of the compound is -}$
2
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$\text{AB}_2$, $\text{A}_2\text{B}_3$...
3
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17959
$\text{If Xenon crystallizes in face center cubic lattice and the edge of the unit cell is } 620 \text{ pm, then the radius of the Xenon atom is-}$
2
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$219.20 \text{ pm}$, $438.5 \text{ pm}$...
1
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17958
$\text{The edge lengths of the unit cells in terms of the radius of spheres constituting}$ $\text{fcc, bcc, and simple cubic unit cells are respectively -}$
2
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$2\sqrt{2}r, \frac{4r}{\sqrt{3}}, 2r$, $\frac{4r}{\sqrt{3}}, 2\sqrt{2}r, 2r$...
1
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17957
$\text{The total number of tetrahedral voids in the face centered unit cell is -}$
2
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$6$, $8$...
2
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17956
$\text{An ionic compound has a unit cell consisting of A ions at the corners of a cube and B ions on the centers of the faces of the cube. The empirical formula for this compound would be:}$
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$\text{AB}$, $\text{A}_2\text{B}$...
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17955
$\text{In a cubic unit cell, atom A is present at each corner, atom B at each face centre and atom C at the body centre. The simplest formula of the solid is:}$
2
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$\text{AB}_2\text{C}$, $\text{A}_2\text{BC}$...
3
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17954
$\text{If 'a' stands for the edge length of the cubic systems: simple cubic, body-centered cubic, and face-centered cubic, then the ratio of radii of the spheres in these systems will be respectively:}$
2
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$\frac{1}{2}a : \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}a : \frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}a$, $\frac{1}{2}a : \sqrt{3}a : \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}a$...
1
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17953
$\text{The density of KCl is } 1.9893 \text{ g cm}^{-3} \text{ and the length of a side unit cell is } 6.29082 \text{ \AA as determined by X-ray diffraction. The value of Avogadro's number calculated from this data is:}$
2
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$6.017 \times 10^{23}$, $6.023 \times 10^{22}$...
1
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17952
$\text{Oxygen atoms form fcc unit cells with 'A' atoms occupying all tetrahedral voids and 'B' atoms occupying all octahedral voids. If atoms are removed from two of the body diagonals then the formula of the resultant compound formed is:}$
2
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$\text{A}_4\text{B}_4\text{O}_7$, $\text{A}_8\text{B}_6\text{O}_7$...
2
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17951
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The packing efficiency is maximum for the fcc structure.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The coordination number is 12 in fcc structure.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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17950
$\text{Niobium crystallizes in body-centred cubic structure. If the density is } 8.55 \text{ g cm}^{-3}, \text{ the atomic radius of niobium (atomic mass 93 u) is -}$
2
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$13.32 \text{ nm}$, $12.32 \text{ nm}$...
3
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17949
$\text{Copper crystallizes into an fcc lattice with an edge length of } 3.61 \times 10^{-8} \text{ cm.}$ $\text{The density of copper crystal will be -}$
2
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$7.46 \text{ g cm}^{-3}$, $9.67 \text{ g cm}^{-3}$...
3
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17948
$\text{A metallic element exists as a cubic lattice. Each edge of the unit cell is } 2.88 \, \text{Å}. \text{ The density of the metal is } 7.20 \, \text{g cm}^{-3}. \text{ The number of unit cells, that will be present in } 100 \, \text{gm of the metal is:}$
2
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$5.82 \times 10^{23}$, $16.33 \times 10^{23}$...
1
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17947
$\text{Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above } 900 \, ^\circ \text{C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at } 900 \, ^\circ \text{C is:}$ $\text{(Molar mass and atomic radii of iron remain constant with temperature)}$
2
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$\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}$, $\frac{4\sqrt{3}}{3\sqrt{2}}$...
3
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17946
$\text{Lithium borohydride (LiBH}_4\text{), crystallizes in an orthorhombic system with 4 molecules per unit cell. The unit cell dimensions are:}$ $a = 6.81 \, \text{\AA}, \ b = 4.43 \, \text{\AA}, \ c = 7.17 \, \text{\AA}. \text{If the molar mass of LiBH}_4 \text{ is } 21.76 \, \text{g mol}^{-1}, \text{ then the density of the crystal is:}$
2
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$0.67 \, \text{g cm}^{-3}$, $0.58 \, \text{g cm}^{-3}$...
1
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17945
$\text{Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is } 530 \text{ kg m}^{-3} \text{ and its atomic mass is } 6.94 \text{ g mol}^{-1}. \text{ The edge length of a unit cell of lithium metal is: } (N_A = 6.02 \times 10^{23} \text{ mol}^{-1})$
2
215
Recommended Questions
$352 \text{ pm}$, $527 \text{ pm}$...
1
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17944
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following regarding hexagonal close packing is:}$
2
215
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$\text{The coordination number is 12.}$, $\text{It has 74\% packing efficiency.}$...
4
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17943
$\text{If NaCl is doped with } 10^{-5} \text{ mol\% of } \text{SrCl}_2, \text{ the number of cation vacancies will be -}$
2
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$6.02 \times 10^{16}$, $6.02 \times 10^{18}$...
1
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17942
$\text{Sodium has body-centered packing. The distance between the two nearest atoms is } 3.7 \, \text{Å. The lattice parameter is:}$
2
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$6.8 \, \text{Å}$, $4.3 \, \text{Å}$...
2
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17941
$\text{A solid has a bcc structure. If the distance of closest approach between the two atoms is } 1.73 \, \text{Å, then the edge length of the cell is:}$
2
215
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$200 \, \text{pm}$, $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}} \, \text{pm}$...
1
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17940
$\text{In a compound, atoms of element Y form ccp lattice, and those of element X occupy } \frac{2}{3} \text{rd of tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound will be :-}$
2
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$\text{X}_3\text{Y}_4$, $\text{X}_4\text{Y}_3$...
2
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17939
$\text{An element occurring in the bcc structure has } 12.08 \times 10^{23} \text{ unit cells.}$ $\text{The total number of atoms of the element in these cells will be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$24.16 \times 10^{23}$, $36.18 \times 10^{23}$...
1
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17938
$\text{Ice crystallizes in a hexagonal lattice having the volume of the unit cell as } 132 \times 10^{-24} \text{ cm}^3. \text{ If the density is } 0.92 \text{ g/cm}^3 \text{ at a given temperature, then the number of } \text{H}_2\text{O} \text{ molecules per unit cell is:}$
2
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$1$, $2$...
4
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17937
$\text{A metal crystallizes with a fcc lattice. The edge of the unit cell is 408 pm. The diameter of the metal atom is:}$
2
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$288 \text{ pm}$, $408 \text{ pm}$...
1
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17936
$\text{Iron has a body centred cubic unit cell with the cell dimension of } 286.65 \text{ pm.}$ $\text{Density of iron is } 7.87 \text{ g cm}^{-3}. \text{ The value of Avogadro's number based on this data will be -}$ $\text{(Atomic mass of Fe = 56.0 u)}$
2
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$6.04 \times 10^{23} \text{ mol}^{-1}$, $12.08 \times 10^{24} \text{ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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17935
$\text{The anions (A) form hexagonal closest packing and atoms (C) occupy only } \frac{2}{3} \text{ of octahedral voids in it. The general formula of the compound is-}$
2
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$\text{CA}$, $\text{CA}_2$...
3
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17934
$\text{An element (atomic mass = 100 g/mole) having a BCC structure has a unit cell edge of 400 pm. The density of the element is:}$
2
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$2.14 \text{ g/cm}^3$, $5.20 \text{ g/cm}^3$...
2
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17933
$\text{If the lattice parameter for a crystalline structure is } 3.6 \, \text{Å, then the atomic radius in fcc crystal is:}$
2
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$1.81 \, \text{Å}$, $2.10 \, \text{Å}$...
4
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17932
$\text{A metal has a fcc lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is 2.72 g cm}^{-3}\text{. The molar mass of the metal is:}$ $\left( N_A \text{ Avogadro's constant} = 6.02 \times 10^{23} \text{ mol}^{-1} \right)$
2
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$30 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$, $27 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$...
2
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17931
$\text{The formula of nickel oxide with metal deficiency defect in its crystal is } \text{Ni}_{0.98}\text{O}. \text{ The crystal contains } \text{Ni}^{2+} \text{ and } \text{Ni}^{3+} \text{ ions. The fraction of nickel existing as } \text{Ni}^{2+} \text{ ions in the crystal is-}$
2
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$0.96$, $0.04$...
1
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17930
$\text{An element with a molar mass of } 2.7 \times 10^{-2} \text{ kg mol}^{-1} \text{ and density } 2.7 \times 10^{3} \text{ kg m}^{-3} \text{ forms a unit cell with an edge length of } 405 \text{ pm. The type of unit cell is-}$
2
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$\text{Simple cubic cell.}$, $\text{Face-centered cubic cell.}$...
2
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17929
$\text{A given metal crystallizes out with a cubic structure having an edge length of } 361 \text{ pm. If there are four metal atoms in one unit cell, the radius of one atom is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$40 \text{ pm}$, $127 \text{ pm}$...
2
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17928
$\text{An element has a body-centered cubic (BCC) structure with a cell edge of } 288 \text{ pm. The atomic radius is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4} \times 288 \text{ pm}$, $\frac{4}{\sqrt{3}} \times 288 \text{ pm}$...
4
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17927
$\text{The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\pi}{6}$, $\frac{\pi}{3\sqrt{2}}$...
1
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17926
$\text{Silver crystallizes in fcc lattice. If the edge length of the cell is } 4.07 \times 10^{-8} \text{ cm}$ $\text{and density is } 10.5 \text{ g cm}^{-3}, \text{ the atomic mass of silver is -}$
2
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$120.31 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$, $107.9 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$...
2
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17925
$\text{The most efficient packing is present in -}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{HCP and BCC}$, $\text{HCP and CCP}$...
2
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17924
$\text{The relation between the atomic mass of unknown metal with density and the dimension of its unit cell is given by:}$ $\text{(Given: All the cell edge lengths are equal)}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$m = \frac{\rho a^3 N_A}{Z}$, $m = \rho a^3 N_A Z$...
1
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17923
$\text{The packing efficiency of the face-centered cubic unit cell is:}$ $\text{(assuming that the atoms are touching each other)}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$52.40 \%$, $68.04 \%$...
3
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17922
$\text{The correct order of the packing efficiency in different types of unit cells is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Fcc} < \text{Bcc} < \text{Simple cubic}$, $\text{Fcc} > \text{Bcc} > \text{Simple cubic}$...
2
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17921
$\text{The percentage of free space in a body-centered cubic unit cell is:}$
2
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$30\%$, $32\%$...
2
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17920
$\text{CsBr crystallises in a body-centered cubic lattice. The unit cell length is } 436.6 \text{ pm.}$ $\text{Given that the atomic mass of Cs = 133 amu and that of Br = 80 amu}$ $\text{and the Avogadro number being } 6.02 \times 10^{23} \text{ mol}^{-1}, \text{ the density of CsBr is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$42.5 \text{ g/cm}^3$, $0.425 \text{ g/cm}^3$...
4
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17919
$\text{The number of lattice points in one unit cell of face-centred tetragonal lattice is -}$
2
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$4$, $12$...
3
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17918
$\text{Aluminum crystallizes in a cubic close-packed structure. It's metallic radius is } 125 \text{ pm. The number of unit cells in } 1.00 \text{ cm}^3 \text{ of aluminum are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$2.27 \times 10^{22}$, $3.54 \times 10^{22}$...
1
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17917
$\text{TiO}_2$ $\text{is a well-known example of:}$
2
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$\text{Triclinic system.}$, $\text{Tetragonal system.}$...
2
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17916
$\text{Iodine crystals are classified as-}$ $1. \text{Metallic solids.}$ $2. \text{Ionic solids.}$ $3. \text{Molecular solids.}$ $4. \text{Covalent solids.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Metallic solids.}$, $\text{Ionic solids.}$...
3
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17915
$\text{The mass of a unit cell of CsCl corresponds to:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$8\text{Cs}^+ \text{ and Cl}^-$, $1\text{Cs}^+ \text{ and 6Cl}^-$...
3
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17914
$\text{If } a \text{ is the length of the side of a cube, the distance between the body-centered atom and one corner atom in the cube will be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} a$, $\frac{4}{\sqrt{3}} a$...
4
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17913
$\text{AB crystallizes in a body-centred cubic lattice with edge length a equal to 387 pm.}$ $\text{The distance between two oppositely charged ions in the lattice will be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$250 \text{ pm}$, $200 \text{ pm}$...
4
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17912
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Graphite is a good conductor of electricity. However, diamond belongs to the category of insulators.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Graphite is soft in nature whereas diamond is very hard and brittle.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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17911
13
2
215
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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17910
$\text{The pair having only molecular solids among the following is -}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Brass and SiC}$, $\text{Ammonium phosphate (NH}_4\text{)}_3\text{PO}_4$...
4
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17909
$\text{The similarity between metallic and ionic crystals is -}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both these crystal types are held by the electrostatic force of attraction.}$, $\text{Both these crystal types are held by the Van der Waal's forces of attraction.}$...
1
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17908
$\text{An example of amorphous solid among the following is -}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graphite (C)}$, $\text{Quartz glass (SiO}_2\text{)}$...
2
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17907
$\text{Incorrect statement among the following about amorphous solids is -}$
2
215
Recommended Questions
$\text{On heating they may become crystalline at a certain temperature.}$, $\text{They may become crystalline on keeping for a long time.}$...
4
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17906
$\text{The correct statement(s) among the above is -}$ $\text{a. The coordination number of a cation occupying a tetrahedral hole is 4.}$ $\text{b. The coordination number of a cation occupying an octahedral hole is 6.}$ $\text{c. In Schottky defect, the density of the lattice decreases.}$
2
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$\text{a, b}$, $\text{b, c}$...
3
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17905
$\text{The coordination number of a square close-packed structure in two dimensions is -}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$2$, $3$...
3
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17904
$\text{Network solid, among the following, is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{SO}_2(\text{solid})$, $\text{I}_2$...
3
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17903
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following regarding crystalline solid is -}$
2
215
Recommended Questions
$\text{Definite and characteristic heat of fusion.}$, $\text{Isotropic nature.}$...
2
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17902
$\text{Lithium metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic crystal. If the length of the side of the unit cell of lithium is } 351 \text{ pm, the atomic radius of the lithium will be:}$
2
215
Recommended Questions
$240.8 \text{ pm}$, $151.8 \text{ pm}$...
2
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17901
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{The stability of a crystal is reflected by the magnitude of its melting point.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{Greater the intermolecular forces of attraction, the higher will be the stability and melting point of the substance.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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17900
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The total number of atoms present in a simple cubic unit cell is one.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Simple cubic unit cell has atoms at its corners, each of which is shared between eight adjacent unit cells.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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17899
$\text{The unit cell dimensions of a cubic lattice (edges } a, b, c \text{ and the angles between them, } \alpha, \beta, \gamma \text{) are:}$
2
215
Recommended Questions
$a = b = c, \alpha = \beta = \gamma = 90^\circ$, $a = b \neq c, \alpha = \beta = \gamma = 90^\circ$...
1
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17898
$\text{The chemical that is an excellent ‘green’ solvent as well as a greenhouse gas is:}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Methanol}$, $\text{CFCs}$...
4
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17897
$\text{The best alternative of tetrachloroethane for dry cleaning is-}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Liquified CO}_2 \text{ along with suitable detergent.}$, $\text{Liquified CO}_2 \text{ along with suitable oil.}$...
1
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17896
$\text{The practice that does not come under green chemistry among the following is-}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Making use of soap made of vegetable oils instead of using synthetic detergents.}$, $\text{Using } \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ for bleaching purposes instead of using chlorine-based bleaching agents.}$...
4
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17895
$\text{Green chemistry means such reactions that:}$
2
214
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$\text{Produce colour during reactions}$, $\text{Reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals.}$...
2
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17894
$\text{The correct statement(s) regarding green chemistry is/are:}$
2
214
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$\text{It helps in decreasing environmental pollution.}$, $\text{It prevents or limits chemical pollutants from being introduced into the environment.}$...
4
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17893
$\text{Domestic waste will lead to:}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Biodegradable pollution}$, $\text{Nondegradable pollution}$...
1
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17892
$\text{The major source(s) of soil pollution is/are:}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Industrial waste.}$, $\text{Fertilizers and pesticides.}$...
4
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17891
$\text{The correct statement about domestic waste is:}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Only biodegradable domestic waste can be used as manure.}$, $\text{Non-biodegradable waste should be sent to industries for recycling.}$...
4
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17890
$\text{The example(s) of pesticide is/are-}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Aldrin}$, $\text{Sodium chlorate}$...
4
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17889
$\text{What is the process involved for a good produce in the treatment of bad odour, flies, and recycling of waste?}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{It should be kept covered.}$, $\text{The recyclable waste should not be dumped in the compost-producing pit.}$...
4
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17888
$\text{Soil erosion can be prevented by:}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Overgrazing}$, $\text{Removal of vegetation}$...
3
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17887
$\text{The major contributor to water pollution among the following is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Sound}$, $\text{SO}_2$...
4
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17886
$\text{Match the pollutant (s) in Column I with effect (s) in Column II.}$ $\text{Column I}$ $\text{A. Oxides of Sulphur}$ $\text{B. Nitrogen dioxide}$ $\text{C. Lead}$ $\text{D. Nitrate in drinking water}$ $\text{Column II}$ $\text{1. Red haze in traffic and congested areas}$ $\text{2. Damage to kidney}$ $\text{3. 'Blue baby' syndrome}$ $\text{4. Respiratory diseases}$
2
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$\text{A. 2, B. 3, C. 4, D. 1}$, $\text{A. 1, B. 2, C. 3, D. 4}$...
4
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17885
$\text{If water pollution continues at its present rate, it will eventually:}$ $1. \text{ Stop the water cycle.}$ $2. \text{ Prevent precipitation.}$ $3. \text{ Make oxygen molecules unavailable to water plants.}$ $4. \text{ Make nitrate molecules unavailable to water plants.}$
2
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$\text{Stop the water cycle.}$, $\text{Prevent precipitation.}$...
3
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17884
$\text{Mercury, aluminum, lead, copper, DDT, etc. are an example of:}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Biodegradable Pollutant.}$, $\text{Non-biodegradable pollutant.}$...
2
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17883
$\text{If a lake is contaminated with DDT, its highest concentration would be found in:}$ $1.\ \text{Primary consumer}$ $2.\ \text{Secondary consumer}$ $3.\ \text{Tertiary consumer}$ $4.\ \text{None of the above.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Primary consumer}$, $\text{Secondary consumer}$...
3
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17882
$\text{A farmer was told that fishes were not fit for human consumption because a large amount of pesticides had accumulated in the tissues of fishes. This happens:}$ $\text{1. By the transfer of pesticides in the food chain.}$ $\text{2. By the degradation of pesticides.}$ $\text{3. By the reaction of pesticides with atmospheric oxygen.}$ $\text{4. By the reaction of pesticides with atmospheric carbon dioxide.}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{By the transfer of pesticides in the food chain.}$, $\text{By the degradation of pesticides.}$...
1
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17881
$\text{When a lake get covered with algae, a stinking smell comes out and its water becomes unpotable. The reason for such a condition of the lake is-}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Eutrophication.}$, $\text{Excess of oxalate ions in water.}$...
1
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17880
$\text{The main factor of water pollution is:}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Smoke}$, $\text{Industrial waste}$...
2
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17879
$\text{Pollution can be controlled by-}$ $1. \text{Sewage treatment.}$ $2. \text{Checking atomic blasts.}$ $3. \text{Manufacturing electrically operated vehicles.}$ $4. \text{All of the above.}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Sewage treatment.}$, $\text{Checking atomic blasts.}$...
4
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17878
$\text{Phytoplanktons kill the fish because:}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Phytoplanktons decrease the BOD level that causes the death of fish.}$, $\text{Phytoplanktons increase the BOD level that causes the death of fish.}$...
2
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17877
$\text{Biochemical oxygen Demand value less than 5 ppm indicates a water sample to be:}$
2
214
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$\text{Highly polluted.}$, $\text{Poor in dissolved oxygen.}$...
3
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17876
$\text{Incorrect statement among the following is:}$ $1.\ \text{Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen, and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant.}$ $2.\ \text{pH of drinking water should be between 6.5 and 8.5.}$ $3.\ \text{Concentration of dissolved oxygen below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish.}$ $4.\ \text{Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen, and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant.}$, $\text{pH of drinking water should be between 6.5 and 8.5.}$...
3
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17875
$\text{B.O.D is connected with-}$ $1. \text{Organic matter}$ $2. \text{Microbes}$ $3. \text{Both (1) and (2)}$ $4. \text{None of the above.}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Organic matter}$, $\text{Microbes}$...
3
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17874
$\text{Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is-}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Amount of oxygen required by bacteria to decompose organic matter in a certain volume of a sample of water.}$, $\text{Amount of CO}_2 \text{ required by bacteria to decompose organic matter in a certain volume of a sample of water.}$...
1
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17873
$\text{The major pollutant(s) of water pollution is/are:}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Pathogens.}$, $\text{Organic waste.}$...
4
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17872
$\text{The best measure(s) to control water pollution is/are:}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{Compost should be preferred over chemical fertilizers.}$, $\text{The concentration of pollutants in the industrial plants should be checked regularly.}$...
4
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17871
$\text{A gas that has the greatest affinity for hemoglobin is:}$
2
214
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_4$, $\text{NO}$...
4
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17870
$\text{Gas that is not a pollutant is:}$
2
214
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$\text{Carbon monoxide}$, $\text{Nitrogen peroxide}$...
3
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17869
$\text{`White lung cancer' is caused by:}$
2
214
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$\text{Asbestos}$, $\text{Silica}$...
1
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17868
$\text{Air pollution from the leakage of methyl isocyanate gas from the union carbide}$ $\text{factory in Bhopal caused a major tragedy on:}$
2
214
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$\text{Dec. 2, 1984}$, $\text{Dec 15, 1983}$...
1
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17867
$\text{The aromatic compound that is present as particulate among the following is:}$
2
214
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$\text{Benzene}$, $\text{Toluene}$...
4
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17866
$\text{Photochemical smog formed in congested metropolitan cities mainly consists of:}$
2
214
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$\text{Ozone, SO}_2, \text{ and hydrocarbons.}$, $\text{Ozone, PAN, and NO}_2$...
2
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17865
$\text{The most abundant hydrocarbon pollutant is:}$ $1. \text{Methane}$ $2. \text{Ethane}$ $3. \text{Propane}$ $4. \text{Butane}$
2
214
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$\text{Methane}$, $\text{Ethane}$...
1
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17864
$\text{The main air pollutant among the following is:}$
2
214
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$\text{CO}$, $\text{CO}_2$...
1
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17863
$\text{Among the following, the one that is not a greenhouse gas is:}$ $1.\ \text{Sulphur dioxide}$ $2.\ \text{Nitrous oxide}$ $3.\ \text{Methane}$ $4.\ \text{Ozone}$
2
214
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$\text{Sulphur dioxide}$, $\text{Nitrous oxide}$...
1
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17862
$\text{Among the following gases, the one that is not a greenhouse gas is:}$
2
214
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$\text{CO}$, $\text{O}_3$...
1
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17861
$\text{Tropospheric pollution arises due to the presence of:}$
2
214
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$\text{SO}_2, \text{SO}_3, \text{and NO}_2, \text{in the lowest layer of the atmosphere.}$, $\text{SO}_2, \text{SO}_3, \text{and NO}_2, \text{in the uppermost layer of the atmosphere.}$...
1
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17860
$\text{In the absence of greenhouse gases -}$
2
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$\text{Life on earth would be impossible.}$, $\text{Average temperature of the earth will decrease drastically.}$...
4
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17859
$\text{A non-greenhouse gas is:}$
2
214
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$\text{CO}_2$, $\text{CH}_4$...
4
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17858
$\text{... is not a greenhouse gas :-}$ $1.\ \text{Hydrogen}$ $2.\ \text{Carbon dioxide}$ $3.\ \text{Methane}$ $4.\ \text{Nitrous oxide or } \text{N}_2\text{O}$
2
214
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$\text{Hydrogen}$, $\text{Carbon dioxide}$...
1
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17857
$\text{Gases responsible for greenhouse effect are:}$ $1.\ \text{Carbon dioxide (CO}_2\text{)}$ $2.\ \text{Ozone (O}_3\text{)}$ $3.\ \text{Nitrous oxide (N}_2\text{O)}$ $4.\ \text{All of the above.}$
2
214
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$\text{Carbon dioxide (CO}_2\text{)}$, $\text{Ozone (O}_3\text{)}$...
4
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17856
$\text{CO gas is more dangerous than CO}_2 \text{ gas because:}$ $1. \text{CO is capable of forming a complex with haemoglobin (carboxyhemoglobin), that is more stable than the oxygen-haemoglobin complex.}$ $2. \text{CO is capable of forming a complex with haemoglobin (carboxyhemoglobin), that is less stable than the oxygen-haemoglobin complex.}$ $3. \text{CO}_2 \text{ is capable of forming a complex with haemoglobin (carboxyhemoglobin), that is more stable than the oxygen-haemoglobin complex.}$ $4. \text{CO}_2 \text{ is capable of forming a complex with haemoglobin (carboxyhemoglobin), that is less stable than the oxygen-haemoglobin complex.}$
2
214
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$\text{CO is capable of forming a complex with haemoglobin (carboxyhemoglobin), that is more stable than the oxygen-haemoglobin complex.}$, $\text{CO is capable of forming a complex with haemoglobin (carboxyhemoglobin), that is less stable than the oxygen-haemoglobin complex.}$...
1
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17855
$\text{The phenomenon in which atmospheric gases trap the heat radiations from the sun near the earth's surface and keeps it warm is known as-}$
2
214
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$\text{Natural greenhouse effect}$, $\text{Tyndall effect}$...
1
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17854
$\text{The ozone layer of the upper atmosphere is being destroyed by:}$
2
214
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$\text{Sulphur dioxide}$, $\text{Carbon dioxide}$...
3
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17853
$\text{The most harmful air pollutant produced by automobiles is-}$
2
214
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$\text{HNO}_2$, $\text{NO}$...
4
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17852
$\text{The oxygen present today in the atmosphere-}$
2
214
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$\text{Is a plant product.}$, $\text{Came from ozone.}$...
1
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17851
$\text{The most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is:}$
2
214
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$\text{Hg}$, $\text{Cd}$...
3
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17850
$\text{Green plants use carbon dioxide for photosynthesis and return oxygen to the atmosphere. Even then carbon dioxide is considered to be responsible for greenhouse effect:}$ $1. \text{ Due to an increase in atmospheric temperature.}$ $2. \text{ Due to ozone depletion.}$ $3. \text{ Due to decrease in atmospheric temperature.}$ $4. \text{ Due to an increase in chlorophyll concentration.}$
2
214
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$\text{Due to an increase in atmospheric temperature.}$, $\text{Due to ozone depletion.}$...
1
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17849
$\text{Which, of the following, gases contributes nearly 50 \% to the green house}$ $\text{effect (which, in turn, causes global warming) ?}$
2
214
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$\text{SO}_2$, $\text{SO}_3$...
3
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17848
$\text{An increase in } \text{CO}_2 \text{ concentration in the atmosphere will result in:}$
2
214
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$\text{Adverse effects on natural vegetation.}$, $\text{Global warming.}$...
2
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17847
$\text{Statues and monuments in India are affected by acid rain because of the formation of:}$
2
214
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$\text{CaSO}_4 \text{ on the reaction of acid rain with limestone.}$, $\text{CaCO}_3 \text{ on the reaction of acid rain with limestone.}$...
1
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17846
$\text{Major component of acid rain is:}$
2
214
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$\text{HNO}_3$, $\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4$...
2
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17845
$\text{When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the pH value of the collected rain water is:}$ $1. \text{ Dependent upon the amount of dust in the air.}$ $2. \text{ Slightly lower when rainwater is without a thunderstorm.}$ $3. \text{ Slightly higher when the thunderstorm is not there.}$ $4. \text{ Unaffected by the occurrence of thunderstorms.}$
2
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$\text{Dependent upon the amount of dust in the air.}$, $\text{Slightly lower when rainwater is without a thunderstorm.}$...
2
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17844
$\text{Pollution that occurs in the lowest layer of the atmosphere is:}$
2
214
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$\text{Stratosphere pollution.}$, $\text{Ozone layer pollution.}$...
4
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17843
$\text{Match the terms given in Column I with the compounds given in Column II.}$ $\text{Column I}$ \quad \text{Column II}$ $\text{A. Acid rain} \quad 1. \text{CHCl}_2 - \text{CHF}_2$ $\text{B. Photochemical smog} \quad 2. \text{CO}$ $\text{C. Combination with hemoglobin} \quad 3. \text{Unsaturated hydrocarbons}$ $\text{D. Depletion of the ozone layer} \quad 4. \text{SO}_2$ $\text{Codes}$
2
214
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$1. \ 4 \ 2 \ 3 \ 1$, $2. \ 1 \ 2 \ 3 \ 4$...
3
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17842
$\text{An incorrect statement regarding acid rain is that:}$ $1. \text{ It is formed due to the reaction of } \text{SO}_2 \text{ and } \text{NO}_2 \text{ with rainwater.}$ $2. \text{ It causes no damage to monuments like the Taj Mahal.}$ $3. \text{ It is harmful to plants.}$ $4. \text{ Its pH is less than 5.6}$
2
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$\text{It is formed due to the reaction of } \text{SO}_2 \text{ and } \text{NO}_2 \text{ with rainwater.}$, $\text{It causes no damage to monuments like the Taj Mahal.}$...
2
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17841
$\text{Acid rain occurs due to the presence of:}$ $1.\ \text{SO}_2\ \text{in the atmosphere}$ $2.\ \text{NH}_3\ \text{in the atmosphere}$ $3.\ \text{CO}_2\ \text{in the atmosphere}$ $4.\ \text{N}_2\text{O}\ \text{in the atmosphere}$
2
214
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$\text{SO}_2\ \text{in the atmosphere}$, $\text{NH}_3\ \text{in the atmosphere}$...
1
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17840
$\text{Acid rain is due to an increase in the atmospheric concentration of:}$
2
214
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$\text{Ozone, and dust}$, $\text{CO}_2, \text{ and CO}$...
4
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17839
$\text{Acid rain occurs due to the oxidation of:}$ $1.\ \text{Carbon, sulphur (unsaturated hydrocarbon) and nitrogen.}$ $2.\ \text{Ethanol.}$ $3.\ \text{Methanol.}$ $4.\ \text{Methane.}$
2
214
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$\text{Carbon, sulphur (unsaturated hydrocarbon) and nitrogen.}$, $\text{Ethanol.}$...
1
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17838
$\text{Ozone depletion occurs in:}$
2
214
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$\text{Tropospheric pollution.}$, $\text{Stratospheric pollution.}$...
2
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17837
$\text{The reaction(s) involved in ozone layer depletion in the stratosphere is/are:}$
2
214
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$\text{CF}_2\text{Cl}_2 (g) \xrightarrow{\text{UV}} \cdot \text{Cl} (g) + \cdot \text{CF}_2\text{Cl} (g)$, $\cdot \text{Cl} (g) + \text{O}_3 (g) \rightarrow \text{ClO} (g) + \text{O}_2 (g)$...
4
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17836
$\text{Ozone is a very toxic gas and a strong oxidizing agent. It is still useful for life on earth:}$
2
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$\text{because it traps harmful UV-rays.}$, $\text{because it balances global warming.}$...
1
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17835
$\text{The gas that damages the ozone layer is -}$
2
214
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$\text{CFCs}$, $\text{CO}_2$...
1
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17834
$\text{Consequence(s) of ozone hole is/are:}$
2
214
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$\text{They cause death of many phytoplanktons.}$, $\text{Excess exposure may even cause mutation in plants.}$...
4
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17833
$\text{A gas that is not a common component of photochemical smog is-}$
2
214
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$\text{Ozone}$, $\text{Acrolein}$...
4
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17832
$\text{A factory was started near a village. Suddenly villagers started feeling the presence of irritating vapors in the village and cases of headache, chest pain, cough, dryness of throat, and breathing problems increased. Villagers blamed the emissions from the chimney of the factory for such problems. This is:}$
2
214
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$\text{Due to the burning of fossil fuels such as gasoline, coal, natural gas, etc.}$, $\text{Due to the burning of toxic soil.}$...
1
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17831
$\text{The incorrect statement about carbon monoxide is-}$ $1.\ \text{It reduces the oxygen-carrying ability of blood.}$ $2.\ \text{The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.}$ $3.\ \text{It is produced due to incomplete combustion.}$ $4.\ \text{It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.}$
2
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$\text{It reduces the oxygen-carrying ability of blood.}$, $\text{The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.}$...
2
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17830
$\text{The reaction/s involved during the formation of photochemical smog are:}$ $1. \text{NO}_2(g) \rightarrow \text{NO}(g) + \text{O}(g)$ $2. \text{O}(g) + \text{O}_2(g) \rightarrow \text{O}_3(g)$ $3. \text{O}_3(g) + \text{NO}(g) \rightarrow \text{NO}_2(g) + \text{O}_2(g)$ $4. \text{All of the above}$
2
214
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$1 \ (5\%)$, $2 \ (3\%)$...
4
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17829
$\text{The correct statement(s) regarding photochemical smog is/are:}$
2
214
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$\text{It occurs in a dry, sunny climate.}$, $\text{It is oxidizing in nature.}$...
4
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17828
2
2
214
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1, 2...
3
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17827
$\text{Environmental chemistry is best defined as:}$ $1.\ \text{Study of chemical processes in nature.}$ $2.\ \text{Study of biochemical processes in nature.}$ $3.\ \text{Both (1) and (2)}$ $4.\ \text{None of the above.}$
2
214
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$\text{Study of chemical processes in nature.}$, $\text{Study of biochemical processes in nature.}$...
3
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17709
117
2
213
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1, 2...
2
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17708
116
2
213
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2
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17707
115
2
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1
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17706
114
2
213
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2
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17705
113
2
213
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3
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17704
112
2
213
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3
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17703
111
2
213
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3
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17702
110
2
213
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1
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17701
109
2
213
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3
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17700
108
2
213
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2
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17699
107
2
213
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3
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17698
106
2
213
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1, 2...
1
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17697
105
2
213
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1, 2...
1
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17696
104
2
213
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1, 2...
1
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17695
103
2
213
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1, 2...
2
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17694
102
2
213
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4
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17693
101
2
213
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2
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17692
100
2
213
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1
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17691
99
2
213
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4
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17690
98
2
213
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4
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17689
97
2
213
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4
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17688
96
2
213
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3
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17687
95
2
213
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4
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17686
94
2
213
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3
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17685
93
2
213
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3
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17684
92
2
213
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2
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17683
91
2
213
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4
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17682
90
2
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2
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17681
89
2
213
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17680
$n\text{-Butylbenzene on oxidation with hot alkaline } \text{KMnO}_4 \text{ gives:}$
2
213
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$\text{Benzoic acid}$, $\text{Butanoic acid}$...
1
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17679
$\text{The reactants used in Friedel-Craft's alkylation are:}$ $1.\ \text{C}_6\text{H}_6 + \text{NH}_2$ $2.\ \text{C}_6\text{H}_6 + \text{CH}_4$ $3.\ \text{C}_6\text{H}_6 + \text{CH}_3\text{Cl}$ $4.\ \text{C}_6\text{H}_6 + \text{CH}_3\text{OCl}$
2
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$\text{C}_6\text{H}_6 + \text{NH}_2$, $\text{C}_6\text{H}_6 + \text{CH}_4$...
3
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17678
$\text{Benzene} + \text{CH}_3\text{Cl} \overset{\text{AlCl}_3}{\longrightarrow} \text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{CH}_3$ $\text{The mechanism \& intermediate involved in the above reaction are:}$
2
213
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$\text{Aromatic electrophilic substitution \& carbocation}$, $\text{Aromatic Nucleophilic substitution \& carbanion}$...
1
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17677
$\text{What is the role of AlCl}_3 \text{ in a Friedel-Crafts reaction?}$
2
213
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$\text{Absorbs HCl}$, $\text{Releases HCl}$...
3
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17676
$\text{The major product obtained in the given reaction is:}$ $\text{C}_6\text{H}_6 + \text{C}_6\text{H}_{12} \xrightarrow{\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4} \text{(2 mole)}$
2
213
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$\text{Option 1:}$, $\text{Option 2:}$...
2
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17675
$\text{Which of the following compounds is non-aromatic?}$
2
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$\text{Compound 1}$, $\text{Compound 2}$...
2
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17674
$\text{The most stable conformation of the product of the following reaction is:}$ $\text{C} \equiv \text{CH} \xrightarrow{\text{HBr} / \text{R}_2\text{O}_2 \ (1 \text{ equivalent})} \xrightarrow{\text{HBr} / \text{dark}}$
2
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$\text{Ph} \ \text{CH} \ \text{Br} \ \text{H}$, $\text{Ph} \ \text{H} \ \text{Br} \ \text{Br}$...
4
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17673
$\text{An alkene among the following that reacts fastest with } \text{H}_2 \text{ under catalytic conditions is -}$
2
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$\text{Option 1: (structure with R groups and H)}$, $\text{Option 2: (structure with R groups and H)}$...
1
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17672
$\text{The dihedral angle of the least stable conformer of ethane is:}$
2
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$60^\circ$, $0^\circ$...
2
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17671
$\text{An organic molecule necessarily shows optical activity if it:}$ $1. \text{Contains asymmetric carbon atoms}$ $2. \text{Is non-planar}$ $3. \text{Is non-superimposable on its mirror image}$ $4. \text{Is superimposable on its mirror image}$
2
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$\text{Contains asymmetric carbon atoms}$, $\text{Is non-planar}$...
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17670
$\text{The compound that has least hindered rotation around carbon-carbon bond is-}$
2
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$\text{Ethane}$, $\text{Ethylene}$...
1
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17669
$\text{A compound possessing optical isomerism provided it has the molecular formula } \text{C}_7\text{H}_{16}, \text{ would be:}$
2
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$2,3\text{-Dimethyl pentane}$, $2,2\text{-Dimethyl butane}$...
1
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17668
$\text{The C – H bond and C – C bond in ethane are formed by overlapping of -}$
2
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$\text{sp}^3 - \text{s and sp}^3 - \text{sp}^3$, $\text{sp}^2 - \text{s and sp}^2 - \text{sp}^2$...
1
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17667
$\text{The molecule among the following that has the hybridization}$ $\text{sp}^2, \text{sp}^2, \text{sp}, \text{and sp from left to right atoms is:}$
2
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$\text{HC} \equiv \text{C} - \text{C} \equiv \text{H}$, $\text{CH}_2 = \text{CH} - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH}$...
2
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17666
$\text{In the given hydrocarbon,}$ $\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH} = \text{CH} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH}$ $\text{The type/state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3, and 5 respectively are:}$
2
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$\text{sp}^2, \text{sp}, \text{sp}^3$, $\text{sp}, \text{sp}^3, \text{sp}^2$...
2
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17665
$\text{The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula:}$
2
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$\text{C}_3\text{H}_6$, $\text{C}_2\text{H}_2$...
1
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17664
$\text{Product (P) in the above-mentioned reaction is:}$
2
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$\text{Cyclohexane}$, $\text{Cyclohexane with two D atoms on adjacent carbons}$...
2
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17663
$[A]$ $\text{and}$ $[B]$ $\text{in the mentioned reaction are respectively:}$
2
213
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$\text{Alc. KOH and NaNH}_2$, $\text{NaNH}_2 \text{and Lindlar catalyst}$...
1
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17662
$\text{the correct relation of rate of reaction towards reduction using (H}_2/\text{Pt):}$
2
213
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$a > b$, $a = b$...
1
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17661
$\text{The compound } \text{C}_7\text{H}_8 \text{ undergoes the following reactions}$ $\text{C}_7\text{H}_8 \xrightarrow{3 \text{Cl}_2 / \text{hv}} \text{A} \xrightarrow{\text{Br}_2 / \text{Fe}} \text{B} \xrightarrow{\text{Zn / HCl}} \text{C}$ $\text{The product 'C' is-}$
2
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$\text{m-Bromotoluene}$, $\text{o-Bromotoluene}$...
1
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17660
68
2
213
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17659
67
2
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17658
66
2
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17657
65
2
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17656
64
2
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2
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17655
63
2
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2
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17654
62
2
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1
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17653
61
2
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17652
60
2
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17651
59
2
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17650
58
2
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17649
57
2
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17648
56
2
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17647
55
2
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17646
54
2
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17645
53
2
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17644
52
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17643
51
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17642
50
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17641
49
2
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17640
$\text{Above mentioned single molecule is obtained from ozonolysis. The starting cyclic compound is:}$
2
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$\text{Option 1: Cyclopentene with two methyl groups at 1,4 positions}$, $\text{Option 2: Cyclopentene with one methyl group at 1 position}$...
1
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17639
$\text{The correct order of acidity among the following is:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH} \equiv \text{CH} > \text{CH}_3 - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH} > \text{CH}_2 = \text{CH}_2 > \text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_3$, $\text{CH} \equiv \text{CH} > \text{CH}_2 = \text{CH}_2 > \text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_3$...
1
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17638
$\text{The reaction of } \text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{CH} = \text{CHCH}_3 \text{ with HBr produces:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{CHCH}_2\text{CH}_3 \quad \begin{array}{c} \text{Br} \end{array}$, $\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{CH}_2\text{CHCH}_3 \quad \begin{array}{c} \text{Br} \end{array}$...
1
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17637
$\text{The type of radicals that can be formed as intermediates during}$ $\text{monochlorination of 2-methylpropane is-}$
2
213
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$\text{Primary and tertiary radicals}$, $\text{Two types of primary radicals}$...
1
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17636
$\text{Which is the most suitable reagent among the following to distinguish compound (III) from rest of the compounds?}$ $\text{I. CH}_3 - \text{C} \equiv \text{C} - \text{CH}_3$ $\text{II. CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_3$ $\text{III. CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH}$ $\text{IV. CH}_3 - \text{CH} = \text{CH}_2$
2
213
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$\text{Br}_2/\text{CCl}_4$, $\text{Br}_2/\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}$...
4
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17635
$\text{The main product of the following reaction will be-}$ $\text{OH} \quad \text{CH-CH}_3 \xrightarrow{\text{conc. H}_2\text{SO}_4} \text{Product}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{C}=\text{CH-CH}_3$, $\text{H}_2\text{C}=\text{CH}_2$...
1
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17634
$\text{Given below is a reaction sequence:}$ $\text{(a)} \quad \text{CH}_3 - \text{CH} - \text{CH} - \text{CH}_3 \xrightarrow{\text{H}^+/\text{Heat}} \text{A} + \text{B}$ $\text{(b)} \quad \text{HBr, dark} \quad \text{in absence of peroxide} \quad \text{C} + \text{D}$ $\text{The compounds A and C are respectively:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3 \vert \text{CH}_3 - \text{C} = \text{CH}_2 \quad \text{and} \quad \text{CH}_3 - \text{C} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_3 \vert \text{Br}$, $\text{CH}_3 \vert \text{CH}_3 - \text{C} = \text{CH}_2 \quad \text{and} \quad \text{CH}_3 - \text{CH} - \text{CH} - \text{CH}_3 \vert \text{Br}$...
1
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17633
$\text{The major product(s) in the below reaction is-}$ $\text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{CH} = \text{CH}_2 \xrightarrow{\text{HBr}}^{(\text{Ph} - \text{CO} - \text{O})_2} S$
2
213
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$\text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2\text{Br}$ $1-\text{Bromopropane}$, $\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH} - \text{CH}_3 \ | \ \text{Br}$ $2-\text{Bromopropane}$...
1
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17632
$\text{HCl with an alkene X reacts in accordance with Markovnikov's rule to give 1-Chloro-1-methylcyclohexane. The structure of alkene (X) is:}$
2
213
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$\text{Option 1: CH}_2\text{=CH-CH}_2\text{-CH}_2\text{-CH}_2\text{-CH}_3$, $\text{Option 2: CH}_3\text{-CH=CH-CH}_2\text{-CH}_2\text{-CH}_3$...
3
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17631
$\text{Baeyer's reagent is:}$ $1.\ \text{Acidified permanganate solution}$ $2.\ \text{Alkaline permanganate solution}$ $3.\ \text{Neutral permanganate solution}$ $4.\ \text{Aqueous bromine solution}$
2
213
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$\text{Acidified permanganate solution}$, $\text{Alkaline permanganate solution}$...
2
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17630
$\text{Which of the following compounds will react with ammoniacal silver nitrate } \text{AgNO}_3?$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3\overset{\text{CH}_3}{\underset{|}{\text{CH}}} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{C} \equiv \text{C} - \text{CH}_3$, $\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH} = \text{CH} - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH}$...
2
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17629
$\text{Consider the following reaction,}$ $\text{H}_3\text{C} - \overset{\text{H}}{\underset{\text{D}}{\text{C}}} - \overset{\text{C}}{\underset{\text{CH}_3}{\text{C}}} - \text{CH}_3 + \text{Br}_2 \rightarrow \text{X} + \text{HBr}$ $\text{The structure of the major reaction intermediate formed in the above reaction is-}$
2
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$\text{H}_3\text{C} - \overset{\text{H}}{\underset{\text{D}}{\text{C}}} - \overset{\cdot}{\text{C}}\text{H} - \text{CH}_2$, $\text{H}_3\text{C} - \overset{\text{H}}{\underset{\text{D}}{\text{C}}} - \overset{\cdot}{\text{C}} - \text{CH}_3$...
2
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17628
$\text{Anti-Markovnikov's addition of HBr is not observed in-}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{Propene}$, $\text{But-1-ene}$...
3
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17627
$\text{Chlorination of methane takes place by:}$
2
213
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$\text{Elimination}$, $\text{S}_\text{N}1$...
3
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17626
$\text{Compound A:}$ $\text{Compound A (1 mole)} \xrightarrow{(i) \text{O}_3} \xrightarrow{(ii) \text{Zn} + \text{H}_2\text{O}} \text{HCHO (1 mole)} + \text{CH}_3\text{CHO (1 mole)}$ $\text{Compound A is:}$
2
213
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$\text{Option 1:}$, $\text{Option 2:}$...
4
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17625
$\text{Which compound is expected to decolorize a cold, basic KMnO}_4 \text{ solution?}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_3$, $\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}$...
4
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17624
$\text{An alkene 'A' on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanol and pentan-3-one.}$ $\text{The IUPAC name of 'A' is:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{3-Ethylpent-2-ene}$, $\text{3-Ethylpent-2-yne}$...
1
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17623
$\text{The reaction of HBr with}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{CH}_3 \\ \text{CH}_3 - \text{C} = \text{CH}_2 \end{array}$ $\text{in the presence of peroxide will give:}$
2
213
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$\begin{array}{c} \text{Br} \\ \text{CH}_3 - \text{C} - \text{CH}_3 \\ \text{CH}_3 \end{array}$, $\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{Br}$...
3
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17622
$\text{Decreasing order of acidic behavior of benzene, n-hexane, and ethyne is:}$
2
213
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$\text{Hexane} > \text{Ethyne} > \text{Benzene}$, $\text{Benzene} > \text{Hexane} > \text{Ethyne}$...
3
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17621
$\text{The most acidic compound among the following is-}$ $1.\ \text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_3$ $2.\ \text{CH}_3 - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH}$ $3.\ \text{CH}_2 = \text{CH}_2$ $4.\ \text{CH}_3\text{C} \equiv \text{C} - \text{CH}_3$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_3$, $\text{CH}_3 - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH}$...
2
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17620
$\text{The major product in the above mentioned reaction is:}$ $\text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH}_2 \xrightarrow{\text{H}_2\text{O}/\text{H}^+} \text{A} + \text{B}$ $\text{Major Product} \quad \text{Minor Product}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{C} - \text{CH} - \text{CH}_3 \quad \text{CH}_3 \quad \text{OH}$, $\text{CH}_3 - \text{C} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_3 \quad \text{CH}_3 \quad \text{OH}$...
1
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17619
$\text{Which of the following alkenes will yield only ketones when treated with ozone?}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cyclopropane with a methyl group}$, $\text{2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene}$...
3
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17618
$\text{Acidic hydrogen present among the following compound is -}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ethyne}$, $\text{Ethene}$...
1
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17617
$\text{The products formed after ozonolysis of Pent-2-ene are:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ethanol and Methanal}$, $\text{Ethanol and Propanal}$...
2
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17616
$\text{The reaction,}$ $\text{C}_6\text{H}_6 + \text{CH}_3\text{Cl} \xrightarrow{\text{Anhydrous } \text{AlCl}_3} \text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{CH}_3 + \text{HCl}$ $\text{is an example of:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{Friedel-Crafts reaction}$, $\text{Kolbe's synthesis}$...
1
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17615
$1,2\text{-dibromopropane on treatment with } X \text{ moles of } \text{NaNH}_2 \text{ followed by treatment with ethyl bromine gave a pent-2-yne. The value of } X \text{ is -}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$1$, $2$...
3
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17614
$\text{The final product in the above sequence of reactions is-}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}$, $\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COOH}$...
2
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17613
$\text{The major product in the above-mentioned reaction is:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{Option 1: Cyclohexane with Br at primary carbon}$, $\text{Option 2: Cyclohexane with Br at secondary carbon}$...
4
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17612
$\text{The compound among the following that yield propyne on hydrolysis is:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{Al}_4\text{C}_3$, $\text{Mg}_2\text{C}_3$...
2
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17611
$\text{Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the elimination reaction of 2-Bromopentane to form pent-2-ene:}$ $\text{(a) } \beta\text{-Elimination reaction}$ $\text{(b) Follows Zaitsev rule}$ $\text{(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction}$ $\text{(d) Dehydration reaction}$
2
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$\text{(a), (c), (d)}$, $\text{(b), (c), (d)}$...
4
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17610
$3\text{-Hexyne can be converted to trans-3-Hexene by the action of:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2 \text{- Pd/ BaSO}_4$, $\text{Li-Liq. NH}_3$...
2
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17609
$\text{The main product A and B in the above mentioned reaction are respectively-}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{(A) } \text{Br-CH}_2\text{-CH=CH}_2 \quad \text{(B) } \text{Br-CH}_2\text{-CH}_2\text{-CH}_3$, $\text{(A) } \text{Br-CH}_2\text{-CH}_2\text{-CH}_3 \quad \text{(B) } \text{Br-CH}_2\text{-CH=CH}_2$...
3
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17608
$\text{CH}_3\text{Cl} \ \& \ \text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{Cl} \ \text{undergoes Wurtz reaction to give-}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{Propane + Ethane}$, $\text{Propane}$...
3
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17607
$\text{Which of the following compounds will exhibit the lowest heat of hydrogenation?}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{CH} = \text{CH} - \text{CH}_3$, $\text{H}_2\text{C} = \text{C} = \text{CH}_2$...
4
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17606
$\text{Among the two isomers given above, the reason behind higher boiling point of one isomer as compared to the order is:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cis - less polar than trans}$, $\text{Trans - more polar than cis}$...
3
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17605
$\text{The linear molecules among the following is:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3 - \text{C} \equiv \text{C} - \text{CH}_3$, $\text{CH}_2 = \text{CH} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH}$...
1
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17604
$\text{Which of the following Hydrocarbon has the highest octane number?}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{Methane}$, $\text{Ethane}$...
3
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17603
$\text{Which of the following compounds has the highest melting point?}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{C}_4\text{H}_{10}$, $\text{C}_5\text{H}_{12}$...
4
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17602
$\text{A compound having the highest boiling point among the following is -}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{Iso-octane}$, $\text{n-Octane}$...
2
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17601
$\text{A compound having the shortest carbon-carbon bond length among the following is:}$ $\text{1. Benzene}$ $\text{2. Ethene}$ $\text{3. Ethyne}$ $\text{4. Ethane}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{Benzene}$, $\text{Ethene}$...
3
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17600
$\text{If Compound A (C}_4\text{H}_8\text{) is treated with H}_2\text{O/H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{ and forms an optically inactive C}_4\text{H}_{10}\text{O, what is the structure of A?}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH} = \text{CH}_2$, $\text{CH}_3\text{CH} = \text{CHCH}_3$...
3
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17599
$\text{The isobutyl group among the following is:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3-\text{CH}-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_3$, $\text{CH}_3-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-$...
4
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17598
$\text{The incorrect IUPAC name among the following is:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{Br} - \text{C} = \text{C} - \text{CH}_2 \newline \text{H} \quad \text{H} \newline \text{1-bromoprop-2-ene}$, $\text{CH}_3 \text{CH}_2 \text{C} - \text{C} - \text{C} - \text{CH}_3 \newline \text{H} \quad \text{Br} \quad \text{CH}_3 \newline \text{4-bromo-2, 4-dimethylhexane}$...
1
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17597
$\text{The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$3\text{-Ethyl-4-ethenylheptane}$, $3\text{-Ethyl-4-propylhex-5-ene}$...
4
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17596
$\text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{C} = \text{C} - \text{CH}_2 \xrightarrow{\text{HBr} \text{ Peroxide}} \text{Y} \xrightarrow{\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{ONA}} \text{Z}$ $\text{Product Z in the above-mentioned reaction is:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3 - (\text{CH}_2)_3 - \text{O} - \text{CH}_2\text{CH}_3$, $(\text{CH}_3)_2\text{CH}_2 - \text{O} - \text{CH}_2\text{CH}_3$...
1
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17595
$\text{The most suitable reagent for the following conversion is-}$ $\text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{C} \equiv \text{C} - \text{CH}_3 \rightarrow \text{cis-but-2-ene}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{Hg}^{2+}/\text{H}^+, \text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{Na/liquid NH}_3$...
3
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17594
$\text{An unsaturated hydrocarbon 'A' reacts with two molecules of H}_2 \text{ and upon}$ $\text{reductive ozonolysis A gives butane-1,4-dial, ethanal, and propanone.}$ $\text{The IUPAC name of A is:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{2-Methylocta-2,6-diene}$, $\text{2-Methylocta-1,5-diene}$...
1
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17593
$\text{The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed}$ $\text{conformations of ethane is:}$
2
213
Recommended Questions
$\text{The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered}$ $\text{conformation because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain.}$, $\text{The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered}$ $\text{conformation even though the eclipsed conformation has a torsional}$ $\text{strain.}$...
3
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17592
$\text{An astronomical telescope has angular magnification of } 20 \text{ in its normal adjustment. Focal length of eyepiece is } 4 \text{ cm. Distance between objective and eyepiece is:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$80 \text{ cm}$, $84 \text{ cm}$...
2
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17591
$\text{Focal length of objective lens and eyepiece of an astronomical telescope are } 200 \text{ cm and } 10 \text{ cm respectively. The length of telescope for maximum magnification is nearly:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$207 \text{ cm}$, $210 \text{ cm}$...
2
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17590
$\text{In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment a straight black line of length } L \text{ is drawn on inside part of the objective lens. The eye-piece forms a real image of this line. The length of this image is } l. \text{ The magnification of the telescope is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{L}{l} + 1$, $\frac{L}{l} - 1$...
4
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17589
$\text{The length of an astronomical telescope adjusted for parallel light is } 90 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{If the magnifying power of the telescope is } 17, \text{ then the focal length of eyepiece and objective are respectively:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ cm and } 80 \text{ cm}$, $85 \text{ cm and } 5 \text{ cm}$...
4
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17588
$\text{An astronomical telescope has an objective and an eyepiece of focal lengths } 40 \text{ cm and } 4 \text{ cm respectively. To view an object } 200 \text{ cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$46.0 \text{ cm}$, $50.0 \text{ cm}$...
3
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17587
$\text{The minimum magnifying power of an astronomical telescope is } 40. \text{ If the length of the telescope is } 205 \text{ cm, then the focal length of its field lens is:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$5 \text{ cm}$, $200 \text{ cm}$...
2
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17586
$\text{An astronomical telescope has angular magnification of } 40 \text{ in its normal adjustment. If focal length of eyepiece is } 5 \text{ cm, the length of the telescope is:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$190 \text{ cm}$, $200 \text{ cm}$...
3
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17585
$\text{In normal adjustment, the angular magnification of an astronomical telescope is } 39. \text{ If length of the tube is } 2 \text{ m, then focal length of the objective and eyepiece are respectively:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$195 \text{ cm, } 5 \text{ cm}$, $190 \text{ cm, } 10 \text{ cm}$...
1
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17584
$\text{To increase the magnifying power of a telescope:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$\text{The focal length of the eyepiece should be increased.}$, $\text{The focal length of the objective should be increased.}$...
2
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17583
$\text{The magnifying power of a telescope is } 9. \text{ When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between the objective and eyepiece is } 20 \text{ cm. The focal lengths of lenses are:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ cm, } 10 \text{ cm}$, $15 \text{ cm, } 5 \text{ cm}$...
3
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17582
$\text{In an astronomical telescope, the focal length of the objective lens is } 100 \text{ cm}$ $\text{and of the eyepiece is } 2 \text{ cm. The magnifying power of the telescope for the normal eye is:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$50$, $10$...
1
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17581
$\text{In a compound microscope, the magnification is } 95, \text{ the distance of the object from the objective lens is } \left( \frac{1}{3.8} \right) \text{ cm and the focal length of the objective is } \frac{1}{4} \text{ cm. What is the magnification of the eyepiece when the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision?}$ $1. \text{ } 5$ $2. \text{ } 10$ $3. \text{ } 100$ $4. \text{ none of the above}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$5$, $10$...
1
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17580
$\text{The focal length of the objective lens and the eye lens is } 4 \text{ mm and } 25 \text{ mm}$ $\text{respectively in a compound microscope. The distance between the objective}$ $\text{and eyepiece lens is } 16 \text{ cm. Its magnifying power for relaxed eye position is:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$32.75$, $327.5$...
2
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17579
$\text{A microscope has an objective of focal length } 1.5 \text{ cm and an eyepiece of focal length } 2.5 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{If the distance between the objective and the eye-piece is } 25 \text{ cm,}$ $\text{what is the approximate value of magnification produced for the relaxed eye?}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$75$, $110$...
3
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17578
$\text{If the focal length of the objective lens is increased, then magnifying power of:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$\text{microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease}$, $\text{microscope and telescope both will increase}$...
4
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17577
$\text{The magnification of a compound microscope for the final image at the least distance of distinct vision is } 90. \text{ The magnification of the objective lens is } 15. \text{ The value of the focal length of the eyepiece will be:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$5 \text{ cm}$, $6 \text{ cm}$...
1
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17576
$\text{The focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece of a compound microscope are } 2 \text{ cm and } 6.25 \text{ cm respectively. An object } AB \text{ is placed at a distance of } 2.5 \text{ cm from the objective which forms the image } A'B' \text{ as shown in the figure. The maximum magnifying power in this case, will be:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$10$, $20$...
2
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17575
$\text{The correct statement is:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$\text{The intermediate image in a compound microscope is real, erect and magnified}$, $\text{Intermediate image in a compound microscope is real, inverted, but diminished}$...
4
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17574
$\text{In the case of a compound microscope, the image formed by the objective lens is:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$\text{Virtual, erect, and diminished.}$, $\text{Real, erect, and magnified.}$...
4
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17573
$\text{A ray of light incident on an equilateral prism at grazing incidence emerges}$ $\text{from the prism at grazing emergence. The Refractive index of the prism is:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$1.5$, $1.8$...
4
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17572
$\text{If there is no emergent light through a prism of refracting angle } 60^\circ, \text{ whatever may be the angle of incidence, then the minimum value of the refractive index of the material of the prism is:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$2$, $\sqrt{2}$...
1
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17571
$\text{A ray of light incident on a prism of angle } A \text{ and refractive index } \mu \text{ will not emerge out of the prism for any angle of incidence, if:}$ $1. \ \mu > \sin \frac{A}{2}$ $2. \ \mu > \cos A$ $3. \ \mu < \frac{1}{\sin A}$ $4. \ \mu > \frac{1}{\sin \frac{A}{2}}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\mu > \sin \frac{A}{2}$, $\mu > \cos A$...
4
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17570
$\text{A ray of light is incident on an equilateral prism at an angle of incidence } i \text{ such that it is incident normally on other refracting faces. Find } i. \ [\text{Take } \mu_{\text{glass}} = 2]$
1
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Recommended Questions
$30^\circ$, $45^\circ$...
4
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17569
$\text{For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$\text{lies between } \sqrt{2} \text{ and } 1.$, $\text{lies between } 2 \text{ and } \sqrt{2}$...
2
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17568
$\text{A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence, } i, \text{ on one face of a prism of angle } A \text{ (assumed to be small) and emerges normally from the opposite face.}$ $\text{If the refractive index of the prism is } \mu, \text{ the angle of incidence } i \text{ is nearly equal to:}$
1
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$\mu A$, $\frac{\mu A}{2}$...
1
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17567
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The angle of deviation depends on the angle of the prism.}$ $\text{Reason (R): For the thin prism, } \delta = (\mu - 1)A.$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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17566
$\text{The Refractive index of material of an equilateral prism is } \sqrt{2}. \text{ Angle of incidence for minimum deviation is:}$ $1.\ 60^\circ$ $2.\ 45^\circ$ $3.\ 30^\circ$ $4.\ 15^\circ$
1
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$60^\circ$, $45^\circ$...
2
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17565
$\text{One of the refracting surfaces of a prism is silvered. A ray is incident at an angle } 60^\circ, \text{ such that it retraces its path. The angle of the prism is: } (\mu = \sqrt{3})$
1
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$30^\circ$, $45^\circ$...
1
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17564
$\text{If a light ray is incident normally on face } AB \text{ of a prism, then for no emergent ray from second face } AC:$ $[\mu \rightarrow \text{ refractive index of glass of prism}]$
1
124
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$\mu = \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}$, $\mu > \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}$...
2
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17563
$\text{A graph is plotted between the angle of deviation } \delta \text{ in a triangular prism and the angle of incidence as shown in the figure. Refracting angle of the prism is:}$
1
124
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$28^\circ$, $48^\circ$...
3
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17562
$\text{The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is } 45^\circ . \text{ The angle of the prism is } 60^\circ . \text{ If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are:}$
1
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$45^\circ, \sqrt{2}$, $30^\circ, \sqrt{2}$...
2
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17561
$\text{The angle of minimum deviation for a glass prism of refractive index } \mu = \sqrt{3} \text{ equals the refracting angle of the prism. The angle of the prism is:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$30^\circ$, $60^\circ$...
2
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17560
$\text{The refractive index of the material of a prism is } \sqrt{2} \text{ and its refracting angle is } 30^\circ. \text{ One of the refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards.}$ $\text{A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path after reflection from the mirrored surface if its angle of incidence on the prism is:}$
1
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$60^\circ$, $0^\circ$...
4
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17559
$\text{The refracting angle of a prism is } A, \text{ and refractive index of the material of the prism is } \cot\left(\frac{A}{2}\right). \text{ The angle of minimum deviation is:}$
1
124
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$180^\circ - 3A$, $180^\circ - 2A$...
2
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17558
$\text{A ray of light is incident on an equilateral glass prism placed on a horizontal table as shown. For minimum deviation, a true statement is:}$
1
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$PQ \text{ is horizontal}$, $QR \text{ is horizontal}$...
2
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17557
$\text{The angle of a prism is } A \text{ and one of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence } 2A \text{ on the first surface return through the same path after suffering reflection at the second (silvered) surface. The refractive index of the material is:}$
1
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$2 \sin A$, $2 \cos A$...
2
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17556
$\text{A ray of light falls on a prism } ABC \ (AB = BC) \text{ and travels as shown in figure. The refractive index of the prism material should be greater than:}$
1
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$\frac{4}{3}$, $\sqrt{2}$...
2
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17555
$\text{The condition of minimum deviation is achieved in an equilateral prism kept on the prism table of a spectrometer. If the angle of incidence is } 50^\circ, \text{ the angle of deviation is:}$
1
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$25^\circ$, $40^\circ$...
2
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17554
$\text{A bulb is located on a wall. Its image is to be obtained on a parallel wall with the help of a convex lens. If the distance between parallel walls is } d \text{ then the required focal length of the lens placed in between the walls is:}$
1
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$\text{Only } \frac{d}{4}$, $\text{Only } \frac{d}{2}$...
4
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17553
$\text{Two point light sources are 24 cm apart. Where should a convex lens of focal length 9 cm be put in between them from one source so that the images of both the sources are formed at the same place?}$
1
124
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$6 \text{ cm}$, $9 \text{ cm}$...
1
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17552
$\text{An object is placed at a point distance } x \text{ from the focus of a convex lens and its image is formed at } I \text{ as shown in the figure. The distances } x \text{ and } x' \text{ satisfy the relation:}$
1
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$\frac{x + x'}{2} = f$, $f = xx'$...
4
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17551
$\text{On an optical bench a point object is placed at the mark of 10 cm, a convex lens of focal length 15 cm at the mark of 40 cm and a concave lens of focal length 15 cm placed at the mark of 60 cm. The final image is formed at the mark of: (point object and two lenses are coaxial)}$
1
124
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$30 \text{ cm}$, $80 \text{ cm}$...
3
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17550
$\text{Three identical thin convex lenses are kept as shown in the figure. A ray passing through the lens is shown. The focal length of each lens is:}$
1
124
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$5 \text{ cm}$, $10 \text{ cm}$...
1
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17549
$\text{A point object } O \text{ is placed at a distance } 20 \text{ cm from a biconvex lens of the radius of curvature } 20 \text{ cm and } \mu = 1.5. \text{ The final image produced by lens and mirror combination will be at:}$
1
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$10 \text{ cm from the mirror}$, $20 \text{ cm from the lens}$...
3
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17548
$\text{A luminous object is placed at a distance of } 30 \text{ cm from the convex lens with a focal length of } 20 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{On the other side of the lens, at what distance from the lens, a convex mirror with a radius of curvature of } 10 \text{ cm be placed in order to have an upright image of the object coincident with it?}$
1
124
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$12 \text{ cm}$, $30 \text{ cm}$...
3
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17547
$\text{A liquid of refractive index } 1.33 \text{ is placed between two identical plano-convex lenses, with refractive index } 1.50. \text{ Two possible arrangements, } P \text{ and } Q, \text{ are shown. The system is:}$
1
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$\text{divergent in } P, \text{ convergent in } Q$, $\text{convergent in } P, \text{ divergent in } Q$...
3
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17546
$\text{When an object is placed at } 10 \text{ cm and } 30 \text{ cm from a convex lens, images obtained are of the same magnitude of magnification. The focal length of the lens may be:}$
1
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$10 \text{ cm}$, $15 \text{ cm}$...
3
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17545
$\text{A lens having focal length } f \text{ and aperture of diameter } d \text{ forms an image of intensity } I. \text{ An aperture of diameter } \frac{d}{2} \text{ in central region of lens is covered by a black paper. The focal length of lens and intensity of the image now will be respectively:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$f \text{ and } \frac{I}{4}$, $\frac{3f}{4} \text{ and } \frac{I}{2}$...
3
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17544
$\text{A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing sunlight on a piece of paper using an equiconvex lens of focal length 10 cm. The diameter of the sun is } 1.39 \times 10^9 \text{ m and its mean distance from the earth is } 1.5 \times 10^{11} \text{ m. What is the diameter of the sun's image on the paper?}$
1
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$9.2 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}$, $6.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}$...
1
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17543
$\text{A liquid of refractive index } \frac{4}{3} \text{ is placed between two identical plano-convex lenses touching each other at their spherical surfaces of radius } R. \text{ If the refractive index of the lens is } 1.50, \text{ then the lens behaves as:}$
1
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$\text{a convergent with power } P = \frac{1}{3R}$, $\text{a convergent with power } P = \frac{1}{6R}$...
1
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17542
$\text{The distance between a convex lens and a plane mirror is } 10 \text{ cm. The parallel rays incident on the convex lens, after reflection from the mirror form image at the optical centre of the lens. Focal length of the lens will be:}$
1
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$10 \text{ cm}$, $20 \text{ cm}$...
2
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17541
$\text{A concave lens forms the image of an object such that the distance between the object and image is 10 cm.}$ $\text{If magnification of the image is } \frac{1}{4}, \text{ the focal length of the lens is:}$
1
124
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$-\frac{20}{3} \text{ cm}$, $\frac{20}{3} \text{ cm}$...
4
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17540
$\text{If the space between two convex lenses of glass in the combination shown in the figure below is filled with water, then:}$
1
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$\text{the focal length of the system will decrease.}$, $\text{the focal length of the system will increase.}$...
2
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17539
$\text{A converging beam of rays is incident on a diverging lens. Having passed through the lens the rays intersect at a point } 15 \text{ cm from the lens on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the point where the rays meet will move } 5 \text{ cm closer to the lens. The focal length of the lens is:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$-10 \text{ cm}$, $20 \text{ cm}$...
3
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17538
$\text{Two convex lenses of focal length } X \text{ and } Y \text{ are placed parallel to each other.}$ $\text{An object at infinity from the first lens forms its image at infinity from the}$ $\text{second lens. The separation between the two lenses should be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$X + Y$, $\frac{X + Y}{2}$...
1
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17537
$\text{A thin equiconvex lens of power } P \text{ is cut into three parts } A, B, \text{ and } C \text{ as shown in the figure. If } P_1, P_2 \text{ and } P_3 \text{ are powers of the three parts respectively, then:}$
1
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$P_1 = P_2 = P_3$, $P_1 > P_2 = P_3$...
2
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17536
$\text{Two similar plano-convex lenses are combined together in three different ways as shown in the adjoining figure. The ratio of the focal lengths in three cases will be:}$
1
124
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$1 : 2 : 2$, $1 : 1 : 1$...
2
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17535
$\text{In the diagram shown below, the image of the point object } O \text{ is formed at } I \text{ by the convex lens of focal length } 20 \text{ cm, where } F_1 \text{ and } F_2 \text{ are foci of the lens.}$ $\text{The value of } x' \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ cm}$, $20 \text{ cm}$...
4
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17534
$\text{A lens forms an image of a point object placed at distance } 20 \text{ cm from it. The image is formed just in front of the object at a distance } 4 \text{ cm from the object (and towards the lens). The power of the lens is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$-2.25 \text{ D}$, $1.75 \text{ D}$...
3
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17533
$\text{The power of an equi-convex lens is } P. \text{ After cutting it in different ways, the combination of lenses is listed in Column I, along with their effective powers in Column II. Match the items in the two columns.}$ $\text{Column I}$ $\text{(A)}$ $\text{(B)}$ $\text{(C)}$ $\text{(D)}$ $\text{Column II}$ $\text{(P) zero}$ $\text{(Q) } P$ $\text{(R) } 2P$ $\text{(S) } \frac{P}{2}$
1
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$\text{A} \rightarrow \text{Q}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{P}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{S}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{R}$, $\text{A} \rightarrow \text{S}, \text{B} \rightarrow \text{R}, \text{C} \rightarrow \text{Q}, \text{D} \rightarrow \text{P}$...
3
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17532
$\text{A biconvex lens is cut into two halves along (i) } XOX' \text{ and (ii) } YOY' \text{ as shown in the figure. Let } f, f', f'' \text{ be the focal lengths of the complete lens, of each half in case (i), and of each half in case (ii), respectively.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$f' = f, f'' = 2f$, $f' = 2f, f'' = f$...
1
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17531
$\text{A concave lens of focal length } 25 \text{ cm produces an image } \frac{1}{10} \text{th of the size of the object. The distance of the object from the lens is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$225 \text{ cm}$, $250 \text{ cm}$...
1
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17530
$\text{The focal length of a convex lens is } 40 \text{ cm and the size of the inverted image formed is half of the object. The distance of the object is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$60 \text{ cm}$, $120 \text{ cm}$...
2
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17529
$\text{Two convex lenses of focal lengths 10 cm and 30 cm are kept at a separation of 20 cm. Then the correct statement is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{the effective focal length is 15 cm.}$, $\text{the chromatic aberration is minimized.}$...
4
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17528
$\text{Two identical equiconvex thin lenses each of focal lengths } 20 \text{ cm, made of material of refractive index } 1.5 \text{ are placed coaxially in contact as shown. Now, the space between them is filled with a liquid with a refractive index of } 1.5. \text{ The equivalent power of this arrangement will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$+5 \text{ D}$, $\text{zero}$...
1
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17527
$\text{A plane convex lens } (\mu = 1.5) \text{ has a radius of curvature } 10 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{It is silvered on its plane surface.}$ $\text{The focal length of the lens after silvering is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ cm}$, $20 \text{ cm}$...
1
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17526
$\text{A plane-convex lens fits exactly into a plano-concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices } \mu_1 \text{ and } \mu_2 \text{ and } R \text{ is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the combination is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{R}{2(\mu_1 + \mu_2)}$, $\frac{R}{2(\mu_1 - \mu_2)}$...
3
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17525
$\text{The focal length of a glass } (\mu = 1.5) \text{ lens in air is } 20 \text{ cm. If it is dipped in water } (\mu = \frac{4}{3}) \text{ its focal length in water will be:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$80 \text{ cm}$, $40 \text{ cm}$...
1
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17524
$\text{A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the}$ $\text{refractive index of the lens. Then its focal length will:}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$\text{become zero.}$, $\text{become infinite.}$...
2
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17523
$\text{A concave mirror of the focal length } f_1 \text{ is placed at a distance of } d \text{ from a convex lens of focal length } f_2. \text{ A beam of light coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens-concave mirror combination returns to infinity. The distance } d \text{ must be equal to:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$f_1 + f_2$, $-f_1 + f_2$...
4
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17522
$\text{A ray of light falls on a transparent sphere as shown in the figure. If the final ray emerges from the sphere parallel to the horizontal diameter, then calculate the refractive index of the sphere. Consider that the sphere is kept in the air.}$
1
124
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{2}$, $\sqrt{3}$...
2
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17521
$\text{A spherical fishbowl of radius } 15 \text{ cm is filled with water of refractive index } \frac{4}{3}. \text{ A cat standing outside in the air at a distance of } 30 \text{ cm from the centre of the fishbowl is looking at the fish. At what distance from the centre would the cat appear to the fish situated at the centre?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$45 \text{ cm}$, $30 \text{ cm}$...
1
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17520
$\text{A mark on the surface of the sphere } \left( \mu = \frac{3}{2} \right) \text{ is viewed from a diametrically}$ $\text{opposite position. It appears to be at a distance } 15 \text{ cm from its actual}$ $\text{position. The radius of the sphere is:}$ $1. \ 15 \text{ cm}$ $2. \ 5 \text{ cm}$ $3. \ 7.5 \text{ cm}$ $4. \ 2.5 \text{ cm}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$15 \text{ cm}$, $5 \text{ cm}$...
3
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17519
$\text{A glass sphere } \left( \mu = \frac{3}{2} \right) \text{ of radius } 12 \text{ cm has a small mark at a distance of } 3 \text{ cm from its centre. Where will this mark appear when it is viewed from the side nearest to the mark along the line joining the centre and the mark?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$8 \text{ cm inside the sphere}$, $12 \text{ cm inside the sphere}$...
1
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17518
$\text{In a glass } (\mu = 1.5) \text{ sphere with a radius of } 10 \text{ cm, there is an air bubble } B \text{ at a distance of } 5 \text{ cm from } C. \text{ The distance of the bubble from the surface of the sphere (i.e., point } A) \text{ as observed from the point } P \text{ in the air will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$4.5 \text{ cm}$, $20.0 \text{ cm}$...
2
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17517
$\text{The slab of a refractive index material equal to } 2 \text{ shown in the figure has a curved surface } APB \text{ of a radius of curvature of } 10 \text{ cm and a plane surface } CD. \text{ On the left of } APB \text{ is air and on the right of } CD \text{ is water with refractive indices as given in the figure. An object } O \text{ is placed at a distance of } 15 \text{ cm from the pole } P \text{ as shown. The distance of the final image of } O \text{ from } P \text{ as viewed from the left is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$20 \text{ cm}$, $30 \text{ cm}$...
2
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17516
$\text{The following diagram shows a glass sphere of radius } 10 \text{ cm with a paraxial incident ray.}$ $\text{The refractive index of the material of the glass is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2$, $1.5$...
1
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17515
$\text{In the following diagram, what is the distance } x \text{ if the radius of curvature is } R = 15 \text{ cm?}$
1
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$30 \text{ cm}$, $20 \text{ cm}$...
1
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17514
$\text{A glass slab is placed with the right-angled prism as shown in the figure. The possible value of } \theta \text{ such that light incident normally on the prism does not pass through the glass slab is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$30^\circ$, $37^\circ$...
4
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17513
$\text{A plane mirror is placed horizontally inside water } \left( \mu = \frac{4}{3} \right).$ $\text{A ray falls normally on it. Then the mirror is rotated through an angle } \theta.$ $\text{The minimum value of } \theta \text{ for which the ray does not come out of the water surface is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\pi}{4}$, $\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)$...
3
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17512
$\text{A light ray from the air is incident (as shown in the figure) at one end of glass}$ $\text{fibre (refractive index } \mu = 1.5) \text{ making an incidence angle of } 60^\circ \text{ on the lateral}$ $\text{surface so that it undergoes a total internal reflection. How much time would it}$ $\text{take to traverse the straight fibre of a length of 1 km?}$
1
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$3.33 \, \mu s$, $6.67 \, \mu s$...
3
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17511
$\text{To a diver inside water, the setting sun will appear at an angle (with the horizontal) of: } \left[ \mu_w = \frac{5}{4} \right]$
1
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Recommended Questions
$53^\circ$, $37^\circ$...
2
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17510
$\text{A light ray is incident at an angle of } 30^\circ \text{ on a transparent surface separating two media.}$ $\text{If the angle of refraction is } 60^\circ, \text{ then the critical angle is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)$, $\sin^{-1}\left(\sqrt{3}\right)$...
1
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17509
$\text{For the given incident ray as shown in the figure, in the condition of the total}$ $\text{internal reflection of this ray, the minimum refractive index of the prism will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\sqrt{3} + 1}{2}$, $\frac{\sqrt{2} + 1}{2}$...
3
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17508
$\text{A rod of glass } (\mu = 1.5) \text{ and of the square cross-section is bent into the shape as shown.}$ $\text{A parallel beam of light falls on the plane's flat surface } A \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{If } d \text{ is the width of a side and } R \text{ is the radius of a circular arc}$ $\text{then for what maximum value of } \frac{d}{R}, \text{ light entering the glass slab through the surface } A \text{ will emerge from the glass through } B?$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.5$, $0.5$...
2
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17507
$\text{A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with a liquid. A ray of light from the coin travels up, to the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface (see figure).}$ $\text{How fast is the light traveling in the liquid?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.8 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s}$, $2.4 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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17506
$\text{A fish is a little away below the surface of a lake. If the critical angle is } 49^\circ, \text{ then the fish could see things above the water surface within an angular range of } \theta^\circ \text{ where:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\theta = 49^\circ$, $\theta = 90^\circ$...
3
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17505
$\text{If } C_1, C_2 \text{ and } C_3 \text{ are the critical angle of glass-air interface for red, violet and yellow color, then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$C_3 > C_2 > C_1$, $C_1 > C_2 > C_3$...
4
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17504
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ $\text{In total internal reflection, the angle of incidence must be greater than a certain minimum angle which depends on the media involved.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ $\text{Total internal reflection cannot occur when light is traveling from an optically rarer to an optically denser medium.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$...
2
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17503
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{Critical angle of light passing from angle to air is minimum for violet colour.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{The wavelength of violet light is greater than the light of other colours.}$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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17502
$\text{In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair of media in contact, what will be the angle of refraction?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$90^\circ$, $180^\circ$...
1
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17501
$\text{Light enters at an angle of incidence in a transparent rod of refractive index } n. \text{ For what value of the refractive index of the material of the rod, will the light, once entered into it, not leave it through its lateral face whatsoever be the value of the angle of incidence?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$n > \sqrt{2}$, $1.0$...
1
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17500
$\text{The ratio of the velocity of light in a medium to the velocity of light in a vacuum is } \frac{4}{5}. \text{ If the ray of light is emerging from this medium into the air, then the critical angle for this interface of medium and air will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$30^\circ$, $37^\circ$...
3
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17499
$\text{The speed of light in media } M_1 \text{ and } M_2 \text{ is } 1.5 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s and } 2.0 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s respectively. A ray of light enters from medium } M_1 \text{ to } M_2 \text{ at an incidence angle } i. \text{ If the ray suffers total internal reflection, the value of } i \text{ is:}$
1
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$\text{equal to } \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)$, $\text{equal to or less than } \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{5}\right)$...
3
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17498
$\text{A diverging beam of light from a point source } S \text{ having divergence angle } \alpha, \text{ falls symmetrically on a glass slab as shown.}$ $\text{The angles of incidence of the two extreme rays are equal.}$ $\text{If the thickness of the glass slab is } t \text{ and the refractive index } n, \text{ then the divergence angle of the emergent beam is:}$
1
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$\text{zero}$, $\alpha$...
2
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17497
$\text{A beam of light composed of red and green rays is incident obliquely at a point on the face of a rectangular glass slab. When coming out on the opposite parallel face, the red and green rays emerge from:}$
1
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$\text{Two points propagating in two different parallel directions}$, $\text{One point propagating in two different directions through the slab}$...
1
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17496
$\text{For a light incident from air on a slab of refractive index 2, the maximum possible angle of refraction is:}$
1
124
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$30^\circ$, $45^\circ$...
1
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17495
$\text{A fish at a depth } y \text{ inside the water is seeing a bird.}$ $\text{The bird is at a height } x \text{ above the water level.}$ $\text{If the refractive index of water is } \mu, \text{ then the apparent distance of bird as seen by the fish is:}$
1
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$x + \mu y$, $y + \mu x$...
2
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17494
$\text{Two slabs } P \text{ and } Q \text{ of transparent materials have a thickness in the ratio } 2 : 5. \text{ If a ray of light takes the same amount of time to move from } A \text{ to } B \text{ and } B \text{ to } C, \text{ then the refractive index of } Q \text{ with respect to } P \text{ will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.4$, $2.5$...
1
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17493
$\text{A plane mirror is placed at the bottom of a fish tank filled with water of refractive index } \frac{4}{3}. \text{ The fish is at a height 10 cm above the plane mirror. An observer } O \text{ is vertically above the fish outside the water. The apparent distance between the fish and its image is:}$
1
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$15 \text{ cm}$, $30 \text{ cm}$...
1
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17492
$\text{An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index } 1.5 \text{ (near-normal incidence) is } 5 \text{ cm deep when viewed from one surface and } 3 \text{ cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is:}$
1
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$8$, $10$...
3
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17491
$\text{In the figure shown the angle made by the light ray with the normal in the medium of refractive index } \sqrt{2} \text{ is:}$ $n_1 = 1$ $n_2 = \sqrt{3}$ $n_3 = \sqrt{2}$ $n_4 = 2$ $n_5 = 1.6$
1
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$30^\circ$, $60^\circ$...
1
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17490
$\text{When a ray of light falls on a given plate at an angle of incidence } 60^\circ, \text{ the reflected and refracted rays are found to be normal to each other. The refractive index of the material of the plate is:}$
1
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$\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$, $1.5$...
3
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17489
$\text{A medium shows relation between } i \text{ and } r \text{ as shown. If the speed of light in the medium is } nc \text{ then the value of } n \text{ is:}$ $\sin r$ $\sin i$
1
124
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1.5, 2...
4
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17488
$\text{The graph between } u \text{ and } v \text{ for a convex mirror is:}$
1
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$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
1
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17487
$\text{A concave mirror of focal length } f \text{ produces an image } n \text{ times the size of the object. If the image is real, then the distance of the object from the mirror is:}$
1
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$(n - 1)f$, $\frac{(n - 1)}{n}f$...
3
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17486
$\text{A point object is moving on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length } 24 \text{ cm towards the mirror.}$ $\text{When it is at a distance of } 60 \text{ cm from the mirror, its velocity is } 9 \text{ cm/sec.}$ $\text{What is the velocity of the image at that instant?}$
1
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$5 \text{ cm/sec towards the mirror}$, $4 \text{ cm/sec towards the mirror}$...
3
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17485
$\text{A square of side } 3 \text{ cm is placed at a distance of } 25 \text{ cm from a concave mirror of focal length } 10 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{The centre of the square is at the axis of the mirror and the plane is normal to the axis.}$ $\text{The area enclosed by the image of the square is:}$
1
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$4 \text{ cm}^2$, $6 \text{ cm}^2$...
1
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17484
$\text{The distance between the object and its real image formed by a concave mirror is minimum when the distance of the object from the center of curvature of the mirror is: (where } f \text{ is the focal length of the mirror)}$
1
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$\text{zero}$, $\frac{f}{2}$...
1
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17483
$\text{A thin rod of length } \frac{f}{3} \text{ lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length } f.$ $\text{One end of its magnified, real image touches an end of the rod. The length of the image is:}$
1
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$f$, $\frac{f}{2}$...
2
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17482
$\text{A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is:}$
1
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$10 \text{ cm}$, $15 \text{ cm}$...
4
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17481
$\text{A convex mirror of focal length } f \text{ forms an image which is } \frac{1}{n} \text{ times the length of the object. The distance of the object from the mirror is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\left( n - 1 \right) f$, $\left( \frac{n - 1}{n} \right) f$...
1
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17480
$\text{A concave mirror gives an image three times as large as the object placed at a distance of } 20 \text{ cm from it. For the image to be real, the focal length should be:}$
1
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$10 \text{ cm}$, $15 \text{ cm}$...
2
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17479
$\text{A } 4.5 \text{ cm needle is placed } 12 \text{ cm away from a convex mirror of focal length } 15 \text{ cm. What is the magnification?}$ $1.\ 0.5$ $2.\ 0.56$ $3.\ 0.45$ $4.\ 0.15$
1
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$0.5$, $0.56$...
2
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17478
$\text{When a concave mirror of focal length } f \text{ is immersed in water, its focal length becomes } f', \text{ then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$f' = f$, $f' < f$...
1
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17477
12
1
124
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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17476
$\text{The diagram represents a concave mirror, where } F \text{ is the principal focus and } f \text{ is the focal length. The mirror is used to produce an image of an object.}$ $\text{Which of the following statements are correct? (assume the mirror is parabolic)}$
1
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$(A) \text{ Incident rays traveling parallel to the principal axis always pass through } F \text{ after reflection.}$, $(B) \text{ Incident rays passing through } F \text{ always travel parallel to the principal axis after reflection.}$...
4
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17475
$\text{An object is at a distance of } 30 \text{ cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length } 10 \text{ cm. The image of the object will be:}$
1
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$\text{smaller in size.}$, $\text{inverted.}$...
4
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17474
$\text{An object is placed } 20 \text{ cm in front of a concave mirror of a radius of curvature } 10 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{The position of the image from the pole of the mirror is:}$
1
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$7.67 \text{ cm}$, $6.67 \text{ cm}$...
2
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17473
$\text{Image formed by a plane mirror is:}$
1
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$\text{real}$, $\text{virtual}$...
3
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17472
$\text{A car is moving on a straight road at a speed of } 50 \text{ km/h and a truck is ahead of the car and has a large plane mirror fixed vertically on the back of the truck.}$ $\text{The truck is running at a speed of } 70 \text{ km/h.}$ $\text{For a stationary observer standing between the car and the truck, what is the speed of the image of the car in the mirror?}$
1
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$40 \text{ km/h}$, $70 \text{ km/h}$...
4
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17471
$\text{A point source of light } B \text{ is placed at a distance } L \text{ in front of the centre of a mirror of width } d \text{ hung vertically on a wall. A man } (A) \text{ walks in front of the mirror along a line parallel to the mirror at a distance } 2L \text{ from it as shown. The greatest distance over which he can see the image of the light source in the mirror is:}$
1
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$\frac{d}{2}$, $d$...
4
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17470
$\text{A plane mirror approaches a stationary person with acceleration of } 10 \text{ ms}^{-2}. \text{ The acceleration of his image as seen by the person, will be:}$
1
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$10 \text{ m/s}^2$, $20 \text{ m/s}^2$...
2
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17469
$\text{Light of wavelength } 5000 \, \text{\AA} \text{ falls on a plane reflecting surface. For what angle of incidence is the reflected ray normal to the incident ray?}$
1
124
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$37^\circ$, $45^\circ$...
2
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17468
$\text{Two plane mirrors, } A \text{ and } B \text{ are aligned parallel to each other, as shown in the figure. A light ray is incident at an angle of } 30^\circ \text{ at a point just inside one end of } A. \text{ The plane of incidence coincides with the plane of the figure. The maximum number of times the ray undergoes reflections (excluding the first one) before it emerges out is:}$
1
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$28$, $30$...
2
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17467
$\text{The correct mirror image of the figure is:}$
1
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$\text{Option 1}$, $\text{Option 2}$...
3
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17466
$\text{A tall man, of height 6 feet, wants to see his full image. The required minimum length of the mirror will be:}$
1
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$12 \text{ feet}$, $3 \text{ feet}$...
2
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17465
$\text{The } \text{X-ray} \text{ beam can be deflected by:}$
1
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$\text{Magnetic field}$, $\text{Electric field}$...
4
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17464
$\text{Which of the following has the minimum wavelength?}$
1
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$\text{X-rays}$, $\text{Ultraviolet rays}$...
4
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17463
$\text{Which physical quantity does not change in a vacuum for } X\text{-rays?}$ $1. \text{ Speed of light}$ $2. \text{ Wavelength}$ $3. \text{ Frequency}$ $4. \text{ None of these}$
1
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$\text{Speed of light}$, $\text{Wavelength}$...
1
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17462
$\text{Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves is/are correct:}$ $\text{A. } \text{X-rays in a vacuum travel faster than light waves in a vacuum.}$ $\text{B. The energy of a } \text{X-ray photon is greater than that of a light photon.}$ $\text{C. Light can be polarised but } \text{X-rays cannot.}$
1
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$\text{A and B only}$, $\text{B and C only}$...
4
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17461
$\text{The frequency } 1057 \text{ MHz of radiation arising due to electron transition between two close energy levels in hydrogen belongs to:}$
1
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$\text{radio waves}$, $\text{infrared waves}$...
1
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17460
$\text{The energy of the EM wave is of the order of 15 KeV. To which part of the spectrum does it belong?}$
1
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$\text{X-rays}$, $\text{Infrared rays}$...
1
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17459
$\text{What is the cause of "Greenhouse effect"?}$
1
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$\text{Infra-red rays}$, $\text{Ultraviolet rays}$...
1
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17458
$\text{An electromagnetic radiation has an energy } 14.4 \text{ keV. To which region of the electromagnetic spectrum does it belong?}$ $1. \text{ Infrared region}$ $2. \text{ Visible region}$ $3. \text{ X-ray region}$ $4. \gamma\text{-ray region}$
1
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$\text{Infrared region}$, $\text{Visible region}$...
3
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17457
$\text{Which of the following electromagnetic waves has minimum frequency?}$
1
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$\text{Radio waves}$, $\text{Infrared waves}$...
1
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17456
$\text{The EM wave with the shortest wavelength among the following is:}$
1
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$\text{Ultraviolet rays}$, $X\text{-rays}$...
3
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17455
$\text{Light is a kind of wave. The wavelength of visible light ranges from about } 4000 \, \text{\AA} \text{ to } 7000 \, \text{\AA}. \text{ Which of the following statements is false?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Ultraviolet light has a wavelength shorter than } 4000 \, \text{\AA}.$, $\text{Infrared light has a wavelength longer than } 7000 \, \text{\AA}.$...
4
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17454
$\text{Match List I with List II:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List I} & \text{List II} \\ \hline \text{(a) Ultraviolet rays} & \text{(i) Study crystal structure} \\ \text{(b) Microwaves} & \text{(ii) Greenhouse effect} \\ \text{(c) Infrared waves} & \text{(iii) Sterilizing surgical instrument} \\ \text{(d) X-rays} & \text{(iv) Radar system} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct options from the given ones:}$
1
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$(a) \rightarrow (iii), (b) \rightarrow (iv), (c) \rightarrow (ii), (d) \rightarrow (i)$, $(a) \rightarrow (iii), (b) \rightarrow (i), (c) \rightarrow (ii), (d) \rightarrow (iv)$...
1
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17453
$\text{The frequency order for } \gamma\text{-rays } (b), \text{ X-rays } (a), \text{ and } UV\text{-rays } (c) \text{ is:}$
1
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$b > a > c$, $a > b > c$...
1
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17452
$\text{The decreasing order of the wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves}$, $\text{Microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet}$...
4
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17451
$\text{The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules most efficiently is:}$
1
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$\text{the frequency of the microwave must match the resonant frequency of the water molecules.}$, $\text{the frequency of the microwave has no relation to the natural frequency of water molecules.}$...
1
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17450
$\text{The most penetrating radiation out of the following is:}$ $1.\ \text{X-rays}$ $2.\ \beta\text{-rays}$ $3.\ \alpha\text{-rays}$ $4.\ \gamma\text{-rays}$
1
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$\text{X-rays}$, $\beta\text{-rays}$...
4
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17449
$\text{Which of the following is not an electromagnetic wave?}$
1
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$\text{Radio wave}$, $\text{Micro wave}$...
3
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17448
$\lambda_v$, $\lambda_x$, \text{and } \lambda_m$ \text{ represent the wavelengths of visible light, } x\text{-rays and microwaves respectively, then:} $1. \lambda_m > \lambda_x > \lambda_v$ $2. \lambda_v > \lambda_m > \lambda_x$ $3. \lambda_v > \lambda_x > \lambda_m$ $4. \lambda_m > \lambda_v > \lambda_x$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\lambda_m > \lambda_x > \lambda_v$, $\lambda_v > \lambda_m > \lambda_x$...
4
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17447
$\text{Which statement is correct for X-rays and gamma rays?}$
1
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$\text{X-rays are emitted from electronic transitions while gamma rays are emitted from nuclear transitions.}$, $\text{X-rays have less penetrating power in comparison to gamma rays, in general.}$...
4
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17446
$\text{Which colour of light has the longest wavelength?}$
1
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$\text{violet}$, $\text{red}$...
2
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17445
$\text{Choose the correct option:}$
1
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$\text{The radiation in increasing order of frequency are radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays.}$, $\text{The wavelength of colours in increasing order is violet, indigo, green, yellow, orange and red.}$...
4
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17444
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{Electromagnetic waves propagate through all media with a speed } c = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\varepsilon_0 \mu_0}}.$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{Electromagnetic waves can undergo reflection and refraction.}$
1
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$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$...
1
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17443
$\text{In an electromagnetic wave:}$
1
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$\text{power is transmitted along the magnetic field.}$, $\text{power is transmitted along the electric field.}$...
4
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17442
$\text{An electromagnetic wave going through the vacuum is described by}$ $E = E_0 \sin(kx - \omega t).$ $\text{Which is the following is/are independent of the wavelength?}$
1
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$k$, $\frac{k}{\omega}$...
2
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17441
$\text{The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by}$ $\vec{E} = 10 \cos(10^7 t + kx) \hat{j} \ \text{V/m, where} \ t \ \text{and} \ x \ \text{are in seconds and meters respectively. It can be inferred that:}$ $1. \ \text{The wavelength} \ \lambda \ \text{is} \ 188.4 \ \text{m.}$ $2. \ \text{The wave number} \ k \ \text{is} \ 0.33 \ \text{rad/m.}$ $3. \ \text{The wave amplitude is} \ 10 \ \text{V/m.}$ $4. \ \text{The wave is propagating along} \ +x \ \text{direction}$ $\text{Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct?}$
1
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$(3) \ \text{and} \ (4)$, $(1) \ \text{and} \ (2)$...
4
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17440
$\text{The intensity of visible radiation at a distance of 1 m from a bulb of 100 W which converts only } 5\% \text{ of its power into light, is:}$
1
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$0.4 \text{ W/m}^2$, $0.5 \text{ W/m}^2$...
1
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17439
$\text{A lamp radiates power } P_0 \text{ uniformly in all directions. The amplitude of electric field strength } E_0 \text{ at a distance } r \text{ from it is:}$
1
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$E_0 = \frac{P_0}{2\pi \varepsilon_0 c r^2}$, $E_0 = \sqrt{\frac{P_0}{2\pi \varepsilon_0 c r^2}}$...
2
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17438
$\text{A lamp emits monochromatic green light uniformly in all directions. The lamp is } 3\% \text{ efficient in converting electrical power to electromagnetic waves and consumes } 100 \text{ W of power. The amplitude of the electric field associated with the electromagnetic radiation at a distance of } 5 \text{ m from the lamp will be:}$
1
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$1.34 \text{ V/m}$, $2.68 \text{ V/m}$...
2
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17437
$\text{The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is:}$ $\text{(} c = \text{speed of electromagnetic waves)}$
1
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$1 : 1$, $1 : c$...
1
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17436
$\text{In an electromagnetic wave, if the electric field oscillated sinusoidally with an amplitude of } 48 \, \text{Vm}^{-1}, \text{ then the RMS value of the oscillating magnetic field will be:}$ $1. \; 1.6 \times 10^{-8} \, \text{T}$ $2. \; 1.6 \times 10^{-9} \, \text{T}$ $3. \; 144 \times 10^{-8} \, \text{T}$ $4. \; 11.3 \times 10^{-8} \, \text{T}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.6 \times 10^{-8} \, \text{T}$, $1.6 \times 10^{-9} \, \text{T}$...
4
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17435
$\text{Consider the following statements about electromagnetic waves and choose the correct ones:}$ $\text{S}_1: \text{Electromagnetic waves having wavelengths 1000 times smaller than light waves are called X-rays.}$ $\text{S}_2: \text{Ultraviolet waves are used in the treatment of swollen joints.}$ $\text{S}_3: \text{Alpha and gamma rays are not electromagnetic waves.}$ $\text{S}_4: \text{de-Broglie waves are not electromagnetic in nature.}$ $\text{S}_5: \text{Electromagnetic waves exhibit polarization while sound waves do not.}$
1
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$\text{S}_1, \text{S}_4, \text{and S}_5$, $\text{S}_3, \text{S}_4, \text{and S}_5$...
1
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17434
$\text{If an electromagnetic wave going through a medium is given by;}$ $E = E_0 \sin(kx - \omega t) \text{ and } B = B_0 \sin(kx - \omega t), \text{ then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$E_0k = B_0\omega$, $\text{If the electric field is in the } z\text{-direction then the magnetic field should be in the } -y\text{-direction}$...
3
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17433
$\text{In electromagnetic wave the phase difference between electric and magnetic field vectors } \vec{E} \text{ and } \vec{B} \text{ is:}$
1
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$0$, $\frac{\pi}{2}$...
1
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17432
$\text{The speed of an electromagnetic wave in a medium of dielectric constant } 2.25$ $\text{ and relative permeability } 4 \text{ is approximately:}$
1
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$1 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s}$, $2.5 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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17431
$\text{In an electromagnetic wave in free space, the root mean square value of the electric field is } E_{\text{rms}} = 6 \text{ V/m. The peak value of the magnetic field is:}$
1
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$2.83 \times 10^{-8} \text{ T}$, $0.70 \times 10^{-8} \text{ T}$...
1
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17430
$\text{For a transparent medium, relative permeability and permittivity, } \mu_r \text{ and } \varepsilon_r \text{ are } 1.0 \text{ and } 1.44 \text{ respectively. The velocity of light in this medium would be:}$
1
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$2.5 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s}$, $3 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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17429
$\text{If an electromagnetic wave of frequency } f = 3 \text{ MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with relative permittivity } K = 4.0, \text{ then:}$
1
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$\text{wavelength is 2 times and frequency becomes half.}$, $\text{wavelength is half and frequency remains unchanged.}$...
2
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17428
$\text{In a plane EM wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of } 2.5 \times 10^{10} \text{ Hz and amplitude } 480 \text{ V/m.}$ $\text{The amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.52 \times 10^{-8} \text{ Wb/m}^2$, $1.52 \times 10^{-7} \text{ Wb/m}^2$...
3
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17427
$\text{If } \varepsilon_0 \text{ and } \mu_0 \text{ represent the permittivity and permeability of vacuum and } \varepsilon \text{ and } \mu \text{ represent the permittivity and permeability of the medium, the refractive index of the medium is given by:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{\frac{\varepsilon_0 \mu_0}{\varepsilon \mu}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{\varepsilon \mu}{\varepsilon_0 \mu_0}}$...
2
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17426
$\text{The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a vacuum is;}$ $\vec{E} = (3.1 \text{ N/C}) \cos[(1.8 \text{ rad/m}) y + (5.4 \times 10^8 \text{ rad/s}) t] \hat{i}.$ $\text{What is the frequency of the wave?}$
1
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$5.7 \times 10^7 \text{ Hz}$, $9.3 \times 10^7 \text{ Hz}$...
3
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17425
$\text{The electric field associated with an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is given by } E = 40 \cos(kz - 6 \times 10^8 t), \text{ where } E, z, \text{ and } t \text{ are in volt/m, meter, and second respectively. The value of the wave vector } k \text{ would be:}$
1
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$2 \text{ m}^{-1}$, $0.5 \text{ m}^{-1}$...
1
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17424
$\text{The ratio of the amplitude of a magnetic field to the amplitude of an electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in a vacuum is equal to:}$
1
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$\text{reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum.}$, $\text{the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum.}$...
1
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17423
$\text{The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented by:}$ $E_x = 0;$ $E_y = \left(2.5 \frac{\text{N}}{\text{C}}\right) \cos \left[ \left(2\pi \times 10^6 \frac{\text{rad}}{\text{s}}\right) t - \left(\pi \times 10^{-2} \frac{\text{rad}}{\text{m}}\right) x \right];$ $E_z = 0.$ $\text{The wave is:}$
1
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$\text{Moving along } y\text{-direction with frequency } 2\pi \times 10^6 \text{ Hz and wavelength 200 m.}$, $\text{Moving along } +x\text{-direction with frequency } 10^6 \text{ Hz and wavelength 100 m.}$...
3
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17422
$\text{If an electromagnetic wave propagating through vacuum is described by}$ $E_y = E_0 \sin(kx - \omega t); \quad B_z = B_0 \sin(kx - \omega t), \text{ then:}$
1
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$E_0 k = B_0 \omega$, $E_0 B_0 = \omega k$...
1
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17421
$\text{The energy density of the electromagnetic wave in vacuum is given by the relation:}$
1
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$\frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{E^2}{\varepsilon_0} + \frac{B^2}{2\mu_0}$, $\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_0 E^2 + \frac{1}{2} \mu_0 B^2$...
4
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17420
$\text{The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by}$ $B_z = 2 \times 10^{-7} \sin(0.5 \times 10^3 x - 1.5 \times 10^{11} t) \text{ T.}$ $\text{The expression for the electric field will be:}$
1
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$E_z = 30 \sqrt{2} \sin(0.5 \times 10^3 x - 1.5 \times 10^{11} t) \text{ V/m}$, $E_z = 60 \sin(0.5 \times 10^3 x - 1.5 \times 10^{11} t) \text{ V/m}$...
4
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17419
$\text{The sun delivers } 10^3 \text{ W/m}^2 \text{ of electromagnetic flux to the earth's surface. The total power that is incident on a roof of dimensions } 8 \text{ m} \times 20 \text{ m will be:}$
1
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$2.56 \times 10^4 \text{ W}$, $6.4 \times 10^5 \text{ W}$...
4
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17418
$\text{An EM wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity } \vec{v} = v \hat{i}. \text{ The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this EM wave is along the } +y \text{ axis.}$ $\text{The direction of the oscillating magnetic field of the EM wave will be along:}$
1
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$-z\text{-direction}$, $+z\text{-direction}$...
2
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17417
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{Light can travel in vacuum but sound cannot do so.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{Light is an electromagnetic wave and sound is a mechanical wave.}$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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17416
$\text{Consider an oscillator which has a charged particle oscillating about its mean position with a frequency of } 300 \text{ MHz. The wavelength of electromagnetic waves produced by this oscillator would be:}$ $1. \ 1 \text{ m}$ $2. \ 10 \text{ m}$ $3. \ 100 \text{ m}$ $4. \ 1000 \text{ m}$
1
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$1 \text{ m}$, $10 \text{ m}$...
1
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17415
$\text{The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by:}$ $B_y = 2 \times 10^{-7} \sin(\pi \times 10^3 x + 3\pi \times 10^{11} t) \ \text{T}$ $\text{The wavelength is:}$
1
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$\pi \times 10^3 \ \text{m}$, $2 \times 10^{-3} \ \text{m}$...
2
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17414
$\text{In an electromagnetic wave, energy density associated with a magnetic field will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2} LI^2$, $\frac{B^2}{2\mu_0}$...
2
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17413
$\text{The electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave are:}$
1
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$\text{In phase and parallel to each other}$, $\text{In opposite phases and perpendicular to each other}$...
4
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17412
$\text{The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an electromagnetic wave,}$ $\text{propagating along the } +z\text{-axis, can be represented by:}$
1
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$[E = E_0 \hat{k}, B = B_0 \hat{i}]$, $[E = E_0 \hat{i}, B = B_0 \hat{j}]$...
4
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17411
$\text{Which of the following statements is false regarding the properties of electromagnetic waves?}$
1
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$\text{Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and the same time}$, $\text{The energy in an electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors}$...
3
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17410
$\text{The velocity of electromagnetic wave is parallel to:}$
1
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$\vec{B} \times \vec{E}$, $\vec{E} \times \vec{B}$...
2
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17409
$\text{Consider an electric charge oscillating with a frequency of } 10 \text{ MHz. The radiation emitted will have a wavelength equal to:}$
1
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$20 \text{ m}$, $30 \text{ m}$...
2
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17408
$\text{Which statement is incorrect?}$ $1.\ \text{Speed of light in free space} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0\varepsilon_0}}$ $2.\ \text{Speed of light in the medium} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu\varepsilon}}$ $3.\ \frac{E_0}{B_0} = c$ $4.\ \frac{B_0}{E_0} = c$
1
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$1\ (3\%)$, $2\ (4\%)$...
4
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17407
$\text{A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along } x\text{-axis. At a particular point in space, the electric field along } y\text{-axis is } 9.3 \ \text{Vm}^{-1}. \text{ The magnetic induction is:}$
1
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$3.1 \times 10^{-8} \ \text{T}$, $3 \times 10^{-5} \ \text{T}$...
1
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17406
$\text{The magnetic field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is } 2 \times 10^{-7} \text{ T.}$ $\text{Its electric field amplitude if the wave is travelling in free space is:}$
1
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$6 \text{ Vm}^{-1}$, $60 \text{ Vm}^{-1}$...
2
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17405
$\text{The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity } \varepsilon_0 \text{ and}$ $\text{permeability } \mu_0 \text{ is given by:}$
1
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$\sqrt{\frac{\varepsilon_0}{\mu_0}}$, $\sqrt{\mu_0 \varepsilon_0}$...
3
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17404
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{Electromagnetic waves are radiated when a charged particle undergoes SHM.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{Electromagnetic waves propagate energy in the direction of the electric field of the wave.}$
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$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$...
4
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17403
$\text{Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?}$
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$\text{a stationary charge.}$, $\text{a chargeless particle.}$...
3
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17402
$\text{If a source is transmitting an electromagnetic wave of frequency}$ $8.2 \times 10^6 \ \text{Hz, then the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave transmitted from the source will be:}$
1
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$36.6 \ \text{m}$, $40.5 \ \text{m}$...
1
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17401
$\text{Which of the following is not Maxwell's equation?}$ $\left( \rho = \text{volume charge density}, \ J = \text{current density}, \ m = \text{pole strength}, \ V = \text{volume}, \ S = \text{a closed surface, and} \ C = \text{closed loop} \right)$
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Recommended Questions
$\oint_S \vec{E} \cdot d\vec{S} = \frac{1}{\varepsilon_0} \int_V \rho dV$, $\oint_S \vec{B} \cdot d\vec{S} = \frac{m}{\mu_0}$...
4
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17400
$\text{The figure shows a parallel plate capacitor being charged by a battery. If } X \text{ and } Y \text{ are two closed curves then during charging, } \oint \vec{B} \cdot d\vec{l} \text{ is zero along the curve:}$
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$X \text{ only}$, $Y \text{ only}$...
4
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17399
$\oint \vec{B} \cdot \vec{dl} = \mu_0 \left( i + \varepsilon_0 \cdot \frac{d(\phi)E}{dt} \right)$ $\text{is a statement of:}$ $1. \text{Faraday's law of induction}$ $2. \text{Modified Ampere's law}$ $3. \text{Gauss's law of electricity}$ $4. \text{Gauss's law of magnetism}$
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$\text{Faraday's law of induction}$, $\text{Modified Ampere's law}$...
2
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17398
$\text{Maxwell's equation describes the fundamental laws of:}$
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$\text{Electricity only}$, $\text{Magnetism only}$...
4
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17397
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{Displacement current goes through the gap between the plates of a capacitor when the charge of the capacitor does not change}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{The displacement current arises in the region in which the electric field and hence the electric flux does not change with time.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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17396
$\text{Displacement current is the same as:}$
1
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$\text{Conduction current due to the flow of free electrons}$, $\text{Conduction current due to the flow of positive ions}$...
4
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17395
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor consists of two circular plates each of radius } 12 \text{ cm and separated by } 5.0 \text{ mm. The capacitor is being charged by an external source. The charging current is constant and is equal to } 0.15 \text{ A. The rate of change of the potential difference between the plates will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$1.873 \times 10^7 \text{ V/s}$, $1.873 \times 10^8 \text{ V/s}$...
3
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17394
$\text{A larger parallel plate capacitor, whose plates have an area of } 1 \text{ m}^2, \text{ separated from each other by } 1 \text{ mm, is being charged at a rate of } 25.8 \text{ V/s. If the plates have a dielectric constant } 10, \text{ then the displacement current at this instant is:}$ $1. \ 25 \ \mu\text{A}$ $2. \ 11 \ \mu\text{A}$ $3. \ 2.2 \ \mu\text{A}$ $4. \ 1.1 \ \mu\text{A}$
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$25 \ \mu\text{A}$, $11 \ \mu\text{A}$...
3
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17393
$\text{A capacitor is made of two circular plates each of radius 12 cm and separated by 5.0 cm. The capacitor being charged by an external source. The charging current is constant and equal to 0.15 A. The displacement current across the plates is:}$ $1.\ 0$ $2.\ 0.14\ \text{A}$ $3.\ 0.16\ \text{A}$ $4.\ 0.15\ \text{A}$
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$0$, $0.14\ \text{A}$...
4
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17392
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor with plate area } A \text{ and separation between the plates } d, \text{ is charged by a source having current } i \text{ at some instant.}$ $\text{Consider a plane surface of area } \frac{A}{2} \text{ parallel to the plates and drawn symmetrically between the plates.}$ $\text{The displacement current through this area is:}$
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$i$, $\frac{i}{2}$...
2
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17391
$\text{The charge of a parallel plate capacitor is varying as;} \; q = q_0 \sin \omega t. \; \text{The magnitude of displacement current through the capacitor is:}$ $\text{(the plate Area = } A, \text{ separation of plates = } d)$
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$q_0 \cos(\omega t)$, $q_0 \omega \sin \omega t$...
3
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17390
$\text{A variable frequency AC source is connected to a capacitor. Then on increasing the frequency:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both conduction current and displacement current will increase}$, $\text{Both conduction current and displacement current will decrease}$...
1
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17389
$\text{In an electric circuit, there is a capacitor of reactance } 100 \, \Omega \text{ connected across the source of } 220 \, \text{V. The rms value of displacement current will be:}$
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$2.2 \, \text{A}$, $0.22 \, \text{A}$...
1
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17388
$\text{Instantaneous displacement current of } 2.0 \text{ A is set up in the space between two parallel plates of } 1 \ \mu\text{F capacitor. The rate of change in potential difference across the capacitor is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.3 \times 10^6 \ \text{V/s}$, $4 \times 10^6 \ \text{V/s}$...
3
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17387
$\text{The S.I. unit of displacement current is:}$ $1.\ \text{Henry}$ $2.\ \text{Coulomb}$ $3.\ \text{Ampere}$ $4.\ \text{Farad}$
1
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$\text{Henry}$, $\text{Coulomb}$...
3
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17386
$\text{A capacitor is having a capacity of } 2 \text{ pF.}$ $\text{The electric potential across the capacitor is changing with a value of } 10^{12} \text{ V/s.}$ $\text{The displacement current is:}$
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$2 \text{ A}$, $3 \text{ A}$...
1
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17385
$\text{In AC (alternating current) generator, a coil of wire rotates in a magnetic field.}$ $\text{Which of the following would change the potential difference measured by the voltmeter in the system above?}$ $\text{(a) use more turns of wire in the coil.}$ $\text{(b) use thicker wire.}$ $\text{(c) change the speed of rotation.}$ $\text{Choose the correct option from the given ones:}$
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$(c) \text{ only}$, $(a), (b) \text{ and } (c)$...
4
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17384
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{Large-scale transmission and distribution of electric energy over long distances are done by stepping the voltage up by a transformer.} $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{This cuts down the loss of energy due to eddy currents.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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17383
$\text{In a step-up transformer, the turn ratio is } 1 : 2. \text{ A Leclanche cell (emf } 1.5 \text{ V) is connected across the primary coil. What would be the voltage developed in the secondary coil?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$3.0 \text{ V}$, $0.75 \text{ V}$...
4
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17382
$\text{A 220 V input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0 A at 440 V. What is the current drawn by the primary windings of the transformer if the efficiency of the transformer is 80\%?}$
1
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$3.6 \text{ A}$, $2.8 \text{ A}$...
4
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17381
$\text{In a transformer, the number of turns in the primary and secondary coils is } 410 \text{ and } 1230 \text{ respectively. If the current in the primary is } 6 \text{ A, then what is the current in the secondary coil?}$ $1. \ 2 \ \text{A}$ $2. \ 18 \ \text{A}$ $3. \ 12 \ \text{A}$ $4. \ 1 \ \text{A}$
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Recommended Questions
$2 \ \text{A}$, $18 \ \text{A}$...
1
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17380
$\text{A transformer has an efficiency of } 90\% \text{ when working on a } 200 \text{ V and } 3 \text{ kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is } 6 \text{ A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil, respectively, are:}$
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Recommended Questions
$300 \text{ V, } 15 \text{ A}$, $450 \text{ V, } 15 \text{ A}$...
2
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17379
$\text{In the transformer shown in the figure, the ratio of the number of turns of the primary to the secondary is } \frac{N_1}{N_2} = \frac{1}{50}. \text{ If a voltage source of } 10 \text{ V is connected across the primary, then the induced current through the load of } 10 \text{ k}\Omega \text{ in the secondary is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{20} \text{ A}$, $\text{zero}$...
1
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17378
$\text{When a step-down transformer is connected to a 2400 volt line, the output load receives 80 amps of current.}$ $\text{The ratio of the turns in the primary and secondary coils is } 20 : 1.$ $\text{If transformer efficiency is } 100\%, \text{ then the current flowing in the primary coil will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1600 \text{ A}$, $20 \text{ A}$...
3
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17377
$\text{In a step-up transformer, the turn ratio is } 1 : 20. \text{ The resistance of } 100 \, \Omega \text{ connected across the secondary is drawing a current of } 2 \, \text{A. What are the primary voltage and current respectively?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$100 \, \text{V}, \, 0.5 \, \text{A}$, $200 \, \text{V}, \, 10 \, \text{A}$...
3
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17376
$\text{A step-down transformer transforms a supply line voltage of } 2200 \text{ volt into } 220 \text{ volt. The primary coil has } 5000 \text{ turns. The efficiency and power transmitted by the transformer are } 90\% \text{ and } 8 \text{ kilowatts respectively. How many turns are there in the secondary one?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$5000$, $50$...
3
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17375
$\text{The primary winding of a transformer has 500 turns whereas its secondary has 5000 turns. The primary is connected to an AC supply of 20 V, 50 Hz. What will be the output of the secondary transformer?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$200 \text{ V, 50 Hz}$, $2 \text{ V, 50 Hz}$...
1
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17374
$\text{The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux } \phi \text{ linked with the primary coils is given by } \phi = \phi_0 + 4t, \text{ where } \phi \text{ is in webers, } t \text{ is time in seconds, and } \phi_0 \text{ is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$120 \text{ V}$, $220 \text{ V}$...
1
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17373
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{If the terminals of the primary of a transformer are connected across a battery then no emf is induced across the secondary in a steady state.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{The battery provides a steady current, so there is no change in flux linked with the secondary.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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17372
$\text{Turn ratio of a step-up transformer is } 1 : 25. \text{ If current in load coil is } 2 \text{ A, then the current in primary coil will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$25 \text{ A}$, $50 \text{ A}$...
2
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17371
$\text{The core of a transformer is laminated because:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Energy losses due to eddy currents may be minimized}$, $\text{The weight of the transformer may be reduced}$...
1
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17370
$\text{An inductor of } 20 \text{ mH, a capacitor of } 50 \ \mu\text{F, and a resistor of } 40 \, \Omega \text{ are connected in series across a source of emf } V = 10 \sin 340t. \text{ What will be the power loss in the AC circuit?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.67 \text{ W}$, $0.78 \text{ W}$...
4
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17369
$\text{The power factor of a good choke coil is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Nearly zero}$, $\text{Exactly zero}$...
1
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17368
$\text{In an } L-R \text{ circuit, the inductive reactance is equal to the resistance } R \text{ of the circuit. An emf of } E = E_0 \cos(\omega t) \text{ is applied to the circuit. The power consumed by the circuit is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{E_0^2}{\sqrt{2}R}$, $\frac{E_0^2}{4R}$...
2
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17367
$\text{An inductor of } 20 \text{ mH, a capacitor of } 100 \ \mu\text{F, and a resistor of } 50 \, \Omega \text{ are connected in series across a source of emf, } V = 10 \sin(314t). \text{ What is the power loss in this circuit?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.79 \text{ W}$, $0.43 \text{ W}$...
1
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17366
$\text{What is the instantaneous power of a resistor having resistance } R \text{ across an AC supply of } E = E_0 \sin(\omega t)?$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{E_0^2}{R} \sin^2 \omega t$, $\frac{E_0^2}{R} \cos^2 \omega t$...
1
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17365
$\text{A resistance } R \text{ draws power } P \text{ when connected to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed in series with the resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes } Z \text{ the power drawn will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$P \left( \frac{R}{Z} \right)^2$, $P \sqrt{\frac{R}{Z}}$...
1
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17364
$\text{If } R \text{ and } L \text{ are resistance and inductance of a choke coil and } f \text{ is the frequency of current through it, then the average power of the choke coil is proportional to:}$ $1. \ R$ $2. \ \frac{1}{f^2}$ $3. \ \frac{1}{L^2}$ $4. \ \text{All of these}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$R$, $\frac{1}{f^2}$...
4
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17363
$\text{An } LCR \text{ series circuit with } 100 \, \Omega \text{ resistance is connected to an AC source of } 200 \, \text{V} \text{ and an angular frequency of } 300 \, \text{rad/s.}$ $\text{When only the capacitance is removed, the current lags behind the voltage by } 60^\circ.$ $\text{When only the inductance is removed, the current leads the voltage by } 60^\circ.$ $\text{Calculate the power dissipated in the } LCR \text{ circuit.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$200 \, \text{W}$, $400 \, \text{W}$...
2
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17362
$\text{An AC voltage source is connected to a series } LCR \text{ circuit. When } L \text{ is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is } \frac{\pi}{3}. \text{ If } C \text{ is instead removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again } \frac{\pi}{3} \text{ between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.5$, $1.0$...
2
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17361
$\text{How much power is dissipated in an } LCR \text{ series circuit connected to an } AC \text{ source of emf } E?$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\varepsilon^2 R}{R^2 + \left( L\omega - \frac{1}{C\omega} \right)^2}$, $\frac{\varepsilon^2 \sqrt{R^2 + \left( L\omega - \frac{1}{C\omega} \right)^2}}{R}$...
1
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17360
$\text{The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltages in a circuit are given as,}$ $i = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \sin(100 \pi t) \text{ Ampere}$ $e = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \sin(100 \pi t + \pi/3) \text{ Volt}$ $\text{What is the average power consumed by the circuit in watts?}$
1
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$\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}$, $\frac{1}{2}$...
3
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17359
$\text{A circuit consists of 3 ohms of resistance and 4 ohms of reactance. The power factor of the circuit is:}$
1
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$0.4$, $0.6$...
2
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17358
$\text{What is the average power dissipated in the AC circuit if current}$ $i = 100 \sin(100t) \text{ A and } V = 100 \sin \left(100t + \frac{\pi}{3}\right) \text{ volts?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2500 \text{ W}$, $250 \text{ W}$...
1
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17357
$\text{In a series } LCR \text{ circuit, the current through the AC source is } 2 \text{ A. If resistor } R \text{ has a resistance of } 10 \, \Omega, \text{ the average power dissipated in the circuit is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$20 \, \text{W}$, $30 \, \text{W}$...
4
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17356
$\text{An inductor of inductance } L \text{ and resistor of resistance } R \text{ are joined in series}$ $\text{and connected by a source of frequency } \omega. \text{ The power dissipated in the circuit is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{(R^2 + \omega^2 L^2)}{V}$, $\frac{V^2 R}{(R^2 + \omega^2 L^2)}$...
2
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17355
$\text{The potential differences across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are } 80 \text{ V, } 40 \text{ V and } 100 \text{ V respectively in an } LCR \text{ circuit. What is the power factor of this circuit?}$ $1.\ 0.4$ $2.\ 0.5$ $3.\ 0.8$ $4.\ 1.0$
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$0.4$, $0.5$...
3
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17354
$\text{The power factor of a series } LCR \text{ circuit in resonance condition is:}$
1
122
Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $\frac{1}{2}$...
4
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17353
$\text{The power factor of the given circuit is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2}$, $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$...
2
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17352
$\text{A coil of inductive reactance of } 31 \, \Omega \text{ has a resistance of } 8 \, \Omega. \text{ It is placed in series with a condenser of capacitive reactance } 25 \, \Omega. \text{ The combination is connected to an AC source of } 110 \, \text{V. The power factor of the circuit is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.56$, $0.64$...
3
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17351
$\text{A } 100 \, \Omega \text{ resistor is connected to a } 220 \, \text{V, } 50 \, \text{Hz AC supply. The net power consumed over a full cycle is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$484 \, \text{W}$, $848 \, \text{W}$...
1
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17350
$\text{In an AC circuit, the current is given by;} \; i = 5 \sin(100t - \frac{\pi}{2}) \; \text{and the AC potential is} \; V = 200 \sin(100t) \; \text{V. The power consumption is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$20 \; \text{W}$, $40 \; \text{W}$...
4
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17349
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{If the frequency of the applied AC is doubled, then the power factor of a series } R-L \text{ circuit decreases.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{Power factor of series } R-L \text{ circuit is given by } \cos \theta = \frac{2R}{\sqrt{R^2 + \omega^2 L^2}}.$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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17348
$\text{A capacitor and a resistor are connected in series across the AC supply. Which of the following phasor diagrams may be correct?}$
1
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$\text{Diagram 1: } I \text{ leads } V \text{ by } \frac{\pi}{2}$, $\text{Diagram 2: } I \text{ and } V \text{ are in phase}$...
2
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17347
$\text{Which of the following plots may represent the reactance of a series of } LC \text{ combinations?}$
1
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$a$, $b$...
4
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17346
$\text{A series } LCR \text{ circuit containing } 5.0 \text{ H inductor, } 80 \, \mu\text{F capacitor and } 40 \, \Omega \text{ resistor is connected to } 230 \, \text{V variable frequency AC source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$46 \, \text{rad/s and } 54 \, \text{rad/s}$, $42 \, \text{rad/s and } 58 \, \text{rad/s}$...
1
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17345
$\text{In the network shown below what is the reading of the AC voltmeter?}$ $V = 100 \sqrt{2} \sin \omega t$ $X_C = 50 \, \Omega$ $X_L = 50 \, \Omega$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Zero}$, $100 \, \text{V}$...
4
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17344
$\text{A capacitor of capacitance } 1 \, \mu\text{F is charged to a potential of } 1 \, \text{V. It is connected in parallel to an inductor of inductance } 10^{-3} \, \text{H. What is the value of the maximum current that will flow in the circuit?}$
1
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$\sqrt{1000} \, \text{mA}$, $1 \, \text{mA}$...
1
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17343
$\text{One 10 V, 60 W bulb is to be connected to 100 V line. The required induction coil has a self-inductance of value:}$ $\left(f = 50 \text{ Hz}\right)$
1
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$0.052 \text{ H}$, $2.42 \text{ H}$...
1
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17342
$\text{If } q \text{ is the capacitor's charge and } i \text{ is the current at time } t, \text{ the voltage } V \text{ will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$L \frac{di}{dt} + iR - \frac{q}{C} = V$, $L \frac{di}{dt} - iR + \frac{q}{C} = V$...
3
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17341
$\text{In the circuit shown below, the AC source has voltage } V = 20 \cos(\omega t) \text{ volts}$ $\text{with } \omega = 2000 \text{ rad/sec. The amplitude of the current is closest to:}$
1
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$2 \text{ A}$, $3.3 \text{ A}$...
1
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17340
$\text{When an AC source of emf } e = E_0 \sin(100t) \text{ is connected across a circuit, the phase difference between the emf } e \text{ and the current } i \text{ in the circuit is observed to be } \frac{\pi}{4} \text{ as shown in the diagram. If the circuit consists only of } RC \text{ or } LC \text{ in series, then what is the relationship between the two elements?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$R = 1 \text{ k}\Omega, C = 10 \mu\text{F}$, $R = 1 \text{ k}\Omega, C = 1 \mu\text{F}$...
1
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17339
$\text{In a series } LCR \text{ circuit, which one of the following curves represents the variation of impedance } (Z) \text{ with frequency } (f)?$
1
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$\text{Option 1: Decreasing curve}$, $\text{Option 2: Bell-shaped curve}$...
3
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17338
$\text{An inductor } (L) \text{ and resistance } (R) \text{ are connected in series with an AC source.}$ $\text{The phase difference between voltage } (V) \text{ and current } (i) \text{ is } 45^\circ. \text{ If the phase difference between } V \text{ and } i \text{ remains the same, then the capacitive reactance and impedance of the } LCR \text{ circuit will be:}$
1
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$2R, R\sqrt{2}$, $R, R\sqrt{2}$...
1
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17337
$\text{The figure shows the variation of } R, X_L, \text{ and } X_C \text{ with frequency } f \text{ in a series of } L, C, \text{ and } R \text{ circuits.}$ $\text{For which frequency point is the circuit inductive?}$
1
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$A$, $B$...
3
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17336
$\text{A bulb is rated at } 100 \text{ V, } 100 \text{ W, and is treated as a resistor. The inductance of an inductor (choke coil) that should be connected in series with the bulb to operate the bulb at its rated power with the help of an AC source of } 200 \text{ V and } 50 \text{ Hz is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\pi}{\sqrt{3}} \text{ H}$, $100 \text{ H}$...
4
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17335
$\text{A coil has a resistance of 30 ohm and inductive reactance of 20 ohm at a 50 Hz frequency. If an } AC \text{ source of 200 volts, 100 Hz is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be:}$
1
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$2.0 \text{ A}$, $4.0 \text{ A}$...
2
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17334
$\text{A constant voltage at different frequencies is applied across a capacitance } C$ $\text{as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{Which of the following graphs accurately illustrates how current varies with frequency?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Increasing curve of } I \text{ vs. } \omega$, $\text{Graph 2: Linear increase of } I \text{ vs. } \omega$...
2
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17333
$\text{The AC source in the circuit shown in the figure produces a voltage}$ $V = 20 \cos(2000t) \text{ volts. Neglecting source resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter readings will be (approximately):}$
1
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$4 \text{ V, } 2.0 \text{ A}$, $0 \text{ V, } 2 \text{ A}$...
3
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17332
$\text{The diagram shows a capacitor } C \text{ and a resistor } R \text{ connected in series to an AC source. } V_1 \text{ and } V_2 \text{ are voltmeters and } A \text{ is an ammeter.}$ $\text{Consider now the following statements}$ $\text{I. Readings in } A \text{ and } V_2 \text{ are always in phase}$ $\text{II. Reading in } V_1 \text{ is ahead in phase with reading in } V_2$ $\text{III. Readings in } A \text{ and } V_1 \text{ are always in phase}$ $\text{Which of these statements is/are correct?}$
1
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$\text{I only}$, $\text{II only}$...
1
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17331
$\text{In a circuit, } L, C \text{ and } R \text{ are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frequency } f. \text{ The current leads the voltage by } 45^\circ. \text{ The value of } C \text{ will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2\pi f \left(2\pi f L + R\right)}$, $\frac{1}{\pi f \left(2\pi f L + R\right)}$...
1
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17330
$\text{The circuit is in a steady state when the key is at position 1.}$ $\text{If the switch is changed from position 1 to position 2, then the steady current in the circuit will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{E_0}{R}$, $\frac{E_0}{3R}$...
1
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17329
$\text{A 220 V, 50 Hz AC source is connected to an inductance of 0.2 H and a resistance of 20 ohms in series. How much current flows across the circuit?}$
1
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$10 \text{ A}$, $5 \text{ A}$...
4
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17328
$\text{In a box } Z \text{ of unknown elements } (L \text{ or } R \text{ or any other combination}), \text{ an ac voltage } E = E_0 \sin(\omega t + \phi) \text{ is applied and the current in the circuit is found to be } I = I_0 \sin \left( \omega t + \phi + \frac{\pi}{4} \right). \text{ The unknown elements in the box could be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Only the capacitor}$, $\text{Inductor and resistor both}$...
3
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17327
$\text{An ac source of angular frequency } \omega \text{ is fed across a resistor } r \text{ and a capacitor } C \text{ in series. } I \text{ is the current in the circuit. If the frequency of the source is changed to } \frac{\omega}{3} \text{ (but maintaining the same voltage), the current in the circuit is found to be halved. Calculate the ratio of reactance to resistance at the original frequency } \omega.$
1
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$\sqrt{\frac{3}{5}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{2}{5}}$...
1
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17326
$\text{An alternating voltage source is connected to a series } RC \text{ circuit. Consider two situations:}$ $1. \text{When the capacitor is air-filled.}$ $2. \text{When the capacitor is mica filled.}$ $\text{If the current through the resistor is } I \text{ and the voltage across the capacitor is } V, \text{ then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$V_a \leq V_b$, $V_a > V_b$...
2
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17325
$\text{When does the voltage in a series } LCR \text{ circuit lead the current? (Given that } \omega_0 = \text{ resonant angular frequency})$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\omega < \omega_0$, $\omega = \omega_0$...
3
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17324
$\text{In the circuit shown, the value of RMS current is 11 A. The potential difference across the inductor is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$220 \text{ V}$, $\text{zero}$...
4
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17323
$\text{A coil of self-inductance } L \text{ is connected in series with a bulb } B \text{ and an AC source. The brightness of the bulb decreases when:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Frequency of the AC source is decreased}$, $\text{The number of turns in the coil is reduced}$...
4
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17322
$\text{In a series } LC \text{ circuit, if } L = 10^{-3} \text{ H and } C = 3 \times 10^{-7} \text{ F is connected to a } (100 \text{ V, } 50 \text{ Hz}) \text{ AC source, the impedance of the circuit is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{10^5}{3\pi} - 10\pi$, $0.1\pi - 3 \times 10^{-5}\pi$...
3
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17321
$\text{In an } LCR \text{ series AC circuit, the voltage across each of the components } L, C \text{ and } R \text{ is } 50 \text{ V. The voltage across the } LR \text{ combination will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$50 \text{ V}$, $50\sqrt{2} \text{ V}$...
2
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17320
$\text{In a series } LCR \text{ circuit, the phase difference between voltage across } L \text{ and voltage across } C \text{ is equal to:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Zero}$, $\pi$...
2
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17319
$\text{In an } LCR \text{ circuit having } L = 8.0 \text{ H}, C = 0.5 \ \mu\text{F and } R = 100 \ \Omega \text{ in series, what is the resonance frequency?}$ $1. \ 600 \ \text{radian/sec}$ $2. \ 600 \ \text{Hz}$ $3. \ 500 \ \text{radian/sec}$ $4. \ 500 \ \text{Hz}$
1
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$600 \ \text{radian/sec}$, $600 \ \text{Hz}$...
3
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17318
$\text{The voltage reading on the voltmeter } V \text{ in the circuit shown below will be:}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{(Circuit Diagram)} \\ 150 \, \text{V} \, \quad 150 \, \text{V} \\ 300 \, \text{V} \, 50 \, \text{Hz} \end{array}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $100 \, \text{V}$...
4
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17317
$\text{In a series } LCR \text{ circuit connected across } (220 \text{ V, } 50 \text{ Hz) ac supply. If the inductive reactance of the circuit is } 79.6 \, \Omega. \text{ If the power delivered in the circuit is maximum, then the capacitance of the circuit is:}$ $1. \ 40 \, \mu F$ $2. \ 30 \, \mu F$ $3. \ 20 \, \mu F$ $4. \ 50 \, \mu F$
1
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Recommended Questions
$40 \, \mu F$, $30 \, \mu F$...
1
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17316
$A \ 50 \ \text{Hz} \ \text{AC source of} \ 20 \ \text{volts is connected across} \ R \ \text{and} \ C \ \text{as shown in the figure below. If the voltage across} \ R \ \text{is} \ 12 \ \text{volts, then the voltage across} \ C \ \text{will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$8 \ \text{V}$, $16 \ \text{V}$...
2
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17315
$\text{An } AC \text{ voltage is applied to a resistance } R \text{ and an inductor } L \text{ in series. If } R \text{ and the inductive reactance are both equal to } 3 \, \Omega, \text{ then the phase difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\pi/4$, $\pi/2$...
1
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17314
$\text{For a series } RLC \text{ circuit, } R = X_L = 2X_C. \text{ The impedance of the circuit and phase difference between } V \text{ and } i \text{ will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\sqrt{5}R}{2}, \tan^{-1}(2)$, $\frac{\sqrt{5}R}{2}, \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)$...
2
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17313
$\text{A lamp is connected in series with a capacitor. AC and DC sources are connected to the circuit one by one, then mark the correct statement/s.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{When the DC source is connected to the capacitor, the lamp will not glow in a steady-state condition.}$, $\text{When the AC source is connected to the capacitor and the capacitance of the capacitor is reduced, the lamp will glow less brightly.}$...
4
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17312
$\text{What is the value of inductance } L \text{ for which the current is a maximum in a series } LCR \text{ circuit with } C = 10 \, \mu\text{F and } \omega = 1000 \, \text{s}^{-1}?$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10 \, \text{mH}$, $100 \, \text{mH}$...
2
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17311
$\text{An AC source of variable frequency } f \text{ is connected to an } LCR \text{ series circuit.}$ $\text{Which of the following graphs represents the variation of the current } I \text{ in the circuit with frequency } f?$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
4
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17310
$\text{Alternating voltage } V = V_0 \sin \omega t \text{ is applied to a circuit containing some elements in series.}$ $\text{Match the values of current in Column I with the possible elements connected in the circuit in Column II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column-I} & \text{Column-II} \\ \hline (A) \ I = I_0 \sin \omega t & (P) \ \text{only inductor circuit} \\ (B) \ I = -I_0 \cos \omega t & (Q) \ \text{may be } C-R \text{ circuit} \\ (C) \ I = I_0 \sin \left( \omega t + \frac{\pi}{4} \right) & (R) \ \text{may be } L-R \text{ circuit} \\ (D) \ I = I_0 \sin \left( \omega t - \frac{\pi}{4} \right) & (S) \ \text{only resistance circuit} \\ \hline \end{array}$
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Recommended Questions
$A \rightarrow S, \ B \rightarrow Q, \ C \rightarrow P, \ D \rightarrow R$, $A \rightarrow P, \ B \rightarrow S, \ C \rightarrow R, \ D \rightarrow Q$...
3
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17309
$\text{For a } LCR \text{ series circuit with an AC source of angular frequency } \omega:$ $1. \text{ circuit will be capacitive if } \omega > \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}}$ $2. \text{ circuit will be inductive if } \omega = \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}}$ $3. \text{ power factor of circuit will be unity if capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance}$ $4. \text{ current will be leading voltage if } \omega > \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{circuit will be capacitive if } \omega > \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}}$, $\text{circuit will be inductive if } \omega = \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}}$...
3
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17308
$\text{A 44 mH inductor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz AC supply. The RMS value of the current in the circuit is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.0 \text{ A}$, $15 \text{ A}$...
3
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17307
$\text{A sinusoidal supply of frequency } 10 \text{ Hz and rms voltage of } 12 \text{ V is connected to a } 2.1 \, \mu\text{F capacitor. What is the rms value of current?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$5.5 \, \text{mA}$, $20 \, \text{mA}$...
4
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17306
$\text{A resistance of } 300 \, \Omega \text{ and an inductance of } \frac{1}{\pi} \, \text{henry are connected in series to an AC voltage of 20 volts and a 200 Hz frequency. The phase angle between the voltage and current will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\tan^{-1} \frac{4}{3}$, $\tan^{-1} \frac{3}{4}$...
1
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17305
$\text{In an ac circuit, a resistance of } R \text{ ohm is connected in series with an inductance } L. \text{ If the phase angle between voltage and current is } 45^\circ, \text{ the value of inductive reactance will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{R}{4}$, $\frac{R}{2}$...
3
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17304
$\text{Calculate the } Q\text{-value of a series } LCR \text{ circuit with } L = 2.0 \text{ H}, C = 32 \mu\text{F and } R = 10 \, \Omega.$
1
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Recommended Questions
$35$, $20$...
4
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17303
$\text{It is found that the current through the } LCR \text{ series circuit is at its maximum.}$ $\text{If } V_R, V_C \text{ and } V_L \text{ are potential differences across resistance, capacitor, and}$ $\text{inductor respectively, then which of the following is correct?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$V_R = V_L > V_C$, $V_R \neq V_L = V_C$...
2
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17302
$\text{In a series } LCR \text{ circuit, resistance } R = 10 \, \Omega \text{ and the impedance } Z = 20 \, \Omega. \text{ The phase difference between the current and the voltage will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$30^\circ$, $45^\circ$...
3
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17301
$\text{An ideal resistance } R, \text{ ideal inductance } L, \text{ ideal capacitance } C, \text{ and AC voltmeters } V_1, V_2, V_3 \text{ and } V_4 \text{ are connected to an AC source as shown. At resonance:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{reading in } V_3 = \text{reading in } V_1$, $\text{reading in } V_1 = \text{reading in } V_2$...
4
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17300
$L$, $C$ \text{ and } $R$ \text{ represent physical quantities inductance, capacitance and resistance respectively. The combination representing the dimension of frequency will be:}$ $1. \ LC$ $2. \ (LC)^{-\frac{1}{2}}$ $3. \ \left(\frac{L}{C}\right)^{-\frac{1}{2}}$ $4. \ \frac{C}{L}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$LC$, $(LC)^{-\frac{1}{2}}$...
2
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17299
$\text{Choose the correct statements regarding a series LCR circuit.}$ $1.\ \text{The voltage across the capacitor lags behind the current.}$ $2.\ \text{The voltage across the inductor leads the current.}$ $3.\ \text{The voltage across the resistance } R \text{ is in phase with the current.}$ $4.\ \text{All of the above.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The voltage across the capacitor lags behind the current.}$, $\text{The voltage across the inductor leads the current.}$...
4
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17298
$\text{In the circuit shown in the figure, neglecting source resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter reading respectively will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0 \text{ V, } 3 \text{ A}$, $150 \text{ V, } 3 \text{ A}$...
4
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17297
$\text{A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductance } \mathcal{L} \text{ (of negligible resistance) and a capacitance } \mathcal{C} \text{ has a frequency } f. \text{ If } \mathcal{L} \text{ is doubled and } \mathcal{C} \text{ is changed to } 4\mathcal{C}, \text{ the frequency will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{f}{4}$, $8f$...
3
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17296
$\text{A series AC circuit has a resistance of } 4 \, \Omega \text{ and an inductor of reactance } 3 \, \Omega. \text{ The impedance of the circuit is } Z_1. \text{ Now when a capacitor of reactance } 6 \, \Omega \text{ is connected in series with the above combination, the impedance becomes } Z_2. \text{ Then } \frac{Z_1}{Z_2} \text{ will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1 : 1$, $5 : 4$...
1
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17295
$\text{In an } LCR \text{ circuit, the potential difference between the terminals of the inductance is } 60 \text{ V, between the terminals of the capacitor is } 30 \text{ V and that between the terminals of the resistance is } 40 \text{ V. The supply voltage will be equal to:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$50 \text{ V}$, $70 \text{ V}$...
1
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17294
$\text{In an } LCR \text{ series network, } V_L = 40 \text{ V}, V_C = 20 \text{ V} \text{ and } V_R = 15 \text{ V. The supply voltage will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$25 \text{ V}$, $75 \text{ V}$...
1
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17293
$\text{In the circuit shown below, what will be the readings of the voltmeter and ammeter?}$
1
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$800 \text{ V, } 2 \text{ A}$, $300 \text{ V, } 2 \text{ A}$...
3
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17292
$\text{An alternating current of frequency } f \text{ is flowing in a circuit containing a resistance } R \text{ and a choke } L \text{ in series. The impedance of this circuit will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$R + 2\pi f L$, $\sqrt{R^2 + 4\pi^2 f^2 L^2}$...
2
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17291
$\text{An alternating voltage (in volts) given by } V = 200\sqrt{2} \sin 100t \text{ is connected to a } 1 \, \mu F \text{ capacitor through an AC ammeter. The reading of the ammeter will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10 \, \text{mA}$, $20 \, \text{mA}$...
2
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17290
$\text{In a series } RLC \text{ circuit, potential differences across } R, L \text{ and } C \text{ are } 30 \text{ V}, 60 \text{ V and } 100 \text{ V respectively, as shown in the figure. The emf of the source (in volts) will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$190$, $70$...
1
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17289
$\text{A resistance of } 20 \, \Omega \text{ is connected to a source of an alternating potential, } V = 220 \sin(100 \pi t).$ $\text{The time taken by the current to change from its peak value to its rms value will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.2 \, \text{sec}$, $0.25 \, \text{sec}$...
4
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17288
$\text{Match List I (expression for current) with List II (rms value of current) and select the correct answer.}$ $\text{List I}$ \begin{array}{ll} (a) & I = I_0 \sin \omega t \cos \omega t \\ (b) & I = I_0 \sin \left( \omega t + \frac{\pi}{3} \right) \\ (c) & I_0 (\sin \omega t + \cos \omega t) \\ (d) & I = I_0 (e) \end{array} \quad \text{List II} \begin{array}{ll} (i) & I_0 \\ (ii) & \frac{I_0}{\sqrt{2}} \\ (iii) & I_0 e \\ (iv) & \frac{I_0}{2\sqrt{2}} \end{array}$
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$(iv) \ (ii) \ (i) \ (iii)$, $(iv) \ (i) \ (iii) \ (i)$...
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17287
$\text{In an AC circuit } I = 100 \sin(200\pi t).$ $\text{The time required for the current to reach its peak value will be:}$
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$\frac{1}{100} \text{ sec}$, $\frac{1}{200} \text{ sec}$...
4
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17286
$\text{The output current versus time curve of a rectifier is shown in the figure. The average value of the output current in this case will be:}$
1
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$0$, $\frac{I_0}{2}$...
3
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17285
$\text{Voltage and current in an AC circuit are given by } V = 5 \sin \left( 100 \pi t - \frac{\pi}{6} \right) \text{ V}$ $\text{and } I = 4 \sin \left( 100 \pi t + \frac{\pi}{6} \right) \text{ A.}$ $\text{Hence:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The voltage leads the current by } 30^\circ.$, $\text{The current leads the voltage by } 30^\circ.$...
3
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17284
$\text{The rms value of the potential difference } V \text{ shown in the figure is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{V_0}{\sqrt{3}}$, $V_0$...
3
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17283
$\text{The time required for a } 50 \text{ Hz sinusoidal alternating current to change its value from zero to the rms value will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$1.5 \times 10^{-2} \text{ s}$, $2.5 \times 10^{-3} \text{ s}$...
2
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17282
$\text{When an alternating voltage is given as;} \ E = (6 \sin \omega t - 2 \cos \omega t) \ \text{V}, \ \text{what is its RMS value?}$
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Recommended Questions
$4\sqrt{2} \ \text{V}$, $2\sqrt{5} \ \text{V}$...
2
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17281
$\text{The variation of the instantaneous current } (I) \text{ and the instantaneous emf } (E)$ $\text{in a circuit are shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is correct?}$
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$\text{The voltage lags behind the current by } \frac{\pi}{2}.$, $\text{The voltage leads the current by } \frac{\pi}{2}.$...
2
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17280
$\text{The peak value of an alternating emf;} \ E = E_0 \sin \omega t \ \text{is} \ 10 \ \text{V and its frequency is} \ 50 \ \text{Hz. At a time} \ t = \frac{1}{600} \ \text{s, the instantaneous value of the emf will be:}$ $1. \ 1 \ \text{V}$ $2. \ 5\sqrt{3} \ \text{V}$ $3. \ 5 \ \text{V}$ $4. \ 10 \ \text{V}$
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$1 \ \text{V}$, $5\sqrt{3} \ \text{V}$...
3
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17279
$\text{An alternating current is given as } i = i_1 \cos \omega t - i_2 \sin \omega t. \text{ The value of rms current is given by:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} (i_1 + i_2)$, $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} (i_1 + i_2)^2$...
3
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17278
$\text{A generator produces a voltage that is given by } V = 240 \sin(120t), \text{ where } t \text{ is in seconds. The frequency and rms voltage are:}$
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Recommended Questions
$60 \text{ Hz and } 240 \text{ V}$, $19 \text{ Hz and } 120 \text{ V}$...
3
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17277
$\text{In a heating arrangement, an alternating current having a peak value of } 28 \text{ A is used.}$ $\text{To produce the same heat energy, if direct current is used to produce the same amount of heat, then its magnitude will be:}$
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$\text{about } 14 \text{ A}$, $\text{about } 28 \text{ A}$...
3
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17276
$\text{Alternating current cannot be measured by a DC ammeter because:}$
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$\text{AC cannot pass through DC Ammeter.}$, $\text{AC changes direction.}$...
3
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17275
$\text{An AC ammeter is used to measure the current in a circuit. When a given direct current passes through the circuit, the AC ammeter reads } 6 \text{ A.}$ $\text{When another alternating current passes through the circuit, the AC ammeter reads } 8 \text{ A.}$ $\text{Then the reading of this ammeter if DC and AC flow through the circuit simultaneously is:}$
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$10\sqrt{2} \text{ A}$, $14 \text{ A}$...
3
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17274
$\text{In the diagram, two sinusoidal voltages of the same frequency are shown.}$ $\text{What is the frequency and the phase relationship between the voltages?}$
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Recommended Questions
$0.4 \quad -\pi/4$, $2.5 \quad -\pi/2$...
2
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17273
$\text{The variation of EMF with time for four types of generators is shown in the figures. Which amongst them can be called AC voltage?}$
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$(a) \text{ and } (d)$, $(a), (b), (c), \text{ and } (d)$...
2
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17046
$\text{In which of the following devices, the eddy current effect is not used?}$
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$\text{Electric heater}$, $\text{Induction furnace}$...
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17045
$\text{Consider the following statements:}$ $\text{I: A small magnet takes a longer time in falling into a hollow metallic tube without touching the wall.}$ $\text{II: There is an opposition to motion due to the production of eddy currents in a metallic tube.}$ $\text{Choose the correct option for the above statements:}$
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$\text{Both I and II are True and II is the correct explanation for I.}$, $\text{Both I and II are True and II is not the correct explanation for I.}$...
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17044
$\text{Eddy currents are induced when:}$
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$\text{A metal block is kept in a changing magnetic field.}$, $\text{A metal block is kept in a uniform magnetic field.}$...
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17043
$\text{The slotting processes in a metallic sheet results in:}$
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$\text{The increase of the resistance in the path for circulation of current.}$, $\text{Decrease in the strength of eddy current.}$...
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17042
$\text{Eddy currents are used in:}$ $1.\ \text{Induction furnace}$ $2.\ \text{Electromagnetic brakes}$ $3.\ \text{Speedometers}$ $4.\ \text{All of these}$
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$\text{Induction furnace}$, $\text{Electromagnetic brakes}$...
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17041
$\text{An inductor is connected to a direct voltage source through a switch. Then:}$
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$\text{a very large emf is induced in inductor when the switch is closed.}$, $\text{a large emf is induced when the switch is opened.}$...
2
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17040
$\text{Switch } S \text{ of the circuit shown in the figure is closed at } t = 0. \text{ If } e \text{ denotes the induced emf in } L \text{ and } i \text{ denotes the current flowing through the circuit at time } t, \text{ then which of the following graphs is correct?}$
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$\text{Graph of } e \text{ vs. } t \text{ showing exponential increase}$, $\text{Graph of } i \text{ vs. } t \text{ showing constant current}$...
3
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17039
$\text{The resistance in the following circuit is increased at a particular instant. At this instant the value of resistance is } 10 \, \Omega. \text{ The current in the circuit will be:}$
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$i = 0.5 \, \text{A}$, $i > 0.5 \, \text{A}$...
2
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17038
$\text{A series combination of inductance } (L) \text{ and resistance } (R) \text{ is connected to a battery of emf } E. \text{ The final value of current depends on:}$
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$L \text{ and } R$, $E \text{ and } R$...
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17037
$\text{In the circuit diagram shown in figure, } R = 10 \, \Omega, L = 5 \, \text{H}, E = 20 \, \text{V} \text{ and } i = 2 \, \text{A.}$ $\text{This current is decreasing at a rate of } 1.0 \, \text{A/s. } V_{ab} \text{ at this instant will be:}$
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$40 \, \text{V}$, $35 \, \text{V}$...
2
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17036
$\text{The network shown in figure is a part of a complete circuit. If at a certain instant, the current } i \text{ is } 10 \text{ A and is increasing at the rate of } 4 \times 10^3 \text{ A/sec, then } V_A - V_B \text{ is:}$
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$6 \text{ V}$, $-6 \text{ V}$...
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17035
$\text{The figure shows three circuits with identical batteries, inductors, and resistors. Rank the circuits according to the current, in descending order, through the battery } (i) \text{ just after the switch is closed and } (ii) \text{ a long time later:}$
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$(i) \ i_2 > i_3 > i_1 \ (i_1 = 0) \ \ (ii) \ i_2 > i_3 > i_1$, $(i) \ i_2 < i_3 < i_1 \ (i_1 \neq 0) \ \ (ii) \ i_2 < i_3 < i_1$...
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17034
$\text{When the current in the portion of the circuit shown in the figure is } 2 \text{ A and increases at the rate of } 1 \text{ A/s, the measured potential difference } V_{ab} = 8 \text{ V.}$ $\text{However, when the current is } 2 \text{ A and decreases at the rate of } 1 \text{ A/s, the measured potential difference } V_{ab} = 4 \text{ V. The value of } R \text{ and } L \text{ is:}$
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$3 \, \Omega \text{ and } 2 \, \text{H respectively}$, $3 \, \Omega \text{ and } 3 \, \text{H respectively}$...
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17033
$\text{A solenoid of inductance } L \text{ and resistance } R \text{ is connected to a battery of emf } E. \text{ The maximum value of magnetic energy stored in the inductor is:}$
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$\frac{E^2}{2R}$, $\frac{E^2L}{2R^2}$...
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17032
$\text{In the figure magnetic energy stored in the coil is:}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{2 H} \\ \end{array}$ $\begin{array}{c} 10 \, \text{V} \\ \end{array}$ $\begin{array}{c} 2 \, \Omega \\ \end{array}$
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$\text{Zero}$, $\text{Infinite}$...
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17031
$\text{A long solenoid of diameter } 0.1 \text{ m has } 2 \times 10^4 \text{ turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of } 100 \text{ turns and a radius of } 0.01 \text{ m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid's axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate from } 0 \text{ A to } 4 \text{ A in } 0.05 \text{ s. If the resistance of the coil is } 10\pi^2 \, \Omega, \text{ the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$32\pi \, \mu\text{C}$, $16 \, \mu\text{C}$...
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17030
$\text{A straight solenoid has 50 turns per cm in primary coil and 200 turns in the secondary coil. The area of cross-section of the solenoid is 4 cm}^2. \text{ Calculate the mutual inductance.}$
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Recommended Questions
$5.0 \text{ H}$, $5.0 \times 10^{-4} \text{ H}$...
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17029
$\text{A small square loop of wire of side } l \text{ is placed inside a large square loop of side } L \ (L \gg l).$ $\text{If the loops are coplanar and their centres coincide, the mutual inductance of the system is directly proportional to:}$
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$\frac{L}{l}$, $\frac{l}{L}$...
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17028
$\text{Two coaxial coils are very close to each other and their mutual inductance is } 5 \text{ mH.}$ $\text{If a current } 50 \sin(500t) \text{ is passed in one of the coils, then the peak value}$ $\text{of induced emf in the secondary coil will be:}$
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$5000 \text{ V}$, $500 \text{ V}$...
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17027
$\text{Two circular coils can be arranged in any of the three situations shown in the figure. Their mutual inductance will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{maximum in the situation (A).}$, $\text{maximum in the situation (B).}$...
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17026
$\text{Two coils have a mutual inductance of } 5 \text{ mH.}$ $\text{The current changes in the first coil according to the equation } I = I_0 \cos \omega t,$ $\text{where } I_0 = 10 \text{ A and } \omega = 100\pi \text{ rad/s.}$ $\text{The maximum value of emf induced in the second coil is:}$
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$5\pi \text{ V}$, $2\pi \text{ V}$...
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17025
$\text{Two coils of 10 turns each are arranged such that the mutual inductance between them is 150 mH. The magnetic flux linked through one coil when 2 amperes current will flow in another coil, will be:}$ $1. \ 1 \times 10^{-3} \ \text{Wb}$ $2. \ 10 \times 10^{-3} \ \text{Wb}$ $3. \ 20 \times 10^{-3} \ \text{Wb}$ $4. \ 30 \times 10^{-3} \ \text{Wb}$
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$1 \times 10^{-3} \ \text{Wb}$, $10 \times 10^{-3} \ \text{Wb}$...
4
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17024
$\text{The coefficient of mutual inductance between two coils depends upon:}$
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$\text{medium between coils}$, $\text{separation between coils}$...
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17023
$\text{With the decrease of current in the primary coil from } 2 \text{ A to zero in } 0.01 \text{ s, the emf generated in the secondary coil is } 1000 \text{ V. The mutual inductance of the two coils is:}$
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$1.25 \text{ H}$, $2.50 \text{ H}$...
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17022
$\text{A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of } 1.5 \text{ H. If the current in one coil changes from } 0 \text{ to } 20 \text{ A in } 0.5 \text{ s, what is the change of flux linkage with the other coil?}$
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Recommended Questions
$35 \text{ Wb}$, $25 \text{ Wb}$...
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17021
$\text{Two circuits have coefficient of mutual induction of } 0.09 \text{ henry.}$ $\text{Average emf induced in the secondary by a change of current from } 0 \text{ to } 20 \text{ ampere in } 0.006 \text{ second in the primary will be:}$
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$120 \text{ V}$, $80 \text{ V}$...
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17020
$\text{A long solenoid has self-inductance } L. \text{ If its length is doubled keeping total number of turns constant, then its new self-inductance will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{L}{2}$, $2L$...
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17019
$\text{The magnetic energy stored in a long solenoid of an area of cross-section } A \text{ in a small region of length } L \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{B^2 AL}{2\mu_0^2}$, $\frac{AL}{2\mu_0}$...
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17018
$\text{For a coil having } L = 2 \text{ mH, the current flow through it is } I = t^2 e^{-t}. \text{ The time at which emf becomes zero is:}$ $1.\ 2\ \text{s}$ $2.\ 1\ \text{s}$ $3.\ 4\ \text{s}$ $4.\ 3\ \text{s}$
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$2\ \text{s}$, $1\ \text{s}$...
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17017
$\text{Work done in increasing the current through a solenoid from 0 to 2 A is 20 J.}$ $\text{Work done in increasing the current from 4 A to 6 A is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$100 \text{ J}$, $60 \text{ J}$...
1
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17016
$\text{The dimensions of inductance are:}$
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Recommended Questions
$[MLT^{-2}A^{-2}]$, $[ML^2T^{-2}A^2]$...
4
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17015
$\text{A coil of self-inductance } L \text{ is connected in series with a bulb } B \text{ and an AC source.}$ $\text{The brightness of the bulb decreases when:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{number of turns in the coil is reduced.}$, $\text{a capacitance of reactance } X_C = X_L \text{ is included in the same circuit.}$...
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17014
$\text{Calculate the self-inductance of a solenoid having 1000 turns and length 1 m.}$ $\text{(The area of cross-section is } 7 \text{ cm}^2 \text{ and } \mu_r = 1000).$
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Recommended Questions
$888 \text{ H}$, $0.88 \text{ H}$...
2
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17013
$\text{A coil is wound of a frame of rectangular cross-section. If the linear dimensions of the frame are doubled and the number of turns per unit length of the coil remains the same, then the self inductance increases by a factor of:}$
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$6$, $12$...
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17012
$\text{A 10 H inductor carries a current of 20 A. How much ice at } 0^\circ \text{C could be melted by the energy stored in the magnetic field of the inductor?}$ $\text{Latent heat of ice is } 2.26 \times 10^3 \text{ J/kg.}$
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Recommended Questions
$0.08 \text{ kg}$, $8.8 \text{ kg}$...
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17011
$\text{The number of turns in a coil of wire of fixed radius and length is } 600 \text{ and its self-inductance is } 108 \text{ mH.}$ $\text{The self-inductance of a coil of } 500 \text{ turns will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$74 \text{ mH}$, $75 \text{ mH}$...
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17010
$\text{The current } i \text{ in an inductance coil varies with time } t \text{ according to the graph shown in the figure. Which one of the following plots shows the variation of voltage in the coil with time?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
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17009
$\text{Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Self-inductance is called the inertia of electricity.}$ $\text{Reason (R): It is on account of self-inductance that the coil opposes any change in current passing through it.}$ $\text{In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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17008
$\text{A coil of resistance } 20 \, \Omega \text{ and inductance } 5 \, \text{H has been connected to a } 200 \, \text{V battery. The maximum energy stored in the coil is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$250 \, \text{J}$, $125 \, \text{J}$...
1
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17007
$\text{A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of } 4 \text{ A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is } 4 \times 10^{-3} \text{ Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$3 \text{ H}$, $2 \text{ H}$...
3
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17006
$\text{The current through a choke coil increases from zero to } 6 \text{ A in } 0.3 \text{ seconds and an induced emf of } 30 \text{ V is produced. The inductance of the coil is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$5 \text{ H}$, $2.5 \text{ H}$...
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17005
$\text{The back emf induced in a coil, when current changes from 1 ampere to zero in one milli-second, is 4 volts. The self-inductance of the coil is:}$
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$1 \text{ H}$, $2 \text{ H}$...
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17004
$\text{Current in a circuit falls from } 5.0 \text{ A to } 0 \text{ A in } 0.1 \text{ s. If an average emf of } 200 \text{ V is induced, the self-inductance of the circuit is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$4 \text{ H}$, $2 \text{ H}$...
1
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17003
$\text{Two identical conductors } P \text{ and } Q \text{ are placed on two frictionless (conducting) rails } R \text{ and } S \text{ in a uniform magnetic field directed into the plane. If } P \text{ is moved in the direction as shown in the figure with a constant speed, then rod } Q:$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{will be attracted toward } P.$, $\text{will be repelled away from } P.$...
1
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17002
$\text{A cylindrical magnet is kept along the axis of a circular coil.}$ $\text{On rotating the magnet about its axis, the coil will have induced in it:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{No current}$, $\text{A current}$...
1
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17001
$\text{A conducting rod } AC \text{ of length } 4l \text{ is rotated about point } O \text{ in a uniform magnetic field } \vec{B} \text{ directed into the paper.}$ $\text{If } AO = l \text{ and } OC = 3l, \text{ then:}$
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Recommended Questions
$V_A - V_O = \frac{B \omega l^2}{2}$, $V_O - V_C = \frac{7}{2} B \omega l^2$...
3
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17000
$\text{A conducting square loop of side } L \text{ and resistance } R \text{ moves in its plane with a uniform velocity } v \text{ perpendicular to one of its sides.}$ $\text{A magnetic induction } B \text{ constant in time and space, pointing perpendicular and into the plane of the loop exists everywhere.}$ $\text{The current induced in the loop is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{Blv}{R} \text{ clockwise}$, $\frac{Blv}{R} \text{ anticlockwise}$...
4
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16999
$\text{A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of length } l = 1.0 \text{ m is situated in a uniform magnetic field } B = 2\text{ T perpendicular to the plane of the loop.}$ $\text{Resistance of connector is } r = 2\, \Omega. \text{ Two resistances of } 6\, \Omega \text{ and } 3\, \Omega \text{ are connected as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The external force required to keep the connector moving with a constant velocity } v = 2\, \text{m/s is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$6\, \text{N}$, $4\, \text{N}$...
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16998
$\text{A square loop of side } 5 \text{ cm enters a magnetic field with } 1 \text{ cm s}^{-1}. \text{ If the front edge enters the magnetic field at } t = 0, \text{ then which graph best depicts emf?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\begin{array}{c} V \\ 3 \times 10^{-4} \\ 0 \\ 5 \\ 15 \\ 20 \\ t (s) \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{c} V \\ 3 \times 10^{-4} \\ 0 \\ 5 \\ 15 \\ 20 \\ t (s) \end{array}$...
3
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16997
$\text{A conducting rod of length } 2l \text{ is rotating with constant angular speed } \omega \text{ about its perpendicular bisector.}$ $\text{A uniform magnetic field } \vec{B} \text{ exists parallel to the axis of rotation.}$ $\text{The emf induced between the two ends of the rod is:}$
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$B \omega l^2$, $\frac{1}{2} B \omega l^2$...
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16996
$\text{A short magnet is allowed to fall along the axis of a horizontal metallic ring.}$ $\text{Starting from rest, the distance fallen by the magnet in one second may be:}$
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$4 \text{ m}$, $5 \text{ m}$...
1
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16995
$\text{A copper rod of mass } m \text{ slides under gravity on two smooth parallel rails } l \text{ distance apart and set at an angle } \theta \text{ to the horizontal as shown in figure.}$ $\text{At the bottom, the rails are joined by a resistance } R. \text{ There is a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the rails.}$ $\text{The terminal velocity of the rod is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{mgR \cos \theta}{B^2 l^2}$, $\frac{mgR \sin \theta}{B^2 l^2}$...
2
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16994
$\text{A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius } R \text{ is falling with its plane vertical}$ $\text{in a horizontal magnetic induction } B. \text{ At the position } MNQ, \text{ the speed of the}$ $\text{ring is } v \text{ and the potential difference developed across the ring is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Zero}$, $Bv\pi R^2 / 2 \text{ and } M \text{ is at the higher potential}$...
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16993
$\text{A rod } AB \text{ of length } l \text{ is moving with constant speed } v \text{ in a uniform magnetic field on a conducting } U\text{-shaped wire as shown.}$ $\text{If the rate of loss of heat energy across resistance } R \text{ is } Q, \text{ then the force needed parallel to velocity to keep rod moving with constant speed } v \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$Qv$, $\frac{Q}{v}$...
2
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16992
$\text{A rod having length } l \text{ and resistance } R_0 \text{ is moving with a speed } v \text{ as shown in the figure. The current through the rod is:}$
1
121
Recommended Questions
$\frac{Blv}{\frac{R_1 R_2}{R_1 + R_2} + R_0}$, $\frac{Blv}{\left(\frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2} + \frac{1}{R_0}\right)^2}$...
1
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16991
$\text{A conducting wire is moving towards the right in a magnetic field } B. \text{ The direction of the induced current in the wire is shown in the figure. The direction of the magnetic field will be:}$
1
121
Recommended Questions
$\text{In the plane of paper pointing towards the right.}$, $\text{In the plane of paper pointing towards the left.}$...
3
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16990
$\text{In a uniform magnetic field, a ring is rotating about its axis which is parallel to the magnetic field and the magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the ring. The induced electric field in the ring:}$
1
121
Recommended Questions
$\text{Is zero.}$, $\text{Depends on the radius of the ring.}$...
1
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16989
$\text{An electric potential difference will be induced between the ends of the conductor shown in the diagram when the conductor moves in the direction of:}$
1
121
Recommended Questions
$P$, $Q$...
4
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16988
$\text{A conducting square frame of side } a \text{ and a long straight wire carrying current } i \text{ are located in the same plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right with a constant velocity } v. \text{ The emf induced in the frame will be proportional to:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{x^2}$, $\frac{1}{(2x-a)^2}$...
4
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16987
$\text{When a conducting wire } XY \text{ is moved towards the right, a current flows in the anti-clockwise direction.}$ $\text{Direction of magnetic field at point } O \text{ is:}$
1
121
Recommended Questions
$\text{parallel to the motion of wire.}$, $\text{along with } XY.$...
3
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16986
$\text{A rectangular, a square, a circular, and an elliptical loop, all in the } (x-y) \text{ plane,}$ $\text{are moving out of a uniform magnetic field with a constant velocity, } \vec{v} = v \hat{i}. $ $\text{The magnetic field is directed along the negative } z\text{-axis direction.}$ $\text{The induced emf, during the passage of these loops out of the field region,}$ $\text{will not remain constant for:}$
1
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$\text{the rectangular, circular, and elliptical loops.}$, $\text{the circular and the elliptical loops.}$...
2
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16985
$\text{Consider the situation shown in the figure. The wire } AB \text{ is sliding on the fixed rails with a constant velocity.}$ $\text{If the wire } AB \text{ is replaced by a semicircular wire, the magnitude of the induced current will:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{increase.}$, $\text{remain the same.}$...
2
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16984
$\text{A conductor } ABOCD \text{ moves along its bisector with a velocity of } 1 \text{ m/s through a perpendicular magnetic field of } 1 \text{ wb/m}^2, \text{ as shown in fig. If all the four sides are of } 1 \text{ m length each, then the induced emf between points } A \text{ and } D \text{ is:}$
1
121
Recommended Questions
$0$, $1.41 \text{ volt}$...
2
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16983
$\text{A wire } cd \text{ of length } l \text{ and mass } m \text{ is sliding without friction on conducting rails } ax \text{ and } by \text{ as shown.}$ $\text{The vertical rails are connected to each other with a resistance } R \text{ between } a \text{ and } b.$ $\text{A uniform magnetic field } B \text{ is applied perpendicular to the plane } abcd \text{ such that } cd \text{ moves with a constant velocity of:}$
1
121
Recommended Questions
$\frac{mgR}{Bl}$, $\frac{mgR}{B^2l^2}$...
2
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16982
$A \ 1 \ \text{m} \ \text{long} \ \text{metallic} \ \text{rod} \ \text{is} \ \text{rotating} \ \text{with} \ \text{an} \ \text{angular} \ \text{frequency} \ \text{of} \ 400 \ \text{rad/s} \ \text{about} \ \text{an} \ \text{axis} \ \text{normal} \ \text{to} \ \text{the} \ \text{rod} \ \text{passing} \ \text{through} \ \text{its} \ \text{one} \ \text{end.}$ $\text{The} \ \text{other} \ \text{end} \ \text{of} \ \text{the} \ \text{rod} \ \text{is} \ \text{in} \ \text{contact} \ \text{with} \ \text{a} \ \text{circular} \ \text{metallic} \ \text{ring.}$ $\text{A} \ \text{constant} \ \text{and} \ \text{uniform} \ \text{magnetic} \ \text{field} \ \text{of} \ 0.5 \ \text{T} \ \text{parallel} \ \text{to} \ \text{the} \ \text{axis} \ \text{exists} \ \text{everywhere.}$ $\text{The} \ \text{emf} \ \text{induced} \ \text{between} \ \text{the} \ \text{centre} \ \text{and} \ \text{the} \ \text{ring} \ \text{is:}$
1
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$200 \ \text{V}$, $100 \ \text{V}$...
2
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16981
$\text{A square metallic wire loop of side } 0.1 \text{ m and resistance of } 1 \, \Omega \text{ is moved with a constant velocity in a magnetic field of } 2 \, \text{wb/m}^2 \text{ as shown in the figure. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop and the loop is connected to a network of resistances. What should be the velocity of the loop so as to have a steady current of } 1 \, \text{mA in the loop?}$
1
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$1 \, \text{cm/s}$, $2 \, \text{cm/s}$...
2
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16980
$\text{A magnetic rod is inside a coil of wire which is connected to an ammeter. If the rod is stationary, which of the following statements is true?}$
1
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$\text{The rod induces a small current.}$, $\text{The rod loses its magnetic field.}$...
3
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16979
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{When a piece of non-metal and a metal are dropped from the same height near the surface of the earth, the non-metallic piece will reach the ground first.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{Induced current in metal will decrease the acceleration.}$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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16978
$\text{In the figure shown a square loop } P Q R S \text{ of side } a \text{ and resistance } r \text{ is placed near an infinitely long wire carrying a constant current } I. \text{ The sides } P Q \text{ and } R S \text{ are parallel to the wire. The wire and the loop are in the same plane. The loop is rotated by } 180^\circ \text{ about an axis parallel to the long wire and passing through the midpoints of the side } Q R \text{ and } P S. \text{ The total amount of charge which passes through any point of the loop during rotation is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\mu_0 I a}{2 \pi r} \ln(2)$, $\frac{\mu_0 I a}{\pi r} \ln(2)$...
2
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16977
$\text{A metallic ring connected to a rod oscillates freely like a pendulum. If now a magnetic field is applied in the horizontal direction so that the pendulum now swings through the field, the pendulum will:}$
1
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$\text{Keep oscillating with the old-time period.}$, $\text{Keep oscillating with a smaller time period.}$...
4
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16976
$\text{A bar magnet is made to fall through a long surface copper tube. The speed } (v) \text{ of the magnet as a function of time } (t) \text{ is best represented by:}$
1
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$a$, $b$...
4
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16975
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: A steady magnetic field can be produced by a steady current.}$ $\text{Statement II: A steady current can be produced in a circuit by a changing magnetic field.}$
1
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$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$...
2
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16974
$\text{A square coil } ACDE \text{ with its plane vertical is released from rest in a horizontal uniform magnetic field } \vec{B} \text{ of length } 2L \text{ (figure). The acceleration of the coil is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{less than } g \text{ for all the time till the loop crosses the magnetic field completely.}$, $\text{less than } g \text{ when it enters the field and greater than } g \text{ when it comes out of the field.}$...
4
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16973
$\text{A uniform but time-varying magnetic field } B(t) \text{ exists in a circular region of radius } a \text{ and is directed into the plane of the paper, as shown. The magnitude of the induced electric field at point } P \text{ at a distance } r \text{ from the centre of the circular region:}$
1
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$\text{is zero}$, $\text{decreases as } \frac{1}{r}$...
2
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16972
$\text{A coil of a mean area of } 500 \text{ cm}^2 \text{ and } 1000 \text{ turns is held perpendicular to a uniform field of } 0.4 \text{ Gauss.}$ $\text{The coil is turned through } 180^\circ \text{ in } \frac{1}{10} \text{ seconds.}$ $\text{The average induced emf is:}$
1
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$0.04 \text{ V}$, $0.4 \text{ V}$...
1
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16971
$\text{A coil has } 1000 \text{ turns and } 500 \text{ cm}^2 \text{ as its area. The plane of the coil is placed at right angles to a magnetic field of } 2 \times 10^{-5} \text{ Wb/m}^2. \text{ The coil is rotated through } 180^\circ \text{ in } 0.2 \text{ seconds. The average emf induced in the coil, in milli-volts, is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$5$, $10$...
2
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16970
$\text{A coil has } 1000 \text{ turns and } 500 \text{ cm}^2 \text{ as its area.}$ $\text{The plane of the coil is placed at right angles to a magnetic field of } 2 \times 10^{-5} \text{ Wb/m}^2.$ $\text{The coil is rotated through } 180^\circ \text{ in } 0.2 \text{ seconds.}$ $\text{The average emf induced in the coil, in milli-volts, is:}$
1
121
Recommended Questions
$5$, $10$...
2
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16969
$\text{A conducting wireframe is placed in a magnetic field that is directed into the paper.}$ $\text{The magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate.}$ $\text{The directions of induced current in wires } AB \text{ and } CD \text{ are:}$
1
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$B \text{ to } A \text{ and } D \text{ to } C$, $A \text{ to } B \text{ and } C \text{ to } D$...
1
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16968
$\text{A rectangular loop of wire shown below is coplanar with a long wire carrying current, } I.$ $\text{The loop is pulled to the right as indicated. What are the directions of the induced current in the loop and the magnetic forces on the left and right sides of the loop?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{counterclockwise, to the left, to the right}$, $\text{clockwise, to the left, to the right}$...
2
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16967
$\text{The graph gives the magnitude } B(t) \text{ of a uniform magnetic field that exists throughout a conducting loop, perpendicular to the plane of the loop. Rank the five regions of the graph according to the magnitude of the emf induced in the loop, greatest first:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$b > (d = e) < (a = c)$, $b > (d = e) > (a = c)$...
2
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16966
$\text{A metallic ring is attached to the wall of a room. When the north pole of a magnet is brought near to it, the induced current in the ring will be:}$
1
121
Recommended Questions
$\text{first clockwise and then anticlockwise.}$, $\text{in the clockwise direction.}$...
3
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16965
$\text{A coil has 500 turns and the flux through the coil is } \phi = 3t^2 + 4t + 9 \text{ milliweber.}$ $\text{The magnitude of induced emf between the ends of the coil at } t = 5 \text{ s is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$34 \text{ millivolt}$, $17 \text{ volt}$...
2
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16964
$\text{Some magnetic flux is changed from a coil of resistance } 10 \, \Omega. \text{ As a result, an induced current is developed in it, which varies with time as shown in the figure. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil in Wb is:}$ $\begin{array}{c} i \, (\text{A}) \\ | \\ 4 \\ \end{array}$ $\begin{array}{c} \rightarrow \\ \end{array}$ $\begin{array}{c} 0.1 \, t \, (\text{s}) \\ \end{array}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2$, $4$...
1
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16963
$\text{The adjoining figure shows two different arrangements in which two square}$ $\text{wireframes are placed in a uniform magnetic field } B \text{ decreasing with time.}$ $\text{The direction of the induced current } I \text{ in the figure is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{From } a \text{ to } b \text{ and from } c \text{ to } d$, $\text{From } a \text{ to } b \text{ and from } f \text{ to } e$...
3
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16962
$\text{The magnetic flux through a coil varies with time } t \text{ as shown in the diagram.}$ $\text{Which graph best represents the variation of the emf } E \text{ induced in the coil with time } t?$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
3
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16961
$\text{A magnet is brought towards a coil first (i) speedily (ii) slowly.}$ $\text{It can be concluded that the induced e.m.f. and the induced charge in the two cases,}$ $\text{will be respectively:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{More in the first case, more in the first case.}$, $\text{More in the first case, equal in both cases.}$...
2
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16960
$\text{As shown in the figure, a magnet is moved at a fast speed towards a coil at rest. Due to this induced electromotive force, induced current and induced charge in the coil is } E, I, \text{ and } Q \text{ respectively. If the speed of the magnet is doubled, the incorrect statement is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$E \text{ increases}$, $I \text{ increases}$...
4
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16959
$\text{An electron moves on a straight-line path } XY \text{ as shown. The } abcd \text{ is a coil adjacent to the path of the electron. What will be the direction of the current, if any induced in the coil?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$abcd$, $adcb$...
3
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16958
$\text{A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field of } 0.04 \text{ T with its plane perpendicular to the magnetic field.}$ $\text{The radius of the loop starts shrinking at a rate of } 2 \text{ mm/s.}$ $\text{The induced emf in the loop when the radius is } 2 \text{ cm is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$3.2 \pi \mu V$, $4.8 \pi \mu V$...
1
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16957
$\text{An aluminium ring } B \text{ faces an electromagnet } A. \text{ If the current } I \text{ through } A \text{ can be altered, then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{whether } I \text{ increases or decreases, } B \text{ will not experience any force.}$, $\text{if } I \text{ decreases, } A \text{ will repel } B.$...
4
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16956
$\text{In the given magnetic flux versus time graph, the magnitude of emf induced in the loop at } t = 3 \text{ s is:}$ $\phi_B \text{ (Wb)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$5 \text{ V}$, $4 \text{ V}$...
2
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16955
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The bar magnet falling vertically along the axis of the horizontal coil will be having acceleration less than } g.$ $\text{Reason (R): Clockwise current induced in the coil.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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16954
$\text{A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the induced e.m.f. is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Twice per revolution}$, $\text{Four times per revolution}$...
1
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16953
$\text{A bar magnet is released along the vertical axis of the conducting coil. The acceleration of the bar magnet is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{greater than } g.$, $\text{less than } g.$...
2
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16952
$\text{A coil having an area } A_0 \text{ is placed in a magnetic field which changes from } B_0 \text{ to } 4B_0 \text{ in time interval } t. \text{ The average EMF induced in the coil will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{3A_0B_0}{t}$, $\frac{4A_0B_0}{t}$...
1
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16951
$\text{The current in a coil varies with time } t \text{ as } I = 3t^2 + 2t. \text{ If the inductance of coil be } 10 \text{ mH, the value of induced emf at } t = 2 \text{ s will be:}$
1
121
Recommended Questions
$0.14 \text{ V}$, $0.12 \text{ V}$...
1
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16950
$\text{In a circuit with a coil of resistance } 2 \, \Omega, \text{ the magnetic flux changes from } 2.0 \, \text{Wb to } 10.0 \, \text{Wb in } 0.2 \, \text{s. The charge that flows in the coil during this time is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$5.0 \, \text{C}$, $4.0 \, \text{C}$...
2
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16949
$\text{A coil having number of turns } N \text{ and cross-sectional area } A \text{ is rotated in a uniform magnetic field } B \text{ with an angular velocity } \omega. \text{ The maximum value of the emf induced in it is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{NBA}{\omega}$, $NBA\omega$...
2
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16948
$\text{The magnetic flux linked with a coil varies with time as } \phi = 2t^2 - 6t + 5,$ $\text{where } \phi \text{ is in Weber and } t \text{ is in seconds. The induced current is zero at:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$t = 0$, $t = 1.5 \text{ s}$...
2
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16947
$\text{A circular loop of radius } R \text{ carrying current } i \text{ lies in the } x-y \text{ plane.}$ $\text{If the centre of the loop coincides with the origin, then the total magnetic flux passing through the } x-y \text{ plane will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{directly proportional to } i.$, $\text{directly proportional to } R.$...
4
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16946
$\text{A square loop with a side length of } 1 \text{ m and resistance of } 1 \, \Omega \text{ is placed in a uniform magnetic field of } 0.5 \, \text{T.}$ $\text{The plane of the loop is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field.}$ $\text{The magnetic flux through the loop is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $2 \, \text{Wb}$...
3
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16945
$\text{What is the dimensional formula of magnetic flux?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$[ML^2T^{-2}A^{-1}]$, $[MLT^{-1}A^{-2}]$...
1
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16944
$\text{A square of side } L \text{ meters lies in the } XY\text{-plane in a region where the magnetic field is given by } \vec{B} = B_0 \left( 2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 4\hat{k} \right) \text{ T where } B_0 \text{ is constant. The magnitude of flux passing through the square will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2B_0L^2 \text{ Wb}$, $3B_0L^2 \text{ Wb}$...
3
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16943
$\text{The radius of a loop as shown in the figure is } 10 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{If the magnetic field is uniform and has a value } 10^{-2} \text{ T, then the flux through the loop will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2\pi \times 10^{-2} \text{ Wb}$, $3\pi \times 10^{-4} \text{ Wb}$...
3
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16942
$\text{If a current is passed through a circular loop of radius } R \text{ then magnetic flux through a coplanar square loop of side } l \text{ as shown in the figure } (l \ll R) \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\mu_0 I}{2} \frac{R^2}{l}$, $\frac{\mu_0 I l^2}{2R}$...
2
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16941
$\text{A circular disc of the radius } 0.2 \text{ m is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction } \frac{1}{\pi} \left( \frac{\text{Wb}}{\text{m}^2} \right) \text{ in such a way that its axis makes an angle of } 60^\circ \text{ with } \vec{B}. \text{ The magnetic flux linked to the disc will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.02 \text{ Wb}$, $0.06 \text{ Wb}$...
1
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16940
$\text{The net magnetic flux through any closed surface, kept in uniform magnetic field is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}$...
1
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16939
$\text{The variation of magnetic susceptibility } (\chi) \text{ with temperature for a diamagnetic substance is best represented by:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
2
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16938
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Magnetic susceptibility is a pure number.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The value of magnetic susceptibility for vacuum is one.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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16937
$\text{For protecting a magnetic needle, it should be placed:}$
1
120
Recommended Questions
$\text{In an iron box.}$, $\text{In a wooden box.}$...
1
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16936
$\text{A ferromagnetic material is placed in an external magnetic field. The magnetic domains:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{must increase in size.}$, $\text{must decrease in size.}$...
3
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16935
$\text{A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet.}$ $\text{When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up,}$ $\text{out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy.}$ $\text{The work required to do this comes from:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{the current source}$, $\text{the magnetic field}$...
4
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16934
$\text{When cooled below } 4.2 \text{ K, mercury becomes a superconductor, which means it has no electrical resistance. When a current is passed through mercury under these conditions, which one of the following effects will be present?}$ $\text{(a) thermal}$ $\text{(b) chemical}$ $\text{(c) magnetic}$ $\text{Choose the correct option from the given ones:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{(a) and (c) only}$, $\text{(a), (b) and (c)}$...
4
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16933
$\text{A superconductor exhibits perfect:}$ $1.\ \text{Ferrimagnetism}$ $2.\ \text{Ferromagnetism}$ $3.\ \text{Paramagnetism}$ $4.\ \text{Diamagnetism}$
1
120
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ferrimagnetism}$, $\text{Ferromagnetism}$...
4
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16932
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{All paramagnetic substances become diamagnetic as their temperature is lowered.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{All ferromagnetic substances become paramagnetic when their temperature is lowered.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$...
3
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16931
$\text{The universal property of all substances is:}$
1
120
Recommended Questions
$\text{diamagnetism only}$, $\text{ferromagnetism only}$...
1
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16930
$\text{The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is:}$
1
120
Recommended Questions
$\text{much greater than one.}$, $\text{one.}$...
4
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16929
$\text{A frog can be levitated in a magnetic field produced by a current in a vertical solenoid placed below the frog. This is possible because the body of the frog behaves as:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Paramagnetic}$, $\text{Diamagnetic}$...
2
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16928
$\text{The variation of the intensity of magnetisation } (I) \text{ with respect to the}$ $\text{magnetising field } (H) \text{ in a diamagnetic substance is described by the graph:}$
1
120
Recommended Questions
$OD$, $OC$...
2
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16927
$\text{The magnetic susceptibility } \chi \text{ of a diamagnetic material depends on absolute temperature } T \text{ as:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\chi \propto T$, $\chi \propto \frac{1}{T}$...
3
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16926
$\text{The possible value of magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic material can be:}$
1
120
Recommended Questions
$-2.45$, $0.75$...
3
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16925
$\text{Select the incorrect statement regarding magnetic material.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The magnetic dipole moment of each atom of para and ferromagnetic substance is zero and that of diamagnetic material is non-zero in the absence of external magnetizing force}$, $\text{When the diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or south pole of a bar magnet, it is repelled}$...
1
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16924
$\text{The material which is used to make permanent magnet has:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{High retentivity, low coercivity}$, $\text{Low retentivity, low coercivity}$...
4
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16923
$\text{If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of diamagnetic material,}$ $\text{paramagnetic material and ferromagnetic material are denoted by}$ $\mu_d, \mu_p, \text{ and } \mu_f \text{ respectively, then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\mu_p = 0 \text{ and } \mu_f \neq 0$, $\mu_d \neq 0 \text{ and } \mu_p = 0$...
4
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16922
$\text{Diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{from stronger to the weaker parts of the field}$, $\text{from weaker to the stronger parts of the field}$...
1
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16921
$\text{The susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is } 99. \text{ The permeability of the material in Wb/A-m is:}$ $\text{(Permeability of free space, } \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \text{ Wb/A-m )}$
1
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$4\pi \times 10^{-7}$, $4\pi \times 10^{-4}$...
3
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16920
$\text{Needles } N_1, N_2 \text{ and } N_3 \text{ are made of ferromagnetic, paramagnetic, and diamagnetic substances respectively. A magnet, when brought close to them, will:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{attract all three of them}$, $\text{attract } N_1 \text{ and } N_2 \text{ strongly but repel } N_3 \text{ weakly}$...
3
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16919
$\text{If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{repelled by both the poles}$, $\text{repelled by the north pole and attracted by the south pole}$...
1
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16918
$\text{There are four light-weight-rod samples } A, B, C, D \text{ separately suspended by threads. A bar magnet is slowly brought near each sample and the following observations are noted:}$ $\text{(i) } A \text{ is feebly repelled. (ii) } B \text{ is feebly attracted.}$ $\text{(iii) } C \text{ is strongly attracted. (iv) } D \text{ remains unaffected.}$ $\text{Which one of the following is true?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$C \text{ is of a diamagnetic material.}$, $D \text{ is of a ferromagnetic material.}$...
4
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16917
$\text{The magnetic susceptibility is negative for:}$
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$\text{paramagnetic material only.}$, $\text{ferromagnetic material only.}$...
4
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16916
$\text{Which of the following is not dimensionless?}$ $\text{(where symbols stand for their usual meanings in magnetism)}$
1
120
Recommended Questions
$\frac{I}{H}$, $\frac{B}{\mu_0 H}$...
4
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16915
$\text{The magnetic dipoles in a diamagnetic material are represented, for three situations.}$ $\text{The three situations differ in magnitude if a magnetic field is applied to the material.}$ $\text{In which situation the magnetization of the material is the greatest:}$
1
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$A$, $B$...
2
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16914
$\text{A bar magnet has coercivity } 4 \times 10^3 \text{ Am}^{-1}. \text{ It is desired to demagnetize it by inserting it inside a solenoid } 12 \text{ cm long and having } 60 \text{ turns. The current that should be sent through the solenoid is:}$ $1.\ 2 \text{ A}$ $2.\ 4 \text{ A}$ $3.\ 6 \text{ A}$ $4.\ 8 \text{ A}$
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$2 \text{ A}$, $4 \text{ A}$...
4
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16913
$\text{S.I. unit of intensity of magnetization is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Ampere-metre}$, $\text{Ampere-metre}^2$...
3
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16912
$\text{The relationship between permeability } \mu \text{ and the magnetising field } H \text{ for a sample of iron is given by: } \mu = \left( \frac{0.5}{H} + 8 \times 10^{-4} \right) \text{ henry per metre, where } H \text{ is measured in A/m. What value of } H \text{ is required to produce a magnetic induction of } 1.0 \text{ Wb/m}^2?$
1
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$500 \text{ A/m}$, $0.625 \text{ A/m}$...
3
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16911
$\text{When a small ferromagnetic magnet is fully demagnetized, its coercivity is measured to be } 3 \times 10^3 \text{ Am}^{-1}. \text{ A solenoid of length } 10 \text{ cm, consisting of } 100 \text{ turns, is used to achieve this demagnetization. What should be the current flowing through the solenoid to completely demagnetize the magnet when placed inside it?}$
1
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$6 \text{ A}$, $30 \text{ mA}$...
3
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16910
$\text{The magnetic moment of a magnet } (10 \text{ cm} \times 4 \text{ cm} \times 1 \text{ cm}) \text{ is } 4 \text{ Am}^2. \text{ Its intensity of magnetisation is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10^3 \text{ A/m}$, $10^2 \text{ A/m}$...
3
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16909
$\text{A uniform magnetic field, parallel to the plane of the paper existed in space initially directed from left to right. When a bar of soft iron is placed in the field parallel to it, the lines of force passing through it will be represented by:}$
1
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$\text{Option 1}$, $\text{Option 2}$...
2
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16908
$\text{When a magnetic material is subjected to a very small magnetising force } H, \text{ the intensity of magnetisation is proportional to:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{H}}$, $\sqrt{H}$...
3
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16907
$\text{There are two materials } A \text{ and } B. \text{ The material } B \text{ have high coercivity and } A \text{ have low coercivity. The hysteresis loop area of material } A \text{ is lesser than the material } B. \text{ Then:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{material } A \text{ is preferred for making electromagnets.}$, $\text{material } B \text{ is preferred for making permanent magnets.}$...
4
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16906
$\text{The unit of magnetic moment is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{A/m}$, $\text{Am}$...
3
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16905
$\text{The magnetization of a piece of iron or steel:}$
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$\text{depends on the strength of the magnetizing field.}$, $\text{depends on external conditions such as temperature.}$...
4
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16904
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{Susceptibility is defined as the ratio of intensity of magnetization } I \text{ to magnetic intensity } H.$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{Greater the value of susceptibility, the smaller the value of the intensity of magnetization } I.$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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16903
$\text{A current-carrying loop is placed in magnetic field as shown in figure. What is the time period of small oscillation about an axis passing through diameter of the coil?}$ $\text{(Mass of coil is } m, \text{ radius is } R)$
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Recommended Questions
$2\pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{IB}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{2\pi m}{IB}}$...
2
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16902
$\text{A vibration magnetometer consists of two identical bar magnets placed one over the other such that they are perpendicular and bisect each other. The time period of oscillation in a horizontal magnetic field is } 2 \frac{5}{4} \text{ seconds. One of the magnets is removed and if the other magnet oscillates in the same field, then the time period in seconds is:}$
1
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$2 \frac{1}{4}$, $2 \frac{1}{2}$...
3
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16901
$\text{Select the correct option based on the statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: The magnetic field of a circular loop at very far away point on the axial line varies with distance as like that of a magnetic dipole.}$ $\text{Statement II: The magnetic field due to magnetic dipole varies inversely with the square of the distance from the centre on the axial line.}$
1
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$\text{Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.}$, $\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$...
1
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16900
$\text{If a magnetic monopole were to exist, what would be appropriate units of its 'strength'?}$
1
120
Recommended Questions
$\text{Wb/T}$, $\text{T/m}^3$...
3
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16899
$\text{A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has a period of oscillation equal to } T. \text{ Now it is broken into two equal halves (each having half of the original length) and one piece is made to oscillate freely in the same field. If its period of oscillation is } T', \text{ then ratio } \frac{T'}{T} \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{4}$, $\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}$...
3
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16898
$\text{Two bar magnets are held together tightly in a vibration magnetometer.}$ $\text{When their like poles are together, they make 20 oscillations per minute}$ $\text{and when their unlike poles are together, they make 8 oscillations per minute.}$ $\text{The ratio of the magnetic dipole moments of two bar magnets is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$29 : 21$, $6 : 15$...
1
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16897
$\text{A current-carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field in four different orientations, I, II, III \& IV. The decreasing order of potential energy is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{I} > \text{III} > \text{II} > \text{IV}$, $\text{I} > \text{II} > \text{III} > \text{IV}$...
3
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16896
$\text{Magnets } A \text{ and } B \text{ are geometrically similar but the magnetic moment of } A \text{ is twice that of } B. \text{ If } T_1 \text{ and } T_2 \text{ be the time periods of the oscillation when their like poles and unlike poles are kept together respectively, then } \frac{T_1}{T_2} \text{ will be:}$
1
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$\frac{1}{3}$, $\frac{1}{2}$...
3
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16895
$\text{A magnet is parallel to a uniform magnetic field. If it is rotated by } 60^\circ, \text{ the work done is } 0.8 \text{ J. How much work is done in moving it } 30^\circ \text{ further?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.8 \times 10^7 \text{ ergs}$, $0.4 \text{ J}$...
1
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16894
$\text{If the work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment } M \text{ by an angle of } 90^\circ \text{ from magnetic meridian is } n \text{ times the corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of } 60^\circ, \text{ then the value of } n \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2}$, $2$...
2
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16893
$\text{A closely wound solenoid of } 2000 \text{ turns and area of cross-section } 1.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}^2 \text{ carries a current of } 2.0 \text{ A.}$ $\text{It is suspended through its center and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field } 5 \times 10^{-2} \text{ tesla making an angle of } 30^\circ \text{ with the axis of the solenoid.}$ $\text{The torque on the solenoid will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$3 \times 10^{-3} \text{ Nm}$, $1.5 \times 10^{-3} \text{ Nm}$...
3
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16892
$\text{A short bar magnet of magnetic moment } 0.4 \text{ J/T is placed in a uniform magnetic field of } 0.16 \text{ T. The magnet is in stable equilibrium when the potential energy is:}$ $1. \ 0.064 \text{ J}$ $2. \ \text{zero}$ $3. \ -0.082 \text{ J}$ $4. \ -0.064 \text{ J}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.064 \text{ J}$, $\text{zero}$...
4
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16891
$\text{The magnetic moment of a short dipole is } 100 \text{ A-m}^2. \text{ The magnetic induction in vacuum at } 1 \text{ m from the dipole on the axis of the dipole is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2 \times 10^{-5} \text{ T}$, $10^{-5} \text{ T}$...
1
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16890
$\text{A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in the equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it by } 60^\circ \text{ is } W. \text{ Now the torque required to keep the magnet in this new position is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{W}{\sqrt{3}}$, $\frac{\sqrt{3}W}{3}$...
2
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16889
$\text{The bar magnet } A \text{ of magnetic moment } M_A \text{ is found to oscillate at a frequency twice that of magnet } B \text{ of magnetic moment } M_B \text{ and the same moment of inertia when placed in a vibration magnetometer. We may say that:}$
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Recommended Questions
$M_B = 8M_A$, $M_A = 4M_B$...
2
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16888
$\text{A short magnetic dipole is placed at the origin with its dipole movement directed along the } +x\text{-axis.}$ $\text{If magnetic field induction at a point } P(r, 0) \text{ is } B \hat{i},$ $\text{the magnetic field induction at point } Q(0, 2r) \text{ will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$-\frac{B}{16} \hat{i}$, $-\frac{B}{8} \hat{j}$...
1
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16887
$\text{Two short magnets of equal dipole moments } M \text{ are fastened perpendicularly at their centres (figure). The magnitude of the magnetic field at a distance } d \text{ from the centre on the bisector of the right angle is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{M}{d^3}$, $\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{M\sqrt{2}}{d^3}$...
3
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16886
$\text{Two magnets } A \text{ and } B \text{ are identical and these are arranged as shown in the figure. Their length is negligible in comparison to the separation between them. A magnetic needle is placed between the magnets at point } P \text{ which gets deflected through an angle } \theta \text{ under the influence of magnets. The ratio of distance } d_1 \text{ and } d_2 \text{ will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$(2 \tan \theta)^{\frac{1}{3}}$, $(2 \tan \theta)^{-\frac{1}{3}}$...
3
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16885
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Magnetic flux linked with a closed surface is always zero.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Magnetic monopole does not exist.}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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16884
$\text{Assume that the magnetic field of the earth is due to a small magnetic dipole,}$ $\text{placed at the centre of the earth (radius: } R).$ $\text{The magnetic field at the equator}$ $\text{is } B_e. \text{ The dipole moment of the dipole is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\pi}{\mu_0} \left( B_e R^3 \right)$, $\frac{2\pi}{\mu_0} \left( B_e R^3 \right)$...
3
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16883
$\text{The following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has magnetic dipole. Which configuration has the highest net magnetic dipole moment?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Configuration 1}$, $\text{Configuration 2}$...
3
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16882
$\text{The magnetic field at a point } x \text{ on the axis of a small bar magnet is equal to the field at a point } y \text{ on the equator of the same magnet.}$ $\text{The ratio of the distances of } x \text{ and } y \text{ from the centre of the magnet is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2^{-3}$, $2^{-\frac{1}{3}}$...
4
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16881
$\text{A Gaussian surface is drawn enclosing the N-pole of a bar magnet. The net magnetic flux through the Gaussian surface will be:}$ $\text{(pole strength of N-pole is treated as positive and S-pole as negative)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{positive.}$, $\text{negative.}$...
4
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16880
$\text{Two equal bar magnets are kept as shown in the figure. The direction of the resultant magnetic field, indicated by arrowhead at the point } P \text{ is: (approximately)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\rightarrow$, $\nearrow$...
2
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16879
$\text{Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a distance } d \text{ apart.}$ $\text{A stationary charge } Q \text{ is placed at } P \text{ in between the gap of the two magnets}$ $\text{at a distance } D \text{ from the centre } O \text{ as shown in the figure.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{zero.}$, $\text{directed along with } OP.$...
1
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16878
$\text{Two similar bar magnets } P \text{ and } Q, \text{ each of magnetic moment } M, \text{ are taken. If } P \text{ is cut along its axial line and } Q \text{ is cut along its equatorial line, all the four pieces obtained have:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{equal pole strength}$, $\text{magnetic moment } \frac{M}{4}$...
3
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16877
$\text{Figure shows two small identical magnetic dipoles } a \text{ and } b \text{ of magnetic moments } M \text{ each, placed at a separation } 2d, \text{ with their axes perpendicular to each other. The magnetic field at the point } P \text{ midway between the dipoles is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2\mu_0 M}{4\pi d^3}$, $\frac{\mu_0 M}{4\pi d^3}$...
4
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16876
$\text{The unit of pole strength is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Am}^2$, $\text{Am}$...
2
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16875
$\text{The magnetic moment of a bar magnet of length } L \text{ and area of cross-section } A \text{ is } M. \text{ If the magnet is cut into four identical parts each of length } L \text{ and area of cross-section } \frac{A}{4}, \text{ then the magnetic moment of each part is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{M}{4}$, $\frac{M}{2}$...
1
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16874
$\text{A bar magnet of the magnetic moment } M \text{ is placed at right angles to a magnetic induction } B. \text{ If a force } F \text{ is experienced by each pole of the magnet, the length of the magnet will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{MB}{F}$, $\frac{BF}{M}$...
1
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16873
$\text{A long magnetic needle of length } 2L, \text{ magnetic moment } M \text{ and pole strength } m \text{ units is broken into two pieces at the middle. The magnetic moment and pole strength of each piece will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{M}{2}, \frac{m}{2}$, $M, \frac{m}{2}$...
3
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16872
$\text{Due to a small magnet, the intensity at a distance } x \text{ in the end-on position is } 9 \text{ gauss.}$ $\text{What will be the intensity at a distance } \frac{x}{2} \text{ on equatorial position?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$9 \text{ gauss}$, $4 \text{ gauss}$...
3
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16871
$\text{A bar magnet of length } l \text{ and magnetic dipole moment } M \text{ is bent in the form of an arc as shown in the figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{3M}{\pi}$, $\frac{2M}{l\pi}$...
1
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16870
$\text{A 100-turn coil of wire of size } 2 \text{ cm} \times 1.5 \text{ cm is suspended between the poles of a magnet producing a field of } 1 \text{ T, inside a galvanometer. Calculate the torque on the coil due to a current of } 0.1 \text{ A passing through the coil.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$3 \times 10^{-5} \text{ N-m}$, $30 \text{ N-m}$...
3
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16869
$\text{If a magnetic needle is made to vibrate in uniform field } H, \text{ then its time period is } T. \text{ If it vibrates in the field of intensity } 4H, \text{ its time period will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2T$, $\frac{T}{2}$...
2
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16868
$\text{A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of } 2.0 \times 10^5 \text{ JT}^{-1} \text{ is placed along the direction of the uniform magnetic field of magnitude, } B = 14 \times 10^{-5} \text{ T.}$ $\text{The work done in rotating the magnet slowly through } 60^\circ \text{ from the direction of the field is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$14 \text{ J}$, $8.4 \text{ J}$...
1
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16867
$\text{The unit of magnetic flux is:}$ $1.\ \text{Oersted}$ $2.\ \text{Gauss}$ $3.\ \text{Tesla}$ $4.\ \text{Maxwell}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Oersted}$, $\text{Gauss}$...
4
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16866
$\text{Which one of the following is correct?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The magnetic field lines also represent the lines of force on a moving charged particle at every point.}$, $\text{The magnetic field lines can be entirely confined within the core of a toroid, but not within a straight solenoid.}$...
2
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16865
$\text{Two identical bar magnets are kept as shown in the figure. The direction of the resultant magnetic field, indicated by the arrowhead at the point } P \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\rightarrow$, $\nearrow$...
4
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16864
$\text{The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet are:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{from the south to the north pole.}$, $\text{from the north to the south pole.}$...
1
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16863
$\text{Which of the following is the correct representation of magnetic field lines?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$(g), (c)$, $(d), (f)$...
4
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16862
$\text{The correct direction of the magnetic field in the given figures is shown by:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.$, $2.$...
4
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16861
$\text{A galvanometer of resistance, } G, \text{ is shunted by the resistance of } S \text{ ohm. How much resistance is to be put in series with the galvanometer to keep the main current in the circuit unchanged?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{G}{(S+G)}$, $\frac{S^2}{(S+G)}$...
4
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16860
$\text{If an ammeter } A \text{ reads } 2 \text{ A and the voltmeter } V \text{ reads } 20 \text{ V, what is the value of resistance } R? \text{ (Assuming finite resistances of ammeter and voltmeter)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Exactly } 10 \, \Omega$, $\text{Less than } 10 \, \Omega$...
3
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16859
$\text{In an ammeter, } 0.2\% \text{ of the main current passes through the galvanometer. If the resistance of the galvanometer is } G, \text{ the resistance of the ammeter will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{499}G$, $\frac{499}{500}G$...
3
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16858
$\text{A galvanometer having a resistance of } 8 \text{ ohms is shunted by a wire of resistance of } 2 \text{ ohms. If the total current is } 1 \text{ A, the part of it passing through the shunt will be:}$ $1.\ 0.25\ \text{A}$ $2.\ 0.8\ \text{A}$ $3.\ 0.2\ \text{A}$ $4.\ 0.5\ \text{A}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.25\ \text{A}$, $0.8\ \text{A}$...
2
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16857
$\text{On connecting a shunt of } 10 \, \Omega, \text{ the deflection in a moving coil galvanometer}$ $\text{falls from } 40 \text{ divisions to } 6 \text{ divisions. What is the resistance of the}$ $\text{galvanometer?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{120}{3} \, \Omega$, $\frac{30}{7} \, \Omega$...
3
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16856
$\text{When a } 12 \, \Omega \text{ resistor is connected in parallel with a moving coil galvanometer, its deflection reduces from } 50 \text{ divisions to } 10 \text{ divisions. What will be the resistance of the galvanometer?}$ $1. \, 24 \, \Omega$ $2. \, 36 \, \Omega$ $3. \, 48 \, \Omega$ $4. \, 60 \, \Omega$
1
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Recommended Questions
$24 \, \Omega$, $36 \, \Omega$...
3
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16855
$\text{A galvanometer of resistance } 240 \, \Omega \text{ allows only } 4\% \text{ of the main current after connecting a shunt resistance. What is the value of shunt resistance?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10 \, \Omega$, $20 \, \Omega$...
1
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16854
$\text{What properties will a galvanometer that is acting as a voltmeter have?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{high resistance in series with its coil}$, $\text{low resistance in parallel with its coil}$...
1
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16853
$\text{A milliammeter of } 10 \text{ mA has a coil resistance of } 1 \, \Omega. \text{ To use it as an ammeter of range } 1 \, \text{A, the required shunt must have a resistance of:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{101} \, \Omega$, $\frac{1}{100} \, \Omega$...
3
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16852
$\text{A galvanometer having a coil resistance of } 60 \, \Omega \text{ shows full-scale deflection when a current of } 1.0 \, \text{A passes through it. How can we convert it into an ammeter capable of reading currents up to } 5.0 \, \text{A?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{putting in series resistance of } 240 \, \Omega.$, $\text{putting in parallel resistance of } 240 \, \Omega.$...
4
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16851
$\text{A galvanometer with a resistance of } 36 \, \Omega \text{ is changed into an ammeter by using a shunt of } 4 \, \Omega. \text{ The fraction } f_0 \text{ of total current passing through the galvanometer will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{40}$, $\frac{1}{4}$...
4
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16850
$\text{The galvanometer of resistance } 80 \, \Omega \text{ deflects a full scale for a potential of } 20 \, \text{mV.}$ $\text{How much resistance is required for a voltmeter to deflect a full scale of } 5 \, \text{V to be made using this galvanometer?}$
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$\text{resistance of } 19.92 \, \text{k} \Omega \text{ parallel to the galvanometer}$, $\text{resistance of } 19.92 \, \text{k} \Omega \text{ in series with the galvanometer}$...
2
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16849
$\text{A galvanometer has a coil resistance of } 100 \, \Omega \text{ and gives a full-scale deflection for } 30 \, \text{mA of current. If it is to work as a voltmeter in the } 30 \, \text{V range, how much resistance does it require to be added?}$
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$900 \, \Omega$, $1800 \, \Omega$...
1
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16848
$\text{The current sensitivity of a galvanometer can be increased by:}$ $\text{A. decreasing the number of turns.}$ $\text{B. increasing the magnetic field.}$ $\text{C. decreasing the area of the coil.}$ $\text{D. decreasing the torsional constant of the spring.}$ $\text{Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:}$
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$(\text{B}) \text{ and } (\text{C}) \text{ only}$, $(\text{C}) \text{ and } (\text{D}) \text{ only}$...
4
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16847
$\text{What is the relation between voltage sensitivity } (\sigma_v) \text{ and current sensitivity } (\sigma_i) \text{ of a moving coil galvanometer? (Resistance of Galvanometer } = G)$
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$\frac{\sigma_i}{G} = \sigma_v$, $\frac{\sigma_v}{G} = \sigma_i$...
1
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16846
$\text{What happens when the number of turns in a galvanometer is doubled?}$
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$\text{The voltage sensitivity becomes double.}$, $\text{The current sensitivity becomes double.}$...
2
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16845
$\text{The current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is } 5 \text{ div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is } 20 \text{ div/V. How much is the resistance of the galvanometer?}$
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$40 \, \Omega$, $25 \, \Omega$...
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16844
$\text{By which relation is the deflection of the coil } \theta \text{ related to the electrical current } i \text{ in a moving coil galvanometer?}$
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$i \propto \tan \theta$, $i \propto \theta$...
2
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16843
$\text{Which among the following options needs to be decreased to increase the sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer?}$
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$\text{the number of turns in the coil.}$, $\text{the area of the coil.}$...
4
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16842
$\text{When will the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer be high?}$ $\left( N = \text{number of turns}, B = \text{magnetic field}, A = \text{area of coil, and } C = \text{Torsional constant of spring} \right)$
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$N \text{ is small}$, $B \text{ is small}$...
4
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16841
$\text{A square loop with a side } l \text{ is held in a uniform magnetic field } B, \text{ such that its plane making an angle } \alpha \text{ with } B. \text{ A current } i \text{ flows through the loop. What will be the torque experienced by the loop in this position?}$
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$Bil^2$, $Bil^2 \sin \alpha$...
3
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16840
$\text{A current } I \text{ is carried by an elastic circular wire of length } L. \text{ It is placed in a uniform magnetic field } B \text{ (out of paper) with its plane perpendicular to } B\text{'s direction. What will happen to the wire?}$
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$\text{No force}$, $\text{A stretching force}$...
2
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16839
$\text{Two insulated rings, one of a slightly smaller diameter than the other, are suspended along their common diameter as shown. Initially, the planes of the rings are mutually perpendicular. What happens when a steady current is set up in each of them?}$
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$\text{the two rings rotate into a common plane.}$, $\text{the inner ring oscillates about its initial position.}$...
1
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16838
$\text{A closed-loop (of any shape) carrying current lies in the } x-y \text{ plane.}$ $\text{What happens when a uniform magnetic field } B \text{ is present in the region such that the loop experiences zero force?}$
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$B \text{ acts along the } x\text{-axis}$, $B \text{ acts along the } y\text{-axis}$...
4
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16837
$\text{If a square loop } ABCD \text{ carrying a current } i \text{ is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor } XY \text{ carrying a current } I, \text{ what will be the net force on the loop?}$
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$\frac{\mu_0 I i}{2 \pi}$, $\frac{2 \mu_0 I i L}{3 \pi}$...
4
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16836
$\text{A magnetic dipole is under the influence of two magnetic fields. The angle between the field directions is } 60^\circ, \text{ and one of the fields has a magnitude of } 1.2 \times 10^{-2} \text{ T. If the dipole comes to stable equilibrium at an angle of } 15^\circ \text{ with this field, what is the magnitude of the other field?}$ $\text{[Given: } \sin 15^\circ = 0.26]$
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$7.29 \times 10^{-3} \text{ T}$, $4.39 \times 10^{-3} \text{ T}$...
2
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16835
$\text{A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side } l \text{ is suspended between the pole pieces of a permanent magnet such that } \vec{B} \text{ is in the plane of the coil. If due to a current } i \text{ in the triangle, a torque } \tau \text{ acts on it, the side } l \text{ of the triangle will be:}$
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$\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} \left( \frac{\tau}{Bi} \right)$, $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \frac{\tau}{Bi}$...
3
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16834
$\text{A circular loop with a radius of } 20 \text{ cm is placed in a uniform magnetic field } B = 2 \text{ T in the } XY \text{ plane as shown in the figure. If the loop carries a current of } i = 1 \text{ A, then the magnitude of torque acting on the loop will be:}$
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$0.25 \text{ N-m}$, $5.2 \text{ N-m}$...
1
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16833
$\text{A current-carrying closed loop in the form of a right isosceles triangle } ABC \text{ is placed in a uniform magnetic field acting along with } AB. \text{ If the magnetic force on the arm } BC \text{ is } F, \text{ then what is the force on the arm } AC?$
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$-F$, $F$...
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16832
$\text{A closely wound solenoid of } 2000 \text{ turns and an area of cross-section of } 1.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}^2 \text{ carries a current of } 2.0 \text{ A.}$ $\text{It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field of } 5 \times 10^{-2} \text{ Tesla, making an angle of } 30^\circ \text{ with the axis of the solenoid.}$ $\text{What will be the torque on the solenoid?}$
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$1.5 \times 10^{-3} \text{ Nm}$, $1.5 \times 10^{-2} \text{ Nm}$...
2
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16831
$\text{A closed-loop } PQRS \text{ carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field.}$ $\text{If the magnetic forces on segments } PS, SR, \text{ and } RQ \text{ are } F_1, F_2 \text{ and } F_3$ $\text{respectively, and are in the plane of the paper and along the directions shown,}$ $\text{then which of the following forces acts on the segment } QP?$
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$F_3 - F_1 - F_2$, $\sqrt{(F_3 - F_1)^2 + F_2^2}$...
2
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16830
$\text{A square current-carrying loop is suspended in a uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the loop. If the force on one arm of the loop is } \vec{F}, \text{ what will be the net force on the remaining three arms of the loop?}$
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$3\vec{F}$, $-\vec{F}$...
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16829
$\text{What is the magnetic dipole moment of the given loop?}$
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$\frac{5}{2} \pi R^2 I$, $3 \pi R^2 I$...
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16828
$\text{A wire of length } l \text{ carrying current } i \text{ is folded to form a circular coil of } N \text{ turns.}$ $\text{What should be the value of } N \text{ to have the maximum value of the magnetic}$ $\text{moment in the coil?}$
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$1$, $4$...
1
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16827
$\text{The ratio of the radii of two circular coils is } 1 : 2. \text{ The ratio of currents in the respective coils such that the same magnetic moment is produced at the centre of each coil is:}$
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$4 : 1$, $2 : 1$...
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16826
$\text{In a hydrogen atom, the electron makes } 6.6 \times 10^{15} \text{ rev/sec around the nucleus in an orbit of radius } 0.528 \, \text{\AA}. \text{ What will (A-m}^2\text{) its magnetic moment be?}$
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$1 \times 10^{-15}$, $1 \times 10^{-10}$...
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16825
$\text{The two parts of the loop are circles of radii } 2a \text{ and } a, \text{ respectively, and carry the same current } i \text{ as shown in the given figure. What is the magnitude of the dipole moment of the current loop?}$
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$5\pi a^2 \hat{i}$, $4\pi a^2 \hat{i}$...
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16824
$\text{What is the magnetic moment of the following current loop?}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{3 m} \\ \text{90}^\circ \\ \end{array}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{2 A} \\ \text{4 m} \\ \end{array}$
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$24 \ \text{Am}^2$, $12 \ \text{Am}^2$...
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16823
$\text{A wire of length } L \text{ meters carrying a current of } I \text{ ampere is bent in the form of a circle. What is its magnetic moment?}$
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$\frac{IL^2}{4} \text{ A-m}^2$, $\frac{I \times \pi L^2}{4} \text{ A-m}^2$...
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16822
$\text{If a charged particle (charge } q \text{) is moving in a circle of radius } R \text{ at a uniform speed } v, \text{ then the value of its associated magnetic moment } \mu \text{ will be:}$
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$\frac{qvR}{2}$, $qvR^2$...
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16821
$\text{Two particles each of mass } m \text{ and charge } q \text{ are attached to the two ends of a light rigid rod of length } 2R. \text{ The rod is rotated at constant angular speed about a perpendicular axis passing through its centre. What is the ratio of the magnitudes of the magnetic moment of the system and its angular momentum about the centre of the rod?}$
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$\frac{q}{2m}$, $\frac{q}{m}$...
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16820
$\text{A charge } Q \text{ is uniformly distributed on a ring of radius } R \text{ made of an insulating material.}$ $\text{If the ring rotates about the axis passing through its centre and normal to the plane of the ring with constant angular speed } \omega,$ $\text{then what will be the magnitude of the magnetic moment of the ring?}$
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$Q \omega R^2$, $\frac{1}{2} Q \omega R^2$...
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16819
$\text{If the planes of two identical concentric coils are perpendicular and the magnetic moment of each coil is } M, \text{ then the resultant magnetic moment of the two-coil system will be:}$
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$M$, $\sqrt{2}M$...
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16818
$\text{Three long, straight, and parallel wires carrying currents of } 30 \text{ A, } 10 \text{ A, and } 20 \text{ A}$ $\text{in } P, Q, \text{ and } R, \text{ respectively, are arranged as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{What is the force experienced by a } 10 \text{ cm length of wire } Q?$
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Recommended Questions
$1.4 \times 10^{-4} \text{ N towards the right}$, $1.4 \times 10^{-4} \text{ N towards the left}$...
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16817
$\text{An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to the plane of paper carrying the same current in the same direction is shown in the figure. The magnitude of force per unit length on the middle wire } B \text{ is given by:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\mu_0 i^2}{2 \pi d}$, $\frac{2 \mu_0 i^2}{\pi d}$...
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16816
$\text{As indicated, a long, straight conductor } XY \text{ carrying a current } i_1 \text{ is placed antiparallel to a conductor } AB \text{ of length } l \text{ carrying a current } i_2. \text{ How much of a force is acting on } AB?$
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$\frac{\mu_0 i_1 i_2}{\mu_0 i_1 i_2}$, $\frac{\pi}{\mu_0 i_1 i_2}$...
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16815
$\text{A long wire } A \text{ carries a current of } 10 \text{ A. Another long wire } B, \text{ which is parallel to } A \text{ and separated by } 0.1 \text{ m from } A, \text{ carries a current of } 5 \text{ A, in the opposite direction to that in } A. \text{ What is the magnitude and nature of the force experienced per unit length of } B?$ $\left( \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \text{ weber/(amp-m)} \right)$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Repulsive force of } 10^{-4} \text{ N/m}$, $\text{Attractive force of } 10^{-4} \text{ N/m}$...
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16814
$\text{A rectangular loop carrying a current } I_1, \text{ is situated near a long straight wire carrying a steady current } I_2. \text{ If the wire is parallel to one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop as shown in the figure, then the current loop will:}$
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$\text{move away from the wire.}$, $\text{move towards the wire.}$...
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16813
$\text{What will happen if two thin, long parallel wires separated by a distance } d \text{ carry current } i \text{ in the same direction?}$
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$\text{attract each other with a force per unit length of } \frac{\mu_0 i^2}{2 \pi d^2}.$, $\text{repel each other with a force per unit length of } \frac{\mu_0 i^2}{2 \pi d^2}.$...
3
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16812
$\text{Two long parallel copper wires carry currents of } 5 \text{ A each in opposite directions. If the wires are separated by a distance of } 0.5 \text{ m, then the force between the two wires will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$10^{-5} \text{ N, attractive}$, $10^{-5} \text{ N, repulsive}$...
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16811
$\text{The figure depicts a cross-section of a large metal sheet with an electric current flowing along its surface. The current in a } dl\text{-width strip is } (K dl), \text{ where } K \text{ is a constant. What is the magnetic field at a point } P \text{ and at a distance } x \text{ from the metal strips?}$
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$\frac{1}{2} \mu_0 K x$, $\mu_0 K$...
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16810
$\text{Two identical current-carrying coaxial loops carry current } I \text{ in an opposite sense. A simple amperian loop passes through both of them once. Calling the loop as } C,$ $\begin{array}{ll} (a) & \oint \mathbf{B} \cdot d\mathbf{l} = \pm 2\mu_0 I \\ (b) & \text{the value of } \oint \mathbf{B} \cdot d\mathbf{l} \text{ is independent of the sense of } C. \\ (c) & \text{there may be a point on } C \text{ where } \mathbf{B} \text{ and } d\mathbf{l} \text{ are perpendicular.} \\ (d) & \mathbf{B} \text{ vanishes everywhere on } C. \end{array}$ $\text{Which of the above statements is correct?}$
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$(a) \text{ and } (b)$, $(a) \text{ and } (c)$...
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16809
$\text{Three infinitely long conductors carrying currents } I_1, I_2 \text{ and } I_3 \text{ lie perpendicular to the plane of the paper as shown below.}$ $\text{If the value of the integral } \oint \vec{B} \cdot \vec{dl} \text{ for the loops } C_1, C_2, \text{ and } C_3 \text{ are } 2\mu_0, 4\mu_0 \text{ and } \mu_0 \text{ in the units of N/A, respectively, then:}$
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$I_1 = 3\text{A into the paper}$, $I_2 = 3\text{A out of the paper}$...
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16808
$\text{Consider six wires with the same current flowing through them as they enter or exit the page.}$ $\text{Rank the magnetic field's line integral counterclockwise around each loop,}$ $\text{going from most positive to most negative.}$
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$B > C > D > A$, $B > C = D > A$...
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16807
$\text{A long straight wire of radius } a \text{ carries a steady current } I. \text{ The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields } B \text{ and } B' \text{ at radial distances } \frac{a}{2} \text{ and } 2a \text{ respectively, from the axis of the wire, is:}$
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$\frac{1}{2}$, $1$...
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16806
$\text{A long solenoid has 800 turns per metre of the length of the solenoid. A current of } 1.6 \text{ A flows through it. What is the magnetic induction at the end of the solenoid on its axis?}$
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$16 \times 10^{-4} \text{ T}$, $8 \times 10^{-4} \text{ T}$...
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16805
$\text{What is a representation of the magnetic field caused by a straight conductor}$ $\text{with a uniform cross-section and a steady current of radius } a?$
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$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
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16804
$\text{If a long hollow copper pipe carries a direct current along its length, then the magnetic field associated with the current will be:}$
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$\text{only inside the pipe}$, $\text{only outside the pipe}$...
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16803
$\text{If an } i \text{ A current flows through an infinitely long, straight, thin-walled tube, what will be the magnetic induction at any point within the tube?}$
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$\text{infinite}$, $\text{zero}$...
2
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16802
$\text{Magnetic field at the outer surface of long hollow cylindrical shells of radius } R$ $\text{and carrying current } I \text{ is } B. \text{ What is the magnetic field at a distance of } \frac{3R}{2}$ $\text{ from the axis of the cylindrical shell?}$
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$\frac{B}{2}$, $2B$...
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16801
$\text{In a current-carrying long solenoid, the field produced does not depend upon:}$
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$\text{Number of turns per unit length}$, $\text{Current flowing}$...
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16800
$\text{A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field } B \text{ along its axis.}$ $\text{If the current is doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved, what will be the new value of the magnetic field?}$
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$\frac{B}{2}$, $B$...
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16799
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{If a proton and an } \alpha\text{-particle enters a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly with the same speed, then the time period of revolution of the } \alpha\text{-particle is double that of a proton.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{In a magnetic field, the time period of revolution of a charged particle is directly proportional to mass.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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16798
$\text{A charged particle is projected in a uniform magnetic field at an angle of } 45^\circ \text{ to the magnetic field.}$ $\text{If the circumference of the helical path followed by it is } 2 \text{ cm, then the pitch of the helix will be:}$
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$1 \text{ cm}$, $\sqrt{2} \text{ cm}$...
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16797
$\text{Perpendicularly, an electron and a proton enter a magnetic field. Both have the same amount of kinetic energy. Which of the following statements is correct?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Trajectory of electron is less curved}$, $\text{Trajectory of proton is less curved}$...
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16796
$\text{When a positively charged particle moves in an } x-y \text{ plane, its path abruptly changes due to the presence of electric and/or magnetic fields beyond } P. \text{ The curved path is depicted in the } x-y \text{ plane and is discovered to be noncircular. Which of the following combinations is true?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\vec{E} = 0; \ \vec{B} = b\hat{i} + c\hat{k}$, $\vec{E} = a\hat{i}; \ \vec{B} = c\hat{k} + a\hat{i}$...
2
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16795
$\text{When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration } a_0 \text{ towards the east.}$ $\text{When it is projected towards the north with a speed of } v_0, \text{ it moves with an initial acceleration of } 3a_0 \text{ towards the east.}$ $\text{What are the electric and magnetic fields in the room?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{M a_0}{e} \text{ west, } \frac{M a_0}{e v_0} \text{ up}$, $\frac{M a_0}{e} \text{ west, } \frac{2M a_0}{e v_0} \text{ down}$...
3
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16794
$\text{If charge } -Q \text{ is moving vertically upwards, then what will be the force on the charged particle if it enters a magnetic field that is pointed towards the south?}$ $1. \text{ North}$ $2. \text{ South}$ $3. \text{ East}$ $4. \text{ West}$
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$\text{North}$, $\text{South}$...
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16793
$\text{In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an electric potential } V \text{ and then made to describe semi-circular paths of radius } R \text{ using a magnetic field } B. \text{ If } V \text{ and } B \text{ are kept constant, the ratio of } \left( \frac{\text{Charge on the ion}}{\text{Mass of the ion}} \right) \text{ will be proportional to:}$
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$\frac{1}{R}$, $\frac{1}{R^2}$...
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16792
$\text{A proton and an } \alpha\text{-particle enter a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly at the same speed. If a proton takes } 25 \, \mu s \text{ to make } 5 \text{ revolutions, then the periodic time for the } \alpha\text{-particle will be:}$ $1. \, 50 \, \mu s$ $2. \, 25 \, \mu s$ $3. \, 10 \, \mu s$ $4. \, 5 \, \mu s$
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Recommended Questions
$50 \, \mu s$, $25 \, \mu s$...
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16791
$\text{A particle having a mass of } 10^{-2} \text{ kg carries a charge of } 5 \times 10^{-8} \text{ C.}$ $\text{The particle is given an initial horizontal velocity of } 10^5 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ in the presence of an}$ $\text{electric field } \vec{E} \text{ and magnetic field } \vec{B}. \text{ How can we keep the particles moving in a horizontal direction?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\vec{B} \text{ should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity and } \vec{E} \text{ should be along the direction of velocity.}$, $\text{Both } \vec{B} \text{ and } \vec{E} \text{ should be along the direction of velocity.}$...
3
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16790
$\text{If an electron of velocity } 2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} \text{ is subjected to a magnetic field of } 4\hat{k}:$
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$\text{the speed will change.}$, $\text{the direction will change.}$...
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16789
$\text{A metallic rod of mass per unit length of } 0.5 \text{ kgm}^{-1} \text{ is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of } 30^\circ \text{ with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction of } 0.25 \text{ T is acting on it in the vertical direction. What is the current flowing through the rod to keep it stationary?}$
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$7.14 \text{ A}$, $5.98 \text{ A}$...
4
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16788
$\text{A particle of charge } q \text{ and mass } m \text{ is moving along the } x\text{-axis with a velocity of } v \text{ and enters a region of electric field } E \text{ and magnetic field } B \text{ as shown in the figure below. For which figure is the net force on the charge zero?}$
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Recommended Questions
$1.$, $2.$...
2
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16787
$\text{A charged particle is projected through a region in a gravity-free space. If it passes through the region with constant speed, then the region may have:}$ $1. \vec{E} = 0, \vec{B} \neq 0$ $2. \vec{E} \neq 0, \vec{B} \neq 0$ $3. \vec{E} \neq 0, \vec{B} = 0$ $4. \text{Both (1) \& (2)}$
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Recommended Questions
$\vec{E} = 0, \vec{B} \neq 0$, $\vec{E} \neq 0, \vec{B} \neq 0$...
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16786
$\text{The dots in the figure depict a magnetic field that is perpendicular to the plane of the paper and emanates from it.}$ $\text{The trajectory of a particle in the plane of the paper is depicted by the curve } ABC.\text{ What exactly is the particle?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Proton.}$, $\text{Electron.}$...
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16785
$\text{A neutron, a proton, an electron and an } \alpha\text{-particle enter a region of the uniform magnetic field with the same velocity.}$ $\text{The magnetic field is perpendicular and directed into the plane of the paper.}$ $\text{The tracks of the particles are labelled in the figure.}$ $\text{Which track will the } \alpha\text{-particle follow?}$
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$A$, $B$...
3
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16784
$\text{Ionized hydrogen atoms and } \alpha\text{-particles with the same momenta enter perpendicular to a constant magnetic field, } B. \text{ The ratio of their path radii } r_H : r_\alpha \text{ will be:}$
1
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$1 : 4$, $2 : 1$...
2
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16783
$\text{A particle with charge } q, \text{ moving with a momentum } p, \text{ enters a uniform magnetic field normally.}$ $\text{The magnetic field has magnitude } B \text{ and is confined to a region of width } d, \text{ where } d < \frac{p}{Bq}. \text{ The particle is deflected by an angle } \theta \text{ in crossing the field, then:}$
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$\sin \theta = \frac{Bqd}{p}$, $\sin \theta = \frac{p}{Bqd}$...
1
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16782
$\text{When a charged particle with velocity } \vec{v} \text{ is subjected to an induction magnetic field } \vec{B}, \text{ the force on it is non-zero. What does this imply?}$
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$\text{Angle between } \vec{v} \text{ and } \vec{B} \text{ is necessarily } 90^\circ.$, $\text{Angle between } \vec{v} \text{ and } \vec{B} \text{ can have any value other than } 90^\circ.$...
3
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16781
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ \text{The electric force changes the speed of the charged particle and hence changes its kinetic energy: whereas the magnetic force does not change the kinetic energy of the charged particle.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ \text{The electric force accelerates the positively charged particle perpendicular to the direction of the electric field. The magnetic force accelerates the moving charged particle along the direction of the magnetic field.}$
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$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$...
3
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16780
$\text{An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of } 3.57 \times 10^{-2} \text{ T.}$ $\text{If the value of } \frac{e}{m} \text{ is } 1.76 \times 10^{11} \text{ C/kg,}$ $\text{what will be the frequency of revolution of the electron?}$
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$1 \text{ GHz}$, $100 \text{ MHz}$...
1
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16779
$\text{A current-carrying wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field in the shape of the curve } y = \alpha \sin\left(\frac{\pi x}{L}\right), 0 \leq x \leq 2L. \text{ What will be the force acting on the wire?}$
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$\frac{iBL}{\pi}$, $iBL\pi$...
3
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16778
$\text{The magnetic force acting on a charged particle of charge } -2 \, \mu\text{C} \text{ in a magnetic field of } 2 \, \text{T acting in the } y\text{-direction, when the particle velocity is } (2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}) \times 10^6 \, \text{ms}^{-1} \text{ is:}$
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$8 \, \text{N in } -z\text{-direction.}$, $4 \, \text{N in the } z\text{-direction.}$...
1
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16777
$\text{A beam of electrons passes un-deflected through mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. Where do the electrons move if the electric field is switched off and the same magnetic field is maintained?}$
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$\text{in an elliptical orbit.}$, $\text{in a circular orbit.}$...
2
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16776
$\text{Moving perpendicular to field } B, \text{ a proton and an alpha particle both enter an area of uniform magnetic field } B. \text{ If the kinetic energy of the proton is } 1 \text{ MeV and the radius of the circular orbits for both particles is equal, the energy of the alpha particle will be:}$
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$4 \text{ MeV}$, $0.5 \text{ MeV}$...
4
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16775
$\text{A charged particle enters perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. Which of the following statements is true for the charged particle?}$
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$\text{kinetic energy changes}$, $\text{kinetic energy remains constant}$...
2
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16774
$\text{A particle of charge } +q \text{ and mass } m \text{ moving under the influence of a uniform electric field } \vec{E}\hat{i} \text{ and a uniform magnetic field } B\hat{k} \text{ follows a trajectory from } P \text{ to } Q \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The velocities at } P \text{ and } Q \text{ are } v\hat{i} \text{ and } -2v\hat{j} \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?}$
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$E = \frac{3}{4} \frac{mv^2}{qa}.$, $\text{Rate of work done by electric field at } P \text{ is } \frac{3}{4} \frac{mv^3}{a}.$...
4
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16773
$\text{What is the result of an electric charge in uniform motion?}$
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$\text{an electric field only.}$, $\text{a magnetic field only.}$...
3
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16772
$\text{A particle of mass } m, \text{ charge } Q, \text{ and kinetic energy } T \text{ enters a transverse uniform magnetic field of induction } \vec{B}. \text{ What will be the kinetic energy of the particle after seconds?}$
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$3T$, $2T$...
3
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16771
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Magnetic field due to an infinite straight conductor varies inversely as the distance from it.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The magnetic field at the center of the circular coil is zero.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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16770
$\text{A cell is connected between the points } A \text{ and } C \text{ of a circular conductor } ABCD \text{ of centre } O \text{ with an angle of } AOC = 60^\circ.$ $\text{If } B_1 \text{ and } B_2 \text{ are the magnitudes of the magnetic fields at } O \text{ due to the currents in } ABC \text{ and } ADC \text{ respectively, the ratio } B_1 : B_2 \text{ will be:}$
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$0.2$, $6$...
3
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16769
$\text{Two straight horizontal parallel wires carry the same current in the same direction, and } d \text{ is the distance between them. You are given a small magnetic needle that is freely suspended. Which of the following positions will have the needle's orientation independent of the magnitude of the current in the wires?}$
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$\text{At a distance } \frac{d}{2} \text{ from any of the wires in any plane.}$, $\text{At a distance } \frac{d}{3} \text{ from any of the wires in the horizontal plane.}$...
4
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16768
$\text{An electron and a proton are revolving around a common centre } O \text{ in two coplanar circular paths as shown in the figure with a time period of rotation of 1 s and 2 s, respectively. What will be the net magnetic field at } O?$
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$\frac{\mu_0 e}{\pi} \text{ tesla}$, $\frac{\mu_0 e}{2} \text{ tesla}$...
2
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16767
$\text{Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the same wire but the radius of the 1}^{\text{st}} \text{ coil is twice that of the 2}^{\text{nd}} \text{ coil. What is the ratio of the potential difference applied across them so that the magnetic field at their centres is the same?}$ $1.\ 3$ $2.\ 4$ $3.\ 6$ $4.\ 2$
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$3$, $4$...
2
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16766
$\text{If the current is flowing in the south direction along a power line, then what will be the direction of the magnetic field above the power line (neglecting the earth's field)?}$
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$\text{South}$, $\text{East}$...
4
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16765
$\text{An infinitely long straight conductor is bent into the shape as shown in the figure. It carries a current of } i \text{ amperes and the radius of the circular loop is } r \text{ metres. What will be the magnetic induction at its centre?}$
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$\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{2i}{r} (\pi + 1)$, $\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{2i}{r} (\pi - 1)$...
2
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16764
$\text{A current loop consists of two identical semicircular parts each of radius } R, \text{ one lying in the } x-y \text{ plane, and the other in the } x-z \text{ plane. If the current in the loop is } i, \text{ what will be the resultant magnetic field due to the two semicircular parts at their common centre?}$
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$\frac{\mu_0 i}{2\sqrt{2}R}$, $\frac{\mu_0 i}{2R}$...
1
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16763
$\text{If a wire in the form of a square with a side } a \text{ carries a current } i, \text{ then the magnetic induction at the centre of the square wire will be:}$ $\text{(Magnetic permeability of free space } = \mu_0)$
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$\frac{\mu_0 i}{2 \pi a}$, $\frac{\mu_0 i \sqrt{2}}{\pi a}$...
3
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16762
$\text{A circular coil is in the } y-z \text{ plane with its centre at the origin. The coil carries a constant current. Assuming the direction of the magnetic field at } x = -25 \text{ cm to be positive, which of the following graphs shows the variation of the magnetic field along the } x\text{-axis?}$
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$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
2
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16761
$\text{A ring of radius } R \text{ carries a linear charge density } \lambda. \text{ It is rotating with angular}$ $\text{speed } \omega \text{ about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the}$ $\text{plane. What is the magnetic field at its centre?}$
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$\frac{3\mu_0\lambda\omega}{2}$, $\frac{\mu_0\lambda\omega}{2}$...
2
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16760
$\text{If the magnetic field at the centre of the circular coil is } B_0, \text{ then what is the distance on its axis from the centre of the coil where } B_x = \frac{B_0}{8}?$ $\left(R = \text{radius of the coil}\right)$
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$\frac{R}{3}$, $\sqrt{3}R$...
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16759
$\text{Two identical long conducting wires } (AOB) \text{ and } (COD) \text{ are placed at a right angle to each other, with one above the other such that } 'O' \text{ is the common point for the two. The wires carry } I_1 \text{ and } I_2 \text{ currents, respectively. The point } 'P' \text{ is lying at a distance } 'd' \text{ from } 'O' \text{ along a direction perpendicular to the plane containing the wires. What will be the magnetic field at the point } P?$
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$\frac{\mu_0}{2\pi d} \left( \frac{I_1}{I_2} \right)$, $\frac{\mu_0}{2\pi d} [I_1 + I_2]$...
4
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16758
$\text{In the figure shown below there are two semicircles of radius } r_1 \text{ and } r_2 \text{ in which a current } i \text{ is flowing. The magnetic induction at the centre of } O \text{ will be:}$
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$\frac{\mu_0 i}{r \left( r_1 + r_2 \right)}$, $\frac{\mu_0 i}{4} \left[ \frac{r_1 + r_2}{r_1 r_2} \right]$...
2
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16757
$\text{What is the magnetic field at point } O \text{ in the figure?}$
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$\frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi r}$, $\frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi r} + \frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi r}$...
3
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16756
$\text{Two similar coils of radius } R \text{ are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other. The currents flowing in them are } I \text{ and } 2I, \text{ respectively. What will be the resultant magnetic field induction at the centre?}$
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$\frac{\sqrt{5} \mu_0 I}{2R}$, $\frac{3 \mu_0 I}{2R}$...
1
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16755
$\text{Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of magnetic field induction with distance due to a thin wire carrying current?}$
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$\text{Graph 1: Linear increase}$, $\text{Graph 2: Parabolic increase}$...
4
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16754
$\text{The magnetic induction at point } P, \text{ which is } 4 \text{ cm from a long current-carrying wire is } 10^{-8} \text{ Tesla.}$ $\text{What would be the field of induction at a distance of } 12 \text{ cm from the same current?}$
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$3.33 \times 10^{-9} \text{ Tesla}$, $1.11 \times 10^{-4} \text{ Tesla}$...
1
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16753
$\text{The resistances of three parts of a circular loop are as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{What will be the magnetic field at the centre of } O \text{ (current enters at } A \text{ and leaves at } B \text{ and } C \text{ as shown)?}$
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$\frac{\mu_0 I}{6a}$, $\frac{\mu_0 I}{3a}$...
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16752
$\text{A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn.}$ $\text{The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is } B. \text{ It is then bent into a circular coil of } n \text{ turns.}$ $\text{What will the magnetic field be at the centre of this } n\text{-turn coil?}$
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$nB$, $n^2B$...
2
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16751
$\text{Which one of the following expressions represents Biot-Savart's law? Symbols have their usual meanings.}$
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Recommended Questions
$\vec{dB} = \frac{\mu_0 I (d\vec{l} \times \hat{r})}{4\pi |\vec{r}|^3}$, $\vec{dB} = \frac{\mu_0 I (d\vec{l} \times \hat{r})}{4\pi |\vec{r}|^2}$...
3
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16750
$\text{A straight wire carrying a current of } 12 \text{ A is bent into a semi-circular arc of radius } 2.0 \text{ cm as shown in the figure. Considering the magnetic field } B \text{ at the centre of the arc, what will be the magnetic field due to the straight segments?}$
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$0$, $1.2 \times 10^{-4} \text{ T}$...
1
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16749
$\text{An element } \Delta l = \Delta x \hat{i} \text{ is placed at the origin and carries a large current of } I = 10 \text{ A (as shown in the figure). What is the magnetic field on the } y\text{-axis at a distance of } 0.5 \text{ m?}$ $\text{(Given } \Delta x = 1 \text{ cm)}$
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$6 \times 10^{-8} \text{ T}$, $4 \times 10^{-8} \text{ T}$...
2
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16748
$\text{To maximise the magnetic field caused by a small element of a current-carrying conductor at a point, the angle between the element and the line connecting the element to the point } P \text{ must be:}$
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$0^\circ$, $90^\circ$...
2
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16747
$\text{Which one of the following gives the value of the magnetic field according to Biot-Savart's law?}$
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$\frac{i \Delta l \sin(\theta)}{r^2}$, $\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{i \Delta l \sin(\theta)}{r}$...
3
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16746
$\text{When two resistances } X \text{ and } Y \text{ are put in the left hand and right hand gaps in}$ $\text{a Wheatstone meter bridge, the null point is at } 60 \text{ cm. If } X \text{ is shunted by a}$ $\text{resistance equal to half of itself, then the shift in the null point will be:}$
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$26.7 \text{ cm}$, $33.4 \text{ cm}$...
1
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16745
$\text{A meter bridge is set up to determine unknown resistance } x \text{ using a standard } 10 \, \Omega \text{ resistor.}$ $\text{The galvanometer shows the null point when the tapping key is at a } 52 \, \text{cm mark.}$ $\text{End corrections are } 1 \, \text{cm and } 2 \, \text{cm respectively for end } A \text{ and } B. \text{ Then the value of } x \text{ is:}$
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$10.2 \, \Omega$, $10.6 \, \Omega$...
2
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16744
$\text{The metre bridge shown is in a balanced position with } \frac{P}{Q} = \frac{l_1}{l_2}. \text{ If we now interchange the position of the galvanometer and the cell, will the bridge work? If yes, what will be the balanced condition?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Yes, } \frac{P}{Q} = \frac{l_1 - l_2}{l_1 + l_2}$, $\text{No, no null point}$...
4
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16743
$\text{The figure given below shows a circuit when resistances in the two arms of the meter bridge are } 5 \, \Omega \text{ and } R, \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{When the resistance } R \text{ is shunted with equal resistance, the new balance point is at } 1.6l_1. \text{ The resistance } R \text{ is:}$
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$10 \, \Omega$, $15 \, \Omega$...
2
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16742
$\text{The Wheatstone bridge shown in the figure below is balanced when the uniform slide wire } AB \text{ is divided as shown. Value of the resistance } X \text{ is:}$
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$3 \, \Omega$, $4 \, \Omega$...
3
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16741
$\text{Five equal resistances each of resistance } R \text{ are connected as shown in the figure below. A battery of } V \text{ volts is connected between } A \text{ and } B. \text{ The current flowing in } AFCEDB \text{ will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{V}{R}$, $\frac{V}{2R}$...
2
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16740
$\text{In the Wheatstone's bridge (shown in the figure below)}$ $X = Y \text{ and } A > B.$ $\text{The direction of the current between } a \text{ and } b \text{ will be:}$
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$\text{from } a \text{ to } b.$, $\text{from } b \text{ to } a.$...
2
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16739
$\text{For the network shown in the figure below, the value of the current } i \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{18V}{5}$, $\frac{5V}{9}$...
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16738
$\text{In the figure shown, each resistor has resistance } R.$ $\text{Match Column-I and Column-II.}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{Column-I} & \text{Column-II} \\ \hline \text{(A) Equivalent resistance between } a \text{ and } b & \text{(P) } \frac{R}{2} \\ \text{(B) Equivalent resistance between } a \text{ and } c & \text{(Q) } \frac{5R}{8} \\ \text{(C) Equivalent resistance between } b \text{ and } d & \text{(R) } R \\ \hline \end{array}$
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(A) \rightarrow (P), (B) \rightarrow (Q), (C) \rightarrow (R), (A) \rightarrow (Q), (B) \rightarrow (P), (C) \rightarrow (R)...
2
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16737
$\text{The resistances of the four arms } P, Q, R \text{ and } S \text{ in a Wheatstone's bridge are } 10 \, \Omega, 30 \, \Omega, 30 \, \Omega \text{ and } 90 \, \Omega \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{The emf and internal resistance of the cell are } 7 \, \text{V} \text{ and } 5 \, \Omega \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{If the galvanometer resistance is } 50 \, \Omega \text{ the current drawn from the cell will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$0.2 \, \text{A}$, $0.1 \, \text{A}$...
1
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16736
$\text{Figure (a) below shows a Wheatstone bridge in which } P, Q, R, S \text{ are fixed resistances, } G \text{ is a galvanometer, and } B \text{ is a battery.}$ $\text{For this particular case, the galvanometer shows zero deflection.}$ $\text{Now, only the positions of } B \text{ and } G \text{ are interchanged, as shown in the figure (b).}$ $\text{The new deflection of the galvanometer:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{is to the left}$, $\text{is to the right}$...
3
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16735
$\text{Three resistances } P, Q, \text{ and } R, \text{ each of } 2 \, \Omega \text{ and an unknown resistance } S \text{ form the four arms of a Wheatstone bridge circuit.}$ $\text{When the resistance of } 6 \, \Omega \text{ is connected in parallel to } S, \text{ the bridge gets balanced.}$ $\text{What is the value of } S?$
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Recommended Questions
$2 \, \Omega$, $3 \, \Omega$...
2
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16734
$\text{In the circuit shown in the figure below, if the potential difference between } B \text{ and } D \text{ is zero, then value of the unknown resistance } X \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$4 \, \Omega$, $2 \, \Omega$...
2
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16733
$\text{In a Wheatstone bridge, all four arms have equal resistance } R. \text{ If the resistance of the galvanometer arm is also } R, \text{ the equivalent resistance of the combination is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{R}{4}$, $\frac{R}{2}$...
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16732
$\text{In the circuit shown in the figure below, the current supplied by the battery is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ A}$, $1 \text{ A}$...
2
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16731
$\text{What is the equivalent resistance between points } a \text{ and } b, \text{ if the value of each resistance is } R?$
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Recommended Questions
$7R$, $5R$...
4
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16730
$\text{The net resistance of the circuit between } A \text{ and } B \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{8}{3} \, \Omega$, $\frac{14}{3} \, \Omega$...
2
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16729
$\text{A capacitor } C \text{ is charged with the help of a resistance } R \text{ as shown in the figure, Variation of } (V_R + V_C) \text{ with time } t \text{ is correctly shown in which of the options?}$ $\text{(} V_R \text{ and } V_C \text{ are instantaneous potential drops across } R \text{ and } C \text{ respectively).}$
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Recommended Questions
$V_0 \text{ decreasing with } t$, $V_0 \text{ increasing with } t$...
3
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16728
$\text{In the circuit given below, the emf of the cell is 2 volt and the internal resistance is negligible. The resistance of the voltmeter is 80 ohm. The reading of the voltmeter will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$0.80 \text{ volt}$, $1.60 \text{ volt}$...
3
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16727
$\text{In the circuit shown below, if a conducting wire is connected between points } A \text{ and } B, \text{ the current in this wire will: (All resistances are given in ohms)}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{flow from } A \text{ to } B$, $\text{flow in the direction which will be decided by the value of } V$...
4
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16726
$\text{The current in } 8 \, \Omega \text{ resistance is (in the figure below):}$
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Recommended Questions
$0.69 \, \text{A}$, $0.92 \, \text{A}$...
1
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16725
$\text{In circuit shown below, the resistances are given in ohms and the battery is assumed ideal with emf equal to 3 volt. The voltage across the resistance } R_4 \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$0.4 \text{ V}$, $0.6 \text{ V}$...
1
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16724
$\text{In the circuit shown in the figure below, if the potential at point } A \text{ is taken to be zero, the potential at point } B \text{ will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$+1 \text{ V}$, $-1 \text{ V}$...
1
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16723
$\text{The potential difference across } 8 \, \Omega \text{ resistance is } 48 \, \text{V as shown in the figure below.}$ $\text{The value of potential difference across } X \text{ and } Y \text{ points will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$160 \, \text{V}$, $128 \, \text{V}$...
1
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16722
$\text{What is the ratio of currents flowing in the resistors } x \text{ and } y \text{ of resistance } 10 \, \Omega \text{ each?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1$, $0.5$...
1
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16721
$A,\ B\ \text{and}\ C\ \text{are voltmeters of resistance}\ R,\ 1.5R\ \text{and}\ 3R\ \text{respectively as shown in the figure above.}$ $\text{When some potential difference is applied between}\ X\ \text{and}\ Y,\ \text{the voltmeter readings are}\ V_A,\ V_B\ \text{and}\ V_C\ \text{respectively. Then:}$
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Recommended Questions
$V_A = V_B = V_C$, $V_A \neq V_B = V_C$...
1
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16720
$\text{Consider the circuit shown in the figure below. The current } I_3 \text{ is equal to:}$
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Recommended Questions
$5 \text{ A}$, $3 \text{ A}$...
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16719
$\text{A battery of emf } 10 \text{ V is connected to resistance as shown in the figure below.}$ $\text{The potential difference } V_A - V_B \text{ between the points } A \text{ and } B \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$-2 \text{ V}$, $2 \text{ V}$...
2
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16718
$\text{For the circuit given below, Kirchhoff's loop rule for the loop } BCDEB \text{ is given by the equation:}$
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Recommended Questions
$-i_2R_2 + E_2 - E_3 + i_3R_1 = 0$, $i_2R_2 + E_2 - E_3 - i_3R_1 = 0$...
2
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16717
$\text{The current through the } 5 \, \Omega \text{ resistor is:}$
1
118
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$3.2 \, \text{A}$, $2.8 \, \text{A}$...
2
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16716
$\text{See the electrical circuit shown in this figure. Which of the following is a correct equation for it?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\varepsilon_1 - (i_1 + i_2)R - i_1r_1 = 0$, $\varepsilon_2 - i_2r_2 - \varepsilon_1 - i_1r_1 = 0$...
1
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16715
$\text{Twelve wires of equal resistance } R \text{ are connected to form a cube.}$ $\text{The effective resistance between two diagonal ends } A \text{ and } E \text{ will be:}$
1
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$\frac{5R}{6}$, $\frac{6R}{5}$...
1
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16714
$\text{In the following circuit, the battery } E_1 \text{ has an emf of } 12 \text{ volts and zero internal resistance while the battery } E \text{ has an emf of } 2 \text{ volts.}$ $\text{If the galvanometer } G \text{ reads zero, then the value of the resistance } X \text{ in ohms is:}$
1
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$10$, $100$...
2
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16713
$\text{The potential difference } V_A - V_B \text{ between the points } A \text{ and } B \text{ in the given figure is:}$ $\begin{array}{c} V_A \xrightarrow{I=2\,\text{A}} 2\,\Omega \quad 3\,\text{V} \quad 1\,\Omega \xrightarrow{} V_B \end{array}$
1
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$-3\,\text{V}$, $+3\,\text{V}$...
4
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16712
$\text{Kirchhoff's second law is based on the principle of conservation of:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{charge}$, $\text{energy}$...
2
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16711
$\text{In the given figure, the value of } V_0 \text{ will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ V}$, $4 \text{ V}$...
2
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16710
$\text{Given below two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: Kirchhoff's junction law follows the conservation of charge.}$ $\text{Statement II: Kirchhoff's loop law follows the conservation of energy.}$
1
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$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$, $\text{Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.}$...
4
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16709
$\text{Kirchhoff's junction rule is a reflection of:}$ $\text{(a) conservation of the current density vector.}$ $\text{(b) conservation of charge.}$ $\text{(c) the fact that the momentum with which a charged particle approaches a junction is unchanged (as a vector) as the charged particle leaves the junction.}$ $\text{(d) the fact that there is no accumulation of charges at a junction.}$ $\text{Which of the above statements are correct?}$
1
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$(\text{b) and (c)})$, $(\text{a) and (c)})$...
3
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16708
$\text{What is the value of current } I \text{ in the network shown below?}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ A}$, $3 \text{ A}$...
4
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16707
$\text{The figure below shows a network of currents. The current } i \text{ will be:}$
1
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$3 \text{ A}$, $13 \text{ A}$...
3
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16706
$\text{The current in the arm } CD \text{ of the circuit will be:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$i_1 + i_2$, $i_2 + i_3$...
2
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16705
$\text{The figure below shows currents in a part of the electric circuit. The current } i \text{ is:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$1.7 \text{ A}$, $3.7 \text{ A}$...
1
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16704
$12$ $\text{cells each having the same emf are connected in series with some cells wrongly connected. The arrangement is connected in series with an ammeter and two similar cells which are in series. Current is } 3 \text{ A when cells and battery aid each other and is } 2 \text{ A when cells and battery oppose each other. The number of cells wrongly connected is/are:}$
1
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$4$, $1$...
2
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16703
$\text{In the circuit shown below, } E_1 = 4.0 \text{ V}, R_1 = 2 \, \Omega, E_2 = 6.0 \text{ V}, R_2 = 4 \, \Omega \text{ and } R_3 = 2 \, \Omega. \text{ The current } I_1 \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.6 \text{ A}$, $1.8 \text{ A}$...
2
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16702
$\text{Two cells of emf } E \text{ and internal resistance } r_1 \text{ and } r_2 \text{ are connected in series through an external resistance } R. \text{ The value of } R \text{ for which the potential difference across one of the cells becomes zero will be:}$
1
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$\frac{r_1 r_2}{r_1 + r_2}$, $r_1 + r_2$...
3
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16701
$\text{Eels are able to generate current with biological cells called electroplaques.}$ $\text{The electroplaques in an eel are arranged in 100 rows, each row stretching}$ $\text{horizontally along the body of the fish containing 5000 electroplaques.}$ $\text{The arrangement is suggestively shown below. Each electroplaque has an emf of}$ $0.15 \text{ V and internal resistance of } 0.25 \ \Omega.$ $\text{The water surrounding the eel completes a circuit between the head and its}$ $\text{tail. If the water surrounding it has a resistance of } 500 \ \Omega, \text{ the current an eel}$ $\text{can produce in water is about:}$
1
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$1.5 \text{ A}$, $3.0 \text{ A}$...
1
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16700
$\text{A battery consists of a variable number } 'n' \text{ of identical cells having internal resistances connected in series. The terminals of battery are short circuited and the current } i \text{ is measured. The graph below that shows the relationship between } i \text{ and } n \text{ is:}$
1
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$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
4
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16699
$\text{Two batteries, one of emf } 18 \text{ volts and internal resistance } 2 \, \Omega \text{ and the other of emf } 12 \, \text{V and internal resistance } 1 \, \Omega, \text{ are connected as shown. The voltmeter } V \text{ will record a reading of:}$
1
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$18 \, \text{V}$, $30 \, \text{V}$...
3
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16698
$\text{A current of } 2 \text{ A is to be sent through a resistor of } 5 \, \Omega. \text{ Number of cells required in series, if each has emf } 2 \text{ V and internal resistance } 0.5 \, \Omega, \text{ are:}$
1
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$40$, $30$...
4
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16697
$\text{Current through the } 2 \, \Omega \text{ resistance in the electrical network shown is:}$ $\begin{array}{c} 2 \, \text{V} \\ \begin{array}{ccc} & 10 \, \Omega & \\ 2 \, \Omega & & 20 \, \Omega \\ & & \\ \end{array} \\ 12 \, \text{V} \end{array}$
1
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$\text{zero}$, $1 \, \text{A}$...
1
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16696
$\text{Two batteries, one of emf } 18 \text{ V and internal resistance } 2 \ \Omega \text{ and the other of emf } 12 \text{ V and internal resistance } 1 \ \Omega, \text{ are connected as shown. Reading of the voltmeter is:}$ $\text{(if a voltmeter is ideal)}$
1
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$14 \text{ V}$, $15 \text{ V}$...
1
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16695
$\text{For the circuit shown in the figure, the current } I \text{ will be:}$
1
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$0.75 \text{ A}$, $1 \text{ A}$...
2
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16694
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Terminal voltage of a cell is greater than emf of a cell during charging of the cell.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The emf of a cell is always greater than its terminal voltage.}$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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16693
$\text{The terminal potential difference of a cell is greater than its emf when:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$\text{A battery of less emf is connected in its series.}$, $\text{A battery of higher emf is connected in its series.}$...
3
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16692
$\text{The value of } E \text{ (emf of the cell) in the circuit given below is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$24 \text{ V}$, $32 \text{ V}$...
2
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16691
$\text{A car battery of emf } 12 \text{ V and internal resistance } 5 \times 10^{-2} \, \Omega \text{ receives a current of } 60 \, \text{A from an external source. The terminal voltage of the battery is:}$
1
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$12 \, \text{V}$, $9 \, \text{V}$...
3
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16690
$\text{A cell having an emf } \varepsilon \text{ and internal resistance } r \text{ is connected across a variable external resistance } R. \text{ As the resistance } R \text{ is increased, the plot of potential difference } V \text{ across } R \text{ is given by:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
2
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16689
$\text{For a cell, the graph between the potential difference } (V) \text{ across the terminals of the cell and the current } (I) \text{ drawn from the cell is shown in the figure below.}$ $\text{The emf and the internal resistance of the cell are, respectively:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ V}, 0.5 \, \Omega$, $2 \text{ V}, 0.4 \, \Omega$...
2
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16688
$\text{A battery of emf } E \text{ and internal resistance } r \text{ is connected to a variable resistor } R \text{ as shown below. Which one of the following is true?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The potential difference across the terminals of the battery is maximum when } R = r.$, $\text{The power delivered to the resistor is maximum when } R = r.$...
2
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16687
$\text{A battery is charged at a potential of } 15 \text{ V for } 8 \text{ hours when the current flowing is } 10 \text{ A.}$ $\text{The battery on discharge supplies a current of } 5 \text{ A for } 15 \text{ hours.}$ $\text{The mean terminal voltage during discharges is } 14 \text{ V.}$ $\text{The "Watt hour" efficiency of the battery is:}$
1
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$80\%$, $90\%$...
3
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16686
$\text{A battery has emf } 4 \text{ V and internal resistance } r. \text{ When this battery is connected to an external resistance of } 2 \ \Omega, \text{ a current of } 1 \text{ ampere flows in the circuit. How much current will flow if the terminals of the battery are connected directly?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1 \text{ A}$, $2 \text{ A}$...
2
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16685
$\text{A student measures the terminal potential difference } V \text{ of a cell (of emf } E \text{ and internal resistance } R) \text{ as a function of the current } I \text{ flowing through it.}$ $\text{The slope and intercept of the graph between } V \text{ and } I, \text{ respectively, is equal to:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$E \text{ and } -r$, $-r \text{ and } E$...
2
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16684
$\text{For a cell, the terminal potential difference is } 2.2 \text{ V when the circuit is open and reduces to } 1.8 \text{ V when the cell is connected to the resistance of } R = 5 \, \Omega. \text{ The internal resistance of cell } (r) \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{10}{9} \, \Omega$, $\frac{9}{10} \, \Omega$...
1
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16683
$\text{A set of } 'n' \text{ equal resistors, of value } 'R' \text{ each, are connected in series to a battery of emf } 'E' \text{ and internal resistance } 'R'. \text{ The current drawn is } I. \text{ Now, if } 'n' \text{ resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery, then the current drawn becomes } 10I. \text{ The value of } 'n' \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10$, $11$...
1
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16682
$\text{A current of } 2 \text{ A flows through a } 2 \ \Omega \text{ resistor when connected across a battery.}$ $\text{The same battery supplies a current of } 0.5 \text{ A when connected across a } 9 \ \Omega \text{ resistor.}$ $\text{The internal resistance of the battery is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{3} \ \Omega$, $\frac{1}{4} \ \Omega$...
1
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16681
$\text{A voltmeter of resistance } 660 \, \Omega \text{ reads the voltage of a very old cell to be } 1.32 \, \text{V while a potentiometer reads its voltage to be } 1.44 \, \text{V. The internal resistance of the cell is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$30 \, \Omega$, $60 \, \Omega$...
2
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16680
$\text{A battery of internal resistance } r, \text{ when connected across } 2 \, \Omega \text{ resistor supplies a current of } 4 \, \text{A.}$ $\text{When the battery is connected across a } 5 \, \Omega \text{ resistor, it supplies a current of } 2 \, \text{A.}$ $\text{The value of } r \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2 \, \Omega$, $1 \, \Omega$...
2
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16679
$\text{The internal resistance of a } 2.1 \text{ V cell which gives a current of } 0.2 \text{ A through a resistance of } 10 \ \Omega \text{ is:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$0.5 \ \Omega$, $0.8 \ \Omega$...
1
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16678
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{A } 60 \text{ W } - 220 \text{ V bulb glows more than a } 100 \text{ W } - 220 \text{ V bulb when they are connected in series across a potential difference.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{When they are connected in series, the resistance of the } 100 \text{ W bulb will be more.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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16677
$\text{A 50 kW dc generator produces a potential difference of 250 V. If the resistance of the transmission line is 1 } \Omega, \text{ what percentage of the original power is lost during transmission?}$ $1. \ 80\%$ $2. \ 40\%$ $3. \ 20\%$ $4. \ 10\%$
1
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Recommended Questions
80\%, 40\%...
1
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16676
$\text{In the given circuit diagram, 3 identical bulbs are connected. If bulb } B_3 \text{ get fused suddenly, how will the brightness of bulbs } B_1 \text{ and } B_2 \text{ change?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Brightness of bulb } B_1 \text{ will increase whereas brightness of bulb } B_2 \text{ will decrease}$, $\text{Brightness of bulb } B_2 \text{ will increase whereas brightness of bulb } B_1 \text{ will decrease}$...
2
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16675
$\text{A torch bulb rated } 4.5 \text{ W, } 1.5 \text{ V is connected as shown in the figure below. The emf of the cell needed to make the bulb glow at full intensity is:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$4.5 \text{ V}$, $1.5 \text{ V}$...
4
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16674
$\text{An electric kettle takes } 4 \text{ A current at } 220 \text{ V. How much time will it take to boil } 1 \text{ kg of water at a temperature of } 20^\circ\text{C? The temperature of boiling water is } 100^\circ\text{C.}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$6.3 \text{ min}$, $8.4 \text{ min}$...
1
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16673
$\text{A constant voltage is applied between the two ends of a uniform metallic wire.}$ $\text{Some heat is developed in it. The heat developed doubles if:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$\text{both the length and the radius of the wire are halved.}$, $\text{both the length and the radius of the wire are doubled.}$...
2
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16672
$\text{The charge flowing through a resistance } R \text{ varies with time } t \text{ as}$ $Q = at - bt^2, \text{ where } a \text{ and } b \text{ are positive constants. The total heat produced in } R \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{a^3 R}{3b}$, $\frac{a^3 R}{2b}$...
4
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16671
$\text{Four identical bulbs } A, B, C \text{ and } D \text{ are connected in a circuit as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{Now whenever any bulb fails, then it cannot conduct current through it.}$ $\text{Then which of the following statement(s) is/are true?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$(i) \text{ only}$, $(ii) \text{ only}$...
3
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16670
$\text{A coil heating a bucket full of water raises the temperature by } 5^\circ \text{C in 2 min. If the current in the coil is doubled, what will be the change in the temperature of water in 1 min? (Assume no loss of heat to the surroundings)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10^\circ \text{C}$, $5^\circ \text{C}$...
1
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16669
$\text{An electric heater consists of a nichrome coil and operates under } 220 \text{ V, consuming } 1 \text{ kW of power. Part of its coil burned out and was reconnected after removing the burnt portion. The power it will consume now is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{more than } 1 \text{ kW}$, $\text{less than } 1 \text{ kW but not zero}$...
1
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16668
$\text{Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf } E \text{ and zero internal resistance.}$ $\text{The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation when two from section } A \text{ and one from section } B \text{ are glowing, will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2 : 1$, $4 : 9$...
3
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16667
$\text{For the given circuit, the value of the resistance in which the maximum heat is produced is:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$2 \, \Omega$, $6 \, \Omega$...
1
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16666
$\text{When a } 100 \text{ W, } 240 \text{ V bulb is operated at } 200 \text{ volt, the current in it is:}$ $1.\ 0.35\ \text{A}$ $2.\ 0.42\ \text{A}$ $3.\ 0.50\ \text{A}$ $4.\ 0.58\ \text{A}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.35\ \text{A}$, $0.42\ \text{A}$...
1
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16665
$\text{Two resistors of resistance, } 100 \, \Omega \text{ and } 200 \, \Omega \text{ are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit.}$ $\text{The ratio of the thermal energy developed in } 100 \, \Omega \text{ resistor to that in } 200 \, \Omega \text{ resistor in a given time is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$4 : 1$, $1 : 2$...
3
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16664
$\text{When three identical bulbs are connected in series, the consumed power is } 10 \text{ W. If they are now connected in parallel then the consumed power will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$30 \text{ W}$, $90 \text{ W}$...
2
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16663
60
1
118
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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16662
$\text{Power consumed in the given circuit is } P_1. \text{ On interchanging the position of } 3 \, \Omega \text{ and } 12 \, \Omega \text{ resistances, the new power consumption is } P_2. \text{ The ratio of } \frac{P_2}{P_1} \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2$, $\frac{1}{2}$...
1
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16661
$\text{If the voltage across a bulb rated (220 V-100 W) drops by 2.5\% of its rated value, the percentage of the rated value by which the power would decrease is:}$ $1.\ 20\%$ $2.\ 2.5\%$ $3.\ 5\%$ $4.\ 10\%$
1
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Recommended Questions
$20\%$, $2.5\%$...
3
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16660
$\text{If power dissipated in the } 9 \, \Omega \text{ resistor in the circuit shown is } 36 \, \text{W, the potential difference across the } 2 \, \Omega \text{ resistor will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$8 \, \text{V}$, $10 \, \text{V}$...
2
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16659
$\text{A current of } 3 \text{ A flows through the } 2 \, \Omega \text{ resistor shown in the circuit. The power dissipated in the } 5 \, \Omega \text{ resistor is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$4 \, \text{W}$, $2 \, \text{W}$...
4
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16658
$\text{Two cities are } 150 \text{ km apart. The electric power is sent from one city to another city through copper wires. The fall of potential per km is } 8 \text{ volts and the average resistance per km is } 0.5 \text{ ohm. The power loss in the wire is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$19.2 \text{ W}$, $19.2 \text{ kW}$...
2
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16657
$A \ 5 \ \text{A} \ \text{fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of} \ 1 \ \text{W in a circuit. The resistance of the fuse wire is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$5 \ \Omega$, $0.04 \ \Omega$...
2
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16656
$\text{The total power dissipated in watts in the circuit shown below is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$16 \text{ W}$, $40 \text{ W}$...
3
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16655
$\text{If there are two bulbs of } (40 \text{ W, } 200 \text{ V}), \text{ and } (100 \text{ W, } 200 \text{ V}), \text{ then the correct relation for their resistance is:}$ $1. \ R_{40} < R_{100}$ $2. \ R_{40} > R_{100}$ $3. \ R_{40} = R_{100}$ $4. \ \text{no relation can be predicted}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$R_{40} < R_{100}$, $R_{40} > R_{100}$...
2
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16654
$\text{Three voltmeters are connected as shown.}$ $\text{A potential difference is applied between } A \text{ and } B. \text{ On closing the switch } S,$ $\text{readings of voltmeter(s):}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$V_1 \text{ increases.}$, $V_2 \text{ increases.}$...
3
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16653
$\text{A ring is made of a wire having a resistance of } R_0 = 12 \, \Omega. \text{ Find points } A \text{ and } B, \text{ as shown in the figure, at which a current-carrying conductor should be connected so that the resistance } R \text{ of the subcircuit between these points equals } \frac{8}{3} \, \Omega?$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{l_1}{l_2} = \frac{5}{8}$, $\frac{l_1}{l_2} = \frac{1}{3}$...
4
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16652
$\text{In the figure, the value of resistors to be connected between } C \text{ and } D \text{ so that}$ $\text{the resistance of the entire circuit between } A \text{ and } B \text{ does not change with the}$ $\text{number of elementary sets used is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$R$, $R(\sqrt{3} - 1)$...
2
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16651
$\text{What is the equivalent resistance between terminals } A \text{ and } B \text{ of the network?}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$\frac{57}{7} \, \Omega$, $8 \, \Omega$...
2
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16650
$\text{If each resistance in the figure is } 9 \, \Omega, \text{ then the reading of the ammeter is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$5 \, \text{A}$, $8 \, \text{A}$...
1
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16649
$\text{The current } I \text{ as shown in the circuit will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ A}$, $\frac{20}{3} \text{ A}$...
4
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16648
$\text{A wire of resistance } R \text{ is divided into 10 equal parts. These parts are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance of such connection will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.01R$, $0.1R$...
1
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16647
$\text{The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1 \text{ A}$, $2 \text{ A}$...
3
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16646
$\text{A wire of resistance } 12 \, \Omega \text{m}^{-1} \text{ is bent to form a complete circle of radius } 10 \, \text{cm.}$ $\text{The resistance between its two diametrically opposite points, } A \text{ and } B \text{ as shown in the figure, is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.6\pi \, \Omega$, $3\pi \, \Omega$...
1
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16645
$\text{The resistance between terminals } A \text{ and } B \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$5 \, \Omega$, $15 \, \Omega$...
3
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16644
$\text{What is the reading of the voltmeter of resistance } 1200 \, \Omega \text{ connected in the following circuit diagram?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2.5 \, \text{V}$, $5.0 \, \text{V}$...
2
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16643
$\text{In the circuit shown, the value of each of the resistances is } r. \text{ The equivalent resistance of the circuit between terminals } A \text{ and } B \text{ will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{4r}{3}$, $\frac{3r}{2}$...
4
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16642
$\text{What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit?}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$6 \, \Omega$, $7 \, \Omega$...
3
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16641
$\text{What is total resistance across terminals } A \text{ and } B \text{ in the following network?}$
1
118
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$R$, $2R$...
4
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16640
$\text{Equivalent resistance across terminals } A \text{ and } B \text{ will be:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$1 \, \Omega$, $2 \, \Omega$...
1
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16639
$\text{The equivalent resistance between } A \text{ and } B \text{ is:}$
1
118
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$3 \, \Omega$, $6 \, \Omega$...
2
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16638
$\text{The resistance between points } A \text{ and } B \text{ in the circuit shown in the following figure is:}$
1
118
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$10 \, \Omega$, $20 \, \Omega$...
3
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16637
$\text{The effective resistance between points } P \text{ and } Q \text{ of the electrical circuit shown in the figure is:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2Rr}{(R+r)}$, $\frac{8R(R+r)}{(3R+r)}$...
1
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16636
$\text{In the circuit shown in the figure, the effective resistance between } A \text{ and } B \text{ is:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$2 \, \Omega$, $4 \, \Omega$...
1
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16635
$\text{A potential divider is used to give outputs of } 2 \text{ V and } 3 \text{ V from a } 5 \text{ V source, as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{Which combination of resistances, from the ones given below, } R_1, R_2, \text{ and } R_3 \text{ give the correct voltages?}$
1
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$R_1 = 1 \text{ k}\Omega, R_2 = 1 \text{ k}\Omega, R_3 = 2 \text{ k}\Omega$, $R_1 = 2 \text{ k}\Omega, R_2 = 1 \text{ k}\Omega, R_3 = 2 \text{ k}\Omega$...
2
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16634
$\text{What is the equivalent resistance between } A \text{ and } B \text{ in the figure below if } R = 3 \, \Omega?$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$9 \, \Omega$, $12 \, \Omega$...
4
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16633
$\text{The equivalent resistance between points } A \text{ and } B \text{ in the circuit shown in the figure is:}$
1
118
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$6R$, $4R$...
4
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16632
$\text{The equivalent resistance between } A \text{ and } B \text{ for the mesh shown in the figure is:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$7.2 \, \Omega$, $16 \, \Omega$...
2
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16631
$\text{A circuit consists of five identical conductors as shown in the figure. The two similar conductors are added as indicated by the dotted lines. The ratio of resistances before and after the addition will be:}$
1
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$\frac{7}{5}$, $\frac{3}{5}$...
3
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16630
$\text{A student has three } 6.0 \, \Omega \text{ resistors that can be connected together in any configuration.}$ $\text{What are the maximum and minimum resistances that can be obtained by using one or more of these three resistors?}$ $\text{(Assume the connections between the resistors have negligible resistance, the temperature of the resistors is constant, and the resistors are used in a d.c. circuit and none of the resistors are short circuited.)}$
1
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$\text{maximum resistance: } 12 \, \Omega; \text{ minimum resistance: } 0.50 \, \Omega$, $\text{maximum resistance: } 6.0 \, \Omega; \text{ minimum resistance: } 0.50 \, \Omega$...
4
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16629
$\text{Three resistors are connected to a } 20 \text{ V battery with a constant voltage supply.}$ $\text{One of the resistors is a variable resistor. The resistance of the variable}$ $\text{resistor is gradually increased from } 0 \, \Omega \text{ to } 5 \, \Omega.$ $\text{Which graph correctly represents how the current drawn from the battery}$ $\text{varies with the resistance } (R) \text{ of the variable resistor?}$
1
118
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$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
4
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16628
$\text{Variation of current passing through a conductor with the voltage applied across its ends varies is shown in the diagram below. If the resistance } (R) \text{ is determined at points } A, B, C \text{ and } D, \text{ we will find that:}$
1
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$R_C = R_D$, $R_B > R_A$...
4
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16627
$\text{Consider a thin rectangular sheet of side } L, \text{ width } b \text{ and thickness } t, \text{ made of a material of resistivity } \rho. \text{ The resistance between two opposite faces, shown by the shaded areas in the figure is:}$
1
118
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$\text{directly proportional to } b$, $\text{inversely proportional to } t$...
2
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16626
$\text{Two metal wires of identical dimensions are connected in series. If } \sigma_1 \text{ and } \sigma_2 \text{ are the conductivities of the metal wires respectively, the effective conductivity of the combination is:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2 \sigma_1 \sigma_2}{\sigma_1 + \sigma_2}$, $\frac{\sigma_1 + \sigma_2}{2 \sigma_1 \sigma_2}$...
1
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16625
$\text{The dependence of resistivity } (\rho) \text{ on the temperature } (T) \text{ of a semiconductor is, roughly, represented by:}$
1
118
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$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
3
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16624
$\text{The current-voltage graph for a given metallic conductor at two different temperatures } T_1 \text{ and } T_2 \text{ is as shown in the figure. Then:}$ $1. \ T_1 = T_2$ $2. \ T_2 > T_1$ $3. \ T_1 > T_2$ $4. \ \text{Insufficient information to conclude.}$
1
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$T_1 = T_2$, $T_2 > T_1$...
2
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16623
$\text{The plot of current } I \,(A) \text{ flowing through a metallic conductor versus the applied voltage } V \,(\text{volt}) \text{ across the ends of a conductor is:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
1
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16622
$\text{The specific resistance of a conductor increases with:}$
1
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$\text{increase in temperature.}$, $\text{increase in cross-section area.}$...
1
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16621
$\text{A wire of resistance } 4 \, \Omega \text{ is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of a stretched wire would be:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$4 \, \Omega$, $8 \, \Omega$...
3
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16620
$\text{Two solid conductors are made up of the same material and have the same length and the same resistance.}$ $\text{One of them has a circular cross-section of area } A_1 \text{ and the other one has a square cross-section of area } A_2.}$ $\text{The ratio of } A_1/A_2 \text{ is:}$
1
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$1.5$, $1$...
2
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16619
$\text{A wire made of a metal of uniform resistivity } 1.0 \times 10^{-6} \, \Omega\text{-m is } 2.0 \, \text{m long}$ $\text{and has a diameter of } 2.0 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{m. What is the electrical resistance of this}$ $\text{length of the wire?}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2.0 \times 10^{-3}}{\pi} \, \Omega$, $5.0 \times 10^{-13} \pi \, \Omega$...
4
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16618
$\text{The resistance of a wire is } R \text{ ohm. If it is melted and stretched to } n \text{ times its original length, its new resistance will be:}$
1
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$nR$, $\frac{R}{n}$...
3
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16617
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Insulators do not allow flow of current through themselves.}$ $\text{Reason (R): They have no free charge carriers.}$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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16616
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Though a large number of free electrons are present in the metal. Yet there is no current in the absence of an electric field.}$ $\text{Reason (R): In the absence of an electric field, electrons move randomly in all directions.}$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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16615
Which of the following graph correctly represents the variation of mobility $(\mu)$ of electrons with applied electric field $(E)$ in a metallic conductor?
1
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$\mu$ vs $E$ (linear increasing), $\mu$ vs $E$ (decreasing curve)...
3
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16614
$\text{If a metallic block has no potential difference applied across it, then the mean}$ $\text{velocity of free electron is:}$ $(T = \text{absolute temperature of the block})$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{proportional to } T.$, $\text{proportional to } \sqrt{T}$...
3
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16613
$\text{A current passes through a wire of variable cross-section in steady-state as shown. Then incorrect statement is:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$\text{Current density increases in the direction of the current.}$, $\text{Potential increases in the direction of the current.}$...
2
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16612
$\text{Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section, a constant potential difference is applied. The quantity which remains constant along the conductor is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{current density}$, $\text{current}$...
2
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16611
$\text{A copper wire of length } 10 \text{ m and radius } \left(10^{-2}/\sqrt{\pi}\right) \text{ m has an electrical resistance of } 10 \, \Omega. \text{ The current density in the wire for an electric field strength of } 10 \, (\text{V/m}) \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10^5 \, \text{A/m}^2$, $10^4 \, \text{A/m}^2$...
1
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16610
$\text{When the potential difference applied in a conductor is doubled and also the length of the conductor is halved, the drift speed of electrons in the conductor will:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{not change}$, $\text{be halved}$...
3
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16609
$\text{The drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor is } v \text{ when a current } i \text{ is flowing in it. If both the radius and current are doubled, then the drift velocity will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$v$, $\frac{v}{2}$...
2
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16608
$\text{Drift velocity } v_d \text{ varies with the intensity of the electric field as per the relation:}$ $1. \ v_d \propto E$ $2. \ v_d \propto \frac{1}{E}$ $3. \ v_d = \text{constant}$ $4. \ v_d \propto E^2$
1
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$v_d \propto E$, $v_d \propto \frac{1}{E}$...
1
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16607
$\text{A charged particle having drift velocity of } 7.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ in an electric field of } 3 \times 10^{-10} \text{ Vm}^{-1}, \text{ has mobility of:}$
1
118
Recommended Questions
$2.5 \times 10^{6} \text{ m}^2\text{V}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}$, $2.5 \times 10^{-6} \text{ m}^2\text{V}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}$...
1
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16606
$\text{The current in a wire varies with time according to the equation } I = (4 + 2t), \text{ where } I \text{ is in ampere and } t \text{ is in seconds. The quantity of charge which has passed through a cross-section of the wire during the time } t = 2 \text{ s to } t = 6 \text{ s will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$60 \text{ C}$, $24 \text{ C}$...
3
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16605
$\text{The current in a wire varies with time according to the relation } i = (3 + 2t) \text{ A.}$ $\text{The amount of charge passing a cross section of the wire in the time interval } t = 0 \text{ to } t = 4.0 \text{ s would be: (where } t \text{ is time in seconds)}$
1
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$28 \text{ C}$, $30.5 \text{ C}$...
1
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16604
$\text{If the potential difference across ends of a metallic wire is doubled, the drift velocity of charge carriers will become:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{double}$, $\text{half}$...
1
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16603
$\text{The equivalent capacitance of the following arrangement is:}$ $\begin{array}{c} 3\ \mu\text{F} \quad 3\ \mu\text{F} \\ 45\ \mu\text{F} \quad 6\ \mu\text{F} \\ 6\ \mu\text{F} \quad 63\ \mu\text{F} \\ 9\ \mu\text{F} \quad 9\ \mu\text{F} \end{array}$
1
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$18\ \mu\text{F}$, $9\ \mu\text{F}$...
2
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16602
$\text{A bullet of mass } 2 \text{ gm has a charge of } 2 \, \mu\text{C. Through what potential difference must it be accelerated, starting from rest, to acquire a speed of } 10 \, \text{m/s?}$
1
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$50 \, \text{kV}$, $5 \, \text{V}$...
1
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16601
$\text{Four point charges } -Q, -q, 2q \text{ and } 2Q \text{ are placed, one at each corner of the square.}$ $\text{The relation between } Q \text{ and } q \text{ for which the potential at the center of the square is zero, is:}$
1
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$Q = -q$, $Q = -\frac{1}{q}$...
1
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16600
$\text{How much kinetic energy will be gained by an } \alpha\text{-particle in going from a point at } 70 \text{ V to another point at } 50 \text{ V?}$
1
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$40 \text{ eV}$, $40 \text{ keV}$...
1
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16599
$\text{Three charges, each } +q, \text{ are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle } ABC \text{ of sides } BC, AC, \text{ and } AB. D \text{ and } E \text{ are the mid-points of } BC \text{ and } CA. \text{ The work done in taking a charge } Q \text{ from } D \text{ to } E \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{3qQ}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 a}$, $\frac{3qQ}{8\pi\varepsilon_0 a}$...
4
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16598
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance } C \text{ is connected to a battery and is charged to a potential difference } V. \text{ Another capacitor of capacitance } 2C \text{ is connected to another battery and is charged to potential difference } 2V. \text{ The charging batteries are now disconnected and the capacitors are connected in parallel to each other in such a way that the positive terminal of one is connected to the negative terminal of the other. The final energy of the configuration is?}$
1
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$\text{zero}$, $\frac{25CV^2}{6}$...
3
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16597
$100$ capacitors each having a capacity of $10 \, \mu \text{F}$ are connected in parallel and are charged by a potential difference of $100 \, \text{kV}$. The energy stored in the capacitors and the cost of charging them, if electrical energy costs $108$ paise per kWh, will be?
1
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$10^7 \text{ joule and } 300 \text{ paise}$, $5 \times 10^6 \text{ joule and } 300 \text{ paise}$...
3
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16596
$\text{Maximum charge stored on a metal sphere of radius 15 cm may be } 7.5 \, \mu\text{C} . \text{ The potential energy of the sphere in this case is:}$
1
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$9.67 \, \text{J}$, $0.25 \, \text{J}$...
4
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16595
$\text{A metallic sphere of capacitance } C_1, \text{ charged to electric potential } V_1 \text{ is connected by a metal wire to another metallic sphere of capacitance } C_2 \text{ charged to electric potential } V_2. \text{ The amount of heat produced in connecting the wire during the process is:}$
1
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$\frac{C_1C_2}{2(C_1+C_2)}(V_1+V_2)^2$, $\frac{C_1C_2}{2(C_1+C_2)}(V_1-V_2)^2$...
2
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16594
$\text{A capacitor of } 2 \, \mu\text{F is charged as shown in the figure. When the switch } S \text{ is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is:}$
1
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$20\%$, $75\%$...
3
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16593
$\text{In the circuit shown in the figure, the energy stored in } 6 \, \mu\text{F capacitor will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$48 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{J}$, $32 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{J}$...
1
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16592
$\text{Two condensers of capacity } 0.3 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ and } 0.6 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ are connected in series.}$ $\text{The combination is connected across a potential of } 6 \, \text{V.}$ $\text{The ratio of energies stored by the condensers will be:}$
1
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$\frac{1}{2}$, $2$...
2
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16591
$\text{A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of the resulting system:}$
1
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$\text{increases by a factor of 4.}$, $\text{decreases by a factor of 2.}$...
2
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16590
$\text{A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance } C \text{ is connected to a cell of emf } V \text{ and then disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant } K, \text{ which can just fill the air gap of the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The potential difference between the plates decreases } K \text{ times}$, $\text{The energy stored in the capacitor decreases } K \text{ times}$...
4
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16589
$\text{A series combination of } n_1 \text{ capacitors, each of value } C_1, \text{ is charged by a source of potential difference } 4 \text{ V.}$ $\text{When another parallel combination of } n_2 \text{ capacitors, each of value } C_2, \text{ is charged by a source of potential difference } V, \text{ it has the same (total) energy stored in it as the first combination has.}$ $\text{The value of } C_2 \text{ in terms of } C_1 \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2C_1}{n_1n_2}$, $16 \frac{n_2}{n_1} C_1$...
4
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16588
$\text{Five equal capacitors connected in series have a resultant capacitance of } 4 \, \mu\text{F.}$ $\text{The total energy stored in these when these are connected in parallel and charged to } 400 \, \text{V is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1 \, \text{J}$, $8 \, \text{J}$...
2
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16587
$\text{The energy and capacity of a charged parallel plate capacitor are } E \text{ and } C \text{ respectively. If a dielectric slab of } E_r = 6 \text{ is inserted in it, then the energy and capacity become:}$ $\text{(Assuming the charge on plates remains constant)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$6E, 6C$, $E, C$...
3
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16586
$\text{Surface charge density on the positive plate of a charged parallel plate capacitor is } \sigma. \text{ Energy density in the electric field of the capacitor is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\sigma^2}{2\varepsilon_0}$, $\frac{\sigma^2}{2\varepsilon_0}$...
2
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16585
$\text{A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric field } E (\text{V/m}) \text{ in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is } d (\text{m}) \text{ and area of each plate is } A (\text{m}^2), \text{ the energy (joule) stored in the condenser is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_0 E^2$, $\varepsilon_0 E A d$...
3
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16584
$\text{Two condensers, one of capacity } C \text{ and the other of capacity } \frac{C}{2} \text{ are connected to a } V \text{ volt battery, as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The energy stored in the capacitors when both condensers are fully charged will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2CV^2$, $\frac{1}{4}CV^2$...
3
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16583
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Charge on an isolated capacitor does not change by introducing dielectric between the plates of the capacitor.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Charge on an isolated system is conserved.}$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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16582
$\text{An air capacitor of capacity } C = 10 \, \mu\text{F is connected to a constant voltage battery of } 12 \, \text{V.}$ $\text{Now the space between the plates is filled with a liquid of dielectric constant } 5.$ $\text{The charge that flows now from battery to the capacitor is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$120 \, \mu\text{C}$, $699 \, \mu\text{C}$...
3
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16581
$\text{Two identical parallel plate capacitors are placed in series and connected to a constant voltage source of } V_0 \text{ volt.}$ $\text{If one of the capacitors is completely immersed in a liquid with dielectric constant } K, \text{ the potential difference between the plates of the other capacitor will change to:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{K+1}{K} V_0$, $\frac{K}{K+1} V_0$...
2
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16580
$\text{If the dielectric constant and dielectric strength be denoted by } k \text{ and } x \text{ respectively, then a material suitable for use as a dielectric in a capacitor must have:}$ $1. \text{ high } k \text{ and high } x.$ $2. \text{ high } k \text{ and low } x.$ $3. \text{ low } k \text{ and low } x.$ $4. \text{ low } k \text{ and high } x.$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{high } k \text{ and high } x.$, $\text{high } k \text{ and low } x.$...
1
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16579
$\text{The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as a medium is } 6 \, \mu\text{F.}$ $\text{With the introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes } 30 \, \mu\text{F.}$ $\text{The permittivity of the medium is:}$ $\left( \varepsilon_0 = 8.85 \times 10^{-12} \, \text{C}^2\text{N}^{-1}\text{m}^{-2} \right)$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.77 \times 10^{-12} \, \text{C}^2\text{N}^{-1}\text{m}^{-2}$, $0.44 \times 10^{-10} \, \text{C}^2\text{N}^{-1}\text{m}^{-2}$...
2
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16578
$\text{A parallel plate condenser is filled with two dielectrics as shown. Area of each plate is } A \text{ metre}^2 \text{ and the separation is } t \text{ metre. The dielectric constants are } k_1 \text{ and } k_2 \text{ respectively. Its capacitance in farad will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\varepsilon_0 A}{t} \left( k_1 + k_2 \right)$, $\frac{\varepsilon_0 A}{t} \frac{\left( k_1 + k_2 \right)}{2}$...
2
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16577
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor is made of two dielectric blocks in series. One of the blocks has thickness } d_1 \text{ and dielectric constant } K_1 \text{ and the other has thickness } d_2 \text{ and dielectric constant } K_2, \text{ as shown in the figure. This arrangement can be thought of as a dielectric slab of thickness } d = d_1 + d_2 \text{ and effective dielectric constant } K. \text{ The } K \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{K_1 d_1 + K_2 d_2}{d_1 + d_1}$, $\frac{K_1 d_1 + K_2 d_2}{K_1 + K_2}$...
3
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16576
$\text{The insulation property of air breaks down at } E = 3 \times 10^6 \text{ V/m.}$ $\text{The maximum charge that can be given to a sphere of diameter } 5 \text{ m is approximately:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2 \times 10^{-5} \text{ C}$, $2.2 \times 10^{-4} \text{ C}$...
3
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16575
$\text{The dielectric constant of pure water is } 81. \text{ Its permittivity will be: (in MKS units)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.02 \times 10^{-13}$, $8.86 \times 10^{-12}$...
3
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16574
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor has capacitance } C. \text{ If it is equally filled with parallel layers of materials of dielectric constants } K_1 \text{ and } K_2, \text{ its capacity becomes } C_1. \text{ The ratio of } C_1 \text{ to } C \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$K_1 + K_2$, $\frac{K_1 K_2}{K_1 - K_2}$...
4
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16573
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor with cross-sectional area } A \text{ and separation } d \text{ has air between the plates. An insulating slab of the same area but the thickness of } \frac{d}{2} \text{ is inserted between the plates as shown in the figure, having a dielectric constant, } K = 4. \text{ The ratio of the new capacitance to its original capacitance will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2 : 1$, $8 : 5$...
2
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16572
$\text{Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants } K_1 \text{ and } K_2 (K_1 < K_2) \text{ are inserted between plates of a parallel capacitor, as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The variation of the electric field } E \text{ between the plates with distance } d \text{ as measured from the plate } P \text{ is correctly shown by:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
3
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16571
$\text{The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is } C. \text{ If a dielectric slab of thickness equal to one-fourth of the plate separation and dielectric constant } K \text{ is inserted between the plates, then the new capacitance will be:}$
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$\frac{KC}{2(K+1)}$, $\frac{2KC}{K+1}$...
4
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16570
$\text{Two parallel metal plates having charges } +Q \text{ and } -Q, \text{ face each other at a certain distance between them. If the plates are now dipped in the kerosene oil tank, the electric field between the plates will:}$ $1. \text{ increase}$ $2. \text{ decrease}$ $3. \text{ remain the same}$ $4. \text{ become zero}$
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$\text{increase}$, $\text{decrease}$...
2
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16569
$\text{A parallel plate condenser has a capacitance } 50 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ in air and } 110 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ when immersed in an oil. The dielectric constant } k \text{ of the oil is:}$
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$0.45$, $0.55$...
4
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16568
$\text{In the circuit shown in the figure initially key } K_1 \text{ is closed and key } K_2 \text{ is open.}$ $\text{Then } K_1 \text{ is opened and } K_2 \text{ is closed (order is important).}$ $\text{[Take } Q_1 \text{ and } Q_2 \text{ as charges on } C_1 \text{ and } C_2 \text{ and } V_1 \text{ and } V_2 \text{ as voltage respectively.]}$ $\text{Then,}$
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$\text{(a) charge on } C \text{ gets redistributed such that } V_1 = V_2$, $\text{(b) charge on } C \text{ gets redistributed such that } Q_1 = Q_2$...
1
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16567
$\text{A capacitor of } 1 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ withstands a maximum voltage of } 6 \text{ kilovolts while another capacitor of } 2 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ withstands a maximum voltage of } 4 \text{ kilovolts. If the two capacitors are connected in series, the system will withstand a maximum voltage of:}$
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$2 \, \text{kV}$, $4 \, \text{kV}$...
4
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16566
$\text{A circuit has section } AB \text{ as shown in figure. The emf of the cell is } 10 \text{ V.}$ $\text{The potential difference } V_{AB} = 5 \text{ V. The charge on the capacitor } C_1 \text{ is:}$
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$10 \, \mu\text{C}$, $5 \, \mu\text{C}$...
1
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16565
$\text{How many capacitors each of } 8 \, \mu\text{F and } 250 \, \text{V are required to form a composite capacitor of } 16 \, \mu\text{F and } 1 \, \text{kV?}$
1
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$16$, $8$...
4
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16564
$\text{In the given circuit if point } C \text{ is connected to the earth and a potential of } +2000 \text{ V is given to the point } A, \text{ the potential at } B \text{ is:}$
1
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$1500 \text{ V}$, $1000 \text{ V}$...
3
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16563
$\text{Three capacitors } A, B \text{ and } C \text{ are connected in a circuit as shown in Fig. What is the charge in } \mu\text{C on the capacitor } B:$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{7 V} \\ \end{array}$ $\begin{array}{c} A \\ \text{2 } \mu\text{F} \\ \end{array}$ $\begin{array}{c} B \\ \text{3 } \mu\text{F} \\ \end{array}$ $\begin{array}{c} C \\ \text{4 } \mu\text{F} \\ \end{array}$ $\begin{array}{c} \text{6 V} \\ \end{array}$
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$\frac{1}{3}$, $\frac{2}{3}$...
2
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16562
$\text{In the circuit diagram shown all the capacitors are in } \mu F. \text{ The equivalent}$ $\text{capacitance between points, } A \text{ and } B \text{ is (in } \mu F):$
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$\frac{14}{5}$, $7.5$...
1
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16561
$\text{Two capacitors of capacity } 2 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ and } 3 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ are charged to the same potential difference of } 6 \, \text{V.}$ $\text{Now they are connected with opposite polarity as shown.}$ $\text{After closing switches } S_1 \text{ and } S_2, \text{ their final potential difference becomes:}$
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$\text{zero}$, $\frac{4}{3} \, \text{V}$...
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16560
$\text{Five identical plates each of area } A \text{ are joined as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The distance between the plates is } d. \text{ The plates are connected to a potential}$ $\text{difference of } V \text{ volts. The charge on plates 1 and 4 will be:}$
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$\frac{\varepsilon_0 A V}{d}, \frac{2 \varepsilon_0 A V}{d}$, $\frac{2 \varepsilon_0 A V}{d}, \frac{\varepsilon_0 A V}{d}$...
3
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16559
$\text{The equivalent capacitance between the points } A \text{ and } B \text{ in the given network is:}$ $\begin{array}{c} \includegraphics[width=0.5\textwidth]{circuit.png} \end{array}$
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$25 \, \mu\text{F}$, $16 \, \mu\text{F}$...
3
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16558
$\text{Four capacitors each of capacity } 3 \mu F \text{ are connected as shown in the adjoining figure.}$ $\text{The ratio of equivalent capacitance between } A \text{ and } B \text{ and between } A \text{ and } C \text{ will be:}$
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$4 : 3$, $3 : 4$...
1
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16557
$\text{The equivalent capacitance between } A \text{ and } B \text{ is:}$
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$2 \, \mu\text{F}$, $3 \, \mu\text{F}$...
4
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16556
$\text{In the connections shown in the adjoining figure, the equivalent capacity between } A \text{ and } B \text{ will be:}$
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$10.8 \, \mu\text{F}$, $69 \, \mu\text{F}$...
4
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16555
$\text{A network of four capacitors of capacity equal to}$ $C_1 = C, C_2 = 2C, C_3 = 3C \text{ and } C_4 = 4C$ $\text{are connected in a battery as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The ratio of the charges on } C_2 \text{ and } C_4 \text{ is:}$
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$\frac{22}{3}$, $\frac{3}{22}$...
2
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16554
$\text{A capacitor of capacity } C_1 \text{ is charged up to } V \text{ volt and then connected to an uncharged capacitor } C_2. \text{ Then final P.D. across each will be:}$
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$\frac{C_2 V}{C_1 + C_2}$, $\frac{C_1 V}{C_1 + C_2}$...
2
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16553
$\text{The equivalent capacitance between points } a \text{ and } b \text{ in the network shown below is:}$
1
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$5 \text{ C}$, $4 \text{ C}$...
4
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16552
$\text{The equivalent capacitance across } A \text{ and } B \text{ in the given figure is:}$
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$\frac{3}{2}C$, $C$...
4
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16551
$\text{Three capacitors each of capacitance } C \text{ and of breakdown voltage } V \text{ are joined in series. The capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination will be:}$
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$\frac{C}{3}, \frac{V}{3}$, $3C, \frac{V}{3}$...
3
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16550
$\text{Two capacitors of capacitance } 6 \, \mu\text{F and } 3 \, \mu\text{F are connected in series with a battery of } 30 \, \text{V.}$ $\text{The charge on } 3 \, \mu\text{F capacitor is:}$
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$3 \, \mu\text{C}$, $1.5 \, \mu\text{C}$...
3
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16549
$\text{Three capacitors of capacitances } 3 \, \mu\text{F}, 9 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ and } 18 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ are connected once in series and another time in parallel.}$ $\text{The ratio of equivalent capacitance in the two cases } \frac{C_s}{C_p} \text{ will be:}$
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$1 : 15$, $15 : 1$...
1
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16548
$\text{Three capacitors each of capacity } 4 \, \mu\text{F are to be connected in such a way that the effective capacitance is } 6 \, \mu\text{F. This can be done by:}$
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$\text{connecting all of them in a series.}$, $\text{connecting them in parallel.}$...
3
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16547
$\text{Three uncharged capacitors of capacities } C_1, C_2 \text{ and } C_3 \text{ are connected to one another as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{If points A, B, and D, are at potential } V_1, V_2 \text{ and } V_3 \text{ then the potential at O will be:}$
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$\frac{V_1C_1 + V_2C_2 + V_3C_3}{C_1 + C_2 + C_3}$, $\frac{V_1 + V_2 + V_3}{C_1 + C_2 + C_3}$...
1
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16546
$\text{The effective capacity of the network between terminals } A \text{ and } B \text{ is:}$
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$6 \, \mu\text{F}$, $20 \, \mu\text{F}$...
1
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16545
$\text{Choose the correct statements among the following:}$ $\text{A: Free electrons move always from a region of higher potential to a region of lower potential.}$ $\text{B: The capacitance of the capacitor does not depend upon the nature of the conducting material of the plates of the capacitor.}$
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$\text{only A}$, $\text{only B}$...
2
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16544
$\text{The figure shows charge } (q) \text{ versus voltage } (V) \text{ graph for series and parallel}$ $\text{combination of two given capacitors. The capacitances are:}$
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$50 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ and } 30 \, \mu\text{F}$, $20 \, \mu\text{F} \text{ and } 30 \, \mu\text{F}$...
4
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16543
$\text{A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{Consider two situations.}$ $\text{A: Key } K \text{ is kept closed and plates of capacitors are moved apart using the insulating handle.}$ $\text{B: Key } K \text{ is opened and plates of capacitors are moved apart using the insulating handle.}$ $\text{Choose the correct option(s):}$ $\text{a. In A, } Q \text{ remains the same but } C \text{ changes.}$ $\text{b. In B, } V \text{ remains the same but } C \text{ changes.}$ $\text{c. In A, } V \text{ remains the same and hence } Q \text{ changes.}$ $\text{d. In B, } Q \text{ remains the same and hence } V \text{ changes.}$
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$(a) \text{ and } (b)$, $(a) \text{ and } (d)$...
4
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16542
$\text{The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate}$ $\text{capacitor } C \text{ having a charge } Q \text{ and area } A \text{ is:}$
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$\text{independent of the distance between the plates.}$, $\text{linearly proportional to the distance between the plates.}$...
1
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16541
$\text{In the given figure if } V = 4 \text{ volt each plate of the capacitor has a surface area of } 10^{-2} \text{ m}^2 \text{ and the plates are } 0.1 \times 10^{-3} \text{ m apart, then the number of excess electrons on the negative plate is:}$
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$5.15 \times 10^9$, $2.21 \times 10^{10}$...
2
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16540
$\text{A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacity of } C, \text{ the distance of separation between plates is } d \text{ and potential difference } V \text{ is applied between the plates.}$ $\text{The force of attraction between the plates of the parallel plate air capacitor is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{C^2V^2}{2d}$, $\frac{CV^2}{2d}$...
2
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16539
$\text{A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to potential difference } V. \text{ After disconnecting the battery, the distance between the plates of the capacitor is increased using an insulating handle. As a result the potential difference between the plates:}$
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$\text{decreases.}$, $\text{increases.}$...
2
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16538
$\text{The electric potential difference between two parallel plates is } 2000 \text{ V. If the plates are separated by } 2 \text{ mm, what is the magnitude of the electrostatic force on a charge of } 4 \times 10^{-6} \text{ C located midway between the plates?}$
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Recommended Questions
$4 \text{ N}$, $6 \text{ N}$...
1
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16537
$\text{What is the area of the plates of a } 2 \text{ F parallel plate capacitor, given that the separation between the plates is } 0.5 \text{ cm?}$
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$1100 \text{ km}^2$, $1130 \text{ km}^2$...
2
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16536
$\text{Two concentric conducting spherical shells carry charge } Q \text{ each.}$ $\text{The inner shell is earthed.}$ $\text{The charge that flows into the earth is:}$
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$Q$, $\frac{3Q}{2}$...
2
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16535
$\text{Two concentric metallic spherical shells } A \text{ and } B \text{ of radii } a \text{ and } b \text{ respectively } (b > a) \text{ are arranged such that outer shell is earthed and inner shell is charged to } Q. \text{ Charge on the outer surface of outer shell will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$-\frac{Qa}{b}$, $Q \left[ 1 - \frac{a}{b} \right]$...
4
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16534
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): A metallic shield in the form of a hollow shell may be built to block an electric field.}$ $\text{Reason (R): In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside it is zero at every point.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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16533
$\text{A conducting sphere of radius } R \text{ is given a charge } Q. \text{ The electric potential and field at the centre of the sphere respectively are:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Zero and } \frac{Q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 R^2}$, $\frac{Q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 R} \text{ and zero}$...
2
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16532
$\text{Which of the following statements is correct regarding the electrostatics of conductors?}$
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$\text{The interior of the conductor with no cavity can have no excess charge in the static situation.}$, $\text{The electrostatic potential is constant throughout the volume of the conductor.}$...
4
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16531
$\text{An electric dipole with dipole moment } \vec{p} = \left(3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j}\right) \times 10^{-30} \text{ C-m is placed in an electric field } \vec{E} = 4000\hat{i} \text{ N/C. An external agent turns the dipole slowly until its electric dipole moment becomes } \left(-4\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}\right) \times 10^{-30} \text{ C-m.}$ $\text{The work done by the external agent is equal to:}$
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Recommended Questions
$4 \times 10^{-28} \text{ J}$, $-4 \times 10^{-28} \text{ J}$...
3
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16530
$\text{A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of } 16 \times 10^{-9} \text{ C-m. The electric potential due to the dipole at a point at a distance of } 0.6 \text{ m from the centre of the dipole situated on a line making an angle of } 60^\circ \text{ with the dipole axis is:}$ $\left( \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \text{ N-m}^2/\text{C}^2 \right)$
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Recommended Questions
$200 \text{ V}$, $400 \text{ V}$...
1
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16529
$\text{An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charges as } q \text{ and its dipole moment is } p. \text{ It is placed in a uniform electric field } \mathbf{E}. \text{ If its dipole moment is along the direction of the field, the force on it and its potential energy are respectively:}$
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Recommended Questions
$q \cdot E \text{ and } p \cdot E$, $\text{zero and minimum}$...
2
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16528
$\text{An electric dipole of moment } \vec{p} \text{ is lying along a uniform electric field } \vec{E}. \text{ The work done in rotating the dipole by } 90^\circ \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{2}pE$, $\frac{pE}{2}$...
4
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16527
$\text{An electric dipole of moment } p \text{ is placed in an electric field of intensity } E. \text{ The dipole acquires a position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle } \theta \text{ with the direction of the field. Assuming that the potential energy of the dipole to be zero when } \theta = 90^\circ, \text{ the torque and the potential energy of the dipole will respectively be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$pE \sin \theta, -pE \cos \theta$, $pE \sin \theta, -2pE \cos \theta$...
1
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16526
$\text{The potential field of an electric field } E = y\hat{i} + x\hat{j} \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$V = -x + y + \text{constant}$, $V = \text{constant}$...
4
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16525
$\text{Consider two points 1 and 2 in a region outside a charged sphere. Two points are not very far away from the sphere. If } \mathbf{E} \text{ and } V \text{ represent the electric field vector and the electric potential, which of the following is not possible?}$
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$|\mathbf{E}_1| = |\mathbf{E}_2|, V_1 = V_2$, $\mathbf{E}_1 \neq \mathbf{E}_2, V_1 \neq V_2$...
4
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16524
$\text{An electric field } \vec{E} = 10x\hat{i} \text{ exists in a certain region of space. Then the potential difference } V = V_0 - V_A, \text{ where } V_0 \text{ is the potential at the origin and } V_A \text{ is the potential at } x = 2 \text{ m is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ V}$, $-20 \text{ V}$...
3
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16523
$\text{The variation of potential with distance } x \text{ from a fixed point is shown in the figure. The electric field at } x = 13 \text{ m is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$7.5 \text{ V/m}$, $-7.5 \text{ V/m}$...
3
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16522
$\text{Work done to carry a negatively charged body in direction of the electric field:}$ $\text{(assuming no other force is acting on the body)}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{is always negative.}$, $\text{maybe negative.}$...
3
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16521
$\text{In a region of constant potential:}$ $\begin{array}{ll} (a): & \text{the electric field is uniform} \\ (b): & \text{the electric field is zero} \\ (c): & \text{there can be no charge inside the region} \\ (d): & \text{the electric field shall necessarily change if a charge is placed outside the region} \end{array}$ $\text{Choose the correct statement(s):}$
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$(b) \text{ and } (c)$, $(a) \text{ and } (c)$...
1
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16520
$\text{When a negative charge is released and moves in the electric field, it moves towards a position of:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{lower electric potential and lower potential energy.}$, $\text{lower electric potential and higher potential energy.}$...
3
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16519
$\text{The figure shows some of the equipotential surfaces. The magnitude and direction of the electric field are given by:}$
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Recommended Questions
$200 \text{ V/m, making an angle } 120^\circ \text{ with the } x\text{-axis}$, $100 \text{ V/m, pointing towards the negative } x\text{-axis}$...
1
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16518
$\text{The electric field intensity and the electric potential at a point are } E \text{ and } V \text{ respectively. Which of the following is correct?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{If } E \neq 0, V \text{ cannot be zero}$, $\text{If } V \neq 0, E \text{ cannot be zero}$...
3
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16517
$\text{The electric potential at a point in free space due to a charge } Q \text{ coulomb is } Q \times 10^{11} \text{ V. The electric field at that point is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$4\pi\varepsilon_0 Q \times 10^{22} \text{ V/m}$, $12\pi\varepsilon_0 Q \times 10^{20} \text{ V/m}$...
1
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16516
$\text{In a certain region of space with volume } 0.2 \text{ m}^3, \text{ the electric potential is found to be } 5 \text{ V throughout. The magnitude of the electric field in this region is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$0.5 \text{ N/C}$, $1 \text{ N/C}$...
4
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16515
$\text{The electric potential } V \text{ at any point } (x, y, z), \text{ all in meters in space is given by } V = 4x^2 \text{ volt.}$ $\text{The electric field at the point } (1, 0, 2) \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$8 \, \text{V/m}, \text{ along the negative } x\text{-axis}$, $8 \, \text{V/m}, \text{ along the positive } x\text{-axis}$...
1
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16514
$A, B \text{ and } C \text{ are three points in a uniform electric field. The electric potential is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{maximum at } A$, $\text{maximum at } B$...
2
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16513
$\text{In a certain charge distribution, all points having zero potential can be joined by a circle } S. \text{ The points inside } S \text{ have positive potential, and points outside } S \text{ have a negative potential. A positive charge, which is free to move, is placed inside } S. \text{ What is the correct statement about } S:$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{It will remain in equilibrium}$, $\text{It can move inside } S, \text{ but it cannot cross } S$...
3
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16512
$\text{Equipotential at a great distance from a collection of charges whose total sum is not zero are approximately:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{spheres}$, $\text{planes}$...
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16511
$\text{Equipotential surfaces:}$ $\text{a. are closer in regions of large electric fields compared}$ \text{ to regions of lower electric fields.}$ $\text{b. will be more crowded near the sharp edges of a conductor.}$ $\text{c. will be more crowded near regions of large charge densities.}$ $\text{d. will always be equally spaced.}$ $\text{Choose the correct statement(s):}$
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Recommended Questions
$(\text{a}), (\text{b}) \text{ and } (\text{c})$, $(\text{a}), (\text{c}) \text{ and } (\text{d})$...
1
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16510
$\text{The electric potential in a certain region of space is given by } V = -8x^2 + 4x, \text{ where } V \text{ is in volt and } x \text{ is in metre. In this region, the equipotential surface is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{plane parallel to } yz \text{ plane}$, $\text{plane parallel to the } x\text{-axis}$...
1
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16509
$\text{Some equipotential surfaces are shown in the figure. The electric field at points } A, B \text{ and } C \text{ are respectively:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1 \text{ V/cm}, \frac{1}{2} \text{ V/cm}, 2 \text{ V/cm (all along +ve X-axis)}$, $1 \text{ V/cm}, \frac{1}{2} \text{ V/cm}, 2 \text{ V/cm (all along -ve X-axis)}$...
3
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16508
$\text{Consider a uniform electric field in the } z\text{-direction. The potential is constant:}$ $\text{a. in all space}$ $\text{b. for any } x \text{ for a given } z$ $\text{c. for any } y \text{ for a given } z$ $\text{d. on the } x-y \text{ plane for a given } z$
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$\text{(a), (b), (c)}$, $\text{(a), (c), (d)}$...
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16507
$\text{A cube of a metal is given a positive charge } Q. \text{ For the above system, which of the following statements is true?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The electric potential at the surface of the cube is zero.}$, $\text{The electric potential within the cube is zero.}$...
3
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16506
$\text{The angle between equipotential surface and electric lines of force is:}$
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$\text{zero}$, $180^\circ$...
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16505
$\text{The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials.}$ $\text{A positive charge is moved from A to B in each diagram. Then:}$
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$\text{the maximum work is required to move } q \text{ in figure (iii).}$, $\text{in all four cases, the work done is the same.}$...
2
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16504
$\text{The work done to move a charge along an equipotential from } A \text{ to } B:$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{can not be defined as } - \int_{A}^{B} \vec{E} \cdot \vec{dl}$, $\text{must be defined as } - \int_{A}^{B} \vec{E} \cdot \vec{dl}$...
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16503
$\text{On rotating a point charge having a charge } q \text{ around a charge } Q \text{ in a circle of radius } r, \text{ the work done will be:}$
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$q \times 2\pi r$, $\frac{q \times 2\pi Q}{r}$...
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16502
$\text{A charge } +q \text{ is fixed at each of the points } x = x_0, x = 3x_0, x = 5x_0 \ldots \text{ infinite, on the x-axis, and a charge } -q \text{ is fixed at each of the points } x = 2x_0, x = 4x_0, x = 6x_0, \ldots \text{ infinite. Here } x_0 \text{ is a positive constant. Take the electric potential at a point due to a charge } Q \text{ at a distance } r \text{ from it to be } \frac{Q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 r}. \text{ Then, the potential at the origin due to the above system of charges is:}$
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$0$, $\frac{q}{8\pi\varepsilon_0 x_0 \ln 2}$...
4
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16501
$\text{Three concentric spherical shells have radii } a, b, \text{ and } c \,(a < b < c) \text{ and have surface charge densities } \sigma, -\sigma, \text{ and } \sigma \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{If } V_A, V_B \text{ and } V_C \text{ denote the potential of the three shells, and } c = a + b, \text{ it can be concluded that:}$
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$V_C = V_A \neq V_B$, $V_C = V_B \neq V_A$...
1
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16500
$\text{When a proton at rest is accelerated by a potential difference } V, \text{ its speed is found to be } v. \text{ The speed of an } \alpha\text{-particle when accelerated by the same potential difference from rest will be:}$
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$v$, $\frac{v}{\sqrt{2}}$...
2
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16499
$\text{A positive charge } q \text{ and a negative charge } -q \text{ are placed at } x = -a \text{ and } x = +a \text{ respectively. The variation of } V \text{ along } x\text{-axis is represented by the graph:}$
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$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
1
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16498
$\text{A thin spherical conducting shell of radius } R \text{ has a charge } q. \text{ Another charge } Q \text{ is placed at the centre of the shell. The electrostatic potential at a point } P \text{ which is at a distance } \frac{R}{2} \text{ from the centre of the shell is:}$
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$\frac{(q+Q)}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \frac{2}{R}$, $\frac{2Q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 R}$...
4
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16497
$\text{A conductor with a positive charge:}$
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$\text{is always at +ve potential.}$, $\text{is always at zero potential.}$...
4
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16496
$\text{Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given charges of}$ $-1 \times 10^{-2} \text{ C and } 5 \times 10^{-2} \text{ C, respectively.}$ $\text{If these are connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger sphere is:}$
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$2 \times 10^{-2} \text{ C}$, $3 \times 10^{-2} \text{ C}$...
2
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16495
$\text{A hollow conducting sphere is placed in an electric field produced by a point charge placed at } P \text{ as shown in the figure. Let } V_A, V_B, V_C \text{ be the potentials at points } A, B \text{ and } C \text{ respectively. Then:}$
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$V_A < V_B < V_C$, $V_A > V_B > V_C$...
4
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16494
$\text{A ball of mass } 1 \text{ g and charge } 10^{-7} \text{ C moves from a point } A \text{ whose potential is } 500 \text{ V to a point } B \text{ whose potential is zero.}$ $\text{If the speed of the ball at } A \text{ is } 0.51 \text{ m/s, its speed at point } B \text{ will be:}$
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$0.6 \text{ m/s}$, $6 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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16493
$\text{The variation of electrostatic potential with radial distance } r \text{ from the centre of a positively charged metallic thin shell of radius } R \text{ is given by the graph:}$
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$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
2
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16492
$\text{Two equal charges } q \text{ of opposite sign separated by a distance } 2a \text{ constitute an}$ $\text{electric dipole of dipole moment } p. \text{ If } P \text{ is a point at a distance } r \text{ from the}$ $\text{centre of the dipole and the line joining the centre of the dipole to this point}$ $\text{makes an angle } \theta \text{ with the axis of the dipole, then the potential at } P \text{ is given}$ $\text{by: } \left( r \gg 2a \right) , \text{ where } p = 2qa$
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$V = \frac{p \cos \theta}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 r^2}$, $V = \frac{p \cos \theta}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 r}$...
1
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16491
$\text{In the figure the charge } Q \text{ is at the centre of the circle. Work done by the conservative force is maximum when another charge is taken from point } P \text{ to:}$
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$K$, $L$...
1
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16490
$\text{Eight equally charged tiny drops are combined to form a big drop.}$ $\text{If the potential on each drop is } 10 \text{ V, then the potential of the big drop will be:}$
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$40 \text{ V}$, $10 \text{ V}$...
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16489
$\text{Four electric charges } +q, +q, -q \text{ and } -q \text{ are placed at the corners of a square of side } 2L \text{ (see figure). The electric potential at the point } A, \text{ mid-way between the two charges } +q \text{ and } +q \text{ is:}$
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$\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \frac{2q}{L} \left( 1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{5}} \right)$, $\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \frac{2q}{L} \left( 1 - \frac{1}{\sqrt{5}} \right)$...
2
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16488
$\text{The increasing order of the electrostatic potential energies for the given system of charges is given by:}$ $\text{Q} \quad -\text{Q} \quad -\text{Q} \quad -\text{Q} \quad 2\text{Q} \quad \text{Q} \quad 2\text{Q}$ $\text{r} \quad \text{r} \quad \text{r} \quad 2\text{Q} \quad 2\text{r}$
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$\text{a = d < b < c}$, $\text{b = d < c < a}$...
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16487
$\text{Ten electrons are equally spaced and fixed around a circle of radius } R. \text{ Relative to } V = 0 \text{ at infinity, the electrostatic potential } V \text{ and the electric field } \mathbf{E} \text{ at the centre } C \text{ are:}$
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$V \neq 0 \text{ and } \mathbf{E} \neq 0$, $V \neq 0 \text{ and } \mathbf{E} = 0$...
2
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16486
$\text{In a circuit, } 5 \text{ C of charge is passed through a battery in a given time. The plates of the battery are maintained at a potential difference of } 12 \text{ V. The work done by the battery is:}$
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$120 \text{ J}$, $60 \text{ J}$...
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16485
$\text{If 50 J of work must be done to move an electric charge of 2 C from a point where the potential is } -10 \text{ volts to another point where the potential is V volts, then the value of V is:}$ $1.\ 5 \text{ volts}$ $2.\ -15 \text{ volts}$ $3.\ +15 \text{ volts}$ $4.\ +10 \text{ volts}$
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$5 \text{ volts}$, $-15 \text{ volts}$...
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16484
$\text{Three charges } -Q, q, \text{ and } -2Q \text{ are placed along a line as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The system of charges will have a positive potential energy configuration when } q \text{ is placed at the midpoint of line joining } -Q \text{ and } -2Q \text{ if:}$
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$q > \frac{Q}{3}$, $q < \frac{Q}{3}$...
2
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16483
$\text{Figure shows a ball having a charge } q \text{ fixed at a point } A. \text{ Two identical balls having charges } +q \text{ and } -q \text{ and mass } 'm' \text{ each are attached to the ends of a light rod of length } 2a. \text{ The rod is free to rotate about a fixed axis perpendicular to the plane of the paper and passing through the mid-point of the rod. The system is released from the situation as shown in the figure. The angular velocity of the rod when the rod becomes horizontal will be:}$
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$\frac{\sqrt{2}q}{3\pi \varepsilon_0 ma^3}$, $\frac{q}{\sqrt{3\pi \varepsilon_0 ma^3}}$...
3
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16482
$\text{A charge of } 10 \text{ e.s.u. is placed at a distance of } 2 \text{ cm from a charge of } 40 \text{ e.s.u.}$ $\text{and } 4 \text{ cm from another charge of } 20 \text{ e.s.u.}$ $\text{The potential energy of the charge } 10 \text{ e.s.u. is: (in ergs)}$
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$87.5$, $112.5$...
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16481
$\text{Four equal charges } Q \text{ are placed at the four corners of a square of each side } a. \text{ Work done in removing a charge } -Q \text{ from its centre to infinity is:}$
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$0$, $\frac{\sqrt{2}Q^2}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 a}$...
3
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16480
$\text{When a particle with charge } +q \text{ is thrown with an initial velocity } v \text{ towards another stationary charge } +Q, \text{ it is repelled back after reaching the nearest distance } r \text{ from } +Q. \text{ The closest distance that it can reach if it is thrown with an initial velocity } 2v, \text{ is:}$
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$\frac{r}{4}$, $\frac{r}{2}$...
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16479
$\text{An elementary particle of mass } m \text{ and charge } +e \text{ is projected with velocity } v$ $\text{at a much more massive particle of charge } Ze, \text{ where } Z > 0.$ $\text{What is the closest possible approach of the incident particle?}$
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$\frac{Ze^2}{2\pi\varepsilon_0 mv^2}$, $\frac{Ze}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 mv^2}$...
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16478
$\text{In a hydrogen atom, the electron and proton are bound at a distance of about } 0.53 \, \text{\AA}. \text{ The potential energy of the system in eV is:}$ $\text{(taking the zero of the potential energy at an infinite separation of the electron from the proton.)}$
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$-23.1 \, \text{eV}$, $27.0 \, \text{eV}$...
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16477
$\text{Two charges } q_1 \text{ and } q_2 \text{ are placed } 30 \text{ cm apart, as shown in the figure. A third charge } q_3 \text{ is moved along the arc of a circle of radius } 40 \text{ cm from } C \text{ to } D. \text{ The change in the potential energy of the system is } \frac{q_3}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} k, \text{ where } k \text{ is:}$
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$8q_2$, $8q_1$...
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16476
$\text{A charge } q_1 = 5 \times 10^{-8} \text{ C is kept at } 3 \text{ cm from a charge } q_2 = -2 \times 10^{-8} \text{ C.}$ $\text{The potential energy of the system relative to the potential energy at infinite separation is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$3 \times 10^{-4} \text{ J}$, $-3 \times 10^{-4} \text{ J}$...
2
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16475
$\text{Three charges } Q, +q \text{ and } +q \text{ are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side } l \text{ as shown in the figure. If the net electrostatic energy of the system is zero, then } Q \text{ is equal to:}$
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$-\frac{q}{2}$, $-q$...
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16474
$\text{What is the potential energy of two equal positive point charges of } 1 \, \mu\text{C each held } 1 \, \text{m apart in the air?}$
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$9 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{J}$, $9 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{eV}$...
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16473
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I:}$ $\text{Gauss's law for electric fields is a consequence of the conservation of energy.}$ $\text{Statement II:}$ $\text{Coulomb's law for electric charges leads to a conservative electric field.}$
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$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$...
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16472
$\text{Consider a region inside where there are various types of charges but the total charge is zero. At points outside the region:}$ $\text{(a) the electric field is necessarily zero.}$ $\text{(b) the electric field is due to the dipole moment of the charge distribution only.}$ $\text{(c) the dominant electric field is } \propto \frac{1}{r^3}, \text{ for large } r, \text{ where } r \text{ is the distance from the origin in this region.}$ $\text{(d) the work done to move a charged particle along a closed path, away from the region, will be zero.}$ $\text{Which of the above statements are true?}$
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$\text{(b) and (d)}$, $\text{(a) and (c)}$...
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16471
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: Electrostatic field lines never form closed loops.}$ $\text{Statement II: Gauss's law is particularly useful for calculating the}$ $\text{electrostatic field in systems that lack symmetry.}$
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$\text{Statement I is correct while Statement II is incorrect.}$, $\text{Statement II is correct while Statement I is incorrect.}$...
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16470
$X$ and $Y$ are large, parallel conducting plates close to each other. Each face has an area $A$. $X$ is given a charge $Q$. $Y$ is without any charge. Points $A$, $B$, and $C$ are as shown in the figure. The incorrect option is:
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the field at $B$ is $\frac{Q}{2\varepsilon_0 A}$, the field at $B$ is $\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_0 A}$...
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16469
$\text{A point charge } q \text{ is placed at a distance } \frac{a}{2} \text{ directly above the centre of a square of side } a. \text{ The electric flux through the square (i.e., one face) is:}$
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$\frac{q}{\varepsilon_0}$, $\frac{q}{\pi \varepsilon_0}$...
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16468
$\text{Two parallel infinite line charges with linear charge densities } +\lambda \text{ C/m and } +\lambda \text{ C/m are placed at a distance } R. \text{ The electric field mid-way between the two line charges is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\lambda}{2\pi\varepsilon_0 R} \text{ N/C}$, $\text{zero}$...
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16467
$\text{Consider the charge configuration and spherical Gaussian surface as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{When calculating the flux of the electric field over the spherical surface,}$ $\text{the electric field will be due to:}$
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$q_2.$, $\text{only the positive charges.}$...
3
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16466
$\text{An isolated sphere of radius } R \text{ contains a uniform volume distribution of positive charge.}$ $\text{Which of the curve on the graph below correctly illustrates the dependence of the magnitude of the electric field of the sphere as a function of the distance } r \text{ from its centre?}$
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$\text{A}$, $\text{B}$...
3
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16465
$\text{The electric field in a certain region is acting radially outward and is given by } E = Aa. \text{ A charge contained in a sphere of radius } a \text{ centered at the origin of the field will be given by:}$
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Recommended Questions
$4\pi \varepsilon_0 Aa^2$, $\varepsilon_0 Aa^2$...
3
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16464
$\text{The electric flux from a cube of edge } l \text{ is } \phi. \text{ What will be its value if the edge of the cube is made } 2l \text{ and the charge enclosed is halved?}$
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$\frac{1}{2} \phi$, $2 \phi$...
1
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16463
$\text{Three infinitely long charge sheets are placed as shown in the figure. The electric field at point } P \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2\sigma}{\varepsilon_0} \hat{k}$, $\frac{2\sigma}{\varepsilon_0} \hat{k}$...
2
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16462
$\text{If there were only one type of charge in the universe, then:}$ $\text{(a)} \oint_{s} \mathbf{E} \cdot d\mathbf{S} \neq 0 \text{ on any surface}$ $\text{(b)} \oint_{s} \mathbf{E} \cdot d\mathbf{S} = 0 \text{ if the charge is outside the surface.}$ $\text{(c)} \oint_{s} \mathbf{E} \cdot d\mathbf{S} \text{ could not be defined.}$ $\text{(d)} \oint_{s} \mathbf{E} \cdot d\mathbf{S} = \frac{q}{\varepsilon_0} \text{ if charges of magnitude } q \text{ were inside the surface.}$ $\text{Choose the correct statement(s):}$
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$\text{(a) and (d)}$, $\text{(a) and (c)}$...
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16461
$\text{Refer to the arrangement of charges in the figure and a Gaussian surface of a radius } R \text{ with } Q \text{ at the centre. Then:}$ $\text{(a) total flux through the surface of the sphere is } \frac{-Q}{\varepsilon_0}. $ $\text{(b) field on the surface of the sphere is } \frac{-Q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 R^2}. $ $\text{(c) flux through the surface of the sphere due to } 5Q \text{ is zero.}$ $\text{(d) field on the surface of the sphere due to } -2Q \text{ is the same everywhere.}$ $\text{Choose the correct statement(s):}$
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$\text{(a) and (d)}$, $\text{(a) and (c)}$...
2
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16460
$\text{A point charge } q \text{ is placed at the center of the open face of a hemispherical}$ $\text{surface as shown in the figure. The flux linked with the surface is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $\frac{q}{2\varepsilon_0}$...
2
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16459
$\text{A hollow cylinder has a charge } q \text{ coulomb within it (at the geometrical centre).}$ $\text{If } \phi \text{ is the electric flux in units of Volt-meter associated with the curved surface } B, \text{ the flux linked with the plane surface } A \text{ in units of volt-meter will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{q}{\varepsilon_0} - \phi \right)$, $\frac{q}{2\varepsilon_0}$...
1
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16458
$\text{A square surface of a side } L \text{ (m) is in the plane of the paper. A uniform electric field } \vec{E} \text{ (V/m), also in the plane of the paper, is limited only to the lower half of the square surface, (see figure). The electric flux in SI units associated with the surface is:}$
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$\frac{EL^2}{2\varepsilon_0}$, $\frac{EL^2}{2}$...
3
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16457
$\text{A point charge is placed at the center of the spherical Gaussian surface.}$ $\text{The electric flux through the surface is changed if the:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{sphere is replaced by a cube of the same volume.}$, $\text{sphere is replaced by a cube of half volume.}$...
4
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16456
$\text{A hollow metal sphere of radius } R \text{ is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a distance } r \text{ from the centre:}$
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$\text{decreases as } r \text{ increases for } r < R \text{ and for } r > R.$, $\text{increases as } r \text{ increases for } r < R \text{ and for } r > R.$...
3
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16455
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): A charge } q \text{ is placed in a cube of side } b. \text{ The flux associated}$ $\text{with the cube is independent of side length.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Gauss's law is independent of the size of the Gaussian}$ $\text{surface.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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16454
$\text{Which of the following graphs shows the variation of electric field } E \text{ due to a hollow spherical conductor of radius } R \text{ as a function of distance from the centre of the sphere?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
1
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16453
$\text{The electric field at a distance } \frac{3R}{2} \text{ from the centre of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius } R \text{ is } E. \text{ The electric field at a distance } \frac{R}{2} \text{ from the centre of the sphere is:}$
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$E$, $\frac{E}{2}$...
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16452
$\text{A charge } Q \text{ is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius } R. \text{ If the radius is doubled, then the outward electric flux will:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{be reduced to half}$, $\text{remain the same}$...
2
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16451
$\text{What is the flux through a cube of side } a, \text{ if a point charge of } q \text{ is placed at one of its corners?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2q}{\varepsilon_0}$, $\frac{q}{8\varepsilon_0}$...
2
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16450
$\text{The ratio of the electric flux linked with shell } A \text{ and shell } B \text{ in the diagram shown below is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$1 : 1$, $1 : 2$...
1
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16449
$\text{Two-point charges, } +q \text{ and } -q \text{ are held fixed at } (-d, 0) \text{ and } (d, 0) \text{ respectively of an } (x, y) \text{ coordinate system. Then:}$
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Recommended Questions
$E \text{ at all points on the } y\text{-axis is along } \hat{i}.$, $\text{The electric field } \vec{E} \text{ at all points on the } x\text{-axis has the same direction.}$...
1
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16448
$\text{Two point dipoles of dipole moment } \vec{p}_1 \text{ and } \vec{p}_2 \text{ are at a distance } x \text{ from each other and } \vec{p}_1 \parallel \vec{p}_2. \text{ The force between the dipole is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \frac{4p_1p_2}{x^4}$, $\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \frac{3p_1p_2}{x^3}$...
3
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16447
$\text{The figure shows electric field lines in which an electric dipole } p \text{ is placed as shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is correct?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The dipole will not experience any force.}$, $\text{The dipole will experience a force towards the right.}$...
3
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16446
$\text{An electric dipole is kept at the origin as shown in the diagram. The point } A, B, C \text{ are on a circular arc with the centre of curvature at the origin. If the electric fields at } A, B \text{ and } C \text{ respectively are } \vec{E}_1, \vec{E}_2, \vec{E}_3, \text{ then which of the following is incorrect? } (d \gg l)$
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Recommended Questions
$\vec{E}_1 = -\vec{E}_3$, $\vec{E}_1 = -2\vec{E}_2$...
1
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16445
$\text{The electric field at a point on the equatorial plane at a distance } r \text{ from the}$ $\text{centre of a dipole having dipole moment } \vec{P} \text{ is given by:}$ $(r \gg \text{ separation of two charges forming the dipole,}$ $\varepsilon_0 \text{ = permittivity of free space})$
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Recommended Questions
$\vec{E} = \frac{\vec{P}}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 r^3}$, $\vec{E} = \frac{2\vec{P}}{\pi\varepsilon_0 r^3}$...
4
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16444
$\text{An electric dipole is kept in a uniform electric field such that the dipole moment is not collinear with the electric field. It experiences:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{a force and torque.}$, $\text{a force but no torque.}$...
3
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16443
$\text{The electric field at the equator of a dipole is } E. \text{ If the strength of the dipole and distance are now doubled, then the electric field will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{E}{2}$, $\frac{E}{8}$...
3
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16442
$\text{In a certain region of space, the electric field is along the } z\text{-direction throughout. The magnitude of the electric field is, however, not constant but increases uniformly along the positive } z\text{-direction, at the rate of } 10^5 \text{ NC}^{-1} \text{ per meter. What is the torque experienced by a system having a total dipole moment equal to } 10^{-7} \text{ C-m in the negative } z\text{-direction?}$
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Recommended Questions
$10^{-2} \text{ N-m}$, $0$...
2
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16441
$\text{Two point charges } -q \text{ and } +q \text{ are placed at a distance of } L, \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance } R \,(R \gg L) \text{ varies as:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{R^6}$, $\frac{1}{R^2}$...
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16440
$\text{An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a sphere. Which of the following statements is correct?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The electric flux through the sphere is zero.}$, $\text{The electric field is zero at every point on the sphere.}$...
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16439
$\text{The net dipole moment of the system is of the magnitude:}$
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$q \times 2a$, $2q \times 2a$...
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16438
$\text{Three-point charges } +q, -2q \text{ and } +q \text{ are placed at points}$ $\text{(} x = 0, y = a, z = 0 \text{)}, \text{(} x = 0, y = 0, z = 0 \text{)} \text{ and } \text{(} x = a, y = 0, z = 0 \text{)},$ $\text{respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector}$ $\text{of this charge assembly are:}$
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$\sqrt{2}qa \text{ along } +y \text{ direction}$, $\sqrt{2}qa \text{ along the line joining points } (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) \text{ and }$ $\text{(} x = a, y = a, z = 0 \text{)}$...
2
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16437
$\text{An electric dipole is placed at an angle of } 30^\circ \text{ with an electric field intensity } 2 \times 10^5 \text{ N/C.}$ $\text{It experiences a torque equal to } 4 \text{ N-m.}$ $\text{The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is } 2 \text{ cm, is:}$
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$8 \text{ mC}$, $2 \text{ mC}$...
2
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16436
$\text{In the Millikan oil drop experiment, a charged drop falls with a terminal velocity } v. \text{ If an electric field } E \text{ is applied vertically upwards it moves with terminal velocity } 2v \text{ in the upward direction. If the electric field reduces to } \frac{E}{2} \text{ then its terminal velocity will be:}$
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$\frac{v}{2}$, $v$...
1
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16435
$\text{Consider two charges, } +q \text{ and } -q \ (q > 0) \text{ placed at a distance } 2a \text{ from each other.}$ $\text{At the point } M \text{ (see figure below), the electric field makes an angle } \phi$ $\text{from the } x\text{-axis. The correct value of } \phi \text{ is:}$
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$0^\circ$, $90^\circ$...
1
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16434
$\text{An infinite number of electric charges each equal to } 5 \text{ nC (magnitude) are placed along the } x\text{-axis at } x = 1 \text{ cm, } x = 2 \text{ cm, } x = 4 \text{ cm, } x = 8 \text{ cm} \ldots \ldots \text{ and so on. In the setup if the consecutive charges have opposite sign, then the electric field in Newton/Coulomb at } x = 0 \text{ is: } \left( \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \text{ N-m}^2/\text{C}^2 \right)$
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$12 \times 10^4$, $24 \times 10^4$...
3
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16433
$\text{An electron enters an electric field with its velocity in the direction of the electric lines of force. Then:}$
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$\text{the path of the electron will be a circle.}$, $\text{the path of the electron will be a parabola.}$...
3
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16432
$\text{The electric field at a point is:}$ $\text{(a) always continuous.}$ $\text{(b) continuous if there is no charge at that point.}$ $\text{(c) discontinuous only if there is a negative charge at that point.}$ $\text{(d) discontinuous if there is a charge at that point.}$ $\text{Choose the correct option:}$
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$\text{(a), (b)}$, $\text{(b), (d)}$...
2
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16431
$\text{An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance } h \text{ in a uniform and vertically upward-directed electric field } E. \text{ The direction of the electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest through the same vertical distance } h. \text{ The fall time of the electron in comparison to the fall time of the proton is:}$
1
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$\text{smaller}$, $\text{5 times greater}$...
1
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16430
$\text{In the following four situations, charged particles are at an equal distance from the origin.}$ $\text{Arrange the magnitude of the net electric field at origin, starting with the highest.}$
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$(i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)$, $(ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)$...
3
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16429
$\text{Twelve point charges each of charge } q \text{ C are placed at the circumference of a circle of radius } r \text{ m with equal angular spacing.}$ $\text{If one of the charges is removed, the net electric field (in } \text{N/C}) \text{ at the centre of the circle is:}$ $\left(\varepsilon_0\text{-permittivity of free space}\right)$
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$\frac{13q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 r^2}$, $\text{zero}$...
3
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16428
$\text{A charged ball } B \text{ hangs from a silk thread } S, \text{ which makes an angle } \theta \text{ with a large charged conducting sheet } P, \text{ as shown in the figure. The surface charge density } \sigma \text{ of the sheet is proportional to:}$
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$\sin \theta$, $\tan \theta$...
2
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16427
$\text{A toy car with charge } q \text{ moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field } \vec{E}. \text{ Due to the force } q\vec{E}, \text{ its velocity increases from } 0 \text{ to } 6 \text{ m/s in a one-second duration. At that instant, the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car between } 0 \text{ to } 3 \text{ seconds are respectively:}$
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$2 \text{ m/s, } 4 \text{ m/s}$, $1 \text{ m/s, } 3 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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16426
$\text{A spherical conductor of radius } 10 \text{ cm has a charge of } 3.2 \times 10^{-7} \text{ C}$ $\text{distributed uniformly. What is the magnitude of the electric field at a point } 15 \text{ cm from the centre of the sphere?}$ $\left( \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \text{ N-m}^2/\text{C}^2 \right)$
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$1.28 \times 10^5 \text{ N/C}$, $1.28 \times 10^6 \text{ N/C}$...
1
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16425
$\text{Three positive charges of equal value } q \text{ are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. The resulting lines of force should be sketched as in:}$
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$\text{Option 1}$, $\text{Option 2}$...
3
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16424
$\text{Two-point charges } +8q \text{ and } -2q \text{ are located at } x = 0 \text{ and } x = L \text{ respectively. The location of a point on the } x\text{-axis at which the net electric field due to these two point charges is zero is:}$
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$8L$, $4L$...
3
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16423
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{The number of field lines drawn from a charge is proportional to the magnitude of the charge.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{The electric field at any point is proportional to the magnitude of the source charge.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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16422
$\text{The electrostatic field due to a charged conductor just outside the conductor is:}$
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$\text{zero and parallel to the surface at every point inside the conductor.}$, $\text{zero and is normal to the surface at every point inside the conductor.}$...
4
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16421
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{Work done in moving a charge between any two points in a}$ $\text{uniform electric field is independent of the path followed by}$ $\text{the charge between these points.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{Electrostatic forces are non-conservative.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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16420
$\text{A charged particle } q \text{ of mass } m \text{ is released on the } y\text{-axis at } y = a \text{ in an}$ $\text{electric field } \vec{E} = -4y\hat{j}. \text{ The speed of the particle on reaching the origin will be:}$
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$\sqrt{\frac{2a}{mq}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{a}{mq}}$...
3
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16419
$\text{A charge } q \text{ is placed in a uniform electric field } E. \text{ If it is released, then the kinetic energy of the charge after travelling distance } y \text{ will be:}$
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$qEy$, $2qEy$...
1
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16418
$\text{A thin conducting ring of the radius } R \text{ is given a charge } +Q. \text{ The electric field at the centre } O \text{ of the ring due to the charge on the part } AKB \text{ of the ring is } E. \text{ The electric field at the centre due to the charge on the part } ACDB \text{ of the ring is:}$
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$3E \text{ along } KO$, $E \text{ along } OK$...
2
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16417
$\text{A metallic solid sphere is placed in a uniform electric field. The lines of force, as shown in the figure, follow the path(s):}$
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$1$, $2$...
4
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16416
$\text{Three identical positive point charges, as shown are placed at the vertices of an isosceles right-angled triangle. Which of the numbered vectors coincides in direction with the electric field at the mid-point } M \text{ of the hypotenuse?}$
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1, 2...
2
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16415
$\text{The figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a charged body. If the electric field at } A \text{ and } B \text{ are } E_A \text{ and } E_B \text{ respectively and if the displacement between } A \text{ and } B \text{ is } r, \text{ then:}$
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$E_A > E_B$, $E_A < E_B$...
1
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16414
$\text{Point charges } +4q, -q \text{ and } +4q \text{ are kept on the x-axis at points } x = 0, x = a \text{ and } x = 2a \text{ respectively, then:}$
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$\text{Only } -q \text{ is in stable equilibrium.}$, $\text{None of the charges are in equilibrium.}$...
3
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16413
$\text{Two equal negative charges of charge } -q \text{ are fixed at the points } (0, a) \text{ and } (0, -a) \text{ on the } Y\text{-axis.}$ $\text{A positive charge } Q \text{ is released from rest at the point } (2a, 0) \text{ on the } X\text{-axis.}$ $\text{The charge } Q \text{ will:}$
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$\text{execute simple harmonic motion about the origin.}$, $\text{move to the origin and remain at rest.}$...
4
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16412
$\text{The ratio of Coulomb's electrostatic force to the gravitational force between an}$ $\text{electron and a proton separated by some distance is } 2.4 \times 10^{39}. \text{ The ratio of}$ $\text{the proportionality constant, } k = \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \text{ to the gravitational constant } G \text{ is}$ $\text{nearly:}$ $\text{(Given that the charge of the proton and electron each } = 1.6 \times 10^{-19}, \text{ the}$ $\text{mass of the electron } = 9.11 \times 10^{-31} \text{ kg, the mass of the proton } = 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \text{ kg):}$
1
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$10^{20}$, $10^{30}$...
1
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16411
$\text{An electron is moving around the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius } r. \text{ The Coulomb force } \vec{F} \text{ on the electron is: (Where } K = \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0})$
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$-K \frac{e^2}{r^3} \hat{r}$, $K \frac{e^2}{r^3} \vec{r}$...
3
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16410
$\text{When 2 point charges } +q \text{ and } +3q, \text{ held at a distance } r \text{ from each other are released, they have an acceleration of } a \text{ and } 2a \text{ respectively.}$ $\text{When we distribute the total charge equally between them, keep them at the same distance as the original and release them, their accelerations now would be:}$
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$2a \text{ and } 4a$, $\frac{4a}{3} \text{ and } \frac{8a}{3}$...
2
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16409
$\text{If a soap bubble is given some charge, then its radius:}$
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$\text{increases.}$, $\text{decreases.}$...
1
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16408
$\text{Two spherical conductors } B \text{ and } C \text{ having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel each other with a force } F \text{ when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having same radius as that of } B \text{ but uncharged is brought in contact with } B, \text{ then brought in contact with } C \text{ and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between } B \text{ and } C \text{ is:}$
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$\frac{F}{4}$, $\frac{3F}{4}$...
4
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16407
$\text{Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square } ABCD, \text{ as shown in the adjoining figure. The force on the positive charge } Q \text{ kept at the centre } O \text{ is:}$
1
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$\text{Zero}$, $\text{Along the diagonal } AC$...
3
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16406
$\text{Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is } -e, \text{ the other is } (e + \Delta e).$ $\text{If the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance } d \text{ (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero, then } \Delta e \text{ is of the order of?}$ $\text{(Given the mass of hydrogen } m_h = 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \text{ kg)}$
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$10^{-23} \text{ C}$, $10^{-37} \text{ C}$...
2
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16405
$\text{An infinite number of charges, each of charge } 1 \, \mu\text{C}, \text{ are placed on the } x\text{-axis}$ $\text{with co-ordinates } x = 1, 2, 4, 8, \ldots \infty. \text{ If a charge of } 1 \, \text{C is kept at the}$ $\text{origin, then what is the net force acting on } 1 \, \text{C charge?}$
1
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$9000 \, \text{N}$, $12000 \, \text{N}$...
2
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16404
$\text{Three charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side } a \text{ as shown in the following figure. The force experienced by the charge placed at the vertex } A \text{ in a direction normal to } BC \text{ is:}$
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$\frac{Q^2}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 a^2}$, $-\frac{Q^2}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 a^2}$...
3
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16403
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ \text{If electrons in an atom were stationary, then they would fall into the nucleus.} $\text{Reason (R):}$ \text{Electrostatic force of attraction acts between negatively charged electrons and positive nucleus.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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16402
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ carrying charge } -q_1 \text{ is moving around a charge } +q_2$ $\text{along a circular path of radius } r. \text{ The period of revolution of the charge } -q_1 \text{ is:}$
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$\sqrt{\frac{16\pi^3 \varepsilon_0 m r^3}{q_1 q_2}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{8\pi^3 \varepsilon_0 m r^3}{q_1 q_2}}$...
1
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16401
$\text{The force between two charges } 0.06 \text{ m apart is } 5 \text{ N. If each charge is moved}$ $\text{towards the other by } 0.01 \text{ m, then the force between them will become:}$
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$7.20 \text{ N}$, $11.25 \text{ N}$...
2
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16400
$\text{Two charged particles } P \text{ and } Q \text{ are } 0.10 \text{ m apart. The charge on } P \text{ is } 1.50 \times 10^{-7} \text{ C and the charge on } Q \text{ is } 1.50 \times 10^{-7} \text{ C.}$ $\text{Particle } P \text{ experiences an electrostatic force of magnitude } F \text{ because it is near to the charge on particle } Q.$ $\text{The distance between the two particles is increased to } 0.20 \text{ m.}$ $\text{The charge on } P \text{ increases to } 4.50 \times 10^{-7} \text{ C and the charge on } Q \text{ increases to } 6.00 \times 10^{-7} \text{ C.}$ $\text{What is the magnitude of the force that particle } P \text{ experiences now?}$
1
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$\frac{F}{4}$, $12F$...
4
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16399
$\text{Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square } ABCD \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The force on a positive charge kept at the center of the square is:}$
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$\text{zero}$, $\text{along diagonal } AC$...
4
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16398
$\text{Two small spheres each having the charge } +Q \text{ are suspended by insulating threads of length } L \text{ from a hook. If this arrangement is taken in space where there is no gravitational effect, then the angle between the two suspensions and the tension in each will be:}$
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$180^\circ, \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \frac{Q^2}{(2L)^2}$, $90^\circ, \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \frac{Q^2}{(L)^2}$...
1
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16397
$\text{The unit of permittivity of free space } \varepsilon_0 \text{ is:}$
1
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$\text{Newton metre}^2 / \text{Coulomb}^2$, $\text{Coulomb}^2 / \text{Newton metre}^2$...
2
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16396
$\text{Two point charges } A \text{ and } B, \text{ having charges } +Q \text{ and } -Q \text{ respectively, are placed at a certain distance apart and the force acting between them is } F. \text{ If } 25\% \text{ charge of } A \text{ is transferred to } B, \text{ then the force between the charges becomes:}$
1
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$\frac{4F}{3}$, $F$...
3
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16395
$\text{The acceleration of an electron due to the mutual attraction between the electron and a proton when they are } 1.6 \, \text{\AA} \text{ apart is:}$ $\left( \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \right) = 9 \times 10^9 \, \text{Nm}^2\text{C}^{-2}$
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$10^{24} \, \text{m/s}^2$, $10^{23} \, \text{m/s}^2$...
3
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16394
$\text{Two positive ions, each carrying a charge } q, \text{ are separated by a distance } d. \text{ If } F \text{ is the force of repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be:}$ $\text{(} e \text{ is the charge on an electron)}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{4\pi \varepsilon_0 Fd^2}{e^2}$, $\sqrt{\frac{4\pi \varepsilon_0 Fe^2}{d^2}}$...
3
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16393
$\text{Two charges } 2 \, \mu\text{C and } 8 \, \mu\text{C are separated by } 6 \, \text{cm. The neutral point is at:}$
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$4 \, \text{cm from } 2 \, \mu\text{C.}$, $2 \, \text{cm from } 2 \, \mu\text{C.}$...
2
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16392
$\text{Two charges } +2 \text{ C and } +6 \text{ C are repelling each other with a force of } 12 \text{ N.}$ $\text{If each charge is given } -2 \text{ C of charge, then the value of the force will be:}$
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$4 \text{ N (attractive)}$, $4 \text{ N (repulsive)}$...
4
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16391
$\text{A total charge } Q \text{ is broken in two parts } Q_1 \text{ and } Q_2 \text{ and they are placed at a distance } R \text{ from each other. The maximum force of repulsion between them will occur, when:}$
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$Q_2 = \frac{Q}{R}, Q_1 = Q - \frac{Q}{R}$, $Q_2 = \frac{Q}{4}, Q_1 = Q - \frac{2Q}{3}$...
4
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16390
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{When charges are shared between any two bodies, no charge is really lost but some loss of energy does occur.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{Some energy disappears in the form of heat, sparking, etc.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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16389
$10^9$ $\text{electrons move out of a body to another body every second, how much time approximately is required to get a total charge of } 1 \text{ C on the other body?}$
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$200 \text{ years}$, $100 \text{ years}$...
1
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16388
$\text{A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative charge of } 3 \times 10^{-7} \text{ C. Transfer of mass from wool to polythene is:}$
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$0.7 \times 10^{-18} \text{ kg}$, $1.7 \times 10^{-17} \text{ kg}$...
4
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16387
$\text{The charge on 500 cc of water due to protons will be:}$
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$6.0 \times 10^{27} \text{ C}$, $2.67 \times 10^{7} \text{ C}$...
2
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16386
$\text{When } 10^{19} \text{ electrons are removed from a neutral metal plate, the electric charge on it is?}$
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$-1.6 \text{ C}$, $+1.6 \text{ C}$...
2
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16385
What is true regarding A, B and C in the given diagrammatic representation of rDNA technology?
6
615
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I and II only, I and III only...
4
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16384
Following enzymes/techniques are used in the process of recombinant DNA technology a. EcoRI to cut the isolated genome b. DNA ligase c. Protease and ribonuclease for removal of proteins and RNA from DNA d. Production of recombinant hosts e. Lysozyme for isolation of the genetic material (DNA) f. Gel electrophoresis for separation and isolation of DNA fragments Mark the correct sequence of their use
6
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c, e, b, f, a, d, e, c, a, b, f, d...
3
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16383
Given below are the three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism a. Introduction of the identified DNA into the host. b. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny. c. Identification of DNA with desirable genes. Choose the option with respect to correct sequence of the given steps
6
615
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a → c → b, c → b → a...
3
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16382
Consider the following statements: I: Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA whereas, endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within DNA. II: To visualize pure DNA fragments, it is stained with ethidium bromide and seen in UV light. III: Plasmids and phage DNA are used as vectors in genetic engineering as they are extrachromosomal DNA molecules. Which of the above statements are true?
6
615
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I and II only, I and III only...
4
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16381
The introduction of genes into plant cells often makes use of
6
615
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Disarmed Agrobacterium vectors, disarmed retroviral vectors...
3
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16380
The technique not used for transformation of plant cells in recombinant procedures is:
6
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Biolistics, Agrobacterium mediation...
4
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16379
Arrange the following steps in order: 1) Restriction Digestion 2) Running Agarose gel 3) Elution of bands 4) Purification of DNA 5) ligation 6) transformation 7) Cloning
6
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1-2-3-4-5-6-7, 1-5-6-7-2-3-4...
1
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16378
Which of the following is not a direct method of gene transfer?
6
615
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Microinjection, Biolistic...
4
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16377
The plasmid pBR322 does not contain:
6
615
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An origin of replication site, A gene that encodes for restrictor of plasmid copy number...
3
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16376
In 1960's two enzymes were discovered in bacteria that were responsible for providing immunity against bacteriophages. One was Restriction Endonuclease and the other was
6
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Methylase, Exonuclease...
1
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16375
If Pvu I restriction endonuclease is used for cleaving pBR322 cloning vector for inserting foreign DNA, which of the following can be expected in recombinants?
6
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They remain resistant to tetracycline but not to ampicillin, They would die in tetracycline containing medium but remain alive in ampicillin containing medium...
1
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16374
Which of the following does not have the ability to replicate within bacterial cells independent of the control of chromosomal DNA?
6
615
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Plastid, Bacteriophages...
1
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16373
Microinjection is suitable for:
6
615
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Injecting an ovum into the sperm in IVF, Transforming animal cells...
2
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16372
Which of the following statement is not true:
6
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Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium, Normally, the genes encoding resistance to antibiotics are considered useful selectable markers for E.coli...
4
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16371
The names associated with construction of first Recombinant DNA are
6
615
Recommended Questions
Arber, Nathans, Smith, Annie Chang, Boyer, Berg, Cohen...
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16370
Identify a character that is not desirable in a cloning vector:
6
615
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an inactive promoter, an origin of replication site...
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16369
When we ligate a foreign DNA at the sal I site of tetracycline resistance gene in a vector pBR 322, the ___a___ plasmid will lose tetracycline resistance due to insertion of foreign DNA but can still be selected out from ___b___ ones by plating the ___c___ on ampicillin containing medium
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Recommended Questions
Non-recombinant, Recombinant, Transformant, Recombinant, Non-recombinant, Transformant...
2
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16368
Which statement regarding restriction endonucleases is NOT correct?
6
615
Recommended Questions
They recognize a specific base sequence in the DNA., They are produced by bacterial cells as a primitive immune system....
3
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Edit
Delete
16367
What is the source of EcoRI?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Escherichia coli R 1, Escherichia coli R I 13...
3
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Delete
16366
Which of the following is a cloning vector?
6
615
Recommended Questions
DNA of Salmonella typhimurium, Ti plasmid...
2
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16365
If the gene of interest is cloned at EcoRI in pBR322, the recombinant E-coli after transformation are
6
615
Recommended Questions
Susceptible to ampicillin and tetracycline., Sensitive to tetracycline....
4
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16364
Mark the correct statement for pBR322 as a plasmid vector I. Contains relaxed origin of replication. II. Two genes coding for resistance to antibiotics have been introduced. III. There are single recognition sites for a number of restriction enzymes at various points. IV. Insertional inactivation is a useful selection method for identifying recombinant vectors with insert.
6
615
Recommended Questions
I, II, III & IV, I, II only...
1
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Edit
Delete
16363
The restriction endonuclease breaks bonds between:
6
615
Recommended Questions
DNA-RNA hybrid, Introns...
3
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Edit
Delete
16362
Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Baculovirus, Salmonella typhimurium...
4
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16361
For the multiplication of any alien piece of DNA in an organism:
6
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Recommended Questions
It must be devoid of any introns in it, It must be a part of a chromosome with an ori...
2
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Delete
16360
Consider the following statements: I: Ori is responsible for the copy number of the linked DNA. II: Transformation is a process through which a piece of DNA is introduced into a host bacterium. III: Bacteriophages have very high copy numbers of their genome within the bacterial cell. Which of the above statements are true?
6
615
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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16359
Which of the following is not a characteristic of pBR322 vector?
6
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Recommended Questions
It is the first artificial cloning vector constructed in 1977 by Boliver and Rodriguez., It is the most widely used, versatile and easily manipulated vector....
4
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16358
Plasmids are good vectors for genetic engineering because
6
615
Recommended Questions
They self replicate within bacterial cells, Replicate freely outside bacterial cells...
1
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16357
Biolistic (gene gun) is suitable for
6
615
Recommended Questions
disarming pathogen vectors, transformation of plant cell...
2
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Edit
Delete
16356
The following palindrome is recognized by the restriction enzyme: GAATTC CTTAAG
6
615
Recommended Questions
BamHI, EcoRI...
2
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Delete
16355
How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?
6
615
Recommended Questions
By adding methyl groups to adenine and cytosines., By reinforcing bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds....
1
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Delete
16354
Similarity between microinjection and biolistic gene gun method is
6
615
Recommended Questions
Used to transform the plant host cells., Used to transform the animal host cells....
3
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16353
Which of the following DNA sequences qualifies to be designated as a palindrome?
6
615
Recommended Questions
5 - GACCAG - 3 in one strand, 3 - GACCAG - 5 in one strand...
4
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Delete
16352
The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called:
6
615
Recommended Questions
Transformer, Vector...
2
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Delete
16351
Plasmid vector in DNA recombinant technology means
6
615
Recommended Questions
a virus that transfers gene to bacteria, extra-chromosomal autonomously replicating circular DNA...
2
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16350
The first type II restriction endonuclease whose functioning depended on a specific DNA nucleotide sequence was:
6
615
Recommended Questions
EcoRI, HindII...
2
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Edit
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16349
Which of the following restriction sites is located within the gene for tetracycline resistance in the plasmid pBR322?
6
615
Recommended Questions
BamHI, PstI...
1
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Delete
16348
A tumor inducing plasmid widely used in the production of transgenic plants is that of
6
615
Recommended Questions
Escherichia coli, Bacillus thuringiensis...
4
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Edit
Delete
16347
A gene has been inserted into a vector for the purpose of cloning the sequence only. This vector is called
6
615
Recommended Questions
Suppression vector, Expression vector...
3
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16346
There is a restriction endonuclease called Eco RI. What does 'co' part in it stand for?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Coelom, Coenzyme...
3
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Delete
16345
To be useful in genetic engineering a vector must have
6
615
Recommended Questions
An origin for replication, Low copy number...
1
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16344
Which of the following is not a method of introducing alien DNA into host cells?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Microinjection, Heat shock method...
4
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16343
Match the following enzymes with their functions: Column-I: (a) Restriction endonuclease, (b) Exonuclease, (c) DNA ligase, (d) Tag polymerase. Column-II: (i) joins the DNA fragments, (ii) extends primers on genomic DNA template, (iii) cuts DNA at a specific position, (iv) removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA.
6
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Recommended Questions
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii), (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)...
2
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16342
Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA?
6
615
Recommended Questions
5' - GAATTC - 3' 3' - CTTAAG - 5', 5' - CCAATG - 3' 3' - GAATCC - 5'...
1
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16341
Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Trichoderma harzianum, Meloidogyne incognita...
3
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16340
Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?
6
615
Recommended Questions
5'—CGTTCG—3' 3'—ATGGTA—5', 5'—GATATG—3' 3'—CTACTA—5'...
3
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16339
The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of
6
615
Recommended Questions
restriction enzymes, probes...
1
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Edit
Delete
16338
Which of these are most widely used in genetic engineering?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Plastid, Plasmid...
2
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Edit
Delete
16337
_____ is a thermophilic bacterium that can survive temperatures up to 95°C. Select the option which fills the blank correctly.
6
615
Recommended Questions
Thermus aquaticus, Salmonella typhi...
1
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Edit
Delete
16336
For transformation, microparticles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of
6
615
Recommended Questions
silver or platinum, platinum or zinc...
4
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16335
Given below is a sample of portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What is so, special shown in it? 5'__GAATTC_₃' 3'__CTTAAG_₅'
6
615
Recommended Questions
Deletion mutation, Start codon at the 5' end...
3
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16334
Biolistic method makes use of microparticles coated with DNA bombarded at cells to be transformed. These particles are made up of
6
615
Recommended Questions
Zinc or tungsten, Silicon or gold...
3
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Edit
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16333
Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering are
6
615
Recommended Questions
Diplococcus and Streptomyces, Rhizobium and Xanthomonas...
4
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Delete
16332
The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of
6
615
Recommended Questions
Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase, Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria...
3
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16331
A cloning vector has two antibiotic resistance genes- for tetracycline and ampicillin. A foreign DNA was inserted into the tetracycline gene. Non-recombinants would survive on the medium containing:
6
615
Recommended Questions
ampicillin but not tetracycline, tetracycline but not ampicillin...
3
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Delete
16330
Why is a marker gene useful?
6
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Recommended Questions
It shows you whether the gene being added, has been taken up or not., It's a way of labelling which gene you want to modify....
1
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Delete
16329
In the screening process during rDNA experiments, clones that metabolize beta-gal turn:
6
615
Recommended Questions
Colorless, Blue...
2
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Edit
Delete
16328
Insertional inactivation of the lac Z gene forms-
6
615
Recommended Questions
Blue recombinant colonies, Colourless recombinant colonies...
2
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Delete
16327
Which of the following would you choose as the safest and least cumbersome selectable marker?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Ampicillin resistance gene, Tetracyclin resistance gene...
4
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16326
Insertional inactivation of a gene helps in
6
615
Recommended Questions
Identification of recombinant clones, Identification of deletion mutants...
3
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16325
In genetic engineering, the antibiotic-resistance gene is used:
6
615
Recommended Questions
To select healthy vectors, As sequences from where replication starts...
4
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Delete
16324
How are transformants selected from nontransformants?
6
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Recommended Questions
Presence of more than one recognition site in the vector DNA., Presence of alien DNA into the vector DNA results into insertional inactivation of selectable marker....
4
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Delete
16323
A selectable marker is used to:
6
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Recommended Questions
help in eliminating the non-transformants so that the transformants can be regenerated., identify the gene for the desired trait in an alien organism....
1
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Delete
16322
Bacterial colonies that have a foreign DNA fragment inserted into the plasmid will appear white because-
6
615
Recommended Questions
X-gal can be cleaved by beta-galactosidase, Lac-Z gene shows insertional inactivation due to insertion of foreign DNA...
2
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Delete
16321
A gene, whose expression helps to identify transformed cells is known as
6
615
Recommended Questions
selectable marker, vector...
1
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Edit
Delete
16320
The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR 322 are for:
6
615
Recommended Questions
Ampicillin and Tetracycline, Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol...
1
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Delete
16319
The primers designed according to (Answer according to very basic PCR)
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615
Recommended Questions
Terminal ends of vector, Terminal ends of gene of interest...
2
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Edit
Delete
16318
For the synthesis of 4 copies of DNA, how many sets of primers are needed in PCR
6
615
Recommended Questions
2 sets, 8 sets...
1
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Delete
16317
The Agitation system of bioreactor has
6
615
Recommended Questions
Flat bladed impeller, Sharp impellers...
1
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Delete
16316
The synthesis of DNA in PCR will be in
6
615
Recommended Questions
5'-3', 3'-5'...
1
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Edit
Delete
16315
What is true about the steps of PCR shown in the diagram given below?
6
615
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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Edit
Delete
16314
Increased surface area for oxygen transfer is a feature found specifically in
6
615
Recommended Questions
Simple stirred tank bioreactor, Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor...
2
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Edit
Delete
16313
Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
6
615
Recommended Questions
It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells, It serves as a selectable marker...
4
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Edit
Delete
16312
Continuous culture leads to
6
615
Recommended Questions
Smaller biomass, Higher yields of desired proteins...
2
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16311
The bioreactor shown in the diagram is:
6
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Recommended Questions
Sparged stirred tank type, Airlift type...
3
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16310
Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Separation, Purification...
4
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Delete
16309
Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for:
6
615
Recommended Questions
purification of product, addition of preservatives to the product...
3
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Delete
16308
During gel electrophoresis for separation of DNA fragment:
6
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Recommended Questions
Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards cathode, Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards anode...
2
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Edit
Delete
16307
Separation and purification by filtration, centrifugation of desired compound produced in bioreactor is a part of
6
615
Recommended Questions
Downstream processing only, Scaling up and downstream processing...
1
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Edit
Delete
16306
Taq polymerase is used in the polymerase chain reaction because:
6
615
Recommended Questions
It replicates DNA faster than other enzymes, It is the only enzyme that can replicate DNA invitro...
4
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Edit
Delete
16305
Which of the following equipment is essentially required for growing microbes on a large scale for the industrial production of enzymes?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Bioreactor, BOD incubator...
1
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Edit
Delete
16304
What is true about the DNA polymerase used in PCR?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Isolated from a virus, Stable at high temperatures...
2
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Edit
Delete
16303
The product has to be subjected through a series of processes before it is ready for marketing as a finished product called down stream processing. It includes
6
615
Recommended Questions
Separation, Purification...
4
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Edit
Delete
16302
The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called
6
615
Recommended Questions
upstream processing, downstream processing...
2
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Edit
Delete
16301
The source of taq polymerase used in PCR is a
6
615
Recommended Questions
thermophilic fungus, mesophilic fungus...
3
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Delete
16300
If you transform a cell with an alien piece of DNA only, what is the possibility?
6
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Recommended Questions
This alien piece becomes a part of the host genome., It doesn't become a part of the host's genome but keeps on replicating....
1
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Delete
16299
Cohen and Boyer are known for which of the following discoveries?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Antibiotic resistance gene, Recombinant DNA...
2
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Delete
16298
What limitation of traditional hybridization used for plant and animal breeding has been overcome by the use of rDNA techniques?
6
615
Recommended Questions
High cost, Insertion of undesirable genes...
2
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Edit
Delete
16297
Introduction of foreign genes for improving genotype is
6
615
Recommended Questions
biotechnology, vernalization...
4
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Edit
Delete
16296
Modern biotechnology consist:-
6
615
Recommended Questions
Microbiology, Tissue culture...
4
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Delete
16295
The definition of biotechnology given by EFB encompasses
6
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Recommended Questions
Traditional view, Modern molecular biotechnology...
3
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16294
Select the two core techniques that enabled the birth of modern biotechnology:
6
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Recommended Questions
Genetic engineering and bioprocess engineering, Genetic engineering and biolistics...
1
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Delete
16293
Which of the following step is first one in order to separate DNA fragments?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Running of gel, Staining of gel...
4
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Edit
Delete
16292
Which of the following enzyme is involved in the isolation of genetic material like DNA from a plant cell? I. Cellulase II. Lysozyme III. Ribonuclease IV. Protease
6
615
Recommended Questions
I, II, III and IV, I and II only...
4
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Edit
Delete
16291
DNA from Agrobacterium tumefaciens can be extracted through use of enzyme
6
615
Recommended Questions
Chitinase, Cellulase...
3
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Edit
Delete
16290
When isolating the pure DNA from a bacterial cell, the cell should not be treated with:
6
615
Recommended Questions
lysozyme, proteases...
4
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Edit
Delete
16289
Elution is:
6
615
Recommended Questions
Separating the restricted DNA fragments on agarose gel., Staining the separate DNA fragments with ethidium bromide...
3
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Edit
Delete
16288
The process of competent cell formation include
6
615
Recommended Questions
CaCl2 treatment- ice incubation with r-DNA, heat shock at 42 degree Celsius, ice incubation, Ice incubation - CaCl2 treatment - Heat shock-Ice incubation with r-DNA...
1
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Delete
16287
A host cell normally does not take up a foreign DNA until it has been made competent to do so. This is because:
6
615
Recommended Questions
DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, DNA is a very large molecule...
1
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Delete
16286
Consider the following statements: I: Biolistics or gene gun can be used to introduce genes in both plant and animal cells. II: Agrobacterium tumefaciens does not naturally infect Monocots. III: Liposomes are used in gene therapy for cystic fibrosis. Which of the above statements are true?
6
615
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
3
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Edit
Delete
16285
What does cloning mean?
6
615
Recommended Questions
The ability to multiply the desired gene in the host, The ability to multiply the vector in the host...
1
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Edit
Delete
16284
Which of the following step is last for isolating the desired DNA fragment?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Running of gel, Elution...
2
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Edit
Delete
16283
In order to make the host cell competent, divalent cations such as calcium are used-
6
615
Recommended Questions
The divalent ions have to be in a specific concentration, They cause the DNA uptake by the cell...
4
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Edit
Delete
16282
Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Bacteria — Lysozyme, Plant cells — Cellulase...
3
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Edit
Delete
16281
E. coli is a commonly used host for gene cloning because
6
615
Recommended Questions
It is free from elements that interfere with replication and recombination of DNA, It is easy to transform...
4
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Edit
Delete
16280
Restriction enzymes are synthesized by:
6
615
Recommended Questions
Bacteria only, Yeast and bacteria only...
1
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Edit
Delete
16279
Read the following statements Statement-A: Restriction enzymes are obtained only from eukaryotes. Statement-B: The first discovered restriction endonuclease was EcoRI. Choose the correct option.
6
615
Recommended Questions
Both statements are correct, Both statements are incorrect...
2
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Edit
Delete
16278
Today we know more than........ restriction enzymes that have been isolated from over........strains
6
615
Recommended Questions
700; 350, 900; 230...
2
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Edit
Delete
16277
If a foreign gene is inserted into pBR322 by using restriction enzyme BamHI, the selection process, for identifying recombinants requires plating on all except
6
615
Recommended Questions
Ampicillin rich medium, Tetracycline rich medium...
3
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Edit
Delete
16276
When recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme beta-galactosidase. This results in the following except
6
615
Recommended Questions
Insertional inactivation, Recombinant colonies do not produce any color...
4
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Edit
Delete
16275
Selection of recombinants is based on all except one. Find out the exception
6
615
Recommended Questions
Expression and non-expression of genes encoding for tetracycline-resistant compound, Expression and non-expression of genes encoding for insulin-resistant compound...
2
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Edit
Delete
16274
Insertional inactivation is used for
6
615
Recommended Questions
Selection of recombinants, Producing pest resistant crops...
1
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Edit
Delete
16273
Which of the following options is correct about Agrobacterium tumefaciens?
6
615
Recommended Questions
It is a pathogen of angiosperms, It is able to deliver a piece of DNA known as T-DNA to transform bacterial cell and direct the cell to produce chemicals required by the pathogen...
4
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16272
A and B in pBR322, shown in the diagram given below, respectively represent recognition sequences of:
6
615
Recommended Questions
BamH I and Sma I, Hind II and Sma I...
3
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Delete
16271
In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest is transferred to the host cell through a vector. Consider the following four agents (A-D) in this regard and select the correct option about which one or more of these can be used as a vector/vectors: A. a bacterium B. plasmid C. plasmodium D. bacteriophage
6
615
Recommended Questions
(A) only, (A) and (C) only...
3
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Delete
16270
rop segment codes for pBR322?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Resistance protein, Protein for replication...
2
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Delete
16269
Part of a plasmid such as pBR322 responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked alien DNA is
6
615
Recommended Questions
Ori, rop...
1
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Edit
Delete
16268
The vector used to transfer gene to produce pest resistant tobacco plant is
6
615
Recommended Questions
pBR 322, pUC 18...
3
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Edit
Delete
16267
Which of the following are used in gene cloning:
6
615
Recommended Questions
Lomasomes, Mesosomes...
3
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Edit
Delete
16266
Which of the following is/are not indirect method/s of gene transfer?
6
615
Recommended Questions
a & b, b & c...
3
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Edit
Delete
16265
To transform a bacterial cell with recombinant DNA, which of the following is required?
6
615
Recommended Questions
90°C temperature, Divalent calcium ions...
2
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Edit
Delete
16264
Following are vectorless gene transfer except one. Mark the except one
6
615
Recommended Questions
Micro injection, Electroporation...
3
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Edit
Delete
16263
All the following are transformation procedures except
6
615
Recommended Questions
Microinjection, Biolistics...
3
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Delete
16262
Method of gene transfer that involves use of electrical impulses of high field strength to increase permeability of membrane by creating transient pores in it, is
6
615
Recommended Questions
Microinjection, Electroporation...
2
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Edit
Delete
16261
Genetically engineered plants are generated in laboratory by altering their genetic makeup. This is done by adding one or more genes to a plant's genome by
6
615
Recommended Questions
Biolistic method or Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated transformation, DNA injection or heat shock method...
1
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Edit
Delete
16260
During the process of gel electrophoresis, DNA moves towards the _A_ of the electrophoretic chamber as the charge of DNA is _B_. Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly.
6
615
Recommended Questions
Cathode Positive, Cathode Negative...
4
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16259
DNA fragments separated by gel electrophoresis are shown. Mark the correct statement:
6
615
Recommended Questions
Band 3 contains more positively charged DNA molecules than band 1., Band 3 indicates more charge density than bands 1 and 2....
3
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Edit
Delete
16258
In the above diagram showing a typical agarose gel electrophoresis 1. Lane 1 shows undigested DNA fragment 2. Lane 4 shows largest DNA particles towards 'y' 3. The procedure helps to form clones of DNA 4. The procedure takes place as the DNA fragments are double stranded
6
615
Recommended Questions
Lane 1 shows undigested DNA fragment, Lane 4 shows largest DNA particles towards 'y'...
1
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Edit
Delete
16257
Which of the following carries a natural plasmid that can most effectively and exclusively be used in transforming plant cell only?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Meloidogyne incognita, Bacillus thuringiensis...
3
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Edit
Delete
16256
In rDNA technology or genetic engineering elution means:-
6
615
Recommended Questions
Remove the DNA from centrifuge tube after centrifugation, Separation of the recombinant protein from recombinant cell...
4
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Edit
Delete
16255
Gel electrophoresis is used for
6
615
Recommended Questions
cutting of DNA into fragments, separation of DNA fragments according to their size...
2
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Edit
Delete
16254
Select the correct statement.
6
615
Recommended Questions
A restriction exonuclease cuts both strands of foreign DNA as well as vector DNA at specific palindromic sequences, A restriction endonuclease is named on the basis of scientific name and strain of bacteria from which it is isolated...
2
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Edit
Delete
16253
The first recombinant DNA was constructed by linking an antibiotic resistant gene with the native plasmid of
6
615
Recommended Questions
Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhimurium...
2
View
Edit
Delete
16252
If a DNA fragment is cut by EcoRI at a specific recognition site then
6
615
Recommended Questions
Blunt-end cannot be obtained, Sticky-ends cannot be obtained...
1
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Edit
Delete
16251
Following are the steps in the formation of recombinant DNA by action of a restriction endonuclease. Which one of the given option incorrectly identifies the steps, components labelled as A, B, C, and D?
6
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Recommended Questions
A - Exonuclease cuts the DNA between bases G and A only when the sequence GAATTC is present in the DNA, B - Sticky ends are formed....
1
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16250
The enzyme known as molecular scissors in genetic engineering is
6
615
Recommended Questions
DNA ligase, Transferases...
4
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Edit
Delete
16249
Which one is considered as molecular glue in recombinant DNA technology?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Endonuclease, DNA ligase...
2
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Edit
Delete
16248
Downstream processing does not involve
6
615
Recommended Questions
Biosynthesis, Separation...
1
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Edit
Delete
16247
Select the incorrect statement.
6
615
Recommended Questions
Separation of DNA fragments occurs based on their size in agarose gel., Blue-white selection involves insertional inactivation of beta-galactosidase....
4
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Edit
Delete
16246
The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Select the correct identification together with what it represents
6
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Recommended Questions
B - Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands, A - Denaturation at a temperature of about 60°C...
3
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16245
Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to polymerase chain reaction?
6
615
Recommended Questions
Repeated amplification is achieved by the use of thermostable DNA polymerase, Thermostable DNA polymerase is isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus...
3
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Edit
Delete
16244
The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from
6
615
Recommended Questions
Thiobacillus ferroxidans, Bacillus subtilis...
4
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Delete
16243
Given below are four statements pertaining to the separation of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements:
6
615
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(a), (c) and (d), (a), (b) and (c)...
4
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16242
The visualization of the DNA bands on the gel can be done with the help of
6
615
Recommended Questions
UV rays, Ethidium bromide...
4
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16241
In a DNA gel the fragment of 2kb and 3kb will be
6
615
Recommended Questions
2kb nearer to cathode while 3kb nearer to anode, 2kb closer to wells while 3kb towards the opposite ends...
3
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16240
The enzyme that seals 5' PO4 and 3' OH polynucleotide ends while creating a recombinant DNA molecule is
6
615
Recommended Questions
Alkaline phosphatase, DNA ligase...
2
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16239
Consider the following statements: I: Asexual reproduction preserves genetic information while sexual reproduction permits variations. II: Traditional hybridization often leads to the inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with the desired genes. III: rDNA technology allows us to isolate and introduce only one or a set of desirable genes without introducing undesirable genes in the target organism. Which of the above statements are true?
6
615
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I and II only, I and III only...
4
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16238
If any protein-encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, it is termed as
6
615
Recommended Questions
Recombinant protein, Single-cell protein...
1
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16237
DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by
6
615
Recommended Questions
centrifugation, polymerase chain reaction...
3
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16236
What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
6
615
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The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves, The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves...
2
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16235
Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in
6
615
Recommended Questions
tissue culture, PCR...
3
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16234
The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with
6
615
Recommended Questions
bromophenol blue, acetocarmine...
4
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16233
The construction of the first recombinant DNA by linking antibiotic resistance gene with a native plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium was done by
6
615
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Arber and Nathans, Kary Mullis...
3
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16232
Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organisms?
6
615
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Hybridization, Recombinant DNA techniques...
2
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16231
Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
6
614
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Hashish causes altered thought perceptions and hallucinations, Opium stimulates the nervous system and causes hallucinations...
1
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16230
Choose the correct option regarding the drug, its source, and its effect on the body
6
614
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Coke - Erythroxylum coca - CNS depressant, Heroin - Papaver somniferum - Stimulant...
3
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16229
Which of the following drugs has a potent stimulating action of central nervous system?
6
614
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Morphine, Cocaine...
2
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16228
Which of the following drugs acts by interfering with the transport of the neurotransmitter Dopamine?
6
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Morphine, Hashish...
3
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16227
The skeletal structure shown in the given diagram shows the structure of:
6
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Morphine, Diacetyl morphine...
3
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16226
Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use.
6
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(II) Heroin, Cannabis sativa, Depressant and slows down body functions, (II) Cannabinoid, Atropa belladonna, Produces hallucination...
3
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16225
What is incorrect regarding opioids?
6
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Their receptors are in CNS and CVS, They are generally taken by snorting and injection...
1
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16224
Select the incorrect match
6
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Biological response – α-interferon modifiers, Insomnia – Benzodiazepines...
3
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16223
Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plants whose one flowering branch is shown below?
6
614
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Hallucinogen, Depressant...
1
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16222
The receptors for the drug shown below are located in:
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CNS and CVS, CVS and GIT...
3
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16221
Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from:
6
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Papaver somniferum, Atropa belladonna...
3
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16220
Crack or coke interferes predominantly with the transport of
6
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Glycine, Dopamine...
2
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16219
Which of the following is very effective sedative and pain killer?
6
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Cocaine., Heroin....
3
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16218
Which of the following drugs is not obtained from plants:
6
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Cocaine, Ganja...
4
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16217
Select the correct statement from the ones given below:
6
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Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth, Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a painkiller...
2
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16216
Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of
6
614
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opium, alcohol...
2
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16215
Consider the following statements: I: Cancer is essentially a genetic disease caused by multiple mutational events. II: Cancerous cells are rapidly dividing cells that exhibit contact inhibition. III: Metastasis is the most feared complication of any cancer. Which of the above statements are true?
6
614
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I and II only, I and III only...
2
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16214
Choose the odd one with respect to physical carcinogens
6
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Tobacco smoke, Gamma rays...
1
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16213
Cancer is more common in older because:
6
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Their immune systems have degenerated, Secretion of certain hormones is decreased...
4
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16212
Cellular oncogenes can be best explained as
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Mutated gene., Present in normal cells....
2
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16211
Cancer cells show the following feature(s) except
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Metastasis, Apoptosis...
4
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16210
DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation can be brought about by ionizing radiations like:
6
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UV rays, Gamma rays...
2
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16209
Read the following statements about cancer and mark the incorrect ones: (i) Ionising radiations like x-rays and UV rays and non-ionizing radiations like gamma rays cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation. (ii) CT scan uses non-ionizing radiations to accurately detect pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue. (iii) Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are also used for detection of certain cancers. (iv) Some of the chemotherapeutic drugs are specific for certain cancers.
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(i), (ii) and (iii), (i) and (ii)...
2
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16208
A normal gene that codes for proteins that help to regulate cell growth and differentiation and can, due to mutations or increased expression, lead to neoplastic transformation of cells, is called as:
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Oncogene, Proto-oncogene...
2
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16207
Proto-oncogenes are seen in:
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Normal cells, Malignant cells...
1
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16206
Select the correct statement
6
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Recommended Questions
Cells in a malignant tumor do not show contact inhibition, Computed tomography scans use non-ionising radiations to study cancer of internal organs....
1
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16205
Which one of the following statements is correct?
6
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Patients, who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain, Benign tumours show the property of metastasis...
4
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16204
Cancer cells differ from normal cells by the
6
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Recommended Questions
Breakdown of regulatory mechanism, Loss of the property of contact inhibition...
4
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16203
The cells of the malignant tumors exhibit
6
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Metastasis, Contact inhibition...
1
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16202
Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells, whereas the remaining three are?
6
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They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients, They do not remain confined in the area of formation...
4
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16201
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
6
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MALT constitutes about 50% of the lymphoid tissue in human body, The envelope of AIDS virus encloses RNA genome...
3
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16200
A cell: I. Loses the property of contact inhibition II. Shows uncontrolled proliferation III. Invades the neighboring tissues This cell is probably:
6
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Mutated, Cancerous...
2
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16199
Consider the following statements: I: HIV is a retrovirus. II: It infects and destroys the CD4 T-lymphocytes. III: The newer antiretroviral drugs are a cure for HIV infection. Which of the above statements are true?
6
614
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I and II only, I and III only...
1
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16198
Select the correct pair representing the diagnostic test for AIDS and its treatment
6
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ELISA/Anti-retroviral drugs, Widal test/ antibiotics...
1
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16197
Which of the following about AIDS virus is incorrect?
6
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AIDS virus is RNA virus, The major cell infected by HIV is Helper T lymphocyte that bears CD₄ receptor sites...
3
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16196
Study the diagram given and choose the correct statement:
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A: Retrovirus replicates outside the cell, B: Viral DNA is produced by the host's enzyme - reverse transcriptase...
3
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16195
The immune-deficiency becomes marked once the HIV starts destroying
6
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Macrophages, T helper cells...
2
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16194
Mark the incorrect statement with respect to AIDS:
6
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AIDS is not spread by mere touch., Time lag between infection and the appearance of AIDS symptoms is just 5-6 months only....
2
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16193
Opportunistic infections appear in AIDS patients when the HIV has destroyed:
6
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Macrophages, T cytotoxic cells...
3
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16192
Which of the following diseases is related with the statement "Don't die of ignorance"?
6
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Cancer, AIDS...
2
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16191
The early screening test for HIV infection is:
6
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ELISA, Western Blot...
1
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16190
HIV that causes AIDS first starts destroying:
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B-lymphocytes, leucocytes...
4
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16189
At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
6
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When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase., When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages a large number of these....
2
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16188
The letter T, in T-lymphocyte refers to:
6
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thyroid, thalamus...
4
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16187
A certain patient, X, is suspected to be suffering from acquired immune deficiency syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?
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MRI, Ultra Sound...
4
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16186
Complete the analogy by choosing the correct option. Typhoid: Widal test:: HIV: ______
6
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VDRL test, Schick test...
3
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16185
AIDS is caused by HIV, among the following, which one is not a mode of transmission of HIV?
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Transfusion of contaminated blood, Sharing the infected needles...
3
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16184
In the human body, cell-mediated immunity is carried out by
6
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T-lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes...
1
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16183
(i) Thymus (ii) Spleen (iii) Appendix (iv) MALT (v) Bone marrow How many of the above are secondary lymphoid organs except?
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ii, iii, iv only, i, v only...
2
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16182
In the given diagram, A and B respectively represent:
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Recommended Questions
The N and the C terminus of the polypeptide, The C and the N terminus of the polypeptide...
1
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16181
The major histocompatibility complex is a:
6
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Series of complement-enhanced reactions to antigens, Group of antigens, coded by a family of genes, on the surface of body cells...
2
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16180
Mark the correct statement
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Recommended Questions
a & b are correct, c & d are correct...
3
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16179
___A___ and ___B___ provide micro-environments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes. Here A and B is:-
6
614
Recommended Questions
Spleen and thymus gland., Thymus gland and MALT....
3
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16178
In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?
6
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Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes - Cellular barriers, Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injection - Active immunity...
1
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16177
In which of the following organ immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Thymus, Spleen...
1
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16176
Which of the following cannot be included under the secondary lymphoid organ?
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Recommended Questions
Thymus, MALT...
1
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16175
The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by:
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B-lymphocytes, Thrombocytes...
4
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16174
Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ?
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Thymus, Kidney...
4
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16173
A 25 year old female develops a runny nose after exposure to dust due to development of allergy. Which of the following antibodies is most likely to rise first in this condition?
6
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IgG, IgM...
3
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16172
MALT (Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue) constitutes:
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Recommended Questions
25 percent of the lymphoid tissue in the human body, 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue in the human body...
2
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16171
During an allergic reaction, the binding of antigens to IgE antibodies initiates a response, in which chemicals cause the dilation of blood vessels and a host of other physiological changes. Such chemicals are
6
614
Recommended Questions
interferons, hormones...
3
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16170
Mark the correct statement
6
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Recommended Questions
MALT constitutes less than 25 percent of the Lymphoid tissue in the human body, In case of snake bites, the injection which is given to the victim contains preformed antibodies against the snake venom...
2
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16169
Antibodies present in colostrum
6
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IgG, IgA...
2
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16168
MALT constitutes about _____ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body
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50%, 20%...
1
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16167
Which of the following drugs are used in the treatment of allergy and quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy?
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Recommended Questions
A only, A & B...
3
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16166
Which of the following statements is not correct about allergies?
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Recommended Questions
Allergic tendency can be genetically passed on from parent to child, It is characterised by presence of large titre of IgE antibodies...
4
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16165
Asthma may be attributed to:
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Recommended Questions
accumulation of fluid in the lungs, bacterial infection of the lungs...
3
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16164
The cause of autoimmunity can be
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Physical appearance, Genetic reasons...
4
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16163
Consider the following four statements (1-4) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out of these. (1) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immuno-suppressants for a long time (2) The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection (3) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft (4) The acceptance of rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons The two correct statements are
6
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(2) and (3), (3) and (4)...
4
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16162
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to
6
614
Recommended Questions
graft rejection, auto-immune disease...
2
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16161
Read the following statements: (i) The main antibody produced as a result of allergic reaction is IgA. (ii) Modern-day lifestyle has resulted in lowering immunity and more sensitivity to allergens. (iii) Recombinant DNA technology has allowed the production of antigenic polypeptides of pathogens in bacteria or yeasts. (iv) Allergy is suppressed due to the release of histamine and serotonin. (v) The drugs like anti-histamines, adrenaline, and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy. Which of the above statements are incorrect?
6
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(ii), (iii), (v), (i), (iv)...
2
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16160
The class of antibodies involved in the allergic reaction is:
6
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Ig A, Ig D...
3
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16159
Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to:
6
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Recommended Questions
hot and humid environment, eating fruits preserved in tin containers...
3
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16158
Allergies could be because of
6
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Recommended Questions
Protected environment provided in early life, Modern day lifestyle...
4
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16157
Mast cells secrete:
6
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Recommended Questions
hippurin, myoglobin...
3
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16156
Select the correct statement with respect to disease and immunisation:
6
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Recommended Questions
Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation., If due to some reason, B-and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against a pathogen....
2
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16155
Recombinant DNA technology has allowed the production of __A__ of pathogen in bacteria or yeast. Here A is:-
6
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Recommended Questions
Pro-toxin., Anti-bodies....
3
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16154
Vaccines are available for the disease like I. Polio. II. Diptheria. III. Pneumonia. IV. Tetanus.
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I, II, III & IV, I and IV only...
1
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16153
Antitoxin consists of
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Recommended Questions
Antibodies, Toxoid...
1
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16152
Which of the following statements is not true regarding active acquired immunity:-
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Recommended Questions
It is species non specific, It is antigen specific...
1
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16151
Which of the following is used in the production of the recombinant Hepatitis B vaccine?
6
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Yeast, Microsporum...
1
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16150
The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies which provides infant with
6
614
Recommended Questions
Naturally acquired active immunity, Artificially acquired active immunity...
3
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16149
A person is injected with gamma-globulin against Snake venom. This is
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Recommended Questions
Artificially acquired active immunity, Artificially acquired passive immunity...
2
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16148
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?
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Recommended Questions
The antibodies against smallpox pathogens are produced by T-lymphocytes, Antibodies are protein molecules each of which has four light chains...
4
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16147
A person who met with a road accident is likely to develop tetanus, can be immunised by administering
6
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Recommended Questions
Weakened germs, Dead germs...
3
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16146
When a quick immune response is required, we can
6
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Recommended Questions
Directly inject weakened pathogen at time of emergency., Directly inject preformed antigens....
3
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16145
Foetus receive some antibodies from the mother through placenta during pregnancy. This is an example of
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614
Recommended Questions
Naturally acquired active immunity, Artificially acquired passive immunity...
3
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16144
Consider the following statements: I: Innate immunity is a non-specific type of defense that is present at the time of birth. II: Acquired immunity is pathogen-specific and is characterized by memory. III: Memory-based acquired immunity developed in higher vertebrates based on the ability to distinguish self from non-self. Which of the above statements are true?
6
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Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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16143
Cells involved in specific immune mechanism are
6
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Recommended Questions
Erythrocytes, Lymphocytes...
2
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16142
Alpha-interferons can
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Recommended Questions
Supress the immune system, Activate the immune system...
4
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16141
In the structure of an antibody; which terminal has antigen-binding site?
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Recommended Questions
N, C...
1
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16140
The main function of the white blood cell in the human intestine system is to
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Recommended Questions
Combat and destroy antigenic particles, produce antigens to combat antibodies...
1
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16139
IgM is pentamerous and weight of heavy chain is 100000 Da and that of light chain is approximately half of the heavy chain, then find the weight of IgM.
6
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Recommended Questions
More than 1500kDa, 150kDa...
1
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16138
Primary lymphatic organs serve as the site for:
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Recommended Questions
antibody formation, lymph formation...
4
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16137
Cells of immune system that do not provide innate immunity are
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Recommended Questions
T-lymphocytes, Neutrophils...
1
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16136
Antigen binding site in an antibody is found between
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Recommended Questions
two light chains, two heavy chains...
3
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16135
The secretion of antibodies by B lymphocytes provides:
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Recommended Questions
Passive immunity, Humoral immunity...
2
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16134
Maturation of lymphocytes takes place in
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Recommended Questions
thymus, Bone marrow...
4
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16133
Interferon is a glycoprotein which is:
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Antibacterial, Antifungal...
3
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16132
Anamnestic Response is generated by
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First interaction of the pathogen with the body, Second interaction of the pathogen with the body...
2
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16131
The type of immunity responsible for graft rejection by a recipient body is
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Recommended Questions
Innate immunity, Humoral immunity...
3
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16130
Interferons are secreted by:
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Liver, Spleen...
3
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16129
When plants/animals are infected with virus, they may produce an anti-viral substance that is capable of inhibiting the multiplication of that virus. Identify the correct name of this substance.
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Recommended Questions
Virion, Antiviron...
4
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16128
The B lymphocytes produce an army of proteins in response to pathogens into our body to fight with them and T lymphocytes help B lymphocytes to produce that army. And such proteins are known as
6
614
Recommended Questions
Cytokines, Interferons...
3
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16127
As the housefly is related with Entamoeba histolytica, Aedes mosquito is related with
6
614
Recommended Questions
Filariasis, Dengue...
2
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16126
The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same Kingdom of organisms at that of:
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Ascaris, a roundworm, Taenia, a tapeworm...
4
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16125
Not all the infections occurring in the body result in disease because of
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All infections are not strong enough to cause disease, Body fights and is able to defend from few foreign agents...
3
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16124
Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts, helps in trapping microbes entering our body. This is included in which of the following barriers?
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Physical barriers, Physiological barriers...
1
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16123
Which cells are the first to phagocytize foreign particles in the tissues such as bacteria in a wound?
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Recommended Questions
fibroblasts, white blood cells...
3
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16122
Fill in the blanks in the different columns of the table given below Disease Common cold B Pneumonia Filariasis Causal organism and Part it inputs A Trichophyton Skin, nails and scalp C Wuchereria Lymphatic vessels Medium of transfer Droplets from sneezing of infected persons Using towels of infected individuals Droplets/aerosols Released by an infected person, sharing utensils D In which one of the following options all the blanks A, B, C and D are correctly filled.
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A- Rhinovirus. Nose and respiratory passage not lungs B - Ringworm C - Haemophilus influenzae. Alveoli of lungs D - Contaminated food and water, A- Coryza virus. Alveoli of lungs B - Ringworm C - Streptococcus pneumoniae. Nose and respiratory passage D - Culex mosquito...
4
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16121
Which of the following Fungi is not capable of causing ringworm infection in a man?
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Recommended Questions
Microsporum, Trichophyton...
4
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16120
Refer to the given figure and choose the organism not related to the condition shown here.
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Microsporum, Trichophyton...
3
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16119
Ringworms are characterized by
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Dry leisons on skin, nails, and scalp, Dry and scaly leisons on skin and nails...
4
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16118
Odd one out?
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PMNL - neutrophils, Monocytes...
4
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16117
Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called interferon which protect non-infected cells from further viral infection. This comes under
6
614
Recommended Questions
Physical barrier, Physiological barrier...
4
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16116
Ringworm in humans can be caused by infection with all the following except:
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Microsporum, Taenia...
2
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16115
Ringworms occur due to
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Recommended Questions
Fungal infections which are supported by dryness or cold ambiance, Fungal infections which are supported by heat and moisture...
2
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16114
Which of the following statements is correct? A. Common cold - Droplet Infection. B. Typhoid - Contaminated food & water. C. AIDS - Shaking hands. D. Ringworm - Using infected towels.
6
614
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A and B, C and D...
4
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16113
Acid in stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes, all prevent microbial growth belong to which of the following barriers?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Physical barrier, Physiological barrier...
2
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16112
Select the correct match:
6
614
Recommended Questions
Dengue, chikungunya, filariasis - Vector borne disease, Acid, saliva, mucus in GIT - Physiological barriers...
1
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16111
Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of the intestinal passage are the common symptoms of
6
614
Recommended Questions
Amoebiasis, Elephantiasis...
3
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16110
Ingestion of food and water contaminated with infective eggs is the primary route of infection for
6
614
Recommended Questions
Taenia solium, Wuchereria bancrofti...
4
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16109
The pathogens responsible for causing elephantiasis are transmitted to a healthy person through:
6
614
Recommended Questions
Droplet, Female mosquito vector...
2
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16108
Given below are pairs of pathogens, diseases caused by them and their classification. Which of these is incorrectly matched?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Pneumonia - Haemophilus influenzae - Bacteria, Typhoid - Salmonella - Bacteria...
3
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16107
Which of the following is a pathogenic helminth?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Ascaris, Microsporum...
1
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16106
Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by:
6
614
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Eating imperfectly cooked pork., Tse - tse fly....
4
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16105
The slowly developing chronic inflammation of the organs in which they live for many years. Here they refer to
6
614
Recommended Questions
Filarial worms, Roundworms...
1
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16104
Adults of Wuchereria bancrofti attacks
6
614
Recommended Questions
exeretory system, nervous system...
4
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16103
The genital organs are affected resulting in gross deformities. This symptom is associated with
6
614
Recommended Questions
AIDS, Cancer...
3
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16102
Which of the following cannot be the parasites of intestine?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Tapeworm, Pinworm...
3
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16101
Refer to the given figure depicting a diseased condition in humans and name the worm causing this disease.
6
614
Recommended Questions
Epidermophyton floccosum, Ascaris lumbricoides...
3
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16100
Match the following columns and select the correct option: Column I (i) Typhoid (ii) Malaria (iii) Pneumonia (iv) Filariasis Column II (a) Haemophilus influenzae (b) Wuchereria bancrofti (c) Plasmodium vivax (d) Salmonella typhi
6
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(i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-b, (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-a...
1
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16099
Elephantiasis in man is caused by
6
614
Recommended Questions
Ancylostoma duodenale, Ascaris lumbricoides...
4
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16098
In Filariasis;
6
614
Recommended Questions
The lymphatic vessels of the upper limbs are affected, The blood vessels of the upper limbs are affected...
3
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16097
Amoebiasis or amoebic dysentery is caused by
6
614
Recommended Questions
Entamoeba histolytica, a protozoan parasite in the small intestine, Escherichia coli, a protozoan parasite in the small intestine...
3
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16096
Choose the incorrect match with respect to disease, pathogen and its symptoms
6
614
Recommended Questions
Amoebiasis Entamoeba coli Internal bleeding Blockage of intestinal passage, Filariasis Wuchereria bancrofti Swelling of lymphatic vessels of lower limbs...
1
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16095
Which of the following protozoan disease is spread by housefly transmitting parasite from faeces of infected person to food and food products?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Amoebiasis, Ascariasis...
1
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16094
Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted through
6
614
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Insect bite, Bird droppings...
4
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16093
The following symptoms: constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, stools with excess mucous and blood clots; belong to which category?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Amoebiasis, Malaria...
1
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16092
Consider the following statements: I: Plasmodium falciparum causes malignant tertian malaria. II: Release of hemosiderin from burst RBCs is responsible for paroxysms of malarial attacks. III: Sporozoites are the infectious forms of Plasmodium. Which of the above statements are true?
6
614
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I and II only, I and III only...
2
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16091
Which of following stage of plasmodium is formed in mosquito:
6
614
Recommended Questions
Sporozoite, Gametes...
3
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16090
Take a glance of a part of the life cycle of plasmodium given below as events A, B, C and D along with their description. How many of the above events are correctly described?
6
614
Recommended Questions
One, Two...
3
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16089
Consider the given stages in the life cycle of Plasmodium and choose the correctly matched pair:
6
614
Recommended Questions
A Merozoites infect humans when mosquito bites, B The parasite reproduces sexually in liver cells...
3
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16088
If an infected person is bitten by a female Anopheles mosquito, what will it take up with its blood meal to become another infected mosquito for the spread of disease?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Gametocytes of plasmodium, Sporophyte of plasmodium...
1
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16087
Mark out the incorrect statement regarding infection of Entamoeba histolytica
6
614
Recommended Questions
It is a type of monogenetic parasite, Stools characterised with excess mucous and blood clots...
3
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16086
Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in:
6
614
Recommended Questions
Gut of female Anopheles, Salivary glands of Anopheles...
1
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16085
Which of the following statement is not correct regarding malarial infection?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito, High fever recurring every three to four days...
1
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16084
Which of the following is mismatched with respect to the following events which occur in the life cycle?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Erythrocytic schizogony: The rupture of RBCs is associated with the release of a toxic substance hemozoin, which is responsible for the chill and high fever, Gametocytes: Sexual stages develop in intestine of mosquito...
2
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16083
Select correct sequence about life cycle of Plasmodium:
6
614
Recommended Questions
Sporozoites (human)→RBCs→Liver cells→Gametocytes in blood→Blood meal (female mosquito)→Multiply (female mosquito)→Sporozoites (female mosquito), Sporozoites (human)→Liver cells→RBCs→Gametocytes in blood→Blood meal (female mosquito)→multiply (female mosquito)→Sporozoites (female mosquito)...
2
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16082
In which parts of the body of the host do the following events in the life cycle of Plasmodium take place? For this, match the items given in column I with column II. Column I a. Fertilization b. Development of gametocytes c. Release of sporozoites d. Asexual reproduction Column II i. Liver cells/RBC of hosts human beings ii. Body cavity of mosquito iii. Stomach of mosquito/vector iv. RBC of human beings
6
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a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i), a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)...
3
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16081
A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium, experiences chill and fever at the time when?
6
614
Recommended Questions
The sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen, The trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins...
3
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16080
Sexual reproduction of parasite (plasmodium) occurs in
6
614
Recommended Questions
Liver, RBC...
3
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16079
The sporozoites that cause infection when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a human being are found in
6
614
Recommended Questions
Hepatocytes of human, RBCs of mosquito...
4
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16078
Gambusia is a..... introduced to feed on.....
6
614
Recommended Questions
Mosquito, larvae, Fish, mosquito-larvae...
2
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16077
Release of which of the following is responsible for recurrent malarial symptoms?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Sporozoites, Haemozoin...
2
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16076
Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to malaria?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Malaria is a disease caused by a protozoan, Malignant malaria is caused by Plasmodium falciparum...
3
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16075
In malaria infection the rupture of RBCs is associated with release of a toxic substance called
6
614
Recommended Questions
Hypnotoxin, Haemozoin...
2
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16074
In malaria; the female Anopheles mosquito is
6
614
Recommended Questions
Host, Vector...
3
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16073
Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that:
6
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Recommended Questions
Pneumonia is a communicable disease, whereas common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease, Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine, whereas the common cold has no effective vaccine...
4
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16072
The most infectious human ailment caused by a virus is
6
614
Recommended Questions
Common cold, AIDS...
1
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16071
Which of the following is not an intestinal parasite?
6
614
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Entamoeba histolytica, Ascaris...
4
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16070
The means of spread of which two infectious diseases is common?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Malaria and Filariasis, Pneumonia and the common cold...
2
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16069
Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature, and correctly described?
6
614
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Plasmodium falciparum - a protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria, Felis tigris - The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests....
1
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16068
Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is
6
614
Recommended Questions
caused by a Gram-negative bacterium, not an infectious disease...
3
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16067
The common cold is characterized by nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache tiredness, etc. which usually lasts for 3-7 days. Infection may occur through
6
614
Recommended Questions
Contaminated food and water, Hypodermic needles...
3
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16066
Infection of alveoli of lungs by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae leads to alveoli becoming fluid-filled and leads to severe problems in respiration is an example of
6
614
Recommended Questions
A bacterial disease, A viral disease...
1
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16065
Infection with Hemophilus influenza, especially in children, can cause:
6
614
Recommended Questions
Diptheria, SARS...
3
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16064
Each of the following statements concerning pneumonia are correct, except
6
614
Recommended Questions
It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Hemophilus influenzae, Pneumonia bacteria grow better at 33°C than at 37°C, hence they tend to cause the disease in upper respiratory tract rather than the lower respiratory tract...
2
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16063
Out of the following diseases which are caused due to bacterial infection?
6
614
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a & b only, b & c only...
3
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16062
By inhaling aerosols released by an infected person causes the spread of which disease certainly?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Malaria, Pneumonia...
2
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16061
Salmonella typhi causes:
6
614
Recommended Questions
An acute infection of intestine that causes high fever and weakness, Enlargement of spleen and pain in stomach...
4
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16060
Which of the following pathogens is not transmitted by vector?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Salmonella typhi, Alpha virus...
1
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16059
Typhoid is
6
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Recommended Questions
Caused by a bacterium which infects only the small intestine by means of food and water that is contaminated, Caused by protozoan which infects small intestine by means of contaminated water and food and then migrates to other organs through blood...
3
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16058
A cook, carrier of a disease, and spread the disease for many years by the food she prepared. This information is associated with a classic case on medicine, that of
6
614
Recommended Questions
Mary Melon nicknamed Typhoid Mary, Typhoid Mary nicknamed Mary Mallon...
3
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16057
Intestinal perforation is the ultimate symptom of the extreme stage of which disorder?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Malaria, Filariasis...
3
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16056
Which of the following sets represents diseases communicated through contaminated food and water?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Typhoid and Tuberculosis, Typhoid and Cholera...
2
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16055
Widal test is carried out to test
6
614
Recommended Questions
malaria, diabetes mellitus...
4
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16054
Widal test is carried out to test
6
614
Recommended Questions
malaria, diabetes mellitus...
4
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16053
Select the option that completes the given analogy Pneumonia: Streptococcus pneumoniae:: Typhoid: _______
6
614
Recommended Questions
Plasmodium falciparum, Haemophilus influenzae...
3
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16052
Pathogens are not
6
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Recommended Questions
Most of the parasites, Result in morphological and functional damage...
4
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16051
What is necessary for achieving good health?
6
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Recommended Questions
Vaccination against genetic disorders, Awareness about diseases and control of vectors, Vaccination, awareness about diseases and proper disposal of waste...
2
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16050
Which of the following won't affect health?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Genetic disorders And infections, Mind and mental state with blackbile...
2
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16049
The earlier concept of Health was
6
614
Recommended Questions
A state of body and mind, Where there was a balance of certain humors...
4
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16048
The assertion by Hippocrates about health was
6
614
Recommended Questions
Same as that of Indian Ayurveda system, Different from Indian Ayurveda System...
4
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16047
Select the option where all columns are correctly matched:
6
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Recommended Questions
Malignant malaria - Plasmodium ovale - Cerebral involvement, Typhoid - Salmonella typhi - Confirmed by the VDRL test...
4
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16046
The person with Blackbile were considered to be
6
614
Recommended Questions
Belonged to black pigmentation group, Belonged to hot personality...
3
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16045
Good humour hypothesis of health was disproved by
6
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Recommended Questions
The discovery of blood circulation by William Harvey using experimental methods, Demonstration of normal body temperature in people with blackbile using thermometer...
3
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16044
Yoga does not contribute in which form of health
6
614
Recommended Questions
Physical, Mental...
3
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16043
What is the present concept of health?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Mind influences directly our immune system, Mind influences our immune system by means of neural system...
4
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16042
Which of the following statements is false?
6
614
Recommended Questions
When people are healthy they are more efficient at work., Regular exercise is very important to maintain good health....
3
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16041
What is not that important to maintain good health as other options are?
6
614
Recommended Questions
Balanced Diet, Personal hygiene...
4
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16040
114
1
114
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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16039
$\text{Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies of } (n - 1), n, \text{ and } (n + 1).$ $\text{They superimpose to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be:}$
1
114
Recommended Questions
$1$, $4$...
4
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16038
$\text{Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension } T \text{ have a fundamental frequency of } 600 \text{ Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to the occurrence of } 6 \text{ beats/s when both the wires oscillate together would be:}$
1
114
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$0.02$, $0.03$...
1
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16037
$\text{Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves given by}$ $Y_1 = 4 \sin 500\pi t \text{ and } Y_2 = 2 \sin 506\pi t.$ $\text{The number of beats produced per minute is:}$
1
114
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$3$, $360$...
3
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16036
$\text{Each of the two strings of lengths } 51.6 \text{ cm and } 49.1 \text{ cm is tensioned separately by } 20 \text{ N of force.}$ $\text{The mass per unit length of both strings is the same and equals } 1 \text{ g/m.}$ $\text{When both the strings vibrate simultaneously, the number of beats is:}$
1
114
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$5$, $7$...
2
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16035
$\text{Eleven tuning forks are arranged in increasing order of frequency in such a way that any two consecutive tuning forks produce 4 beats per second. The highest frequency is twice that of the lowest. The highest and the lowest frequencies (in Hz) are, respectively:}$
1
114
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$100 \text{ and } 50$, $44 \text{ and } 22$...
3
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16034
$\text{Two identical wires are stretched by the same tension of } 100 \text{ N and each emits a note of } 200 \text{ Hz.}$ $\text{If tension in one wire is increased by } 1 \text{ N, the number of beats heard per second when the wires are plucked will be:}$
1
114
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$1$, $2$...
2
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16033
$\text{A tuning fork of frequency } 512 \text{ Hz makes } 4 \text{ beats/s with the vibrating strings of a piano.}$ $\text{The beat frequency decreases to } 2 \text{ beats/s when the tension in the piano strings is slightly increased.}$ $\text{The frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was:}$
1
114
Recommended Questions
$510 \text{ Hz}$, $514 \text{ Hz}$...
4
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16032
$\text{Two tuning forks, } A \text{ and } B, \text{ vibrating simultaneously produce } 5 \text{ beats. The frequency of } B \text{ is } 512 \text{ Hz. It is seen that if one arm of } A \text{ is filed a little, then the number of beats increases. The frequency of } A \text{ in Hz will be:}$
1
114
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$502$, $507$...
3
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16031
$\text{Tuning fork } F_1 \text{ has a frequency of } 256 \text{ Hz and it is observed to produce } 6 \text{ beats/second with another tuning fork } F_2. \text{ When } F_2 \text{ is loaded with wax, it still produces } 6 \text{ beats/second with } F_1. \text{ The frequency of } F_2 \text{ before loading was:}$
1
114
Recommended Questions
$253 \text{ Hz}$, $262 \text{ Hz}$...
2
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16030
101
1
114
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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16029
$\text{Two wires, } A \text{ and } B, \text{ of a musical instrument 'Sitar' produce } 3 \text{ beats per second. If the tension of } B \text{ is raised, the number of beats becomes } 1 \text{ beat per second. If the frequency of } A \text{ is } 450 \text{ Hz, then the original frequency of } B \text{ will be:}$ $1. \ 447 \ \text{Hz}$ $2. \ 453 \ \text{Hz}$ $3. \ 449 \ \text{Hz}$ $4. \ 451 \ \text{Hz}$
1
114
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$447 \ \text{Hz}$, $453 \ \text{Hz}$...
1
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16028
$\text{A student tunes his guitar by striking a } 120 \text{ Hz with a tuning fork and playing the } 4^{\text{th}} \text{ string at the same time. By keen observation, he hears the amplitude of the combined sound oscillating thrice per second. Which of the following frequencies is most likely the frequency of the } 4^{\text{th}} \text{ string on his guitar?}$
1
114
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$130$, $117$...
2
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16027
$\text{A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s when sounded with a source of known frequency of } 250 \ \text{Hz.}$ $\text{The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second when sounded with a source of frequency of } 513 \ \text{Hz.}$ $\text{The unknown frequency will be:}$
1
114
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$246 \ \text{Hz}$, $240 \ \text{Hz}$...
4
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16026
$\text{Two sound waves given by the equations } y = A \sin 122\pi t \text{ and } y = A \sin 128\pi t \text{ pass through a point simultaneously. The number of beats per second is:}$
1
114
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$6$, $5$...
4
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16025
$\text{Two organ pipes closed at one end produce } 5 \text{ beats per second in fundamental mode. If the ratio of their lengths is } 10 : 11, \text{ then their frequencies (in Hz) are:}$
1
114
Recommended Questions
$55, 50$, $105, 100$...
1
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16024
$\text{A set of 20 tuning forks is arranged in a series of increasing frequencies. If each fork gives 4 beats with respect to the preceding fork and the frequency of the last fork is twice the frequency of the first, then the frequency of the last fork is:}$ $1.\ 152\ \text{Hz}$ $2.\ 234\ \text{Hz}$ $3.\ 134\ \text{Hz}$ $4.\ 144\ \text{Hz}$
1
114
Recommended Questions
$152\ \text{Hz}$, $234\ \text{Hz}$...
1
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16023
$\text{Two sitar strings, } A \text{ and } B, \text{ playing the note Ga, are slightly out of tune and produce } 6 \text{ Hz beats. The tension in the string } A \text{ is slightly reduced, and the beat frequency is found to be reduced to } 3 \text{ Hz. If the original frequency of } A \text{ is } 324 \text{ Hz, what is the frequency of } B?$
1
114
Recommended Questions
$316 \text{ Hz}$, $318 \text{ Hz}$...
2
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16022
$\text{A source of sound gives 5 beats per second when sounded with another source of frequency 100 per second.}$ $\text{The second harmonic of the source, together with a source of frequency 205 per second, gives 5 beats per second.}$ $\text{What is the frequency of the source?}$
1
114
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$95 \ \text{Hz}$, $100 \ \text{Hz}$...
3
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16021
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): In a stationary wave, there is no transfer of energy.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is independent of the position.}$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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16020
$\text{Two waves are propagating to the point } P \text{ along a straight line produced by two sources, } A \text{ and } B, \text{ of simple harmonic and equal frequency. The amplitude of every wave at } P \text{ is } a \text{ and the phase of } A \text{ is ahead by } \frac{\pi}{3} \text{ than that of } B, \text{ and the distance } AP \text{ is greater than } BP \text{ by } 50 \text{ cm. If the wavelength is } 1 \text{ m, then the resultant amplitude at point } P \text{ will be:}$
1
114
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$2a$, $a\sqrt{3}$...
4
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16019
$\text{A cylindrical tube } (L = 125 \text{ cm}) \text{ is resonant with a tuning fork at a frequency of } 330 \text{ Hz.}$ $\text{If it is filled with water, then to get the resonance again, the minimum length of the water column will be: } (v_{\text{air}} = 330 \text{ m/s})$
1
114
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$50 \text{ cm}$, $60 \text{ cm}$...
1
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16018
$\text{In a stationary wave along a string, the strain is:}$ $1.\ \text{zero at the antinodes}$ $2.\ \text{maximum at the antinodes}$ $3.\ \text{zero at the nodes}$ $4.\ \text{maximum at the nodes}$
1
114
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$\text{zero at the antinodes}$, $\text{maximum at the antinodes}$...
4
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16017
$\text{The equation of a standing wave in a string is}$ $y = (200 \text{ m}) \sin\left(\frac{2\pi}{50} x\right) \cos\left(\frac{2\pi}{0.01} t\right)$ $\text{where } x \text{ is in metres and } t \text{ is in seconds.}$ $\text{At the position of antinode, how many times does the distance of a string particle become 200 m from its mean position in one second?}$
1
114
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$100 \text{ times}$, $50 \text{ times}$...
3
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16016
$\text{If the transverse displacement of a string clamped at both ends is given by } y(x, t) = (12 \text{ cm}) \sin(6.28x) \cos(3.14t), \text{ where } x \text{ is in cm and } t \text{ is in seconds, then which of the following is not true?}$
1
114
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$\text{The velocity of the component wave is } 0.5 \text{ cm/s.}$, $\text{The amplitude of one of the component waves is } 6 \text{ cm.}$...
4
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16015
$\text{A sufficiently long-closed organ pipe has a small hole at its bottom. Initially, the pipe is empty. Water is poured into the pipe at a constant rate. The fundamental frequency of the air column in the pipe:}$
1
114
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$\text{Constantly increases.}$, $\text{Increases at first, then becomes constant.}$...
2
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16014
$\text{If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then which of the following statements is not true:}$
1
114
Recommended Questions
$\text{Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated.}$, $\text{All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated.}$...
3
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16013
$\text{Stationary waves can be obtained in an air column even if interfering waves have different:}$ $1. \text{ Amplitude}$ $2. \text{ Wavelength}$ $3. \text{ Velocity}$ $4. \text{ Frequency}$
1
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$\text{Amplitude}$, $\text{Wavelength}$...
1
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16012
$\text{A vibrating tuning fork of frequency } n \text{ is placed near the open end of a long cylindrical tube.}$ $\text{The tube has a side opening and is also fitted with a movable reflecting piston.}$ $\text{As the piston is moved through } 8.75 \text{ cm, the intensity of sound changes from}$ $\text{a maximum to a minimum. If the speed of sound is } 350 \text{ metre per second,}$ $\text{then } n \text{ is:}$
1
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$500 \text{ Hz}$, $1000 \text{ Hz}$...
2
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16011
$\text{Three waves of equal frequency having amplitudes of } 10 \, \mu m, 4 \, \mu m \text{ and } 7 \, \mu m \text{ arrive at a given point with a successive phase difference of } \frac{\pi}{2}. \text{ The amplitude of the resulting wave (in } \mu m\text{) is given by:}$
1
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$7$, $6$...
3
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16010
$\text{An organ pipe that is closed at one end has a fundamental frequency of } 1500 \text{ Hz. The maximum number of overtones generated by this pipe that a normal person can hear is:}$
1
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$14$, $13$...
3
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16009
$\text{Consecutive frequencies emitted from an organ pipe are } 75 \text{ Hz}, 125 \text{ Hz}, 175 \text{ Hz. The frequency of the tenth overtone will be:}$
1
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$275 \text{ Hz}$, $175 \text{ Hz}$...
3
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16008
$\text{The number of possible natural oscillations of the air column in a pipe closed at one end of a length of } 85 \text{ cm whose frequencies lie below } 1250 \text{ Hz is:}$ $\text{(velocity of sound } 340 \text{ ms}^{-1})$
1
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$4$, $5$...
4
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16007
$\text{The two nearest harmonics of a tube close at one end and open at the other end are } 220 \text{ Hz and } 260 \text{ Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the system?}$
1
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$10 \text{ Hz}$, $20 \text{ Hz}$...
2
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16006
$\text{A pipe closed at one end produces a fundamental note of } 412 \text{ Hz. It is cut into two pieces of equal length. The fundamental nodes produced by the two pieces are:}$ $1.\ 206 \text{ Hz, } 412 \text{ Hz}$ $2.\ 412 \text{ Hz, } 824 \text{ Hz}$ $3.\ 206 \text{ Hz, } 824 \text{ Hz}$ $4.\ 824 \text{ Hz, } 1648 \text{ Hz}$
1
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$206 \text{ Hz, } 412 \text{ Hz}$, $412 \text{ Hz, } 824 \text{ Hz}$...
4
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16005
$\text{Stationary waves are formed on a stretched string. If the wavelength is } \lambda, \text{ then the distance between two points having the maximum displacement can be:}$
1
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$\frac{3\lambda}{2}$, $4\lambda$...
4
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16004
$A \ 1 \ \text{m, long tube open at one end with a movable piston at the other end}$ $\text{shows resonance with a fixed frequency source (a tuning fork of frequency}$ $340 \ \text{Hz}) \ \text{when the minimum tube length is} \ 25.5 \ \text{cm. The speed of sound in air}$ $\text{at the temperature of the experiment is:}$ $(\text{The edge effects may be neglected.})$
1
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$324.16 \ \text{m/s}$, $320 \ \text{m/s}$...
4
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16003
$\text{A 100 cm wire of mass 40 g is fixed at both ends. A tuning fork, vibrating at a frequency of 50 Hz, sets the wire into resonance in its fundamental mode. Then, the tension in the wire is:}$
1
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$400 \text{ N}$, $100 \text{ N}$...
1
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16002
$\text{A cylindrical tube open at both ends has a fundamental frequency } f_0 \text{ in the air.}$ $\text{The tube is dipped vertically in water such that half its length is inside water.}$ $\text{The fundamental frequency of the air column now will be:}$
1
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$\frac{3f_0}{4}$, $f_0$...
2
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16001
$\text{The third overtone of a closed pipe is observed to be in unison with the second overtone of an open pipe. The ratio of the lengths of the pipes is:}$
1
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$\frac{3}{2}$, $\frac{5}{3}$...
4
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16000
$\text{The maximum possible wavelength in an open organ pipe of length } l \text{ is:}$
1
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$l$, $2l$...
2
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15999
$\text{A closed pipe and an open pipe have their first overtones identical in frequency. Their lengths are in the ratio:}$
1
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$1 : 2$, $2 : 3$...
3
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15998
$\text{A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of } 27^\circ \text{C, two successive resonances are produced at } 20 \text{ cm and } 73 \text{ cm column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is } 320 \text{ Hz, the velocity of sound in air at } 27^\circ \text{C is:}$
1
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$330 \text{ m/s}$, $339 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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15997
$\text{A tuning fork with a frequency of } 800 \text{ Hz produces resonance in a resonance column tube with the upper end open and the lower end closed by the water surface. Successive resonances are observed at lengths of } 9.75 \text{ cm, } 31.25 \text{ cm, and } 52.75 \text{ cm. The speed of the sound in the air is:}$
1
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$500 \text{ m/s}$, $156 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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15996
$\text{In an experiment with a sonometer, a tuning fork of frequency } 256 \text{ Hz}$ $\text{resonates with a length of } 25 \text{ cm and another tuning fork resonates with a}$ $\text{length of } 16 \text{ cm. If the tension of the string remains constant, then the}$ $\text{frequency of the second tuning fork will be:}$
1
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$163.84 \text{ Hz}$, $400 \text{ Hz}$...
2
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15995
$\text{A string is stretched between fixed points separated by } 75.0 \text{ cm. It is observed to have resonant frequencies of } 420 \text{ Hz and } 315 \text{ Hz. There are no other resonant frequencies between these two. The lowest resonant frequency for these strings is:}$
1
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$155 \text{ Hz}$, $205 \text{ Hz}$...
4
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15994
$\text{The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of a length } 20 \text{ cm is equal to the second overtone of an organ pipe open at both ends. The length of the organ pipe open at both ends will be:}$
1
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$80 \text{ cm}$, $100 \text{ cm}$...
3
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15993
$\text{A string of length } 3 \text{ m and a linear mass density of } 0.0025 \text{ kg/m is fixed at both ends.}$ $\text{One of its resonance frequencies is } 252 \text{ Hz.}$ $\text{The next higher resonance frequency is } 336 \text{ Hz.}$ $\text{Then the fundamental frequency will be:}$
1
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$84 \text{ Hz}$, $63 \text{ Hz}$...
1
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15992
$\text{If a standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes is formed within } 1.21 \, \text{\AA} \text{ distance, then the wavelength of the standing wave will be:}$
1
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$1.21 \, \text{\AA}$, $2.42 \, \text{\AA}$...
1
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15991
$\text{The equation of a stationary wave is } y = 0.8 \cos\left(\frac{\pi x}{20}\right) \sin 200(\pi t), \text{ where } x \text{ is in cm and } t \text{ is in sec. The separation between consecutive nodes will be:}$
1
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$20 \text{ cm}$, $10 \text{ cm}$...
1
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15990
$\text{An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is } 50 \text{ cm.}$ $\text{The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork will be:}$
1
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$100 \text{ cm}$, $150 \text{ cm}$...
2
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15989
$\text{The fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe is } 200 \text{ Hz. If one end of the pipe is closed, its fundamental frequency becomes:}$
1
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$100 \text{ Hz}$, $200 \text{ Hz}$...
1
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15988
$\text{The length of the string of a musical instrument is } 90 \text{ cm and has a fundamental frequency of } 120 \text{ Hz. Where should it be pressed to produce a fundamental frequency of } 180 \text{ Hz?}$
1
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$75 \text{ cm}$, $60 \text{ cm}$...
2
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15987
$\text{A string of length } l \text{ is fixed at one end and free at the other. If it resonates in different modes, then the ratio of frequencies is:}$ $1.\ 1 : 2 : 3 : \ldots$ $2.\ 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : \ldots$ $3.\ 1 : 2 : 4 : 8 : \ldots$ $4.\ 1 : 3 : 9 : \ldots$
1
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$1 : 2 : 3 : \ldots$, $1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : \ldots$...
2
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15986
$\text{A string is cut into three parts, having fundamental frequencies } n_1, n_2, \text{ and } n_3 \text{ respectively. The original fundamental frequency } n \text{ is related by the expression:}$ $\frac{1}{n} = \frac{1}{n_1} + \frac{1}{n_2} + \frac{1}{n_3}$
1
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$\frac{1}{n} = \frac{1}{n_1} + \frac{1}{n_2} + \frac{1}{n_3}$, $n = n_1 \times n_2 \times n_3$...
1
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15985
$\text{A standing wave is represented by } y = A \sin(100t) \cos(0.01x) \text{ where } y \text{ and } A \text{ are in millimetres, } t \text{ is in seconds and } x \text{ is in metres. The velocity of the wave is:}$
1
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$10^4 \text{ m/s}$, $1 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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15984
$\text{The equation of vibration of a taut string, fixed at both ends, is given by:}$ $y = (3 \ \text{mm}) \cos\left(\frac{\pi x}{10 \ \text{cm}}\right) \sin(800\pi \ \text{s}^{-1} \ t)$ $\text{The speed of waves on the string is:}$
1
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$20 \ \text{m/s}$, $40 \ \text{m/s}$...
3
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15983
$\text{The equation of a stationary wave is given as } y = A \sin(0.5\pi t) \cos(0.2\pi x) \text{ where } t \text{ is in seconds and } x \text{ in centimetres. Which of the following is correct?}$
1
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$\text{Wavelength of the component waves is } 10 \text{ cm.}$, $\text{The separation between a node and the nearest antinode is } 2.5 \text{ cm.}$...
4
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15982
$\text{Two waves represented by the following equations are travelling in the same medium } y_1 = 5 \sin 2\pi (75t - 0.25x), y_2 = 10 \sin 2\pi (150t - 0.50x).$ $\text{The intensity ratio } \frac{I_1}{I_2} \text{ of the two waves will be:}$
1
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$1 : 2$, $1 : 4$...
4
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15981
$\text{The rate of energy transfer in a wave depends:}$
1
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$\text{directly on the square of the wave amplitude and square of the wave frequency.}$, $\text{directly on the square of the wave amplitude and square root of the wave frequency.}$...
1
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15980
$\text{A point source emits sound equally in all directions in a non-absorbing medium. Two points, } P \text{ and } Q, \text{ are at distances of } 2 \text{ m and } 3 \text{ m, respectively, from the source. The ratio of the intensities of the waves at } P \text{ and } Q \text{ is:}$ $1.\ 3 : 2$ $2.\ 2 : 3$ $3.\ 9 : 4$ $4.\ 4 : 9$
1
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$3 : 2$, $2 : 3$...
3
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15979
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: Sound waves travelling from air into water, incident obliquely, bend towards the normal.}$ $\text{Statement II: Sound waves travel more slowly in water than in air.}$
1
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$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$...
3
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15978
$4.0 \text{ gm of gas occupies } 22.4 \text{ litres at NTP. The specific heat capacity of the gas at a constant volume is } 5.0 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}. \text{ If the speed of sound in the gas at NTP is } 952 \text{ ms}^{-1}, \text{ then the molar heat capacity at constant pressure will be: } (R = 8.31 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1})$
1
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Recommended Questions
$8.0 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$, $7.5 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$...
1
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15977
$\text{The speed of sound in nitrogen gas compared to that in helium gas at } 300 \text{ K is:}$
1
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$\sqrt{\frac{2}{7}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{1}{7}}$...
3
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15976
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The change in air pressure affects the speed of sound.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The speed of sound in gases is proportional to the square of pressure.}$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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15975
$\text{When height increases, the velocity of sound decreases:}$
1
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$\text{due to the decrease in pressure.}$, $\text{due to a decrease in temperature.}$...
2
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15974
$\text{The velocity of sound in air is:}$
1
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$\text{faster in dry air than in moist air.}$, $\text{directly proportional to the pressure.}$...
4
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15973
$\text{The speed of sound at a constant temperature depends on:}$
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$\text{Pressure}$, $\text{Density of gas}$...
4
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15972
$\text{A bat emits an ultrasonic sound of frequency } 1000 \text{ kHz in the air. If the sound meets a water surface, what is the wavelength of the reflected sound? (The speed of sound in air is } 340 \text{ m/sec and in water is } 1486 \text{ m/sec)}$
1
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$3.4 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}$, $1.49 \times 10^{-3} \text{ m}$...
1
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15971
$\text{A person standing between two parallel hills fires a gun and hears the first echo after } t_1 \text{ sec and the second echo after } t_2 \text{ sec. The distance between the two hills is: [Given: Speed of sound } = v]$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{v(t_1 - t_2)}{2}$, $\frac{v(t_1 t_2)}{2(t_1 + t_2)}$...
4
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15970
$\text{If the absolute temperature increases by } 1\%, \text{ the frequency of an organ pipe will:}$
1
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$\text{increase by } 1\%$, $\text{decrease by } 1\%$...
3
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15969
$\text{A sound wave is passed through a chamber. If the rms speed of molecules in a gas is } v_1 \text{ and the speed of sound is } v_2 \text{ in the gas, then:}$ $1.\ v_1 = v_2$ $2.\ v_1 > v_2$ $3.\ v_1 < v_2$ $4.\ v_1 \leq v_2$
1
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$v_1 = v_2$, $v_1 > v_2$...
2
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15968
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: The speed of sound waves in a medium depends on the elastic modulus and the density of the medium.}$ $\text{Statement II: The speed of sound in a gas is independent of its temperature.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$...
4
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15967
$\text{Sound waves travel at } 350 \text{ m/s through warm air and at } 3500 \text{ m/s through brass.}$ $\text{The wavelength of a } 700 \text{ Hz acoustic wave as it enters brass from warm air:}$
1
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$\text{increase by a factor of 20.}$, $\text{increase by a factor of 10.}$...
2
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15966
$\text{The speed of sound in a medium is } v. \text{ If the density of the medium is doubled at constant pressure, what will be the new speed of sound?}$
1
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$\sqrt{2}v$, $v$...
3
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15965
$\text{A transverse wave moves from a medium } A \text{ to a medium } B. \text{ In medium } A, \text{ the velocity of the transverse wave is } 500 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ and the wavelength is } 5 \text{ m.}$ $\text{The frequency and the wavelength of the wave in medium } B \text{ when its velocity is } 600 \text{ ms}^{-1}, \text{ respectively are:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$120 \text{ Hz and } 5 \text{ m}$, $100 \text{ Hz and } 5 \text{ m}$...
4
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15964
35
1
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1, 2...
2
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15963
34
1
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1, 2...
4
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15962
33
1
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1, 2...
1
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15961
32
1
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Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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15960
31
1
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1, 2...
3
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15959
$\text{A steel wire has a length of } 12.0 \text{ m and a mass of } 2.10 \text{ kg. What should be the tension in the wire so that the speed of a transverse wave on the wire equals the speed of sound in dry air, at } 20^\circ\text{C (which is } 343 \text{ m/s)?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$4.3 \times 10^3 \text{ N}$, $3.2 \times 10^4 \text{ N}$...
3
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15958
$y = (0.02 \text{ m}) \sin \left[ 2\pi \left( \frac{t}{0.04 \text{ (s)}} - \frac{x}{0.50 \text{ (m)}} \right) \right]$. $\text{The tension in the string will be:}$
1
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$4.0 \text{ N}$, $12.5 \text{ N}$...
4
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15957
$\text{The percentage increase in the speed of transverse waves produced in a stretched string if the tension is increased by } 4\%, \text{ will be:}$ $1. \ 1\%$ $2. \ 2\%$ $3. \ 3\%$ $4. \ 4\%$
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$1\%$, $2\%$...
2
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15956
$\text{Which one of the following graphs represents correctly the given wave equation at the origin?}$ $y = 2\sqrt{3} \sin \left( 2\pi x - 3\pi t + \frac{\pi}{3} \right)$
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$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
1
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15955
$y-x$ \text{ graph of a travelling wave along } +x \text{ direction is shown at any instant } t. \text{ (Symbols have their usual meanings). The velocity of a particle at:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$x_1 \text{ is downward}$, $x_2 \text{ is downward}$...
2
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15954
$\text{The phase difference between two waves, represented by}$ $y_1 = 10^{-6} \sin \left\{ 100t + \left( \frac{x}{50} \right) + 0.5 \right\} \text{ m}$ $y_2 = 10^{-6} \cos \left\{ 100t + \left( \frac{x}{50} \right) \right\} \text{ m}$ $\text{where } x \text{ is expressed in metres and } t \text{ is expressed in seconds, is approximate:}$
1
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$2.07 \text{ radians}$, $0.5 \text{ radians}$...
4
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15953
$\text{A triangular transverse wave is propagating in the positive } x\text{-direction. The velocity of } P \text{ at this instant will be:}$
1
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$\text{vertically upward.}$, $\text{vertically downward.}$...
1
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15952
$\text{Two waves are represented by the equations } y_1 = a \sin(\omega t + kx + 0.57) \text{ m}$ $\text{and } y_2 = a \cos(\omega t + kx) \text{ m, where } x \text{ is in meters and } t \text{ in seconds. The phase difference between them is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.25 \text{ rad}$, $1.57 \text{ rad}$...
4
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15951
$\text{For the travelling harmonic wave,}$ $y(x, t) = 2.0 \cos 2\pi (10t - 0.0080x + 0.35)$ $\text{where } x \text{ and } y \text{ are in cm and } t \text{ is in seconds.}$ $\text{The phase difference between the oscillatory motion of two}$ $\text{points separated by a distance of } 4 \text{ m will be:}$
1
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$0.8\pi \text{ rad}$, $\pi \text{ rad}$...
3
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15950
$\text{A transverse harmonic wave on a string is described by,}$ $y(x, t) = 3.0 \sin\left(36t + 0.018x + \frac{\pi}{4}\right)$ $\text{where } x \text{ and } y \text{ are in cm and } t \text{ in sec.}$ $\text{The positive direction of } x \text{ is from left to right.}$ $\text{What is the shortest distance between two successive crests in the wave?}$
1
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$1.3 \text{ m}$, $3.0 \text{ m}$...
4
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15949
$\text{The equation of a travelling wave is given as } y = A \sin(40\pi t - 0.2\pi x),$ $\text{where } t \text{ is in seconds and } x \text{ in metres.}$ $\text{The minimum distance between two particles oscillating in the same phase is:}$
1
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$10 \text{ m}$, $5 \text{ m}$...
1
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15948
$\text{A wave in a string has an amplitude of } 2 \text{ cm. The wave travels in the positive direction of the } x\text{-axis with a speed of } 128 \text{ m/s and it is noted that } 5 \text{ complete waves fit in the } 4 \text{ m length of the string. The equation describing the wave is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$y = (0.02 \text{ m}) \sin(7.85x + 1005t)$, $y = (0.02 \text{ m}) \sin(15.7x - 2010t)$...
4
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15947
$\text{The mathematical forms for three sinusoidal traveling waves are given by:}$ $\text{Wave 1: } y(x, t) = (2 \text{ cm}) \sin(3x - 6t)$ $\text{Wave 2: } y(x, t) = (3 \text{ cm}) \sin(4x - 12t)$ $\text{Wave 3: } y(x, t) = (4 \text{ cm}) \sin(5x - 11t)$ $\text{where } x \text{ is in meters and } t \text{ is in seconds. Of these waves:}$
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$\text{Wave 1 has the highest wave speed as well as the maximum transverse string speed.}$, $\text{Wave 2 has the highest wave speed, while Wave 1 has the maximum transverse string speed.}$...
4
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15946
$\text{Two SHMs have equations:}$ $x_1 = a \sin(\omega t + \phi_1)$ $\text{and}$ $x_2 = a \sin(\omega t + \phi_2).$ $\text{If the amplitude of the resultant SHM is equal to amplitude of superimposing SHM(s), the phase difference between them is:}$
1
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$\frac{\pi}{6}$, $\frac{2\pi}{3}$...
2
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15945
$\text{Two progressive waves are represented by, } y_1 = 5 \sin(200t - 3.14x) \text{ and } y_2 = 10 \sin\left(200t - 3.14x + \frac{\pi}{3}\right) \text{ (} x \text{ is in metres, and } t \text{ is in seconds). Path difference between the two waves is:}$
1
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$\frac{100}{\pi} \text{ m}$, $\frac{1}{3} \text{ m}$...
2
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15944
$\text{The wave equations of two particles are given by}$ $y_1 = a \sin(\omega t - kx), \; y_2 = a \sin(kx + \omega t), \; \text{then:}$
1
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$\text{they are moving in the opposite direction.}$, $\text{the phase between them is } 90^\circ.$...
1
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15943
$\text{A transverse wave propagating along the } x\text{-axis is represented by:}$ $y(x, t) = 8.0 \sin\left(0.5\pi x - 4\pi t - \frac{\pi}{4}\right), \text{ where } x \text{ is in meters and } t \text{ in seconds. The speed of the wave is:}$
1
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$4\pi \text{ m/s}$, $0.5 \text{ m/s}$...
4
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15942
$\text{A transverse wave is represented by } y = 2 \sin(\omega t - kx) \text{ cm.}$ $\text{The value of wavelength (in cm) for which the wave velocity becomes equal to the maximum particle velocity, will be:}$
1
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$4\pi$, $2\pi$...
1
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15941
$\text{Three progressive waves } A, B \text{ and } C \text{ are shown below. With respect to wave } A:$
1
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$\text{Wave } C \text{ lags behind in phase by } \pi/2 \text{ and wave } B \text{ leads by } \pi/2.$, $\text{Wave } C \text{ leads in phase by } \pi \text{ and wave } B \text{ lags behind by } \pi.$...
1
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15940
$\text{Given the equation for a wave on the string, } y = 0.5 \sin(5x - 3t) \text{ where } y \text{ and } x \text{ are in metres and } t \text{ in seconds, the ratio of the maximum speed of particle to the speed of wave is:}$
1
114
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$1 : 1$, $5 : 2$...
2
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15939
$\text{The wave described by } y = 0.25 \sin(10\pi x - 2\pi t), \text{ where } x \text{ and } y \text{ are in metres and } t \text{ in seconds, is a wave traveling along the:}$
1
114
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$-\ve x \text{ direction with frequency 1 Hz.}$, $+\ve x \text{ direction with frequency } \pi \text{ Hz and wavelength } \lambda = 0.2 \text{ m.}$...
3
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15938
$\text{If a wave is travelling in a positive } x\text{-direction with } A = 0.2 \text{ m,}$ $v = 360 \text{ m/s, and } \lambda = 60 \text{ m, then the correct expression for the wave will be:}$
1
114
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$y = 0.2 \sin \left[ 2\pi \left( 6t + \frac{x}{60} \right) \right]$, $y = 0.2 \sin \left[ \pi \left( 6t + \frac{x}{60} \right) \right]$...
3
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15937
$\text{A wave traveling in the } +ve \ x\text{-direction having maximum displacement along } y\text{-direction as } 1 \ \text{m, wavelength } 2\pi \ \text{m and frequency of } \frac{1}{\pi} \ \text{Hz, is represented by:}$
1
114
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$y = \sin(2\pi x - 2\pi t)$, $y = \sin(10\pi x - 20\pi t)$...
4
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15936
$\text{The equation of a progressive wave is given by } y = 4 \sin \left\{ \pi \left( \frac{t}{5} - \frac{x}{9} \right) + \frac{\pi}{6} \right\}$ $\text{, where } x \text{ and } y \text{ are in metres and } t \text{ in seconds.}$ $\text{Which of the following is correct?}$
1
114
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$v = 5 \text{ m/s}$, $\lambda = 18 \text{ m}$...
2
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15935
$\text{If a travelling wave pulse is given by } y = \frac{20}{4+(x+4t)^2} \text{ m, then:}$
1
114
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$\text{the pulse is traveling along the negative } x\text{-axis.}$, $\text{the speed of the pulse is } 4 \text{ m/s.}$...
4
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15934
$\text{The equation } y(x, t) = 0.005 \cos(\alpha x - \beta t) \text{ describes a wave traveling along the } x\text{-axis. If the wavelength and the time period of the wave are } 0.08 \text{ m and } 2.0 \text{ s, respectively, then } \alpha \text{ and } \beta \text{ in appropriate units are:}$ $1. \ \alpha = 25.00\pi, \ \beta = \pi$ $2. \ \alpha = \frac{0.08}{\pi}, \ \beta = \frac{2.0}{\pi}$ $3. \ \alpha = \frac{\pi}{0.04}, \ \beta = \frac{\pi}{1.0}$ $4. \ \alpha = 12.50\pi, \ \beta = \frac{\pi}{2.0}$
1
114
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$\alpha = 25.00\pi, \ \beta = \pi$, $\alpha = \frac{0.08}{\pi}, \ \beta = \frac{2.0}{\pi}$...
1
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15933
$\text{A tuning fork makes } 256 \text{ vibrations per second in air. When the velocity of sound is } 330 \text{ m/s, then the wavelength of the tone emitted is:}$
1
114
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$0.56 \text{ m}$, $0.89 \text{ m}$...
4
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15932
$\text{The displacement of a particle is given by } y = 5 \times 10^{-4} \sin(100t - 50x),$ $\text{where } x \text{ is in metres and } t \text{ is in seconds. The velocity of the wave is:}$
1
114
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$5000 \text{ m/s}$, $2 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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15931
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Ocean waves hitting a beach are always found to be nearly normal to the shore.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Ocean waves are longitudinal waves.}$
1
114
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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15930
$\text{Which one of the following statements is true?}$
1
114
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$\text{Both light and sound waves in the air are transverse.}$, $\text{The sound waves in the air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse.}$...
2
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15929
Biochemical similarities performing a given function among diverse organisms give clues for
6
613
Recommended Questions
Common ancestry, Diverse ancestry...
1
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15928
Genetic drift is change of
6
613
Recommended Questions
gene frequency in same generation, appearance of recessive genes...
3
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15927
'Founder effect' is related to -
6
613
Recommended Questions
Gene recombination and Natural selection, Genetic drift and origin of new species...
2
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15926
Oparin of...... and Haldane of..... proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre existing...........
6
613
Recommended Questions
Russia, England, non-living inorganic molecules, England, Russia, living organic matter...
3
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15925
The mechanism of non cellular aggregates of giant macromolecules to cell with membranous envelop is
6
613
Recommended Questions
Natural selection, Not known...
2
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15924
The first form of life were not
6
613
Recommended Questions
Single cells, in water environment only...
3
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15923
In present times, the origin of life is not possible from inorganic compounds due to: 1. Non-availability of raw material 2. High concentration of O₂ in the atmosphere 3. Decrease in temperature 4. Excess of pollution
6
613
Recommended Questions
Non-availability of raw material, High concentration of O₂ in the atmosphere...
2
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15922
Which of the following is true regarding early earth?
6
613
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Earth was supposed to have been formed about 4.5 billion years back., The atmosphere of early earth was full of water vapour....
1
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15921
Evolution by 'a' in a true sense would have started when cellular forms of life with differences in metabolic capability originated on earth. Here 'a' is
6
613
Recommended Questions
Mutation, Natural selection...
2
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15920
For the stability of the organic compounds, Oparin opined that probably:
6
613
Recommended Questions
UV radiation never reached the surface of the primeval Earth, the primitive Earth was in a molten state...
3
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15919
Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time of origin of life?
6
613
Recommended Questions
NH₃, H₂...
3
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15918
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium can be disrupted by presence of all except
6
613
Recommended Questions
Genetic drift, Random mating...
2
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15917
Which one of the following would cause the Hardy-Weinberg principle to be inaccurate?
6
613
Recommended Questions
The size of the population is very large., Individuals mate with one another at random....
3
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15916
Which of the following would lead to deviation from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Random mating, Lack of mutations...
4
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15915
What will be the frequency of homozygote dominant in a population of triploid organisms.
6
613
Recommended Questions
p×p×p, AA...
1
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15914
Hardy-Weinberg equation is used to check
6
613
Recommended Questions
Size of population, Whether evolution is occurring in a population or not...
2
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15913
According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, the frequency of homozygous recessive (aa) individuals in a population is denoted by
6
613
Recommended Questions
p², 2pq...
3
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15912
In a population, homozygous and heterozygous individuals are in a certain proportion. This proportion can't be changed by
6
613
Recommended Questions
Natural Selection, Mutation...
4
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15911
If frequency of 'A' allele is 0.4 than, find out the frequency of 'B' allele and heterozygous genotype in a random mating population at equilibria.
6
613
Recommended Questions
0.6 an 0.24, 0.6 and 0.96...
3
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15910
In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by
6
613
Recommended Questions
p², 2pq...
2
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15909
Identify the correct statement:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Dryopithecus was more man like than Ramapithecus, Homo Habilis probably did not eat meat...
2
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15908
The extinct human who lives 100000 to 40000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eye brows, retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture was
6
613
Recommended Questions
Homo habilis, Neanderthal human...
2
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15907
Which of the following feature is not of Ramapithecus?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Hairy, walked like gorillas and chimpanzees, Existed 15mya...
4
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15906
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Ramapithecus - More man like ape like, Homo habilis - First human like being, the hominid...
3
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15905
Which of the following is incorrect with respect to different hominids, their cranial capacities and characteristics?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Homo habilis: 650-800 cc, Herbivorous, tool-maker, Homo erectus: 900 cc, Discovered fire, ate meat...
4
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15904
Which of the following does not hold true for Australopithecus?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Existed 2 mya, Probably lived in East African grasslands...
4
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15903
Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 cc in:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Homo neanderthalensis, Homo erectus...
1
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15902
Proper burial of dead bodies for the first time started in which pre-historic man's period?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Peking man, Java man...
3
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15901
Which among the following had the largest cranial capacity?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Java man, Taung child...
3
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15900
Adaptive radiation refers to
6
613
Recommended Questions
adaptations due to geographical isolation, evolution of different species from a common ancestor...
2
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15899
The presence of the monotremes and marsupials in the Australian continent can be explained by:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Convergent evolution, Adaptive radiation...
2
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15898
The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge is called:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Convergent evolution, Non-random evolution...
1
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15897
An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of:
6
613
Recommended Questions
homologous and vestigial organs, analogous and vestigial organs...
1
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15896
Distantly related organisms with similar traits have experienced:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Coevolution, Convergent evolution...
2
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15895
Evolutionary convergence is the development of
6
613
Recommended Questions
common set of characters in the group of different ancestry, dissimilar characters in closely related groups...
1
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15894
Which of the following is not an example of analogous structure?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Eye of Octopus and mammal, Flippers of penguins and dolphin...
4
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15893
Choose the incorrect match
6
613
Recommended Questions
Flippers of penguins and dolphins - Convergent evolution, Marsupials of Australia - Adaptive radiation...
4
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15892
Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option.
6
613
Recommended Questions
Brain of bat, man and cheetah, Heart of bat, man and cheetah...
4
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15891
Biologists discover about 1000 species in an Island which is descended from a single ancestor species. What is the reason behind the such large speciation?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Mutation, Adaptive radiation...
2
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15890
The homologous organs are those that show similarity in
6
613
Recommended Questions
size, origin...
2
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15889
Given below are four statements (A-D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in two statements. Statements: (A) Wings of butterflies and birds look alike and are the results of _(i)_ evolution (B) Miller showed that CH₄, H₂, NH₃, and _(i)_, when exposed to electric discharge in a flask resulted in the formation of _(ii)_. (C) Vermiform appendix is a _(i)_ organ and an _(ii)_ evidence of evolution. (D) According to Darwin evolution took place due to _(i)_ and _(ii)_ of the fittest.
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(A) - (i) convergent, (B) - (i) oxygen, (ii) nucleosides, (B) - (i) water vapour, (ii) amino acids, (C) - (i) rudimentary (ii) anatomical...
4
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15888
When two species of different geneology come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed
6
613
Recommended Questions
divergent evolution, micro-evolution...
4
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15887
Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent evolution?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Eyes of Octopus and mammals, Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates, Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita, Wings of butterflies and birds...
1
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15886
Adaptive radiation can be observed in all cases except
6
613
Recommended Questions
marsupial radiation, Variety of beaks in Darwin's finches...
4
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15885
The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of
6
613
Recommended Questions
special creation, evolution due to mutation...
4
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15884
Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Analogous organs, Adaptive radiation...
3
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15883
Which of the following is not a result of convergent evolution?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Potato and sweet potato, Flippers of penguins and dolphins...
4
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15882
The eye of the octopus and the eye of the cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform a similar function. This is an example of:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution., Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution....
2
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15881
Structures given in the figure below represent the example of
6
613
Recommended Questions
Adaptive convergence, Convergent evolution...
4
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15880
Which of the following is an example of homologous organs?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Wings of butterfly and of birds, Eye of the Octopus and of mammals...
4
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15879
The evolutionary process giving rise to new species adapted to new habitats and ways of life is called adaptive radiation. For example, 1. Darwin's finches in Galapagos Islands. 2. Australian marsupials that radiated to form new species. 3. Wolf and Tasmanian wolf. 4. Both (a) and (b)
6
613
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Darwin's finches in Galapagos Islands., Australian marsupials that radiated to form new species....
4
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15878
In human evolution, the development of the brain and language is an example of:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Convergent evolution, Divergent evolution...
3
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15877
Which of the following statements is correct about the origin and evolution of men?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Agriculture came around 50,000 years back., The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus primates existing 15 million years ago, walked like men....
4
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15876
Agriculture and human settlement started about
6
613
Recommended Questions
75000 years ago, 18000 years ago...
3
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15875
The primate which arose during ice age between 75,000 to 10,000 years ago is
6
613
Recommended Questions
Dryopithecus, Ramapithecus...
3
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15874
In the following figures, there are three skulls. Which statement is correct about these skulls?
6
613
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A – Skull of a baby chimpanzee B – Skull of a man C – Skull of adult human, A – Skull of an adult chimpanzee B – Skull of a baby chimpanzee C – Skull of adult human...
3
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15873
Match column I and column II with respect to cranial capacity Column I a. Homo erectus b. Homo sapiens c. Cro-Magnon man d. Homo habilis Column II i. 650 - 800 cc ii. 1650 cc iii. 1400 cc iv. 900 cc Choose the correct option
6
613
Recommended Questions
a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)...
3
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15872
What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Shortening of jaws, Binocular vision...
3
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15871
The correct sequence of stages in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens), is
6
613
Recommended Questions
Homo erectus, Australopithecus, neanderthal man, cro-magnon man, modern man, Australopithecus, Homo erectus, neanderthal man, cro-magnon man, modern man...
2
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15870
The first human – like being or hominid was:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Dryopithecus, Australopithecus...
3
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15869
Who made huts, used skin of animals and barks of trees as clothes and started burial ceremony for the first time?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Homohabilis, Java man...
3
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15868
Which of the following primate existed about 15 mya and had a hairy body and walked like Gorillas and chimpanzees?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Ramapithecus, Australopithecus...
1
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15867
The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is
6
613
Recommended Questions
Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus, Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus...
2
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15866
The man like primates walked in eastern Africa around 3-4 mya. This belief was supported by
6
613
Recommended Questions
Hominid features of bones discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania., Hominid features of bones discovered in Whole Africa...
1
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15865
Consider the following statements: I: The first organisms that invaded land were the plants. II: Lobefins evolved into the first amphibians. III: Ramapithecus was more ape-like and Dryopithecus was more man-like. Which of the above statements are true?
6
613
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
1
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15864
Choose the incorrect match
6
613
Recommended Questions
First noncellular form of life – 3 bya, First cellular form of life – 2 bya...
4
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15863
According to fossils that have been discovered till now, the origin and evolution of man started from which country?
6
613
Recommended Questions
France, Java...
3
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15862
The selecting agent in industrial melanism was:
6
613
Recommended Questions
humans, toxins from smoke...
3
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15861
Which of the following conclusions is from industrial melanism?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Camouflage causes the white moths to get caught by predators more even in rural areas during industrialisation., During industrialisation, white variant of moths got wiped out completely in urban areas....
4
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15860
Industrial melanism is a phenomenon that is best demonstrated as
6
613
Recommended Questions
Directional selection, Pollution generated mutation...
1
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15859
The occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to
6
613
Recommended Questions
Extinction of these species from other regions, Continental separation...
2
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15858
Evolution of DDT resistant mosquito is best explained by which category of natural selection?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Peak gets higher and narrower, Peak shifts in one direction...
2
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15857
There are five factors known to affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, which of the following cannot be included in the five factors?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Gene flow and genetic drift, Genetic recombination and natural selection...
4
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15856
Match column I and column II and choose the correct option. Column-I a. Natural selection b. Thomas Malthus c. Gene flow d. Hardy-Weinberg law Column-II (i) p² + 2pq + q² = 1 (ii) Migrations change allele frequency (iii) Essay on population (iv) Reproductive fitness
6
613
Recommended Questions
a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i), a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)...
1
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15855
Change of frequencies of alleles in a population or any deviation from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is interpreted as:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Organic evolution, Genetic drift...
2
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15854
The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Mutation, Genetic drift...
2
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15853
What is genetic equilibrium?
6
613
Recommended Questions
When all the alleles of a gene are present in a population in equal frequencies, When the number of heterozygotes in a population are equal to the number of either of the homozygote...
4
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15852
Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Genetic drift, Random mating...
1
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15851
Industrial melanism cannot be explained by
6
613
Recommended Questions
A, C, D and E, A and D only...
3
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15850
Karn & Penrose showed that birth weight follows a normal distribution, that mortality for newborns is greater for those either under- or over-weight, and that the mean birth weight (7 lbs) coincides with that showing minimum mortality. The type of natural selection operating here is shown by the graph:
6
613
Recommended Questions
(a), (b)...
1
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15849
In a species, the weight of a newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborns with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 kg to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Cyclical selection, Directional selection...
3
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15848
............... operates to eliminate intermediate phenotypes.
6
613
Recommended Questions
Directional selection, Disruptive selection...
2
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15847
Industrial melanism is an example of:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Drug resistance, Darkening of the skin due to smoke from industries...
3
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15846
Directional selection favours:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Both extremes of a trait, Intermediate form of a trait...
4
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15845
Natural selection is best defined as occurring when the environment causes:
6
613
Recommended Questions
differential success in reproduction, differential mortality...
1
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15844
A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the:
6
613
Recommended Questions
trees are very healthy, trees are heavily infested...
4
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15843
Which one of the following populations would most quickly lead to two groups with few shared traits?
6
613
Recommended Questions
a population with disruptive selection, a population with directional selection...
1
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15842
If more individuals acquire peripheral character value at both the ends of the distribution curve; in such case natural selection has resulted in
6
613
Recommended Questions
Stabilization, Directional...
3
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15841
A type of natural selection in which more individuals acquire peripheral character value at both ends of distribution curve is
6
613
Recommended Questions
Directional selection, Disruptive selection...
2
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15840
In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia), the black-coloured form became dominant over the light-coloured form in England during the industrial revolution. This is an example of:
6
613
Recommended Questions
natural selection, whereby the darker forms were selected, appearance of the darker coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight...
1
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15839
Those who are better fit in an environment, leave more progeny than others. The evolutionary mechanism that operates for such a change is
6
613
Recommended Questions
Natural selection, Genetic drift...
1
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15838
The following statements concerned with genetic drift are incorrect except one. Select the exception
6
613
Recommended Questions
Genetic drift maintains Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, Gene frequency in a small population change due to natural selections only...
3
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15837
Which of the following factor will not affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Natural selection, Genetic drift...
4
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15836
Which of the following is not true for a species:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Members of a species can interbreed, Variations occur among members of a species...
3
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15835
Given below is the representative evolutionary history of vertebrates through geological periods. A, B, C, and D, respectively, are:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Dinosaurs, Thecodonts, Therapsids, and Pelycosaurs, Dinosaurs, Therapsids, Thecodonts, and Pelycosaurs...
2
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15834
Examples of phenomenon named adaptive radiation is not seen in/amongst
6
613
Recommended Questions
Marsupials in Australia, Finches on Galapagos islands...
3
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Delete
15833
Evolution is a
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Recommended Questions
Stochastic process, Discontinuous process...
1
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Delete
15832
In a random mating population in equilibrium, which of the following brings about a change in gene frequency in a non-directional manner?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Mutations, Random drift...
2
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15831
Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries, are:
6
613
Recommended Questions
small and directionless, random and directional...
3
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15830
The idea of mutations was brought forth by:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum sativum, Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population...
4
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15829
Single step large mutation leading to speciation is also called
6
613
Recommended Questions
Founder's effect, saltation...
2
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15828
Theory of 'Saltations' was given by
6
613
Recommended Questions
G Mendel, Hugo de Vries...
2
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Edit
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15827
Sudden heritable changes are called
6
613
Recommended Questions
Linkages, Mutations...
2
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15826
The excess use of herbicides and pesticides etc. has resulted in selection of resistant varieties in a much lesser time. Hence, resistant organisms/cells are appearing in a time span of months or years and not centuries. This statement is:
6
613
Recommended Questions
In favour of evolution by anthropogenic action, Against the natural selection theory...
1
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15825
Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin's concept of natural selection in organic evolution -
6
613
Recommended Questions
production of 'Dolly', the sheep by cloning, Development of organs from 'stem' cells for organ transplantation...
4
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15824
Mark the correct statement with respect to industrial melanism:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Lichens can be used as an industrial pollution indicator., Low count of melanic moths are found in rural areas where industrialisation did not occur....
4
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15823
Select the correct statement from the following:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Darwin variations are small and directionless, Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature...
2
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15822
The finches of the Galapagos islands provide evidence in favour of:
6
613
Recommended Questions
special creation, evolution due to mutation...
4
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15821
In Galapagos island, Darwin found different varieties of finches, originated from a common ancestor. The original variety of these finches was:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Insectivorous, Vegetarian...
3
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15820
Consider the following statements: I: Nature selects for fitness. II: Fitness is based on characteristics that are inherited. III: Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature. Which of the above statements are true?
6
613
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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15819
Which one of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Overproduction, variations, constancy of population size, natural selection, Variations, constancy of population size, overproduction, natural selection...
3
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15818
Mark the incorrect statement?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Force of natural selection started with cellular form of life, According to natural selection rate of appearance of new forms is linked to life cycle or the life span...
4
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15817
The rate of appearance of new forms is linked with:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Mutation, Life span...
2
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15816
The correct statement about the nature of evolution and natural selection is
6
613
Recommended Questions
Evolution is a process while natural selection is the end result of a process which is unknown., Natural selection is a process while evolution is the end result of a process which is unknown....
4
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15815
The best description of natural selection is
6
613
Recommended Questions
the survival of the fittest, the struggle for existence...
3
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15814
Theory of natural selection dwells on
6
613
Recommended Questions
role of environment in evolution, natural selection acting on favourable variations...
2
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15813
Darwin believed that certain parts of the body get larger and more complex through the generations because they:
6
613
Recommended Questions
are used more extensively than other parts, contribute to greater reproductive success...
2
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15812
Both Charles Darwin and A.R. Wallace were influenced by the:
6
613
Recommended Questions
writings of J.B.S. Haldane on the origin of life, findings of Urey and Miller experiments...
4
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15811
In replica-plate experiment some bacteria able to grow in penicillin containing medium due to
6
613
Recommended Questions
Natural selection, Reproductive isolation...
1
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15810
Diversification in plant life appeared:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Due to abrupt mutations, Suddenly on earth...
4
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Edit
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15809
Natural selection is the survival of fittest, which of the following most precisely describe the survival of fittest?
6
613
Recommended Questions
The physical strength of organism., How many fertile offspring is produced by an organism....
2
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15808
Who concluded that existing living forms share similarities to varying degrees not only among themselves but also with life forms that existed millions of years ago?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Charles Lyell, Charles Darwin...
2
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15807
The two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution are
6
613
Recommended Questions
Branching descent and natural selection, Saltation and Founder effect...
1
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15806
A population of a species invades a new area. Which of the following condition will lead to Adaptive Radiation?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Area with a large number of habitats having very low food supply, Area with a single type of vacant habitat...
3
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15805
In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have evolved to share many similar characteristics. This type of evolution may be referred to as:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Adaptive Radiation, Divergent Evolution...
4
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15804
The "Use and Disuse" principal or "Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characters" of evolution was proposed by
6
613
Recommended Questions
Hugo de Vries, Weismann...
3
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15803
Mark the correct character of the following figure
6
613
Recommended Questions
Tetrapedal and having bony plates on back, Tetrapedal and having collar on neck...
3
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15802
Which evidence of evolution related to Darwin's finches:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Evidence from biogeographical distribution, Evidence from comparative anatomy...
1
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15801
Which of the following is distantly related among each other?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Crocodiles, Snakes...
2
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15800
Which of the following statements is not true if we consider postulates of Darwinian theory of evolution?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Evolution by natural selection would have started when cellular forms of life with similarities in metabolic capabilities originated on Earth, The rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life cycle or the life span....
1
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15799
The now extinct reptile group that evolved into mammals was:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Therapsids, Dinosaurs...
1
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15798
Which of the following is not true?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Small sized reptiles of dinosaurs of that era still exist today., Tyrannosaurs rex was about 20 feet in height and had hugesome dagger like teeth....
4
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15797
Flowering plants, angiosperm appeared in which of the following period?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Permian, Triassic...
4
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15796
The flourishing period of progymnosperm is
6
613
Recommended Questions
Devonian, Silurian...
1
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15795
Which of the following is from the same lineage as that of Triceratops?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Stegosaurus, Tyrannosaurus...
1
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15794
Tyrannosaurs was not present with which of the following Dinosaurs?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Triceratops, Archaeopteryx...
4
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15793
Bryophytes evolved from
6
613
Recommended Questions
Psilophyton, Rhynia type plants...
4
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15792
Fish with stout and strong fins could move on land and go back to water. This was happened about:
6
613
Recommended Questions
300 million years ago, 320 million years ago...
4
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15791
The flourishing period of seed ferns is
6
613
Recommended Questions
Jurassic, Devonian...
3
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15790
Arrange the following in the order of their existence during the history of life forms: a)Stegosaurus, b)Brachiosaurus, c)Triceratops, d)Tyrannosaurus, e)Pteranodon, f)Crocodilian, g)Archaeopteryx.
6
613
Recommended Questions
b)-a)-g)-f)-e)-d)-c), e)-b)-g)-a)-f)-c)-d)...
1
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15789
On Galapagos island, Darwin observed variation in beaks of birds (Darwin's finches) and he concluded:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Inter species variation, Intraspecies variation...
3
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15788
Zosterophyllum evolved from
6
613
Recommended Questions
Psilophyton, Rhynia type plants...
3
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Edit
Delete
15787
Gnetales evolved from
6
613
Recommended Questions
Psilophyton, Rhynia type plants...
1
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Edit
Delete
15786
Correct order is [1991]
6
613
Recommended Questions
Palaeozoic → Archaeozoic → Coenozoic, Archaeozoic → Palaeozoic → Proterozoic...
3
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15785
Sauropsids gave rise to
6
613
Recommended Questions
Turtles, Mammals...
1
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15784
Which of the following could evolve by the time of 500 mya?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Jawless fishes, Invertebrates...
2
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15783
Which of the following conclusions is of paleontological evidences for evolution?
6
613
Recommended Questions
A study of fossils in different sedimentary layers indicates the geological period in which they existed, The new life forms have arisen at same time in the history of Earth...
1
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15782
Similarities in organisms with different genotypes indicate:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Microevolution, Macroevolution...
3
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15781
How many years ago dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth?
6
613
Recommended Questions
About 200 million years ago, About 65 million years ago...
2
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15780
During course of evolution, the land reptiles which went back into water to evolve into fish-like reptiles, about 200 mya would refer to
6
613
Recommended Questions
Ichthyosaurs, Tyrannosaurus...
1
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15779
Most fossils are found in:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Granite, Sedimentary rocks...
2
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Edit
Delete
15778
Embryological support for evolution was proposed by
6
613
Recommended Questions
Ernst Heckel, Karl Ernst von Baer...
1
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Delete
15777
The embryological support for evolution was disproved by whose keen observations?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Karl Ernst Von Baer, Ernst Heckel...
1
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Delete
15776
The early-stage human embryo distinctly possesses
6
613
Recommended Questions
gills, gill slits...
2
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15775
Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult, Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions...
2
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15774
If there were no melanic forms in the pre-industrialisation era, what would be the end result of industrialization?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Peppered moths would have increased in number, Peppered moths would have become black due to the deposition of soot...
3
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15773
An example of process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a common point and radiating to other areas of geography can be
6
613
Recommended Questions
Origin of Numbat, Phascolarctos, Flying phalanger, Tasmanian wolf, Spotted cuscus from a primitive metatherian, Origin of Eohippus, Mesohippus, Parahippus and Pliohippus...
1
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15772
In England before industrialisation set in, it was observed that there were more white winged moths on trees than dark-winged or melanised moths. After industrialisation, there was more dark winged moths in the same area. The explanation put forth for this observation is a. White winged moths changed into melanised form in polluted environment due to deposition of soot b. The tree trunks became dark due to industrial smoke and soots. Under this condition the white winged moth did not survive due to predator c. Dark winged or melanised moth survived as they could hide in the background d. Black winged moth are recessive mutants of the same gene How many of the above statements are correct?
6
613
Recommended Questions
One, Two...
2
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15771
Adaptive radiation does not follow which of the following statements?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Blackbird on Galapagos islands observed by Darwin is an amazing example of Adaptive Radiation., All the varieties of Finches evolved on the same island from original seed feeding finches to insectivorous and vegetarian finches....
3
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Edit
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15770
Identify the correct statement amongst the following:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Monocots evolved later than dicots., Mammals evolved from extinct reptiles called thecodonts....
1
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Edit
Delete
15769
Which of the following will not show convergent evolution?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Eye of Octopus and mammal, Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins...
4
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Delete
15768
Which of the following is placental mammal?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Bandicoot, Numbat...
4
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15767
The sugar glider and flying squirrel belong to two different groups of mammals, but they have both evolved bushy tails and flaps of skin that help them exploit their forest environments more efficiently. This pattern of evolution is an example of:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Character displacement, Adaptive radiation...
3
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15766
Select the incorrect match with respect to placental mammals and Australian marsupials.
6
613
Recommended Questions
Lemur: Spotted cuscus, Bobcat: Tasmanian tiger...
4
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15765
According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Oxygen, Hydrogen...
1
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15764
Theory of spontaneous generation was rejected because:
6
613
Recommended Questions
It explained origin of first life from non-living or inanimate matter and lacked experimental evidence., It was based on the biogenesis concept....
1
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15763
The theory of spontaneous generation says that
6
613
Recommended Questions
Life originated from the decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud etc, Life came on the earth from outerspace...
1
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Edit
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15762
According to theory of special creation which one is wrong?
6
613
Recommended Questions
All living organisms were created as such, Diversity was same since the creation....
3
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15761
Theory of spontaneous generation of life was conclusively disproved by:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Francesco Redi, Oparin and Haldane...
3
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15760
The diagram shown below represents Miller's experiment with certain labelled parts. Find out the correct set of labelling:
6
613
Recommended Questions
A - CH₄, NH₃, H₂O, vapour, CO₂; B - Vacuum pump; C - Alanine, glycine, aspartic acid, C - Alanine, glycine, glutamic acid; D - Vacuum pump; F - Electrodes...
3
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15759
Which of the following statements is true?
6
613
Recommended Questions
A British scientist created the conditions proposed by Oparin and Haldane in a closed flask with temperature of 800 degree Celsius in electric discharge along with gases methane, hydrogen, ammonia and water vapour and observed formation of amino acid., Some similar experimental setups were also prepared by other scientists and formation of sugar, nitrogenous bases, Pigments and Fats was recorded....
2
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Delete
15758
In the apparatus of the Urey and Miller experiment, the gases [G] contained in the flask are:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Methane, Carbon dioxide, Ammonia, and Water vapour, Methane, Hydrogen cyanide, Ammonia, and Water vapour...
3
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15757
Which one of the following was obtained by S. Miller in his experiments on the origin of life before 1953:
6
613
Recommended Questions
Simple sugars, Amino acids...
2
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Delete
15756
In Miller's experiment, he used a mixture of CH₄, NH₃, H₂ and water vapour in a closed flask to mimic early earth conditions. What was the temperature at which this flask was kept?
6
613
Recommended Questions
800 °C, 1200 °C...
1
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Delete
15755
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
6
613
Recommended Questions
Prokaryotes evolved before eukaryotes., Eukaryotes evolved before prokaryotes....
1
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Edit
Delete
15754
The concept of chemical evolution is based on
6
613
Recommended Questions
crystallization of chemicals, interaction of water, air, and clay under intense heat...
4
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15753
Which of the following options is not correct regarding the early atmosphere? (A) Oxygen was totally absent (B) Atmosphere was reducing (C) Temperature was high (D) Presence of free H₂ molecules (E) Presence of molecules like CH₄, NH₃, H₂O vapours
6
613
Recommended Questions
A, D and E, A and D...
4
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15752
Which of the following is not true about Big Bang theory?
6
613
Recommended Questions
A singular huge explosion, Universe expanded and temperature came down...
3
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Delete
15751
After about how many years of the formation of the earth, life appeared on this planet?
6
613
Recommended Questions
500 billion years, 50 million years...
3
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15750
Which of the following statements are not true?
6
613
Recommended Questions
The origin of life is considered a unique event in the history of universe., Earth is just a speck....
3
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Delete
15749
Why does it is said that looking at stars on a clear night sky means looking back in time?
6
613
Recommended Questions
What we are seeing at that time is actually has stated its journey millions of years back, What we are seeing at that time is actually has stated its journey trillions of days back...
1
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15748
Mark the incorrect statement with respect to evolution
6
613
Recommended Questions
When we see objects in our immediate surroundings we see them instantly and hence in the present time, When we look at stars on a clear night sky we are, looking back in time...
3
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15747
In a assisted reproductive technology where gametes have been fertilized invitro, which of the following is practicable for embryo transplantation in fallopian tube?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Only embryo (up to 8 blastomeres if zygote is not transplanted), Only zygote is transplanted not embryo...
3
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15746
A lady is diagnosed to have both her fallopian tubes blocked. What ART can help her to conceive a child?
6
612
Recommended Questions
GIFT, ZIFT...
3
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15745
Match the following: Column-I I. Zygote Inter-Fallopian Transfer II. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer III. Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer IV. Inter Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection V. Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection Column-II A. ZIFT B. ICSI C. GIFT 1. I - A, II - C, V - B 2. I - C, III - A, IV - B 3. I - A, II - C, IV - B 4. II - C, III - A, V - B
6
612
Recommended Questions
I - A, II - C, V - B, I - C, III - A, IV - B...
4
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15744
Given below are some assisted reproductive technologies (ARTs), in which many technologies involve(s) invitro fertilization? GIFT, ZIFT, ICSI, IUT, IUI
6
612
Recommended Questions
Four, Three...
2
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Delete
15743
In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage, Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell stage...
2
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Delete
15742
What is false for ZIFT?
6
612
Recommended Questions
ZIFT - Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer, It follows IVF...
4
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Delete
15741
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding test-tube baby?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Early embryo (with up to 8 blastomeres) is transferred into the fallopian tube, Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into the uterus...
4
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Edit
Delete
15740
In case of a couple, where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Intrauterine Transfer, Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer...
3
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Edit
Delete
15739
Artificial insemination means
6
612
Recommended Questions
transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test-tube containing ova, transfer of sperms of husband to a test-tube containing ova...
3
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Delete
15738
In 'test-tube baby' procedure:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Fertilization is in-vitro but embryo development is in-vivo, Fertilization is in-vivo but embryo development is in-vitro...
1
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Delete
15737
Which of the following is the incorrect match with respect to ART?
6
612
Recommended Questions
ZIFT: Zygote or early embryo up to eight blastomeres is transferred into the fallopian tubes., IUT: Embryo with more than eight blastomeres is transferred into the uterus...
3
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Edit
Delete
15736
What is false for GIFT?
6
612
Recommended Questions
It is Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer, Ovum from a donor is transferred into the oviduct of the recipient...
3
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Delete
15735
ART [used to help infertile couples] stands for:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Assisted Reproductive Technologies, Artificial Reproductive Technologies...
1
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15734
Match the Column-A with the Column-B: Column-I I. IUT II. Birth control III. Spermicides IV. STD Column-II A. Copper T B. Agent to kill spermatozoa C. VDRL D. To help infertile couple
6
612
Recommended Questions
I → D, II → C, III → A, IV → B, I → D, II → C, III → B, IV → A...
4
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15733
An ART, in which embryo with more than 8 blastomeres could be transferred into the uterus is
6
612
Recommended Questions
ZIFT, IUI...
3
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Edit
Delete
15732
Match the ARTs with their description I. Collected gametes are made to form the zygote in the laboratory. II. Zygote or early embryo with up to 8 blastomeres is transferred into the oviduct. III. Zygote with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into the uterus. IV. Fusion of gametes within the female. V. Transfer of ovum from a donor to the oviduct of the recipient. VI. Sperm is injected into the ovum in-vitro.
6
612
Recommended Questions
I - G, II - B, III - F, IV - H, V - A, VI - D, I - F, II - B, III - A, IV - H, V - A, VI - G...
3
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Delete
15731
Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into?
6
612
Recommended Questions
uterus, fallopian tube...
1
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Delete
15730
Which of the following complication is/are not related with STDs? a. Pelvic inflammatory diseases b. Still births c. Ectopic pregnancies d. Erythroblastosis foetalis
6
612
Recommended Questions
a & b, a, b & c...
3
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15729
Which of the sets of diseases are completely curable if detected early?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Hepatitis - B, Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes, Chlamydiasis, Syphilis...
4
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15728
Choose the correct option: I. RTI- Reproductive Tract Infections II. VD-Venereal Diseases III. STD - Sexually Transmitted Diseases IV. IVF - Intra Vaginal Transfer
6
612
Recommended Questions
All of the above, I, II, III...
2
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15727
Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Syphilis, Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)...
4
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15726
Identify the true statements from the below statements: I. There are many side effects of tubectomy and vasectomy. II. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent egg formation. III. The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is progesterone. IV. Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by preventing ovulation. V. Genital warts is a sexually transmitted disease caused by herpes virus. VI. In India, there is rapid decline in infant mortality rate and MMR.
6
612
Recommended Questions
I, II and III, I, II and V...
3
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15725
To avoid transmission of STDs: I. Avoid sex with multiple partners. II. Always have unprotected sex. III. Use condoms during coitus. IV. Avoid sex with unknown partners V. Avoid sharing of needles
6
612
Recommended Questions
All of the above, I, III, IV, V...
2
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Edit
Delete
15724
Which of the following is/are related to STDs?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Infertility, Still birth...
4
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Edit
Delete
15723
Which of the given below sexually transmitted disease is completely curable?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Trichomoniasis, Genital herpes...
1
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Edit
Delete
15722
Which of the following diseases is/are not completely curable?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Genital herpes, HIV infection...
3
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Edit
Delete
15721
STDs lead to:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, swellings, etc., Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases (PID), ectopic pregnancies, still births, infertility, abortions, etc....
3
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Edit
Delete
15720
People especially vulnerable to STDs are in the age group:
6
612
Recommended Questions
15 - 24, 25 - 40...
1
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Edit
Delete
15719
Prevention of transmission of STDs is possible by
6
612
Recommended Questions
Avoiding sex with unknown persons/multiple persons, Using condoms during coitus...
4
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Edit
Delete
15718
MTP is practised mainly to:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Get rid of unwanted female child legally, Get rid of unwanted pregnancies due to failure of contraception or rapes...
2
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Delete
15717
The reason to legalise conditional MTPs by the government of India is
6
612
Recommended Questions
To decrease the population growth rate, To check indiscriminate and illegal male foeticide...
3
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Delete
15716
Opinion of how many registered medical practitioners is required for MTP, if the pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks?
6
612
Recommended Questions
One, Two...
2
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Edit
Delete
15715
Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Contraception, Spontaneous abortion...
3
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Edit
Delete
15714
Following statements are given regarding MTP. Choose the correct options given below: I. MTPs are generally advised during first trimester II. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method III. MTPs are always surgical IV. MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel
6
612
Recommended Questions
I and III, II and III...
3
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Edit
Delete
15713
MTP is:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Medical Termination of Pregnancy, Also called induced abortion...
3
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Edit
Delete
15712
MTP was legalised in India in:
6
612
Recommended Questions
1971, 1951...
1
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Delete
15711
Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter A. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe B. Generally, chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infants up to two years C. Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives D. Contraception pills may be taken up to one week after coitus to prevent conception Which two of the above statements are correct?
6
612
Recommended Questions
B, C, C, D...
3
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Edit
Delete
15710
Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in the following statements. A. Destruction of embryo or foetus in the uterus is called ____________. B. Government of India legalized MTP in the year ____________. C. Natural family planning method is also called ____________. D. ____________ is a method in which the male partner withdraws his penis from vagina just before ejaculation. E. ____________ is the copper releasing and is a hormone releasing intra uterine devices.
6
612
Recommended Questions
A - Foeticide, B - 1961, C - Rhythm method, D - Coitus interruptus, E - Multiload 375, LNG-20, A - Foeticide, B - 1971, C - Rhythm method, D - Coitus interruptus, E - Multiload 375, LNG-20...
2
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Delete
15709
All the following are uses of amniocentesis, but one is misuse. Which one is misuse?
6
612
Recommended Questions
This technique has been developed for detecting foetal abnormalities by analyzing chromosomal defects, The centers for genetic counselling offer amniocentesis on request of women to know: will our baby be normal...
3
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Edit
Delete
15708
MTPs are considered relatively safe during the ______ trimester; ______ trimester abortions are riskier:
6
612
Recommended Questions
First, second, Second, first...
1
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Edit
Delete
15707
Match column I and column II with respect to contraceptive methods and their mode of actions.
6
612
Recommended Questions
a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)...
2
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Delete
15706
Consider the following statements: I: The male barrier contraceptives provide protection against STDs. II: Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are the contraceptive method used more commonly by urban women in India. III: The second-generation IUDs release copper and the third-generation IUDs release hormones. Which of the above statements are true?
6
612
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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Delete
15705
Birth control pills contain synthetic estrogen and progesterone. How might these hormones prevent pregnancy?
6
612
Recommended Questions
They cause the corpus luteum to degenerate., They keep the pituitary from secreting FSH and LH, so ovulation does not occur....
2
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Delete
15704
Progesterone alone or in combination with estrogen can also be used as contraceptives by females as injections or implants under their skin. When used in this manner, they:
6
612
Recommended Questions
do not affect the release of the ovum, induce a foreign body reaction leading to rejection of the implanted blastocyst...
4
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Edit
Delete
15703
Which of the following is/are correct statement regarding contraception? (1) Insertion of IUD could be effective contraceptive within 3 days of unprotected sex (2) Morning after pills are used as emergency contraceptives (3) IUDs prevent STDs. (4) Lactational amenorrhea is due to hyperprolactinemia
6
612
Recommended Questions
(1) only, (1), (2) & (4) only...
2
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Delete
15702
Oral contraceptives do not work by
6
612
Recommended Questions
Inhibition of ovulation, Changing the consistency of cervical mucus...
4
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Edit
Delete
15701
Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Pills, Emergency contraceptives, barrier methods, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives...
2
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Delete
15700
What is true about 'Saheli'?
6
612
Recommended Questions
I, II, III, V, VI, I, III, V, VI...
2
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Delete
15699
The combination pill is taken by a female:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Daily for a period of 21 days beginning within first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, On alternate days for a period of 21 days beginning within first 5 days of the menstrual cycle...
1
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Delete
15698
Identify the incorrect statement regarding surgical birth control methods:
6
612
Recommended Questions
They are also called as "sterilization" procedures, In males, vasectomy and in females, tubectomy is advised...
4
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Delete
15697
Surgical methods of contraception prevent:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Gamete formation, Gamete motility...
2
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Edit
Delete
15696
Oral contraceptive pills are composed of:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Progestogens only, Progestogen - estrogen combinations...
4
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Edit
Delete
15695
Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Intra uterine devices Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms, Hormonal contraceptives Prevent/ retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilisation...
3
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Delete
15694
Regular oral contraceptive pills contain
6
612
Recommended Questions
Progestogen only., Progestogen - estrogen combination....
4
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Edit
Delete
15693
What is true for surgical methods? I. Also called sterilization II. Terminal method of contraception III. Block gamete transport IV. Called vasectomy in females and tubectomy in males V. High reversibility and contraceptive efficiency
6
612
Recommended Questions
I, II, III, IV, I, II, III, V...
4
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Edit
Delete
15692
Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?
6
612
Recommended Questions
No sperm occurs in seminal fluid, No sperm occurs in epididymis...
2
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Delete
15691
Match the following: Column-I A. Coitus Interruptus B. LNG - 20 C. Diaphragms D. Multiload 375 E. Saheli F. Nirodh G. Sterilization H. Vasectomy I. CuT Column-II I. Natural methods II. IUDs III. Barrier methods IV. Surgical methods V. Oral contraceptives
6
612
Recommended Questions
I - A; II - D, I; III - C, F; IV - G, H; V - E, B, I - A; II - B, D, I; III - C, F; IV - G, H; V - E...
2
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Delete
15690
Emergency contraceptive methods must be employed within:
6
612
Recommended Questions
72 hours of ovulation, 72 hours of onset of menstrual flow...
3
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Delete
15689
The main drawback of the surgical methods for birth control is:
6
612
Recommended Questions
They are poorly reversible, They are very expensive...
1
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Delete
15688
Match the following birth control methods with their corresponding images.
6
612
Recommended Questions
A - VI, B - V, C - III, D - II, E - I, A - III, B - V, C - IV, D - I, E - II...
3
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Delete
15687
Consider the two surgical procedures given below and choose the correct statement:
6
612
Recommended Questions
A is a more difficult procedure than B., The reversibility of A is good but that of B is very poor....
4
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Edit
Delete
15686
Select the mismatch with respect to function of contraceptives.
6
612
Recommended Questions
Oral contraceptive pills - Prevent ovulation, Barrier methods - Prevent physical meeting of gametes....
3
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Edit
Delete
15685
The accompanying diagram shows the uterine tubes of four women (P, Q, R and S): In which two women is fertilization impossible at present?
6
612
Recommended Questions
P and Q, Q and R...
3
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Delete
15684
Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes of action (1-4) in achieving contraception. Select their correct matching from the four options that follow: Method A. The pill 1. Prevents sperms from reaching cervix B. Condom 2. Prevents implantation C. Vasectomy 3. Prevents ovulation D. Copper-T 4. Semen contains no sperms
6
612
Recommended Questions
A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2, A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3...
1
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Edit
Delete
15683
Which of the following is/are correct?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Pill prevents ovulation, Vasectomy causes semen having no sperms...
4
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Edit
Delete
15682
Tubectomy is a method of sterilisation in which
6
612
Recommended Questions
Small part of the Fallopian tube is removed or ties up, Ovaries are removed surgically...
1
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Edit
Delete
15681
Which of the following have been found to be very effective as emergency contraceptive as they could be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape if given within 72 hours? A. Cervical caps B. Progestogen-estrogen combination C. Vaults
6
612
Recommended Questions
A only, A and B only...
4
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Edit
Delete
15680
Pills, implants and IUDs are very effective if taken within ________ of coitus.
6
612
Recommended Questions
5 days, 72 hours...
2
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Edit
Delete
15679
"Saheli" is a(n)
6
612
Recommended Questions
NGO working for female child rights, Mid-wife working in villages to help in child immunization...
4
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Delete
15678
Read the below-given statements. A. Hormone containing intrauterine contraceptive devices are not very effective contraceptive methods in comparison to the barrier methods. B. IUCDs don't prevent the entry of sperms into the uterus. Choose the correct option.
6
612
Recommended Questions
Statement A is correct and B is the correct explanation of statement A, Both the statements are correct...
3
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Delete
15677
Which of the following is not an application of IUDs?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Create a sterile inflammatory response by producing a tissue injury of a minor degree., Changing the intra-uterine environment and making it spermicidal....
4
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Edit
Delete
15676
Which of the following contraceptive devices make uterus unsuitable for implantation?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Progestasert, CuT...
1
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Edit
Delete
15675
IUDs: I. Increase phagocytosis of sperms II. Release Cu ions that suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms III. Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation IV. Make the cervix hostile to sperms V. Prevent semen from entering the female reproductive tract.
6
612
Recommended Questions
I, II, III, IV, V, I, II, III, IV...
2
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Edit
Delete
15674
The ideal contraceptive for females who want to delay pregnancy and/or space children is:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Barrier contraceptive, Periodic abstinence...
3
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Edit
Delete
15673
Odd one with respect to barrier methods of contraception is
6
612
Recommended Questions
Nirodh, Diaphragms...
3
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Edit
Delete
15672
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below: Column I I. Norplant II. LNG-20 III. DMPA IV. RU-486 Column II 1. IUD 2. Subcutaneous implant 3. Abortion pill 4. Injectable Codes: I II III IV
6
612
Recommended Questions
1 2 3 4, 2 1 4 3...
2
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Edit
Delete
15671
Mark the hormone-releasing IUDs which suppress endometrial changes in cervical mucus, cause anovulation and insufficient luteal activity.
6
612
Recommended Questions
Lippes Loop, Multiload 375...
3
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Edit
Delete
15670
Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Reusable, Non-reusable...
1
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Edit
Delete
15669
Column-I: A. Lippes loop B. Multiload 375 C. CuT D. Cu7 E. LNG-20 F. Progestasert Column-II: I. Non-medicated IUDs II. Hormone releasing IUDs III. Copper releasing IUDs The correct match is:
6
612
Recommended Questions
I → A; II → B, F; III → C, D, E, I → A; II → E, F; III → B, C, D...
2
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Edit
Delete
15668
Cu released by CuTs plays a role in:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Increasing phagocytosis of sperms, Suppressing sperm motility...
4
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Edit
Delete
15667
Odd one out in given barrier method of contraception
6
612
Recommended Questions
Nirodh, Diaphragm...
1
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Edit
Delete
15666
What is true for IUDs? I. They are self-inserted II. They are inserted by expert nurses III. They may be non-medicated IUDs, copper releasing IUDs or hormone releasing IUDs. IV. They are the one of the most widely accepted contraceptives in India. V. They are inter-uterine devices
6
612
Recommended Questions
All of the above, II; III, IV...
2
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Edit
Delete
15665
Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults prevent conception by
6
612
Recommended Questions
Increasing phagocytosis of sperms within uterus., Suppressing sperm motility....
4
View
Edit
Delete
15664
Condoms are barriers that cover:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Penis in male and ovary in female, Penis in male and cervix and vagina in female...
2
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Edit
Delete
15663
Using which contraceptive also provides protection from contracting STDs and AIDs?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Diaphragms, Spermicidal foams...
3
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Edit
Delete
15662
Multiload 375 is responsible for
6
612
Recommended Questions
Stimulation of ovulation, Stimulation of gametogenesis...
3
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Edit
Delete
15661
In lactational amenorrhoea, there is no ovulation or menstruation during the period of intense lactation following parturition, due to high level of prolactin, which?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Inhibits the release of gonadotropins, Inhibits the release of estrogen and progesterone...
1
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Edit
Delete
15660
Lactational amenorrhea method of contraception is based on the fact that:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Ovulation and menstrual flow does not occur post conception during intense lactation, The cervix mucus becomes hostile to sperms after parturition during intense lactation...
3
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Delete
15659
State which is true: I. Abortions could happen spontaneously too. II. Infertility is the inability to produce viable offspring due to defects in the female partner only III. Complete lactation could help in contraception IV. Creating awareness can help create a reproductively healthy society
6
612
Recommended Questions
I, III, IV, I, II, III...
1
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Edit
Delete
15658
Natural methods for contraception work on the principle of:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Preventing fertilization, Preventing implantation...
1
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Edit
Delete
15657
Periodic abstinence is a natural method of contraception where the couples avoid or abstain from coitus during the period of the menstrual cycle when:
6
612
Recommended Questions
There is menstrual flow, The ovulation is most likely to occur...
2
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Edit
Delete
15656
In periodic abstinence, the couple must avoid the coitus/sexual contact from day ______ of the menstrual cycle
6
612
Recommended Questions
14 to 21, 18 to 21...
4
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Edit
Delete
15655
Lactational amenorrhea is effective up to maximum period of:
6
612
Recommended Questions
3 months, 6 months...
2
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Edit
Delete
15654
Amenorrhea
6
612
Recommended Questions
will cause overdevelopment of the secondary sex characteristics, is never normal...
4
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Edit
Delete
15653
In case of natural method of contraception, like Lactational Amenorrhoea, it serves for a maximum period of
6
612
Recommended Questions
One week, One month...
4
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Edit
Delete
15652
Natural methods of birth control include?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Abstinence, Coitus interruptus...
4
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Edit
Delete
15651
Which of the following is not a cause for the rapid increase of Indian population today?
6
612
Recommended Questions
A rapid decline in death rate, An increase in the number of people in reproducible age...
3
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Delete
15650
Which one of the following is tested by the technique of amniocentesis?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Biochemical abnormalities in the foetus, Errors of metabolism in the foetus...
3
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Edit
Delete
15649
In context of amniocentesis, which of the following statements is incorrect?
6
612
Recommended Questions
It is used for prenatal sex-determination, It can be used for detection of Down syndrome...
3
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Edit
Delete
15648
Choose the correct statements: I. According to the WHO, reproductive health is total well-being in the physical, social, emotional, behavioural aspects of reproduction II. According to the WHO, reproductive health is total well being only in the social and emotional aspects of reproduction. III. A reproductively healthy society has people with physically and functionally normal reproductive organs IV. Reproductively healthy societies have abnormal sex-related emotional and behavioural interactions
6
612
Recommended Questions
I, II, III, II, IV...
3
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Edit
Delete
15647
Which of the following is not a factor that has led to a population explosion in India?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Decline in death rate, Decline in maternal mortality rate...
4
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Edit
Delete
15646
What is the approximate Indian population according to the recent census (May 2000)?
6
612
Recommended Questions
About 1 billion, About 1 million...
1
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Edit
Delete
15645
The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for
6
612
Recommended Questions
detecting sex of the unborn foetus, artificial insemination...
4
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Edit
Delete
15644
Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Klinefelter's syndrome, Sex of the foetus...
4
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Edit
Delete
15643
Statutory ban on amniocentesis in India was necessary because:
6
612
Recommended Questions
It is a very expensive, It can tell about chromosomal aberrations...
4
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Edit
Delete
15642
What does RCH stand for?
6
612
Recommended Questions
Reproductive and Complete Health, Regional and Central Healthcare...
3
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Delete
15641
Select the statement(s) that relate to reproductive health:
6
612
Recommended Questions
Healthy reproductive organs with normal functions, Emotional aspects of reproduction...
4
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Edit
Delete
15640
Mainly which hormones control the menstrual cycle in human beings:
6
611
Recommended Questions
FSH, LH...
3
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Edit
Delete
15639
If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely -
6
611
Recommended Questions
Estrogen secretion further decreases, Progesterone secretion rapidly declines...
4
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Edit
Delete
15638
Which one of the following events is correctly matched with the time period in a normal menstrual cycle?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Release of egg: 5th day, Endometrium regenerates: 5 - 10 days...
2
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Edit
Delete
15637
In which phase of menstrual cycle three peaks are observed at once?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Secretory phase, Follicular phase...
2
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Edit
Delete
15636
Which of the following hormones show two peaks during a standard menstrual cycle?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Estrogen, Progesterone...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15635
Menstrual bleeding is the result of:
6
611
Recommended Questions
low levels of ovarian hormones, high levels of ovarian hormones...
1
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Edit
Delete
15634
On first day of standard cycle, which pituitary hormone is more in amount?
6
611
Recommended Questions
FSH, LH...
1
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Edit
Delete
15633
The correct sequence of the various phases of a typical menstrual cycle is:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Menstrual → Follicular → secretory → Ovulatory, Menstrual → Follicular → Ovulatory → secretory...
2
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Delete
15632
Which event is incorrectly matched with the time of its occurrence [with respect to a 28 days menstrual cycle]?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Beginning of the menstrual flow - Day 1, Ovulation - Day 14...
4
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Edit
Delete
15631
Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human female?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Decrease in oestradiol, Full development of Graafian follicle...
1
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Edit
Delete
15630
The menstrual cycle begins with the casting off of
6
611
Recommended Questions
Placenta, Blood...
3
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Edit
Delete
15629
The following graph of relative concentrations of the four hormones present in the blood plasma of a woman during menstrual cycle. Identify the hormones:
6
611
Recommended Questions
FSH, Progesterone, LH, Oestrogen, LH, Progesterone, FSH, Oestrogen...
3
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Edit
Delete
15628
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
6
611
Recommended Questions
(iii) (ii) (i), (i) (iii) (ii)...
3
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Delete
15627
In the given diagram, identify A, B, C and D respectively:
6
611
Recommended Questions
LH, FSH, Progesterone and Estrogen, FSH, LH, Estrogen and Progesterone...
2
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Edit
Delete
15626
Match the following: Column-I: (i) Relaxin, (ii) Prolactin, (iii) Progesterone, (iv) LH. Column-II: (a) Maternity hormone, (b) Ovulation, (c) Parturition, (d) Pregnancy hormone.
6
611
Recommended Questions
(i) → (a), (ii) → (c), (iii) → (b), (iv) → (d), (i) → (c), (ii) → (d), (iii) → (b), (iv) → (a)...
4
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Delete
15625
Hormones for the menstrual cycle are produced by
6
611
Recommended Questions
ovaries only, uterus only...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15624
Menstrual flow occurs due to shedding off
6
611
Recommended Questions
Endometrium, Myometrium...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15623
Morula stage is generally observed in
6
611
Recommended Questions
Infundibulum region, Ampulla region...
3
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Edit
Delete
15622
Mark the wrong statement for uterus?
6
611
Recommended Questions
The shape of it like an inverted pear., It is supported by a ligament attached to the pelvic wall....
3
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Edit
Delete
15621
What structure gets implanted on the wall of the uterus during embryonic development?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Option 1, Option 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
15620
Morula stage is related to:
6
611
Recommended Questions
8 -16 celled, After the fertilization stage...
4
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Edit
Delete
15619
Cleavage starts
6
611
Recommended Questions
When zygote moves from ampulla towards womb, When zygote comes in womb...
1
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Edit
Delete
15618
At the time of implantation, cells attached to the endometrium of the uterus are
6
611
Recommended Questions
Inner cell mass, Trophoblast...
2
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Edit
Delete
15617
Which event surely leads to pregnancy
6
611
Recommended Questions
Unprotected coitus, Fertilization...
3
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Edit
Delete
15616
A change in ovum after penetration of sperm is
6
611
Recommended Questions
Formation of first polar body, Second meiosis starts...
4
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Delete
15615
The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs
6
611
Recommended Questions
shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube, until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm...
2
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Edit
Delete
15614
Extrusion of the second polar body from the egg nucleus occurs:
6
611
Recommended Questions
simultaneously with the first cleavage, after entry of sperm but before fertilization...
2
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Edit
Delete
15613
What ensures that only one sperm can fertilize the ovum?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Corona radiata, Ground substance around ovum...
3
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Edit
Delete
15612
Sex of the baby is determined at
6
611
Recommended Questions
Insemination, Zygote formation...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15611
During fertilization spermatozoa does not pass through
6
611
Recommended Questions
Birth canal., Uterine tube....
3
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Edit
Delete
15610
Fertilization membrane is formed to
6
611
Recommended Questions
Facilitate entry of sperm into egg., Provide stability to egg....
4
View
Edit
Delete
15609
What induces the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Contact of the sperm with the zona pellucida layer of ovum, Entry of the sperm into the cytoplasm of the ovum through the zona pellucida and the plasma membrane...
2
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Edit
Delete
15608
At the end of the second meiotic division, the human female germ cells differentiate to form
6
611
Recommended Questions
Oogonia, First polar body...
3
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Edit
Delete
15607
What is the order of layers or space from outside to inside?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Zona pellucida-Perivitelline space- plasma membrane, Perivitelline space- Plasma Membrane- Zona Pellucida...
1
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Edit
Delete
15606
Consider the following two statements: I. Not all copulations lead to fertilization and pregnancy II. Fertilization can occur if the ovum and the sperms are simultaneously transported to the fallopian tubes.
6
611
Recommended Questions
Both I and II are correct and II correctly explains I, Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I...
1
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Edit
Delete
15605
One of the following is haploid cell
6
611
Recommended Questions
Primordial germ cell, Oogonium...
4
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Edit
Delete
15604
Choose the incorrect match
6
611
Recommended Questions
Morula – 8 to 16 blastomeres, Blastocyst – Implantation in Endometrium...
3
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Edit
Delete
15603
In human females, meiosis-II is not completed until
6
611
Recommended Questions
Puberty, fertilization...
2
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Edit
Delete
15602
Fertilisation in humans is practically feasible only if
6
611
Recommended Questions
the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube, the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the cervix...
1
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Delete
15601
Sperm has several components out of which the function of the acrosome is to:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Produce base to neutralize the acidic environment of the female reproductive system, Propel the sperm as they swim through the fluid of the female reproductive tract...
3
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Delete
15600
What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida, Secretions of acrosome help one sperm enter the cytoplasm of the ovum through zona pellucida...
2
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15599
Absence of acrosome will affect which activity in a normal sperm?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Maturation of sperm, Energy utilization for movement...
4
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15598
The........ is folds of fleshy tissue which extends down from...... and surrounds the vaginal opening.
6
611
Recommended Questions
Labia minora, Labia majora, Labia minora, Mons pubis...
3
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15597
Which of the following structures is not a part of female external genitalia?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Mons pubis, Hymen...
3
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15596
Consider the following two statements: I. The hymen is often torn during the first coitus. II. The presence or absence of hymen is a reliable indicator of virginity. Of the two statements:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Both I and II are correct and II explains I., Both I and II are correct and II does not explain I....
3
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Delete
15595
Which statement is incorrect regarding female external genitalia?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hairs, The clitoris lies at the upper junction of labia minora below the urethral opening...
2
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15594
Which of the following is a paired structure?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Mons Pubis, Clitoris...
4
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Edit
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15593
Which of the following is not a part of female external genitalia?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Birth canal, Hymen...
1
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15592
A cushion of fatty tissue is
6
611
Recommended Questions
Mons pubis, Labia minora...
1
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Edit
Delete
15591
In the figure shown below, which of the following group of markings includes external genitalia only?
6
611
Recommended Questions
W, L, M, X, Y, Z...
1
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15590
Find the odd one out regarding external genitalia located in pelvic region
6
611
Recommended Questions
Mons pubis, Clitoris...
4
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Edit
Delete
15589
The female accessory duct does not include-
6
611
Recommended Questions
Fallopian tube, Uterus...
3
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Delete
15588
Female reproductive system supports which of the following processes?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Child care, Insemination...
2
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15587
The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system of humans. Which one set of three parts out of A-F have been correctly identified?
6
611
Recommended Questions
C-Infundibulum, D-Fimbriae, E-Cervix, D-Oviducal funnel, E-Uterus, F-Cervix...
1
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15586
Female reproductive system doesn't include
6
611
Recommended Questions
Ovaries, External Genitalia...
4
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15585
Which of the following is a paired structure of female reproductive system?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Womb, Ampulla...
2
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15584
What do A, B, C and D represent?
6
611
Recommended Questions
A: Infundibulum, B: Fertilization, C: Myometrium, D: Morula, A: Infundibulum, B: Fertilization, C: Endometrium, D: Blastocyst...
2
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15583
Which of the following has a cavity forming canal?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Cervix, Fallopian tube...
1
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15582
Ovary is not
6
611
Recommended Questions
Covered by thick epithelium to enclose stroma, Having stroma with outer part cortex and inner part Medulla...
1
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15581
The wider part of the fallopian tube is
6
611
Recommended Questions
Infundibulum, Isthmus...
3
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15580
The ligaments help ovaries to be in place
6
611
Recommended Questions
To form connection with pelvic wall and uterine wall, To form connection with pelvic wall...
1
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15579
Choose the incorrect match
6
611
Recommended Questions
Testicular lobules in each testis → 250, Number of primary follicles in each ovary at puberty → 6000 to 8000...
2
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15578
The primary female sex organs are located
6
611
Recommended Questions
One on each side of upper abdomen, At a time only one side of upper abdomen...
3
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15577
In the female reproductive system, the funnel-shaped part of the fallopian tube closest to the ovary is
6
611
Recommended Questions
Isthmus, Infundibulum...
2
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15576
Which of the following structures helps in collection of ovum after ovulation?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Internal os, Fimbriae...
2
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15575
Which of the following is not associated with the secretion of milk in mammary glands?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Mammary duct, Mammary lobes...
4
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15574
Mammary lobe has not
6
611
Recommended Questions
Alveoli, Mammary tubules...
4
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15573
Milk produced by alveoli is stored in
6
611
Recommended Questions
Lobes, Lumen...
2
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15572
Which of the following sequences is correct?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Lobes- Mammary Duct- Ampulla- Lactiferous Duct, Alveoli- tubules-Lactiferous Duct-Mammary Ducts...
1
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15571
Which of the following statements is not true with respect to mammary glands?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Contain glandular tissue and variable amount of fat tissues, Contain 15-20 mammary lobes containing clusters of cells called alveoli where cells of alveoli secrete milk...
3
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15570
In a functional mammary gland, the cells of _______ secrete milk, which is stored in the cavities of alveoli. Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
6
611
Recommended Questions
Alveoli, Lactiferous duct...
1
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15569
Mammary glands are not
6
611
Recommended Questions
Paired structure, Having glandular tissue...
3
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15568
Colostrum is
6
611
Recommended Questions
Milk of first day, Milk of initial few hours...
3
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15567
Lactation starts at
6
611
Recommended Questions
At the end of pregnancy, At the end of first trimester...
1
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15566
Colostrum has
6
611
Recommended Questions
Only one antibody, Several antibodies...
2
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15565
The correct sequence of mammalian mammary gland ducts beginning from alveoli would be:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Mammary tubules → Mammary ducts → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous ducts, Lactiferous ducts → Mammary ducts → Mammary ampulla → Mammary tubules...
1
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15564
The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into
6
611
Recommended Questions
10-12 mammary lobes, 15-20 mammary lobes...
2
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Delete
15563
Milk is produced by which cells?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Alveoli, Lobes...
1
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Delete
15562
The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation, called colostrum, is essential for the new born as colostrums contains:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Large amount of glucose, Anti-infective antibodies...
2
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15561
Breast feeding during initial period
6
611
Recommended Questions
Good for healthy baby, Recommended by doctors...
4
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15560
After placenta formation in humans, the maternal tissue which is in contact with chorion of foetus is
6
611
Recommended Questions
Uterine epithelium, Maternal connective tissue...
4
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15559
All of the following structures are derived from mesoderm except the ___.
6
611
Recommended Questions
pancreas, dermis of skin...
1
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15558
The limbs and digits are formed
6
611
Recommended Questions
At the ending of second month, At the ending of 8 weeks...
4
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15557
The mammary glands of female undergo differentiation
6
611
Recommended Questions
Just after parturition, During Gestation...
2
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15556
Foetal ejection reflex
6
611
Recommended Questions
Causes release of oxytocin from maternal pituitary, Itself is a result of release of oxytocin from maternal pituitary...
4
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Edit
Delete
15555
Which of the following hormones is not a secretion product of human placenta?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Prolactin, Oestrogen...
1
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15554
Oxytocin acts on
6
611
Recommended Questions
Foetus, Placenta...
3
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15553
Which one is correct with respect to path of removal of waste?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Mother- placenta- growing Foetus, Baby- umbilical cord-mother...
3
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15552
Which of the following hormones are secreted by placenta?
6
611
Recommended Questions
A only, A & B...
4
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15551
Eyelashes in foetus are formed
6
611
Recommended Questions
By the end of 12 weeks, By the end of 20 weeks...
3
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15550
The first movements of the fetus and the appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during:
6
611
Recommended Questions
2nd month, 3rd month...
3
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15549
Which of the following male and female structures are least alike in function?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Vas deferens — oviduct., Interstitial cells — Follicle cells....
4
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15548
During pregnancy the levels of thyroxin:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Increase several folds in maternal blood, Increases several folds in fetal blood...
1
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15547
The fetal body is covered with fine hair, eyelashes separate, and eyelashes are formed by the end of:
6
611
Recommended Questions
20 weeks, 24 weeks...
2
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Delete
15546
Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by
6
611
Recommended Questions
pressure exerted by amniotic fluid, release of oxytocin from pituitary...
3
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Edit
Delete
15545
What does a doctor inject to induce delivery?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Oxytocin, Estrogen...
1
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Delete
15544
During parturition, the fetal ejection reflex triggers the release of:
6
611
Recommended Questions
An increasing amount of estrogen and a decreasing amount of progesterone from the placenta, A decreasing amount of estrogen and an increasing amount of progesterone from the placenta...
3
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15543
Choose the correct statement.
6
611
Recommended Questions
hPL plays a major role in parturition, Foetus shows movements first time in the 7th month of pregnancy...
3
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15542
Match the column and choose the correct answer. Column-I: a. Hypothalamus b. Acrosome c. Graffian follicle d. Leydig cells e. Parturition Column-II: (i) Sperm lysin (ii) Estrogen (iii) Relaxin (iv) GnRH (v) Testosterone
6
611
Recommended Questions
a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii), e(v), a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii), e(v)...
4
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15541
Which of the following is the last step in the process of embryogenesis?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Attachment of spermatozoa on the surface of the corona radiate., Conversion of the primary oocyte into the secondary oocyte....
4
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15540
Extra embryonic membranes of mammalian embryo are derived from:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Inner cell mass, Formative cells...
3
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15539
Select the mismatch.
6
611
Recommended Questions
Liquor folliculi – Fluid filled in antrum, Follicular atresia – Regression of follicles in ovary...
4
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Delete
15538
Chorionic Villi will appear after implantation over
6
611
Recommended Questions
Trophoblast, Uterine tissue...
1
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15537
Which of the following event does not occur after implantation? (a) Appearance of germinal layers (b) Formation of chorionic villi (c) Secretion of HCG (d) Formation of trophoblast and inner cell mass
6
611
Recommended Questions
a, d, c,d...
3
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15536
The stem cells which have potency to give rise to all tissues and organs are formed from
6
611
Recommended Questions
Trophoblast, Umbilical cord...
3
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Delete
15535
The amount of which hormone increases in Pregnancy?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Cortisol, Insulin...
1
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Delete
15534
Identify the human development stage shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in a normal pregnant woman, and select the right option for the two together:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Blastula - End part of fallopian tube, Blastocyst - Uterine wall...
2
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15533
In a human female, the blastocyst:
6
611
Recommended Questions
gets implanted into uterus three days after ovulation, gets nutrition from uterine endometrial secretion only after implantation...
3
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Delete
15532
Stem cells that are capable of giving rise to all the tissues and organs are present in:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Cumulus oophorus of the Graafian follicle, Lutein cells of the corpus luteum...
4
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15531
Which of the following groups of hormones produced in women only during pregnancy?
6
611
Recommended Questions
hCG, hPL, relaxin, Estrogen, progesterone, hCG...
1
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Delete
15530
Cleavage is:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Dissolution of the zona pellucida, A specialized mitotic division in late fetus...
4
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15529
Morula is a solid ball of cells during early embryonic development and consists of:
6
611
Recommended Questions
4 – 8 cells, 8 – 16 cells...
2
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Delete
15528
Which set is similar:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Corpus luteum – Graafian follicles, Sebum-sweat...
1
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15527
Which of the following statement is incorrect about menstrual cycle? 1. LH Surge causes ovulation at the mid of the menstrual cycle 2. Corpus luteum is formed by graafian follicle on the next day of ovulation under the influence of progesterone 3. Abrupt fall in progesterone is the instant cause of menstruation 4. Corpus luteum remains active about 10-12 days in a normal menstruating female
6
611
Recommended Questions
LH Surge causes ovulation at the mid of the menstrual cycle, Corpus luteum is formed by graafian follicle on the next day of ovulation under the influence of progesterone...
2
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15526
Which peak of Estrogen is wider and blunt during a standard menstrual cycle?
6
611
Recommended Questions
ovulatory peak, Pre ovulatory peak...
3
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15525
Identify the hormones that are secreted in large amount prior to ovulation:
6
611
Recommended Questions
A only, A & B only...
3
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Edit
Delete
15524
Which of the following is secreted only during the luteal phase of a menstrual cycle?
6
611
Recommended Questions
LH, FSH...
4
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Delete
15523
Which of the following is true for luteal phase?
6
611
Recommended Questions
FSH stimulates follicular growth, LH causes cells of ruptured follicle to form corpus luteum...
2
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Delete
15522
In each of the boxes shown in the figure write the name of the hormone, or hormones controlling the stage in the human menstrual cycle.
6
611
Recommended Questions
(i) FSH, (ii) LH, (iii) LH, (iv) Estrogen, (v) Progesterone, (i) LH, (ii) FSH, (iii) LH, (iv) Estrogen, (v) Progesterone...
1
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Delete
15521
Which is a true statement about luteinizing hormone in the female reproductive system?
6
611
Recommended Questions
It inhibits ovulation., It causes mitosis of the primary oocyte....
4
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Delete
15520
No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Follicles do not remain in the ovary after ovulation, FSH levels are high in the luteal phase...
4
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Edit
Delete
15519
Which of the following statements is correct regarding menstrual cycle?
6
611
Recommended Questions
LH induces rupturing of Graafian follicle., Proliferative phase is characterised by the increased production of progesterone....
1
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Edit
Delete
15518
Menstruation is triggered by an abrupt decline in the amount of:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Estrogen, Progesterone...
2
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Delete
15517
Which of the following hormones show peak solely in post ovulatory phase?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Progesterone, Estrogen...
1
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Delete
15516
In the absence of fertilization, corpus luteum:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Stops secreting progesterone but increases the secretion of estrogen, Stops secreting estrogen but increases the secretion of progesterone...
4
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Delete
15515
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Ovulation - LH surge, Follicular phase of menstrual cycle - Regeneration of endometrium...
3
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Delete
15514
Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstrual cycle?
6
611
Recommended Questions
The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menarche, Lack of menstruation may also occur due to some environmental factors like stress, poor health...
4
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Delete
15513
Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstrual cycle?
6
611
Recommended Questions
The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menarche, Lack of menstruation may also occur due to some environmental factors like stress, poor health...
4
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Delete
15512
During pregnancy:
6
611
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All events of menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation, Events of menstrual cycle continue but there is no menstruation...
1
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Edit
Delete
15511
The main cause of the disintegration of the endometrial lining
6
611
Recommended Questions
LH surge, Degeneration of corpus luteum...
2
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Edit
Delete
15510
Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is the immediate cause of menstruation?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Estrogen, FSH...
4
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Edit
Delete
15509
The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce
6
611
Recommended Questions
estrogen only, progesterone...
2
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Edit
Delete
15508
Which of the following is very close to the time of ovulation?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Peak of progesterone., Minimum level of estrogen....
3
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Delete
15507
Which of the following pituitary hormones will have more amount on 29th day of standard menstrual cycle?
6
611
Recommended Questions
LH, FSH...
2
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Edit
Delete
15506
Which hormone is mainly secreted by the developing follicles during the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?
6
611
Recommended Questions
LH, FSH...
4
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Delete
15505
An oocyte is released from the ovary under the influence of LH
6
611
Recommended Questions
After completing meiosis and before polar body are released, After completing meiosis I and before release of polar body...
4
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Delete
15504
How many of the following statements are true regarding follicle stimulating hormone? (i) FSH secreted by anterior pituitary cells, is called gonadotropin (ii) Its target organs are the ovaries and testes (iii) In the ovaries, it stimulates the secretion of ovarian hormones (iv) In the testes, it stimulates the production of sperm
6
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Only (i), (ii), (iii), Only (ii), (iii), (iv)...
3
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15503
The primary oocyte completes the first meiotic division at the stage of:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Primordial follicle, Primary follicle...
4
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15502
Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during which phase of the menstrual cycle:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Just before the end of the secretory cycle., At the beginning of the proliferative phase....
3
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Delete
15501
Which of the following occur during pre ovulatory phase?
6
611
Recommended Questions
d & e only, a, b & c only...
1
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Delete
15500
The shedding of endometrium during menstruation occurs due to decline in concentration of
6
611
Recommended Questions
Estrogen, Progesterone...
2
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Edit
Delete
15499
The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called
6
611
Recommended Questions
Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days., Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days....
1
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Delete
15498
During menstrual phase, the sanitary napkins should be changed (if flow amount is according to standard cycle)
6
611
Recommended Questions
4-5 hrs, 7-8 hrs...
1
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Delete
15497
What happens to the majority of the follicles during the phase from birth to puberty?
6
611
Recommended Questions
They get invested by multiple layers of granulosa cells, They enlarge in size and then get dormant...
3
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Delete
15496
The menstrual flow results due to the breakdown of the glandular layer that lines the uterine cavity. This inner layer is
6
611
Recommended Questions
Perimetrium, Endometrium...
2
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15495
In human females menstrual cycle is repeated is after around
6
611
Recommended Questions
28/29 days, 30 days...
1
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Delete
15494
In the process of oogenesis, a polar body: I. is formed before fertilization. II. is formed after fertilization. III. normally receives most of the cytoplasm of the cell.
6
611
Recommended Questions
Only I is correct, Only II is correct...
1
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Delete
15493
Oogenesis starts at
6
611
Recommended Questions
Embryonic Development stage, At the time, when four million oogonia are formed in female foetus...
1
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Edit
Delete
15492
What is released at ovulation?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis I, Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis II...
4
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Edit
Delete
15491
Secondary oocyte is formed
6
611
Recommended Questions
At puberty, At the time of birth...
1
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Edit
Delete
15490
Arrested stage called Primary oocyte is formed
6
611
Recommended Questions
During foetal Growth, At the time of birth...
1
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Edit
Delete
15489
Mark the incorrect match
6
611
Recommended Questions
Fimbriae - Collection of ovum after ovulation., Endometrium - Undergoes cyclic changes during menstrual cycle....
4
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Edit
Delete
15488
Which of the following takes maximum duration for its completion?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Meiosis I in primary oocyte., Formation of haploid spermatozoa....
1
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Edit
Delete
15487
Fluid filled cavity is a characteristic feature of
6
611
Recommended Questions
Graafian Follicle, Tertiary Follicle...
2
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Edit
Delete
15486
Primary follicles are formed
6
611
Recommended Questions
During foetal Growth, At the time of birth...
1
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Edit
Delete
15485
The result of meiosis I in females for oogenesis will be
6
611
Recommended Questions
Secondary Oocyte, Ovum...
1
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Edit
Delete
15484
Identify the incorrect statement regarding female reproductive system?
6
611
Recommended Questions
The first meiotic division of a primary oocyte forms two secondary oocytes that remain in this stage unless fertilization occurs., Uterine tube, fallopian tube, and oviduct are terms used to refer to the same organ....
1
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Edit
Delete
15483
Which statement about human reproduction is false?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Fertilization occurs in the oviduct, An oocyte completes meiosis after a sperm penetrates it...
4
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Edit
Delete
15482
In oogenesis, when a diploid cell undergoes meiosis, how many ova result?
6
611
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
15481
Ootid is formed along with
6
611
Recommended Questions
Ovum, Second polar body...
2
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Edit
Delete
15480
The division of primary oocyte results in:
6
611
Recommended Questions
unequal cells a smaller haploid secondary oocyte and a larger diploid polar body, unequal cells a larger haploid secondary oocyte and a smaller haploid polar body...
2
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Delete
15479
Each Ovary is connected to the pelvic wall and the uterus by:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Peritoneum, Adipose tissue...
3
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Edit
Delete
15478
Refer to the given figure and choose the correct option regarding its parts labelled as A-F.
6
611
Recommended Questions
B-Graafian follicle, F-Corpus luteum, C-Graafian follicle, A-Ovum...
3
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Delete
15477
Oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis in a number of aspects. One of the following is however a similarity between the two
6
611
Recommended Questions
Growth phase is prolonged in both of them and starts before birth, Both give rise to non-motile gametes...
4
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Edit
Delete
15476
Oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis in a number of aspects. One of the following is however a similarity between the two
6
611
Recommended Questions
Growth phase is prolonged in both of them and starts before birth, Both give rise to non-motile gametes...
4
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Delete
15475
At the birth of the female child, the follicles in her ovaries contain:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Primary oocytes that have been arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle, Primary oocytes that have been arrested at the Prophase I of Meiosis I...
2
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Edit
Delete
15474
Ovaries are the primary sex organs in human females because they: I. Produce the female gamete II. Produce the hormone that regulates the development of secondary sexual characters
6
611
Recommended Questions
Both I and II, Only I...
1
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Edit
Delete
15473
At puberty, how many primary follicles are there in each ovary in a female?
6
611
Recommended Questions
60000-80000, 120000-160000...
1
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Edit
Delete
15472
The figure below shows the development of follicles (A, B, C, D). Select the option giving correct identification together with its function?
6
611
Recommended Questions
B-Secondary Follicle - secretes progesterone, D-Corpus Albicans - Secretes estrogen...
4
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Delete
15471
The human sperms are
6
611
Recommended Questions
200-300 million in number, Exact 60% with normal shape and size...
1
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Delete
15470
Suppose a man has 200 million sperms in an ejaculate and he is fertile. Opt a correct option.
6
611
Recommended Questions
125 million sperm with normal shape and size, 30 million with vigorous motility...
1
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15469
Mark the incorrect match (i) All spermatocytes have haploid structure. (ii) All of the spermatogonia changes into primary spermatocyte. (iii) FSH is required for the process of spermiogenesis. (iv) Seminal plasma is essential for maturation and motility of sperms.
6
611
Recommended Questions
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (iii) and (iv) only...
3
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15468
During coitus the human male ejaculates about
6
611
Recommended Questions
200 to 400 million sperms, 100 to 200 million sperms...
1
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15467
For normal fertility what percent of the sperm in ejaculation must exhibit vigorous motility?
6
611
Recommended Questions
20, 30...
3
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Delete
15466
Seminal plasma is rich in:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Sucrose, calcium and certain enzyme, Glucose, sodium and certain enzymes...
3
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15465
Seminal plasma of humans is rich in
6
611
Recommended Questions
Fructose and certain enzymes, poor in Ca²⁺., Fructose, Ca²⁺ and certain enzymes....
2
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Delete
15464
Which of the following duct is present outside the testis? (i) Rete testis (ii) Vasa efferentia (iii) Vas deferens (iv) Epididymis
6
611
Recommended Questions
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (iii) and (iv) only...
2
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Delete
15463
Which human male accessory reproductive duct receives a duct from the seminal vesicle?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Rete testis, Vas deferens...
2
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15462
Secretions of ………… seminal vesicle and prostate are essential for maturation and motility of sperm.
6
611
Recommended Questions
Epididymis, Vas deferens...
3
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15461
Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from
6
611
Recommended Questions
testicular lobules to rete testis, rete testis to vas deferens...
2
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15460
If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from:
6
611
Recommended Questions
epididymis to vas deferens, ovary to uterus...
4
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15459
The functions of male sex accessory ducts and glands are maintained by:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Hypothalamic releasing hormone, Pituitary gonadotropins...
4
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15458
Which of the following ascends to abdomen?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Epididymis, Vas Deferens...
2
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15457
Which of the following structures loop over urinary bladder?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Epididymis, Vas Deferens...
2
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15456
Which of the structures shown in the following diagram contributes to the source of nutrition for the sperms ejaculated in the semen?
6
611
Recommended Questions
A, B...
1
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15455
If vas deferens in human male reproductive system is blocked, then transport of sperms will be blocked from
6
611
Recommended Questions
Rete testis to epididymis, Vasa efferentia to epididymis...
4
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15454
Select the correct sequence for the transport of sperm cells in the male reproductive system:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal canal → Urethra → Urethral meatus, Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra...
3
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15453
The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into Vasa efferentia through.......
6
611
Recommended Questions
Rete Testis, Vas Deferens...
1
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15452
The male sex accessory ducts do not include-
6
611
Recommended Questions
Rete testis, Vasa efferentia...
4
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15451
Secretions from which one of the following are rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Liver, Pancreas...
4
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15450
Sperm motility is facilitated by
6
611
Recommended Questions
Middle piece, Neck...
3
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15449
How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?
6
611
Recommended Questions
4, 8...
3
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15448
Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilization, The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilization...
2
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15447
Mark the incorrect match that is not related?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Sertoli cell - Spermiation, Spermatid - Spermiogenesis...
3
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15446
The functions of male sex accessory ducts and glands are maintained by
6
611
Recommended Questions
GnRH, LH...
4
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15445
In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the:
6
611
Recommended Questions
primary spermatocytes, secondary spermatocytes...
2
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15444
The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by the process called:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Spermiation, Spermatocytogenesis...
3
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15443
The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is?
6
611
Recommended Questions
In spermiogenesis, spermatids are formed, while in spermiation, spermatozoa are formed., In spermiogenesis, spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation, spermatids are formed....
4
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15442
Spermiation is
6
611
Recommended Questions
Release of sperms from seminiferous tubules, Release of secondary spermatocyte from seminiferous tubules...
1
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15441
The final release of sperms from the seminiferous tubules is called:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Spermiation, Emission...
1
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15440
Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → vas deferens, Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent ductules → vas deference...
1
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15439
Which of the following does not have 46 chromosomes?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Spermatogonia, Primary Spermatocyte...
3
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15438
The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is
6
611
Recommended Questions
spermatocyte - spermatogonia - spermatid - sperms, spermatogonia - spermatocyte - spermatid - sperms...
2
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15437
Which of the following cell will undergo meiosis?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Sertoli cells, Spermatogonia...
2
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15436
Acrosome is
6
611
Recommended Questions
Part of sperm head, Caps the anterior portion of haploid nucleus...
4
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15435
Given below is the structure of sperm of the human male. Identify the structure 'X' and choose the option representing the correct description/function of X.
6
611
Recommended Questions
Contains chromosomal material, Provides energy source for swimming...
2
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15434
The structure of testis of a mammal can be identified by the presence of
6
611
Recommended Questions
Spermatogonia, Spermatocytes...
3
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15433
Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Spermatogonia, Primary spermatocytes...
4
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15432
The level of which hormone gets increased first and stimulate spermatogenesis at puberty?
6
611
Recommended Questions
GnRH, Testosterone...
1
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15431
Leydig cells:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Are present in seminiferous tubules and secrete androgens, Are present in seminiferous tubules and help in maturation of sperms...
3
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15430
Which of the following cell completes the first meiotic division leading to the formation of two equal, haploid cells?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Spermatogonium, Primary spermatocytes...
2
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15429
Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Primary polar body, Spermatid...
3
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15428
Which of the following is wrong?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Spermatogonia and leydig cells are present in seminiferous tubules, Small blood vessels are present along with Leydig cells...
1
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15427
Arrange the following process starting from the germ cells of seminiferous tubule? (i) Meiotic division in secondary spermatocytes. (ii) Spermiation. (iii) Spermiogenesis. (iv) Capacitation.
6
611
Recommended Questions
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)...
2
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15426
FSH:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis, Acts on Sertoli cells and inhibits secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis...
1
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15425
In the vertebrates testes, for nourishment during spermiogenesis, the spermatids get attached to
6
611
Recommended Questions
Interstitial cells, Sperm-mother cells...
4
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15424
Sertoli cells are found in
6
611
Recommended Questions
ovaries and secrete progesterone, adrenal cortex and secrete adrenalin...
3
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15423
How many seminiferous tubules will be there per testicular lobule?
6
611
Recommended Questions
1 to 3, 500...
1
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15422
Leydig cells are present in
6
611
Recommended Questions
Seminiferous tubules, Outside seminiferous tubules...
2
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15421
Find the incorrect statement
6
611
Recommended Questions
scrotum helps in maintaining low temperature of the testes 2-2.5 degrees C less than normal, necessary for spermatogenesis, Each testis has about 250 testicular lobules...
4
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15420
Each testis in humans is covered by a dense connective tissue covering and has about _____ compartments
6
611
Recommended Questions
2, 25...
3
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15419
It is a diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive system, in which identify the ejaculatory duct:
6
611
Recommended Questions
A, B...
2
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15418
Epididymis is located in....of testis.
6
611
Recommended Questions
Anterior surface, Posterior surface...
2
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15417
Male reproductive system of humans has not
6
611
Recommended Questions
A testis only, Accessory Ducts...
1
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15416
Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Select the correct set of the names of the parts labelled A, B, C, D:
6
611
Recommended Questions
Ureter Prostate Seminal vesicle Bulbourethral gland, Vas deferens Seminal vesicle Prostate Bulbourethral gland...
2
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15415
What is not correct with respect to testis in adults?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Spherical in shape, 4-5 cm in length and width of 2-3 cm...
1
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15414
Testes of humans are located in
6
611
Recommended Questions
Inside abdominal cavity, Within a tunnel like structure...
3
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15413
Which of the following is not a part of male external genitalia?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Glans Penis, Foreskin...
4
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15412
Suppose the internal temperature of body is 36.5 degree celsius now what will be the temperature required for human spermatogenesis?
6
611
Recommended Questions
34.2 degree Celsius, 33 degree Celsius...
1
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15411
The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum. This is necessary as:
6
611
Recommended Questions
The scrotum can contain lengthy ducts for the transfer of sperms, Scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes necessary for spermatogenesis...
2
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Delete
15410
Scrotum helps in maintaining the temperature of the testes which is A lower than the normal body temperature. Each testis has about B compartments called testicular lobules. Select the option that fills the blanks correctly.
6
611
Recommended Questions
1-3°C 300, 2-2.5°C 250...
2
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15409
The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for
6
611
Recommended Questions
escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs, providing more space for the growth of epididymis...
4
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15408
In the male human being, sperms contain autosomes and
6
611
Recommended Questions
Only one Y-chromosome, Only one X-chromosome...
4
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15407
In humans, the sex of the baby is determined:
6
611
Recommended Questions
At the time of fertilization and by the father, At the time of fertilization and by the mother...
1
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15406
Humans are
6
611
Recommended Questions
Oviparous females, Sexually Reproducing...
2
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15405
Which of the following is not correct with respect to Human reproduction?
6
611
Recommended Questions
There is remarkable similarity between the reproductive events of males and females, Continuation of sperm formation in old man...
1
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15404
Which of the following order is not correct for the events of human reproduction?
6
611
Recommended Questions
Gametogenesis- Insemination- Fertilization, Fertilization-Insemination- Gametogenesis...
2
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15166
Which of the following is true about Pancreas
6
610
Recommended Questions
Heterocrine gland, Composite gland...
4
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15165
Glucagon and insulin hormone can be distinguished based on
6
610
Recommended Questions
Location of receptors i.e. intracellular or extracellular, Their source gland...
4
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15164
Which of the following acts on the endocrine part of the pancreas?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Gastrin, Secretin...
4
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15163
Identify the hormone: I. It favors glycogenesis II. It favors fat synthesis and deposition III. It favors protein anabolism
6
610
Recommended Questions
Cortisol, Insulin...
2
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15162
The condition of prolonged hyperglycemia leads to
6
610
Recommended Questions
Diabetes Insipidus, Diabetes mellitus...
4
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15161
Which of the following hormone is responsible for hypoglycemia
6
610
Recommended Questions
Insulin, Glucagon...
1
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15160
Match the following columns and select the correct option: Column I (a) Pituitary gland (b) Thyroid gland (c) Adrenal gland (d) Pancreas Column II (i) Grave's disease (ii) Diabetes mellitus (iii) Diabetes insipidus (iv) Addison's disease
6
610
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(iii) (ii) (i) (iv), (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)...
2
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15159
Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Glucagon - Beta cells (source), Somatostatin - Delta cells (source)...
1
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15158
Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilisation.
6
610
Recommended Questions
Insulin, Glucagon...
1
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Edit
Delete
15157
Which of the following is true about Islet of Langerhans
6
610
Recommended Questions
Known as exocrine pancreas, 1 to 2% of the pancreatic tissue...
2
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15156
Which of the following hormones is incorrectly paired with its action?
6
610
Recommended Questions
oxytocin–stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth, thyroxine–stimulates metabolic processes...
3
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15155
Which of the following represents the action of insulin?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Increases blood glucose level by stimulating glucagon production., Decreases blood glucose level by forming glycogen....
2
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15154
Which of the following statements regarding glucagon is false? 1. It is secreted by alpha-cells of Langerhans. 2. It acts antagonistically to insulin. 3. It decreases blood sugar level. 4. The gland responsible for its secretion is heterocrine gland
6
610
Recommended Questions
It is secreted by alpha-cells of Langerhans., It acts antagonistically to insulin....
3
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15153
Which of the following is responsible for hyperglycemia
6
610
Recommended Questions
Glucagon, Glucocorticoids...
4
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Delete
15152
Select the correct statement about hormones and their actions.
6
610
Recommended Questions
Parathyroid hormone increases K⁺ absorption of the body., Insulin and glucagon helps to maintain blood sugar levels....
2
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15151
Given ahead is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands and one major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C.
6
610
Recommended Questions
Placenta Insulin Vasopressin, Ovary Insulin Calcitonin...
4
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15150
The glucose homeostasis in blood is maintained by
6
610
Recommended Questions
Insulin, Glucagons...
3
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Edit
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15149
How many of the following organised endocrine glands are present in males? Pancreas, Thymus, Adrenal, Testes, Kidney, GIT, Heart, Ovary, Pituitary, Thyroid
6
610
Recommended Questions
10, 7...
3
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15148
Which one of the following statements is correct?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa., Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, and nervous system regulates endocrine glands....
2
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15147
Which of the following is true about Endocrine system
6
610
Recommended Questions
It is not directly connected with organs, Response is slow...
4
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15146
The system which coordinate and regulate the physiological functions in the body is
6
610
Recommended Questions
Nervous System and Excretory system, Endocrine System and Circulatory system...
3
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15145
Which of the following is true about Endocrine glands
6
610
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Ductless glands, Secretion is hormones...
4
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15144
Which of the following is true about neural system
6
610
Recommended Questions
It provides point to point rapid coordination among organs, Coordination is fast and short lived...
4
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15143
Contraction in gall bladder is stimulated by:
6
610
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CCK, PZ...
1
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15142
Which of the following hormone is secreted from the intestinal mucosa and stimulates the release of enzymes in the pancreatic juice?
6
610
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Secretin, Cholecystokinin...
2
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15141
Match the following Column I (A) GIP (B) Secretin (C) Cholecystokinin (D) Duocrinin Column II (i) ↑ Crypts of Lieberkuhn (ii) ↑ HCO₃⁻ secretion in pancreatic juice (iii) ↑ Brunner's gland secretion (iv) ↑ Gastric juice secretion (v) ↓ Gastric juice secretion (vi) ↑ Contraction of gall bladder
6
610
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(v) (ii) (vi) (iii), (ii) (v) (iii) (vi)...
1
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15140
Find out the correct match from the following table: Column-I Column-II Column-III (i) Heart Atrial natriuretic factor Decreases blood pressure (ii) Kidney Erythropoietin Formation of RBC (iii) Gastro-intestinal tract Gastrin Induces gastric secretion
6
610
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(ii) and (iii), (i) and (iii)...
4
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15139
Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
6
610
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Angiotensin and epinephrine, Gastrin and insulin...
3
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15138
A peptide hormone which causes dilation of blood vessels and decreases blood pressure is
6
610
Recommended Questions
Aldosterone, Adrenaline...
4
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15137
Diseases caused due to insufficiency of hormones include all except
6
610
Recommended Questions
Cushing's disease, Addison's disease...
1
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15136
Which of the following hormone is secreted by the adrenal cortex?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Adrenaline, Non- adrenaline...
4
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15135
Which of the following is incorrect about glucocorticoids
6
610
Recommended Questions
stimulate cellular uptake and utilization of amino acids, suppresses the immune response...
1
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15134
Which of the following hormone stimulates Gluconeogenesis
6
610
Recommended Questions
Glucagon, Glucocorticoids...
4
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Edit
Delete
15133
Which of the following is responsible for the growth of axial hair, facial hair during puberty in females?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Androgens, Aldosterone...
1
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Delete
15132
Which of the following is the inner layer of the adrenal cortex?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Zona glomerulosa, Zona reticularis...
2
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15131
Which of the following is incorrect about the adrenal gland
6
610
Recommended Questions
Located on the posterior part of the kidney, located on anterior part of the kidney...
1
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Delete
15130
Which one influences the activity of the kidney?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Vasopressin, Thyroxine...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15129
Which of the following is the outermost layer of the adrenal cortex?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Zona glomerulosa, Zona reticularis...
1
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Edit
Delete
15128
Which of the following is maintained by aldosterone
6
610
Recommended Questions
Body fluid volume, Osmotic pressure...
4
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Edit
Delete
15127
Chemically hormones are:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Proteins, steroids & biogenic amines, Proteins only...
1
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15126
How many of these hormones will interact with the membrane-bound receptor? Thyroxin, epinephrine, progesterone, relaxin, estrogen:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Three, Two...
2
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15125
Extracellular receptors must be required for the action of:
6
610
Recommended Questions
I, II, III & IV, I, IV only...
3
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15124
What is correct for the hormone whose mechanism of action is shown in the given diagram?
6
610
Recommended Questions
This hormone will most likely be synthesized by the neural cells of the hypothalamus, This hormone cannot be thyroxin or triiodothyronine...
3
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Delete
15123
Some hormones can act on their target cells through second messengers. Identify the one that does not:
6
610
Recommended Questions
cortisol, adrenaline...
1
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Delete
15122
The biomolecule that cannot act as a chemical messenger [hormone] is:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Proteins, Steroids...
4
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Delete
15121
A hormone that has intracellular receptors would be
6
610
Recommended Questions
ACTH, ADH...
4
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15120
Which of the following set of hormones can easily pass through the cell membrane of a target cell and bind to specific intracellular receptors?
6
610
Recommended Questions
b&c, a,b&c...
4
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Delete
15119
How many of the following hormones don't enter the target cell? Cortisol, Iodothyronine, Testosterone, Estradiol, FSH, Insulin, Glucagon
6
610
Recommended Questions
4, 7...
3
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Delete
15118
Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action.
6
610
Recommended Questions
A = Steroid Hormone; B = Hormone receptor Complex; C = Protein, A = Protein Hormone; B = Receptor; C = Cyclic AMP...
2
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15117
Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass through the cell membrane of the target cell and bind to a receptor inside it (mostly in the nucleus)?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Insulin and glucagon, Thyroxin and insulin...
4
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Delete
15116
Which of the following is an incorrect statement
6
610
Recommended Questions
Hormones bind to specific proteins located in the target tissues only., Receptors for hormones can only be present on the cell membrane...
2
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Delete
15115
Incorrect match with respect to hormone and its chemical nature is
6
610
Recommended Questions
Cortisol – Steroidal, Thyroxine – Iodothyronine...
3
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Edit
Delete
15114
Besides cAMP, which one of the following molecules acts as a 'secondary messenger' in the biological system?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Ca²⁺, ATP...
1
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Delete
15113
The binding of a hormone to its receptor leads to
6
610
Recommended Questions
formation of the hormone-receptor complex, leads to biochemical changes in the target tissue...
4
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Delete
15112
Which set includes hormones that are involved in carbohydrate metabolism?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, calcitonin, Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol...
2
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Delete
15111
Spermatogenesis takes place in
6
610
Recommended Questions
Interstitial cells, Leydig cells...
4
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Edit
Delete
15110
Which of the following hormone induce ovulation and maintains corpus luteum?
6
610
Recommended Questions
FSH, LH...
2
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Edit
Delete
15109
Androgens are secreted by
6
610
Recommended Questions
Interstitial cells, Seminiferous tubules...
4
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Edit
Delete
15108
Which of the following hormone is called pregnancy hormone
6
610
Recommended Questions
Estrogen, Progesterone...
2
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Delete
15107
The development of secondary sexual characters in females is primarily controlled by:
6
610
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Estrogen, Progesterone...
1
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Delete
15106
Which of the following is not true about testosterone
6
610
Recommended Questions
stimulates spermatogenesis, influence libido...
3
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Edit
Delete
15105
Which of the following is true about progesterone
6
610
Recommended Questions
Supports pregnancy, Stimulates the formation of alveoli in breast...
4
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Delete
15104
Which of the following is an ovarian hormone
6
610
Recommended Questions
estrogen, Progesterone...
4
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Delete
15103
Which of the following is a temporary endocrine gland in the human body?
6
610
Recommended Questions
pineal gland, corpus cardiacum...
3
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Delete
15102
Which of the following is true about testosterone
6
610
Recommended Questions
regulate accessory sex organs development, stimulate muscular growth...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15101
Which of the following is true about estrogen
6
610
Recommended Questions
responsible for high pitch of voice, regulate female sexual behaviour...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15100
Choose the incorrect statement
6
610
Recommended Questions
Thyroxine deficiency in adults causes Myxedema, PTH and TCT are responsible for maintaining the blood calcium level...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15099
Identify the incorrect match:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Gastrin - Stomach - Stimulates gastric secretion, GIP - Duodenum - Inhibits gastric secretion...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15098
The hormones from the heart, kidney, and gastrointestinal tract respectively are:
6
610
Recommended Questions
ANF, Rennin, Trypsin, ADH, Renin, GIP...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15097
Which of the following stimulates the secretion of HCl and pepsinogen?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Gastrin, Secretin...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15096
Which of the following inhibits gastric secretion?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Gastrin, Secretin...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15095
Select the true statement(s): A. Growth factors are hormones secreted by several non-endocrine tissues. B. Estradiol is synthesised and secreted mainly by growing ovarian follicles. C. Catecholamines stimulate the breakdown of glycogen. D. Adrenal cortex secretes androgen like hormone.
6
610
Recommended Questions
B & C, A, C & D...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15094
Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only. (a) Pineal gland is situated on the ventral side of forebrain. (b) Corpus luteum is formed after ovulation and its formation is induced by LH. (c) In female, oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterus at the time of childbirth and milk ejection from mammary body. (d) Pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity called sella turcica.
6
610
Recommended Questions
Statements (a), (b) and (d), Statements (b) or (d)...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15093
Which of the following is the effect of the hormone secreted by the Heart?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Dilation of blood vessels, Decrease blood pressure...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15092
The atrial wall of our heart secretes a very important peptide hormone called_____, which_____ because it causes dilation of the blood vessels. Choose the option which correctly fills the blank.
6
610
Recommended Questions
Rennin, increases the blood pressure, Angiotensinogen, decreases the blood pressure...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15091
Which one of the following four glands is correctly matched with the accompanying description?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Thyroid - hyperactivity in young children causes cretinism, Thymus - starts undergoing atrophy after puberty...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15090
Which of the following hormone is responsible for humoral immunity?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Thyroxine, Antibodies...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15089
Which of the following is incorrect about thymus gland
6
610
Recommended Questions
lobular in structure, located on ventral side of heart and aorta...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15088
The immune responses in older people are weak due to the degeneration of:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Thyroid, Pineal...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15087
Which of the following hormone is responsible for cell mediated immunity?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Thyroxine, adrenaline...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15086
A gland called 'Clock of ageing' that gradually reduces and degenerates in ageing is
6
610
Recommended Questions
thyroid, thymus...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15085
Poor immunity of old people is because of the absence of which gland
6
610
Recommended Questions
Pineal gland, Thymus...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15084
Artificial light, extended work-time and reduced sleep-time disrupt the activity of:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Thymus gland, Pineal gland...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15083
Which of the following endocrine gland secretes melatonin
6
610
Recommended Questions
Pituitary gland, Pineal gland...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15082
Which of the following is true about melatonin?
6
610
Recommended Questions
It influences metabolism, It influences pigmentation...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15081
Which of the following hormone regulates sleep-wake cycle?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Melatonin, Thyroxine...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15080
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Growth hormone - Increases blood glucose level, Thyroxin - Supports erythropoiesis...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15079
Sugar metabolisms, sex corticoids, salt retaining & stress management hormones releases from:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Only A, Only B...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15078
A person with Addison disease __________.
6
610
Recommended Questions
is unable to replenish blood glucose levels under stressful conditions, develops dramatically more male features...
1
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Edit
Delete
15077
Glucocorticoids do not: 1. Stimulate gluconeogenesis 2. Cause lipolysis 3. Cause proteolysis 4. Stimulate cellular uptake and utilization of amino acids
6
610
Recommended Questions
Stimulate gluconeogenesis, Cause lipolysis...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15076
A corticoid which is responsible for the electrolyte balance in our body is
6
610
Recommended Questions
Aldosterone, Adrenaline...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15075
A steroid hormone which regulates glucose metabolism is:
6
610
Recommended Questions
cortisol, corticosterone...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15074
Which of the following is true about glucocorticoids
6
610
Recommended Questions
Regulate Cardio-vascular and kidney functions, Anti-inflammatory agent...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15073
Adrenaline has a direct effect on:
6
610
Recommended Questions
S.A. Node, β-cells of Langerhans...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15072
Which of the following is incorrect about catecholamines
6
610
Recommended Questions
increase in glucose concentration blood, stimulate lipids and fats breakdown...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15071
Which hormone causes dilation of blood vessels, increased oxygen consumption and gluco-genesis?
6
610
Recommended Questions
ACTH, Insulin...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15070
Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Aldosterone, Both androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15069
Select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and its function:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Norepinephrine - Adrenal medulla - Increases heartbeat, rate of respiration and alertness, Glucagon - Beta-cells of Islets of Langerhans - Stimulates glycogenolysis...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15068
Catecholamine in a normal person induces
6
610
Recommended Questions
intense salivation, alertness...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15067
A rise in a heartbeat, increase in the cardiac output, blood pressure and blood sugar occurs during an emergency, by the hormone
6
610
Recommended Questions
Aldosterone, Antidiuretic hormone...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15066
The centrally located tissues of the adrenal gland are called
6
610
Recommended Questions
adrenal cortex, Adrenal medulla...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15065
Fight-or-flight reaction cause activation of:
6
610
Recommended Questions
the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate., the kidney, leading to suppression of the rennin angiotensin-aldosterone pathway....
3
View
Edit
Delete
15064
Feeling the tremor of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoried building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Thyroxine, Adrenaline...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15063
Mary is about to face an interview. But during first five minutes before the interview, she experiences sweating, increased rate of heart beat, respiration etc. Which hormone is responsible for her restlessness?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Prostaglandins and Vasopressin, Epinephrine and Cortisol...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15062
Which of the following is true about catecholamines
6
610
Recommended Questions
Increase heartbeat, cause goose bumps...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15061
Which of the following is not true about parathyroid hormone?
6
610
Recommended Questions
It is a peptide hormone, It stimulates resorption of bones...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15060
Which of the following symptom can not be expected, if there is tumour like growth in parathyroid glands?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Tetany of muscle., Increase in Ca⁺⁺ level deposition of bones....
4
View
Edit
Delete
15059
The blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of?
6
610
Recommended Questions
parathormone, thyroxine...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15058
Identify the incorrect statement: 1. In males FSH regulates spermatogenesis 2. Thyroid gland produces T3 and thyroxine (T4) hormones 3. ACTH stimulates secretion of glucocorticoids 4. PTH is a hyperglycemic hormone
6
610
Recommended Questions
In males FSH regulates spermatogenesis, Thyroid gland produces T3 and thyroxine (T4) hormones...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15057
Which of the following is incorrect with respect to parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Secretion of PTH is regulated by circulating levels of calcium ions., PTH acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone mineralisation....
2
View
Edit
Delete
15056
If insufficient PTH is produced, the blood calcium level drops, resulting in _____.
6
610
Recommended Questions
reduced growth in childhood or parathyroid dwarfism, tetany, where the body shakes from continuous muscle contraction...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15055
A hormone that is antagonist to the parathyroid hormone is secreted from:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Thyroid, Adrenal cortex...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15054
Parathyroid hormone works antagonistic with
6
610
Recommended Questions
Thyrocalcitonin, Thyroxine...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15053
In a child of 15 years age, plasma calcium level is diagnosed below optimum level. Which organ is malfunctioning?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Thyroid gland, Liver...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15052
Identify the gland (a) and (b) shown below and select right option giving their number & function
6
610
Recommended Questions
a (i) Thyroid 1 pair Promotes the bone deformation, b (ii) Thyroid 2 pairs Promotes the stunted growth of growing baby...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15051
Which hormone regulates the calcium level in our body?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Thyrocalcitonin, Parathyroid hormone...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15050
Select the incorrect match with respect to hormones and respective deficiency disease
6
610
Recommended Questions
PTH – Diabetes insipidus, Growth hormone – Dwarfism...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15049
Which of the following is true about parathyroid glands?
6
610
Recommended Questions
They are 4 in number, Located on dorsal side of thyroid gland...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15048
Function of thyrocalcitonin:
6
610
Recommended Questions
To reduce the calcium level in blood, To increase the calcium level in blood...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15047
Dwarfism, pot belly and deaf-mutism are seen in which disease?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Myxoedema, Cretinism...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15046
A man is having tumor in thyroid gland which adversely affects the body physiology, this is because of
6
610
Recommended Questions
hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15045
A man is having tumor in thyroid gland which adversely affects the body physiology, this is because of
6
610
Recommended Questions
hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15044
A person who has enlarged thyroid gland, protruded eye balls, increased BMR and weight loss is suffering from
6
610
Recommended Questions
Exopthalmic goitre, Graves’ disease...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15043
Graves disease is caused due to?
6
610
Recommended Questions
hyposecretion of thyroid gland, hypersecretion of thyroid gland...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15042
A child, with stunted growth, mental retardation, low IQ, and deaf-mutism, is having these conditions because of
6
610
Recommended Questions
hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15041
A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation/low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Low secretion of growth hormone, Cancer of the thyroid gland...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15040
Which of the following hormone regulates BMR of the body?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Thyroxine, Thyrocalcitonin...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15039
Which of the following is likely to develop goitre?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Thyroid gland that is producing too much parathormone, Circulating levels of thyrotropin are too low...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15038
Which of the following conditions is not linked to thyroid hormone?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Cretinism, Goitre...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15037
Thyroxine controls the metabolism of the following macromolecules except
6
610
Recommended Questions
Carbohydrates, Fats...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15036
Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Posterior Pituitary, Growth Hormone (GH), Oversecretion stimulates abnormal growth, Thyroid gland, Thyroxine, Lack of iodine in diet results in goitre...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15035
One of these pairs are not correctly matched
6
610
Recommended Questions
Insulin – Raised blood sugar, Cretinism – Mental retardation...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15034
Find out the correct match for the following table. Column-I Column-II Column-III (i) Pituitary gland Growth hormone Acromegaly (ii) Thyroid gland Thyroxine Exophthalmic goitre (iii) Pituitary gland ADH Diabetes mellitus
6
610
Recommended Questions
(i) only, (i) and (ii)...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15033
The thyroid gland is composed of
6
610
Recommended Questions
Follicles, Stromal tissues...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15032
Which of the following is true about thyroid gland?
6
610
Recommended Questions
It has 2 lobes, It is present on either side of trachea...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15031
The thyroid gland is composed of
6
610
Recommended Questions
Follicles, Stromal tissues...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15030
Select the incorrect match of a hormone, its source, and function
6
610
Recommended Questions
Oxytocin - Hypothalamus - Milk ejection, Vasopressin - Posterior pituitary - Reabsorption of water from the nephric filtrate...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15029
Which one of the following hormones is not involved in sugar metabolism?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Cortisone, Aldosterone...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15028
Oxytocin helps in
6
610
Recommended Questions
Ovulation, Lactation but not childbirth...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15027
Which of the following is a storage and release center for neurohormones?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Anterior pituitary, Posterior pituitary...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15026
A person passes a lot of dilute urine and drinks a lot of water but does not have glycosuria. He is most likely suffering from:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Type 1 diabetes mellitus, Type 2 diabetes mellitus...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15025
All the following are secreted by the anterior pituitary except:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Prolactin, Somatotropin...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15024
Which of the following hormones is responsible for both the milk ejection reflex and the foetal ejection reflex?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Estrogen, Prolactin...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15023
In human adult females, oxytocin
6
610
Recommended Questions
is secreted by anterior pituitary, Stimulates growth of mammary glands...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15022
How many of the following hormones are secreted by posterior pituitary? GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH, LH, FSH, MSH, Oxytocin and vasopressin
6
610
Recommended Questions
2, 4...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15021
A hormonal disorder that develops when pituitary gland produces too much growth hormone during adulthood is known as:
6
610
Recommended Questions
cretinism, gigantism...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15020
Which of the following is caused because of the excess secretion of the GH?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Gigantism, Acromegaly...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15019
MSH is secreted by:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Anteria lobe of the pituitary, Middle lobe of the pituitary...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15018
How many hormones in the given list are not produced by the anterior pituitary? Prolactin(PRL), growth hormone(GH), Oxytocin, Thyroid stimulating hormone(TSH), vasopressin, somatostatin, and Gonadotrophin releasing hormone(GnRH).
6
610
Recommended Questions
6, 5...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15017
Adenohypophysis is an endocrine gland that secretes all of the following except:
6
610
Recommended Questions
corticotropin, luteinizing hormone...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15016
How many of the following hormones are secreted by Anterior Pituitary? GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH, LH, FSH, Oxytocin and vasopressin
6
610
Recommended Questions
9, 8...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15015
ACTH controls the secretion of:
6
610
Recommended Questions
cortisol, aldosterone...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15014
Which one of the following hormones though synthesised elsewhere, is stored and released by the master gland?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Antidiuretic hormone, Luteinizing hormone...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15013
Which of the following is not a correct combination of the hormone with its source organ and target organ?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Somatostatin - Hypothalamus - Adenohypophysis, FSH - Ovary - Uterus...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15012
Group of neurosecretory cells found in hypothalamus is known as
6
610
Recommended Questions
ganglia, nuclei...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15011
Adenohypophysis in humans consists of:
6
610
Recommended Questions
Pars distalis and Pars nervosa, Pars intermedia and Pars distalis...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15010
What is the effect of GnRH produced by hypothalamus?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Stimulates the synthesis and secretion of androgens, Stimulates secretion of milk in mammary glands...
1
View
Edit
Delete
15009
Which of the following hormone is formed in the hypothalamus?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Adrenalin, Oxytocin...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15008
GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on
6
610
Recommended Questions
anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin, anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH...
2
View
Edit
Delete
15007
Which of the following endocrine glands is under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Pineal, Thymus...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15006
Which of the following hormones stimulates the synthesis and secretion of steroid hormones from adrenal cortex
6
610
Recommended Questions
LH, FSH...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15005
Which of the following types of hormones are released by Hypothalamus
6
610
Recommended Questions
Releasing hormones, Inhibitory hormones...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15004
Read the following statement: (a) The hypothalamus is the basal part of diencephalon (b) Hypothalamus contains group of neurosecretory cells called ganglia which regulate the synthesis and secretion of pituitary hormone (c) GnRH from hypothalamus stimulate the anterior pituitary to release gonadotrophins (d) The posterior pituitary is under direct chemical regulation of the hypothalamus How many of above statements are correct?
6
610
Recommended Questions
4, 3...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15003
Sella Turcica is found
6
610
Recommended Questions
in bones, in joints...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15002
Oxytocin and vasopressin synthesised in hypothalamus and reach to posterior pituitary by way of
6
610
Recommended Questions
Anterior pituitary gland, Portal circulation...
4
View
Edit
Delete
15001
Select the correct matching of hormone its source of synthesis and function.
6
610
Recommended Questions
Glucagon - b-cells of pancreas - Increase blood glucose levels, Vasopressin - Hypothalamus - Increase diuresis...
3
View
Edit
Delete
15000
Which of the disease is likely to happen if an impairment affecting synthesis of ADH results in loss of water and dehydration
6
610
Recommended Questions
Diabetes Insipidus, Diabetes Mellitus...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14999
Which gland is under the direct neural regulation of hypothalamus?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Pineal gland, Anterior pituitary gland...
3
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Edit
Delete
14998
The basal part of diencephalon is
6
610
Recommended Questions
Hypothalamus, Epithalamus...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14997
Neurohypophysis store and release hormones which are actually synthesised by the hypothalamus and are transported axonally here. Which of the following hormones belong to this category?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Glucocorticoid gonadotropins, FSH, LH...
3
View
Edit
Delete
14996
How many of the following are peptide hormones? Gastrin, Secretin, Cholecystokinin, Gastric inhibitory peptide, ANF, Erythropoietin
6
610
Recommended Questions
3, 4...
4
View
Edit
Delete
14995
Which of the following is incorrect about hormones
6
610
Recommended Questions
Highly specific in nature, released into blood...
3
View
Edit
Delete
14994
Which of the following statement is correct in relation to the endocrine system?
6
610
Recommended Questions
Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus, Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones...
3
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Edit
Delete
14993
The amino acid derivative among the following hormone is:-
6
610
Recommended Questions
Insulin, Epinephrine...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14992
Which of the following is not true for cerebrum?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Forms the major part of the human brain, A deep cleft divides transversely into two halves...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14991
Which of the following is the outermost mean of protection for brain?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Skull, Dura mater...
1
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Delete
14990
Read all statements carefully and identify the number of correct ones: (a) Neural system provides an organised network of point-to-point connections for quick coordination. (b) Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse. (c) Cerebral aqueduct passes through the midbrain. (d) The hypothalamus contains centers that control respiration and gastric secretions.
6
609
Recommended Questions
One, Two...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14989
Which of the following is the outermost cranial meninges?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Pia mater, Dura mater...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14988
Which of the following cranial meninges is in close contact of the brain tissue?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Arachnoid, Pia mater...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14987
Which of the following is the middle layer of cranial meninges?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Arachnoid, Dura mater...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14986
Mark the incorrect match:
6
609
Recommended Questions
Cerebral aqueduct → A canal passes through the midbrain, connecting 3rd ventricle to 4th ventricle of brain., Corpus callosum → Thick band of nerve fibres that divides the cerebral cortex lobes into left and right hemispheres....
2
View
Edit
Delete
14985
The layer of cells which covers the cerebral hemisphere is called
6
609
Recommended Questions
Cerebrum, Pia mater...
3
View
Edit
Delete
14984
Which of the following areas does not belong to cerebral cortex?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Motor areas, Sensory areas...
4
View
Edit
Delete
14983
The grey color of cerebral cortex is due to
6
609
Recommended Questions
Neuronal cell bodies, Neuronal axons...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14982
Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Medulla oblongata, Cerebrum...
3
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Edit
Delete
14981
The cerebral cortex is referred to
6
609
Recommended Questions
White matter, Grey matter...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14980
Cerebral cortex is thrown into
6
609
Recommended Questions
Prominent folds, Prominent skull suture...
1
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Edit
Delete
14979
Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its location and function:
6
609
Recommended Questions
Cerebellum, Mid brain, Controls respiration and gastric secretions, Hypothalamus, Fore brain, Controls body temperature, urge for eating and drinking...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14978
______ integrates information received from semicircular canals of ear and ______ regulates emotional reactions with limbic system.
6
609
Recommended Questions
Cerebral cortex, Midbrain, Cerebellum, Midbrain...
4
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Edit
Delete
14977
___A___ is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling present in the forebrain of the central nervous system. Here 'A' is:
6
609
Recommended Questions
Association area, Thalamus...
2
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Edit
Delete
14976
Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?
6
609
Recommended Questions
limbic system—screening of information between the spinal cord and the brain; regulates arousal and sleep, medulla oblongata—homeostatic control center...
1
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Delete
14975
Which of the following statements are true regarding association areas of brain? A. These are the largest areas of forebrain. B. These are involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of emotional reactions and motivation. C. These are responsible for complex functions like intersensory association, memory and communication. D. It is a part of cerebral cortex.
6
609
Recommended Questions
A & B, A, B & C...
3
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Delete
14974
Hypothalamus does not contain centre for controlling
6
609
Recommended Questions
Body temperature, Hunger...
3
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Edit
Delete
14973
Consider the characteristics of a certain part of the human brain: I. It contains neurosecretory cells. II. It is an important part of the limbic system. III. It is a part of the diencephalons. This part of the human brain is:
6
609
Recommended Questions
Hypothalamus, Medulla oblongata...
1
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Delete
14972
Cerebral aqueduct passes through the:
6
609
Recommended Questions
Mid brain, Diencephalon...
1
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14971
Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt:
6
609
Recommended Questions
short-term memory, co-ordination during locomotion...
4
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Edit
Delete
14970
Limbic system is concerned with
6
609
Recommended Questions
Components of cerebrum and diencephalon, Regulation of sexual behaviour...
4
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Edit
Delete
14969
Which of the following is not associated with midbrain?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Located between thalamus of the forebrain and pons of the hindbrain, A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passes through the midbrain...
3
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Delete
14968
A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passes through the:
6
609
Recommended Questions
Diencephalon, Midbrain...
2
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Edit
Delete
14967
Pons connects different regions of the brain by the means of
6
609
Recommended Questions
Fibre Tracts, Cell bodies...
1
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Edit
Delete
14966
Which of the following is not regulated by Medulla?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Respiration, Cardiovascular reflexes...
4
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Edit
Delete
14965
The brain stem does not include:
6
609
Recommended Questions
medulla, pons...
4
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Delete
14964
Which of the following is not a part of forebrain?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Cerebrum, Thalamus...
4
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Edit
Delete
14963
The reflex arc ends at:
6
609
Recommended Questions
sensory neuron, motor neuron...
3
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14962
Consider the following statements. (a) Occurs involuntarily and without conscious effort. (b) At least no afferent and two efferent neuron required. (c) Only motor neuron is involved in the action. (d) Polysynaptic and conditional reflex. (e) Regulated by the spinal cord. Which of the above statements are correct for the reflex shown in the above figure?
6
609
Recommended Questions
a and e, b, c and d...
1
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14961
Which of the following is a reflex action?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Sudden withdrawal of body part, when it comes in contact of hot body, Knee jerk reflex...
4
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Edit
Delete
14960
The sensory neuron enters the spinal cord through:
6
609
Recommended Questions
The dorsal root of the spinal nerve, The ventral root of the spinal nerve...
1
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Edit
Delete
14959
Reflex action does not involve
6
609
Recommended Questions
Conscious thought, PNS...
1
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Edit
Delete
14958
The........ receive signals from........ and transmit it via........ nerve root
6
609
Recommended Questions
Afferent neurons, sensory organs, dorsal, Afferent neurons, effector organs, ventral...
1
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Delete
14957
A major coordinating center for sensory and motor signaling in the human brain is shown in the given sagittal section by the letter:
6
609
Recommended Questions
A, B...
2
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Delete
14956
Highly vascular and closely investing protective coat around the brain is known as
6
609
Recommended Questions
Arachnoid, Pia mater...
2
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Delete
14955
Unmyelinated nerve fiber is:
6
609
Recommended Questions
Not enclosed by a Schwann cell and hence not enclosed by a myelin sheath., Enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath....
2
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Delete
14954
The limbic system is formed by
6
609
Recommended Questions
The hypothalamus, epithalamus, amygdala and hippocampus, Hypothalamus, amygdala and hippocampus...
2
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Edit
Delete
14953
Which of the following neural system relays the impulse from CNS to skeletal muscles?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Somatic neural system, Sympathetic neural system...
1
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Edit
Delete
14952
The somatic neural system of the peripheral nervous system
6
609
Recommended Questions
Relays impulses from CNS to smooth muscles of body, Relays impulses from organs to the CNS...
4
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Delete
14951
Consider the following statements: I. Acetylcholine is released at the electric synapse. II. Electric synapses are faster. III. It is more difficult to regulate an electric synapse with respect to a chemical synapse. Which of the above statements are true?
6
609
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
3
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Edit
Delete
14950
Nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another neuron by the means of
6
609
Recommended Questions
Synapse, Junction...
3
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Edit
Delete
14949
In chemical synapse, postsynaptic membrane receptor binds with
6
609
Recommended Questions
Excitatory neurotransmitter., Inhibitory neurotransmitter....
4
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Edit
Delete
14948
Mark the correct statement:
6
609
Recommended Questions
Electrical synapses are more common in our neural system than chemical synapses., The new potential in the post-synaptic neurons may be either excitatory or inhibitory....
2
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Delete
14947
A diagram showing the axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of A-D:
6
609
Recommended Questions
B- Synaptic connection; D- K⁺, A- Neurotransmitter; B- Synaptic cleft...
4
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Delete
14946
Five events in the transmission of nerve impulse across the synapse are given– A. Opening of specific ion channels allows the entry of ions, a new action potential is generated in the post synaptic neuron. B. Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on post synaptic membrane C. Synaptic vesicle fuses with pre-synaptic membrane, neurotransmitter releases into synaptic cleft D. Depolarization of pre-synaptic membrane E. Arrival of action potential at axon terminal. In which sequence do these events occur?
6
609
Recommended Questions
E → D → C → B → A, A → B → C → D → E...
1
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Edit
Delete
14945
Synaptic cleft is not
6
609
Recommended Questions
Separated by pre synaptic and post synaptic neurons, a fluid filled space...
4
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Edit
Delete
14944
Which of the following is not associated with electrical synapse?
6
609
Recommended Questions
No synaptic cleft, Pre synaptic membranes and post synaptic membranes are in close association with each other...
4
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Edit
Delete
14943
Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are located on the:
6
609
Recommended Questions
tips of axons, axon membranes in the regions of the nodes of Ranvier...
3
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Edit
Delete
14942
Which of the following is not associated with impulse transmission across an electrical synapse?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Faster than chemical synapse, Rare in our system...
4
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Edit
Delete
14941
Which of the following has not to be there in a synapse?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Pre synaptic neuron, Post synaptic neuron...
4
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Edit
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14940
Which of the following is not associated with chemical synapse?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Slower than electrical synapse, Synaptic cleft...
4
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Edit
Delete
14939
Consider the following statements: I: The resting axonal membrane is nearly impermeable to sodium ions. II: Depolarization of the axonal membrane is due to the influx of sodium ions. III: The size of the action potential, if produced, does not depend on the strength of the stimulus. Which of the above statements are true?
6
609
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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Edit
Delete
14938
Restoration of resting potential of the membrane at the site of excitation is achieved by:-
6
609
Recommended Questions
Diffusion of K⁺ outside the membrane, Diffusion of Na⁺ outside the membrane...
1
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Edit
Delete
14937
Which of the following minerals reduces the excitability of nerves and muscles?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Potassium, Sodium...
1
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Edit
Delete
14936
Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular gates open?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Sodium, Chloride...
4
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Edit
Delete
14935
When neuron is resting, which of the following is false with respect to that
6
609
Recommended Questions
It is not conducting any impulse, Axonal membrane is more permeable to potassium ions...
3
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14934
Read the following statements (A) Depolarization of an axonal membrane is caused due to rise in stimulus-induced permeability to Na+ and its rapid influx into axoplasm. (B) Diffusion of K+ outside the axonal membrane restores the resting potential of the membrane. (C) Sodium potassium pump maintains active transport of 2Na+ outwards for 3K+ into axoplasm across resting membrane Choose the option that represent correct statements only
6
609
Recommended Questions
A only, A and B...
2
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14933
During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of
6
609
Recommended Questions
K⁺ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid, Na⁺ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid...
4
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Delete
14932
The depolarization of the axonal membrane is due to:
6
609
Recommended Questions
Influx of sodium ions, Efflux of sodium ions...
1
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Edit
Delete
14931
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below: Column I I. Influx of sodium II. Efflux of potassium III. Na⁺/K⁺ pump IV. Ca⁺⁺ Column II 1. Original establishment of RMP 2. Repolarization 3. Depolarization 4. Plateau in cardiac muscles Codes:
6
609
Recommended Questions
3 2 4 1, 2 1 4 3...
4
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Edit
Delete
14930
The 'sodium-potassium pump' pumps _____.
6
609
Recommended Questions
sodium ions out and potassium ions in, sodium ions in and potassium ions out...
1
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Edit
Delete
14929
Depolarization of axolemma during nerve conduction takes place because of:
6
609
Recommended Questions
Equal amount of Na⁺ & K⁺ moves out across axolemma, Na⁺ ions move inside...
2
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Edit
Delete
14928
Which of the following event can be related to the repolarisation of nerve fiber?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Opening up of K⁺ gated channel, Opening up of Cl⁻ gated channel...
4
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Edit
Delete
14927
Nerve impulse travelling through synapses cannot be
6
609
Recommended Questions
Excitatory, Inhibitory...
4
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Edit
Delete
14926
During the process of impulse conduction, the depolarisation of axon takes place because
6
609
Recommended Questions
Voltage gated K⁺ channels open, Equal amounts of Na⁺ and K⁺ are pumped out...
3
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Edit
Delete
14925
The resting axonal membrane of a neuron:
6
609
Recommended Questions
is not polarized, has an excess of anions on the outside...
3
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Edit
Delete
14924
Sodium potassium pump in neuronal membranes is
6
609
Recommended Questions
Responsible for transfer of 3 sodium outwards and two potassium inwards, Responsible for 2 sodium outwards and three potassium inwards...
1
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Edit
Delete
14923
When a stimulus is applied at a site over neuron membrane
6
609
Recommended Questions
It becomes freely permeable to Sodium ions, It becomes freely permeable to potassium ions...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14922
Ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by
6
609
Recommended Questions
Active transport of ions, RMP...
1
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Edit
Delete
14921
In a chemical synapse, when an impulse arrives at the axon terminal, it: 1. leads to the opening of the calcium channels at the post-synaptic membrane. 2. Stimulates the fusion of synaptic vesicles towards the pre-synaptic membrane. 3. causes the binding of the neurotransmitter of its receptors on the post-synaptic neuron. 4. activates the opening of the potassium channels in the axon terminal.
6
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Recommended Questions
leads to the opening of the calcium channels at the post-synaptic membrane., Stimulates the fusion of synaptic vesicles towards the pre-synaptic membrane....
2
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Delete
14920
The rise in stimulus-induced permeability to a. Potassium ions b. Sodium ions c. Restoring RMP d. Diffusion of potassium ions Arrange them in order.
6
609
Recommended Questions
b-a-c-d, a-b-c-d...
3
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Delete
14919
The........ difference across the resting membrane is called as Resting potential.
6
609
Recommended Questions
Electrochemical potential, Electrical potential...
2
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Edit
Delete
14918
Which of the following conditions are not true across resting membrane?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Axoplasm has more number of Potassium ions, Axoplasm has less number of sodium ions...
3
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Edit
Delete
14917
At Resting condition, the neuron membrane is
6
609
Recommended Questions
Negative from outside, Negative from inside...
2
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Edit
Delete
14916
Neurons are excitable cells because
6
609
Recommended Questions
Their membranes are in unpolarized state, There membranes are very light to create channels...
4
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Edit
Delete
14915
The membrane of neuron is polarized because
6
609
Recommended Questions
Different kind of lipids are there over membrane, Different kinds of ion channels are there in membrane...
4
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Edit
Delete
14914
The polarity of the membrane at site A is reversed ie inside of the membrane becomes changed from negative to positive
6
609
Recommended Questions
Called as depolarization, Called as repolarization...
1
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Edit
Delete
14913
Consider the following statements: I. Somatic neural system relays impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles. II. Autonomic neural system transmits impulses from CNS to involuntary organs and smooth muscles. III. Unmyelinated nerve fibres are commonly found in spinal and cranial nerves. Which of the above statements are true?
6
609
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
1
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Edit
Delete
14912
Node of Ranvier occurs where
6
609
Recommended Questions
nerve is covered with myelin sheath, neurolemma is discontinuous...
4
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Edit
Delete
14911
Which of the following is/are controlled by the human brain?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Only d, a and d...
4
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Edit
Delete
14910
Nissl's Granules are not found in
6
609
Recommended Questions
Dendrites, Cell body...
3
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Edit
Delete
14909
The somatic neural system relays impulses
6
609
Recommended Questions
From skeletal muscles to CNS, From CNS to skeletal muscles...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14908
Select the incorrect statement:
6
609
Recommended Questions
Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase is an electrogenic pump that helps to maintain an electrochemical ionic gradient across axolemma., At rest, axoplasm has lower Na⁺ ions concentration than K⁺ ion concentration....
4
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Edit
Delete
14907
Unmyelinated nerve fibres are found in
6
609
Recommended Questions
Autonomous, Somatic Neural systems...
3
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Edit
Delete
14906
Unipolar neuron means
6
609
Recommended Questions
Cell body with one axon only, Cell body with dendrite only...
1
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Edit
Delete
14905
PNS does not belong to which of the following system?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Somatic Neural System, Autonomic Neural System...
3
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Edit
Delete
14904
The neural system provides an organized network of ___A___ connections for a ___B___ coordination. Choose the correct option for A, B to complete the given statement.
6
609
Recommended Questions
A – point to point, B – slow, A – chemical, B – fast...
3
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Edit
Delete
14903
PNS does not consist of
6
609
Recommended Questions
Afferent Fibres, Efferent Fibres...
4
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Edit
Delete
14902
Multipolar neurons are
6
609
Recommended Questions
One axon and two or more dendrites, One dendrites and two or more axon...
1
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Edit
Delete
14901
CNS is not
6
609
Recommended Questions
Brain, Spinal cord...
4
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14900
Which of the following does not have a brain?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Hydra, Insects...
1
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Edit
Delete
14899
Which of the following is not associated with ANS?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Sympathetic neural system, Parasympathetic neural system...
3
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Edit
Delete
14898
Axon cannot have
6
609
Recommended Questions
Synaptic knob with synaptic vesicles, Distal end is branched...
4
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Edit
Delete
14897
Myelinated nerve fibres are found in
6
609
Recommended Questions
Cranial nerves, Spinal nerves...
3
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Edit
Delete
14896
Neuron cannot perform which of the following functions?
6
609
Recommended Questions
Detection of stimuli, Receiving stimuli...
4
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Edit
Delete
14895
The gaps between two adjacent myelin sheath are called
6
609
Recommended Questions
Nodes of Ranvier, Axon terminal...
1
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Edit
Delete
14894
Human neural system has
6
609
Recommended Questions
CNS, PNS...
3
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Edit
Delete
14893
Consider the following statements: I. A motor neuron along with the muscle fibers connected to it constitute a motor unit II. The neurotransmitter released at the neuro-muscular junction is Acetylcholine. III. Myosin head has ATPase activity Which of the above statements are true?
6
609
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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Edit
Delete
14892
164
6
608
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
14891
Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human skeleton?
6
608
Recommended Questions
First vertebra is axis that articulates with the occipital condyles, The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs...
4
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Delete
14890
Present in the ventral midline of thorax and is a flat bone; It can be
6
608
Recommended Questions
Scapula, Sternum...
2
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Edit
Delete
14889
Human skull has how many occipital condyle?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Two, Four...
1
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Edit
Delete
14888
The articulation of skull with the vertebral column is by
6
608
Recommended Questions
Occipital condyles, Occipital bone...
1
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Edit
Delete
14887
Human skull is:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Dicondylic, Monocondylic...
1
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Edit
Delete
14886
How many ear ossicles are there in humans?
6
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Recommended Questions
6, 8...
1
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Edit
Delete
14885
Consider the following statements: I. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder affecting the neuromuscular junction II. Muscular dystrophy is a progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles mostly due to a genetic disorder III. Tetany is rapid spasms in muscles due to high Ca²⁺ in body fluid. Which of the above statements are true?
6
608
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
1
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Edit
Delete
14884
Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system
6
608
Recommended Questions
Myasthenia gravis- Autoimmune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments, Gout-inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium...
4
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Delete
14883
Which of the following is not a disorder of muscular and skeletal system?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Gout, Myasthenia gravis...
4
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Edit
Delete
14882
Which one of the following disorder of bones is characterized by microarchitectural deterioration of the bone, increased fragility, and prone to fracture?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Osteoarthritis, Gouty arthritis...
3
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Edit
Delete
14881
Match the columns: Column I: (a) Myasthenia gravis, (b) Tetany, (c) Muscular dystrophy, (d) Gout. Column II: (i) Wild contractions for prolonged period due to decreased Ca++ in blood, (ii) Affects neuromuscular junction and results in muscle paralysis, (iii) Increased uric acid levels in blood and joints, (iv) Degeneration of skeletal muscles.
6
608
Recommended Questions
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii), (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)...
1
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Edit
Delete
14880
Arthritis is
6
608
Recommended Questions
Inflammation of joints, Inflammation of forelimbs...
1
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Edit
Delete
14879
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Proximal radio-ulnar joint - Pivot, Joint between the carpals - Gliding...
3
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Edit
Delete
14878
Which of the following is wrong?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Force generated by muscle is used to carry out movement through joints, The movability of joints vary depending on different factors...
3
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Edit
Delete
14877
Consider the following statements: I. Proximal radioulnar joint is a type of ellipsoidal joint. II. The first carpo-metacarpal joint is a saddle joint. III. Gleno-humeral joint is a ball and socket joint. Which of the above statements are true?
6
608
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
3
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Edit
Delete
14876
Which of these pairs is mismatched?
6
608
Recommended Questions
slightly movable joint–vertebrae, hinge joint–hip...
2
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Edit
Delete
14875
The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is
6
608
Recommended Questions
Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements - Knee joints, Fluid filled between two joints, provides cushion - Skull bones...
3
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Delete
14874
Complete the analogy with respect to joints Saddle joint: Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb:: Hinge joint:_____
6
608
Recommended Questions
Between femur and acetabulum, Between femur and tibia...
2
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Edit
Delete
14873
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Hinge - Knee, Pivot - Between atlas and axis vertebra...
3
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Delete
14872
Match the following: (i) Fibrous Joint (ii) Cartilaginous Joint (iii) Pivot Joint (iv) Ball and Socket Joint (a) Between two adjacent vertebrae. (b) Between humerus and pectoral girdle. (c) Sutures. (d) Between atlas and axis.
6
608
Recommended Questions
iv → (d), iii → (b), i → (c), ii → (a), i → (a), ii → (c), iii → (d), iv → (b)...
3
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14871
Consider the characters of a particular type of joint: I. It is a type of synovial joint II. It enables the bone to move in a 360° angle. III. It is exemplified by joint between humerus and pectoral girdle What is this type of joint called?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Hinge, Ball and socket...
2
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Edit
Delete
14870
The name of the joint between the ribs and sternum is:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Cartilaginous joint, Angular joint...
1
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Edit
Delete
14869
Fibrous joints are not
6
608
Recommended Questions
Do not allow any movement, Present between flat skull bones which fuse end to end...
4
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Delete
14868
Which of the following joints would allow no movement?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Fibrous joint, Cartilaginous joint...
1
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Edit
Delete
14867
Joint between bones in the form of sutures of human skull is a:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Hinge joint, Synovial joint...
4
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14866
The fusion of which set of bones forms the coxal bone of the pelvic girdle?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Malleus, incus and stapes, Ilium, scapula and ischium...
3
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Delete
14865
Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair.
6
608
Recommended Questions
Malleus and stapes - Ear ossicles, Sternum and Ribs - Axial skeleton...
3
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Delete
14864
In the given four statements (a-d), select the options, which includes all the correct ones only: (a) Fibula does not participate in knee joint formation. (b) Tarsal bones are much larger and stronger than carpal bones because they have to support and distribute body weight. (c) Scapula situated dorsally in thoracic region between 2nd and 7th rib. (d) Two half of the pelvis girdle meet dorsally to form the pubic symphysis containing fibrous cartilage.
6
608
Recommended Questions
Statement (a), (b), (c), Statement (a), (c), (d)...
1
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Delete
14863
The clavicle is articulated with the:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Xiphoid process of the sternum, Acromion of the scapula...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14862
Select the mismatch
6
608
Recommended Questions
Scapula - Situated in between 2nd to 7th ribs, Ball and socket joint - Humerus and pectoral girdle...
4
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Edit
Delete
14861
Mark the correct set for appendicular skeleton?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Coxal bone, Clavicle, Hyoid bone., Patella, Coxal bone, Sacrum....
3
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Edit
Delete
14860
Pick out the correct match
6
608
Recommended Questions
Sternum - 14, Pelvis - 3...
2
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Edit
Delete
14859
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below: Column I I. Acetabulum II. Glenoid Cavity III. Vertebrosternal ribs IV. Vertebrochondral ribs Column II 1. Pectoral girdle 2. Pelvic girdle 3. 7 pairs 4. 3 pairs Codes I II III IV
6
608
Recommended Questions
1 2 3 4, 2 1 4 3...
3
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Edit
Delete
14858
An acromion process is characteristically found in the -
6
608
Recommended Questions
Skull of frog, Sperm of mammals...
4
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Edit
Delete
14857
Acromion process is related to
6
608
Recommended Questions
Scapula, Humerus...
1
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Edit
Delete
14856
What part of the scapula bone shown in the figure articulates with the head of the humerus?
6
608
Recommended Questions
A, B...
3
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Delete
14855
Scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated in the dorsal part of the thorax between:
6
608
Recommended Questions
the second and fifth ribs, the second and seventh ribs...
2
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Edit
Delete
14854
Identify the structure marked 'X'
6
608
Recommended Questions
Humerus, Radius...
4
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Edit
Delete
14853
The depression on the coxa where the head of the femur articulates is the
6
608
Recommended Questions
acetabulum., auricular surface....
1
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Edit
Delete
14852
The longest bone of human body is not
6
608
Recommended Questions
Femur, Two in number...
4
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Edit
Delete
14851
Match the following Column I a. Tarsal b. Phalanges c. Meta tarsal d. Femur Column II i. 14 ii. 1 iii. 7 iv. 5
6
608
Recommended Questions
a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii), a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv)...
1
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Edit
Delete
14850
Ankle bones in human body are not
6
608
Recommended Questions
5 in number, Known as Tarsals...
1
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14849
Given diagram shows bone of the left human hindlimb as seen from front. It has certain mistakes in labeling. Two of the wrongly labelled bones are
6
608
Recommended Questions
tibia and tarsals, femur and fibula...
3
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Delete
14848
In the given diagram of the lower limb bones of a human, a sesamoid bone is depicted by the letter:
6
608
Recommended Questions
A, B...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14847
Knee cap is not
6
608
Recommended Questions
Known as patella, Covers knee ventrally...
4
View
Edit
Delete
14846
Metacarpals are
6
608
Recommended Questions
Palm bones, Human body has 10 metacarpals...
4
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Edit
Delete
14845
Number of bone in each upper limb is:
6
608
Recommended Questions
1, 1, 1, 1, 8, 5, 14...
4
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Edit
Delete
14844
Digits are not
6
608
Recommended Questions
Found in forelimb, 15 in one hand...
2
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Delete
14843
Carpal is not
6
608
Recommended Questions
Wrist bone, 8 carpals in each forelimb...
3
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Edit
Delete
14842
Limbs in humans are not used for
6
608
Recommended Questions
Change in body postures, Locomotion...
3
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Edit
Delete
14841
Which of the following is not a forelimb bone?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Fibula, Humerus...
1
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Delete
14840
Which of the following is not a bone of hindlimb?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Femur, Tibia...
4
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Edit
Delete
14839
The total number of bones in the limb of a man is
6
608
Recommended Questions
24, 30...
2
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Edit
Delete
14838
The human ribs are termed as bicephalic because:
6
608
Recommended Questions
They have two articulations surfaces on their ventral end., They have two articulations surfaces on their dorsal end....
2
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Delete
14837
Which one of the following items gives its correct total number?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Floating ribs in humans - 4, Amino acids found in proteins -16...
1
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Edit
Delete
14836
Floating ribs are not
6
608
Recommended Questions
Four in number, Connected dorsally...
3
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Edit
Delete
14835
True ribs are
6
608
Recommended Questions
First seven pairs, Dorsally attached to sternum...
1
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Edit
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14834
Hyaline cartilage helps in the attachment of
6
608
Recommended Questions
8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs to the 7th pair of ribs, 7th pair of ribs to the vertebral Column...
1
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Edit
Delete
14833
Hyaline cartilage connects which of the following ribs pair directly to the sternum?
6
608
Recommended Questions
7th rib pair, 12th rib pair...
1
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Edit
Delete
14832
Which of the following ribs have direct attachment with the sternum?
6
608
Recommended Questions
6th pair, 9th pair...
1
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Edit
Delete
14831
Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of X and Y and provides their explanation.
6
608
Recommended Questions
X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached, dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum., X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on the two ends....
1
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Edit
Delete
14830
Given below is a diagrammatic representation of vertebral column. Which of the labelled structure forms thoracic cage?
6
608
Recommended Questions
A, B...
2
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Edit
Delete
14829
Which of the following is not a part of rib cage?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Thoracic vertebrae, Ribs...
4
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Edit
Delete
14828
Which of the following can not be true?
6
608
Recommended Questions
All mammals have seven cervical vertebrae, Vertebral Column protects the spinal cord, and supports the head....
1
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Edit
Delete
14827
Identify the structure labelled as 'A' and choose the correct option with respect to its number in human body
6
608
Recommended Questions
7 in number (cervical vertebrae), 12 in number (lumbar vertebrae)...
4
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Edit
Delete
14826
Vertebral Column is not
6
608
Recommended Questions
26 serially arranged units called vertebrae, Dorsally placed...
3
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Edit
Delete
14825
Spinal cord passes through
6
608
Recommended Questions
Neural canal, Central hollow portion of vertebra...
3
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Edit
Delete
14824
First vertebra, help in articulation of vertebral Column with the occipital condyle are the properties of
6
608
Recommended Questions
Atlas, Coccyx...
1
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Edit
Delete
14823
Which of the following is correct formula for vertebral column bones?
6
608
Recommended Questions
C7 T12 L5 S1- fused Co-1 fused, C8 T12 L5 S2- fused Co-1 fused...
1
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Edit
Delete
14822
Consider the diagram given below. Parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E and F respectively indicate.
6
608
Recommended Questions
Sacrum, ilium, pubis, femur, tibia and fibula, Ilium, pubis, sacrum, femur, fibula and tibia...
4
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Edit
Delete
14821
Which of the following are involved in the formation of acetabulum?
6
608
Recommended Questions
a & b only, b & c only...
4
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Edit
Delete
14820
Each limb has.... Bones and human body has......
6
608
Recommended Questions
30, 120, 20, 80...
1
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Edit
Delete
14819
How many vertebrochondral ribs are found in humans?
6
608
Recommended Questions
12 pairs, 5 pairs...
3
View
Edit
Delete
14818
The human skull has 22 bones with... cranial bones and... facial bones
6
608
Recommended Questions
10,12, 14,8...
4
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Edit
Delete
14817
Appendicular skeleton does not carry
6
608
Recommended Questions
Bones of the limbs, Girdles...
4
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Edit
Delete
14816
Number of bones in human axial skeleton is:
6
608
Recommended Questions
80, 106...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14815
The figure is of rib cage. Identify A, B and C respectively:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Coccyx, ribs, vertebral column, Sternum, ribs, vertebral column...
2
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Edit
Delete
14814
How many bones make up the human skeleton?
6
608
Recommended Questions
948, 96...
4
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Edit
Delete
14813
The useful purpose served by lactate fermentation is:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Make lactose available for gluconeogenesis, Production of additional ATP in anaerobic conditions...
3
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Edit
Delete
14812
Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as
6
608
Recommended Questions
fatigue, tetanus...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14811
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below: Column I I. Influx of sodium II. Efflux of potassium III. Na⁺/K⁺ pump IV. Ca⁺⁺ Column II 1. Original establishment of RMP 2. Repolarization 3. Depolarization 4. Plateau in cardiac muscles Codes:
6
608
Recommended Questions
3 2 4 1, 2 1 4 3...
4
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Delete
14810
What is true about the white muscle fibers?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Myoglobin content is high, They have a large number of mitochondria...
3
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Edit
Delete
14809
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Myasthenia gravis - Antibodies against neuromuscular junction, Tetany - Hypocalcemia...
3
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Edit
Delete
14808
Arrange the following events involved in muscular contraction (i) Action potential enters muscle fibre through T-tubules (ii) Ca²⁺ binds with troponin-C (iii) Actomyosin cross bridge formation (iv) Sliding of thin myofilament along the thick myofilament (v) Exposure of active sites on actin filaments (vi) Release of Ca²⁺ from sarcoplasmic reticulum
6
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Recommended Questions
(i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv) → (v) → (vi), (vi)→(v)→(iv)→(iii)→(ii)→(i)...
4
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Delete
14807
Hypocalcemia may lead to:-
6
608
Recommended Questions
Kidney stones, Cholelithiasis...
4
View
Edit
Delete
14806
Red muscle fibres differs from white muscle fibres in having
6
608
Recommended Questions
More sarcoplasmic reticulum, Less myoglobin content...
3
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Edit
Delete
14805
If production of pyruvic acid by anaerobic metabolism in a muscle is faster than it can be utilized, the surplus is converted to:
6
608
Recommended Questions
lactic acid, adenosine diphosphate...
1
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Edit
Delete
14804
Which of the following property cannot be attributed to white fibers?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Fewer mitochondria, Anaerobic process for energy...
4
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Edit
Delete
14803
In a healthy person, the red muscle fibres appear red due to stored
6
608
Recommended Questions
Carboxyhemoglobin, Carbaminohemoglobin...
3
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Delete
14802
Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at:
6
608
Recommended Questions
the neuromuscular junction, the transverse tubules...
1
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Edit
Delete
14801
Repeated activation of the muscles can lead to
6
608
Recommended Questions
Accumulation of pyruvate due to anaerobic breakdown of glycogen, Accumulation of lactic acid due to anaerobic breakdown of glycogen...
4
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Edit
Delete
14800
The muscle can directly use which of the following as a source of energy?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Creatine phosphate, Glucose...
3
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Edit
Delete
14799
Muscle fatigue occurs due to the accumulation of
6
608
Recommended Questions
CO₂, Myosin ATPase...
3
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Edit
Delete
14798
Sliding filament theory can be best explained as
6
608
Recommended Questions
when myofilaments slide pass each other actin filaments shorten while myosin filament do not shorten, actin and myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other...
3
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Edit
Delete
14797
Read the following statements (A-D):- (A) A neural signal reaching the neural muscular junction releases adrenalin. (B) Many monomeric proteins called meromyosin constitute one thin filament. (C) A complex protein troponin is distributed at irregular intervals on the tropomyosin. (D) During shortening of muscle, the I-bands get reduced. How many of the above statements are true?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Four, One...
2
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Edit
Delete
14796
The combination of a neuron and the muscle fiber it associates with is called a/an ______.
6
608
Recommended Questions
fascicle, motor end plate...
3
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Edit
Delete
14795
Which of the following statements about cross-bridges is false?
6
608
Recommended Questions
They are composed of myosin, They bind to ATP after they attach to actin...
2
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Edit
Delete
14794
Which of the following is required for the breaking of cross-bridge during muscle contraction?
6
608
Recommended Questions
ATP and Ca++, ADP and Ca++...
4
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Edit
Delete
14793
Arrange the events during muscle contraction in correct order. a. Acto-myosin complex synthesis b. Release of neurotransmitter (acetylcholine) at the neuromuscular junction c. Pumping of Ca²⁺ into sarcoplasmic cisternae d. Sliding of actin filaments over myosin e. Release of Ca²⁺ into sarcoplasm
6
608
Recommended Questions
b, c, e, a d, e, b, a, d, c...
3
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Edit
Delete
14792
When a skeletal muscle contracts
6
608
Recommended Questions
H-zone increases in length, A band decreases in length...
3
View
Edit
Delete
14791
The role of calcium in muscle contraction is
6
608
Recommended Questions
to break the cross-bridges as a cofactor in the hydrolysis of ATP, to bind with troponin, changing its shape so that the actin filament is exposed...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14790
The cross-bridge formation actually involves
6
608
Recommended Questions
ATP hydrolysis, Binding of Myosin head to the exposed active sites for myosin...
3
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Edit
Delete
14789
What masks the active sites for myosin head present on the actin myofilaments?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Light meromyosin, Heavy meromyosin...
4
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Edit
Delete
14788
Sliding Filament Theory states that
6
608
Recommended Questions
Contraction of muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of thin filaments over the thick filaments, Contraction of muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of thick filament over thin Filaments...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14787
During contraction of muscle fibers which of the following does not happen?
6
608
Recommended Questions
The length of the A band gets reduced, The attached actin filaments are pulled towards the centre of A band...
1
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Edit
Delete
14786
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
6
608
Recommended Questions
A new ATP binds and cross-bridge is broken with the next cycle of contraction, The process of contraction continues till the calcium ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic cisternae and resulting in the unmasking of actin filaments...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14785
The binding of calcium to troponin actually indicates
6
608
Recommended Questions
Unmasking of Myosin binding site over meromyosin, Unmasking of Myosin binding site over actin...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14784
Contractile unit of muscle is part of myofibril between
6
608
Recommended Questions
Z-line and I-band, Z-line and Z-line...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14783
The binding of troponin on actin filaments actually unmasks the.....
6
608
Recommended Questions
Active site for Tropomyosin, Active site for ATP...
3
View
Edit
Delete
14782
The ATPase activity of the myosin head is dependent on:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Magnesium ions, Manganese ions...
3
View
Edit
Delete
14781
Put the following phrases in proper order to describe what occurs at the neuromuscular junction to trigger muscle contraction:
6
608
Recommended Questions
II, IV, I, VI, VII, III, V, II, IV, VI, I, VII, III, V...
2
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Edit
Delete
14780
Neuromuscular junction or motor endplate is
6
608
Recommended Questions
The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fiber, The junction between a motor neuron and sensory neuron...
1
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Edit
Delete
14779
Consider the following statements: I. A motor neuron along with the muscle fibres connected to it constitute a motor unit II. The neurotransmitter released at the neuro-muscular junction is Acetylcholine. III. Myosin head has ATPase activity. Which of the above statements are true?
6
608
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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Edit
Delete
14778
Ca²⁺ bind _______ in the skeletal muscles and leads to exposure of the binding site for _______ on the filament _______:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Troponin, myosin, actin, Troponin, actin, relaxin...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14777
Muscle Contraction is initiated by
6
608
Recommended Questions
A signal sent by CNS via a motor neuron, A signal sent by PNS via a motor neuron...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14776
A neural signal reaching this junction releases a neurotransmitter. Which generates an action potential in the...
6
608
Recommended Questions
Acetyl choline, Sarcolemma, Inositol, Sarcolemma...
1
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Edit
Delete
14775
The H-Zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to
6
608
Recommended Questions
the central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band, extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band...
1
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Edit
Delete
14774
Which of the following is not true regarding Z line?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Made up of elastic fibres, Present in centre of each I band...
4
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Edit
Delete
14773
Which of the following is not true regarding M line?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Thin membrane, Fibrous...
4
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Edit
Delete
14772
Which of the following is correct about the given figure?
6
608
Recommended Questions
The length of the thick and thin myofilaments has changed., Length of both anisotropic and isotropic band has changed....
3
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Edit
Delete
14771
Light bands (thin filaments) contain actin and are called:
6
608
Recommended Questions
A-bands or Isotropic band, A-bands or Anisotropic bands...
3
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Edit
Delete
14770
Choose the letter from the figure that most appropriately corresponds to the structure:
6
608
Recommended Questions
I - E, II - D, III - F, IV - G, V - B, VI - C, VII - A, I - E, II - D, III - C, IV - G, V - B, VI - A, VII - F...
1
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Edit
Delete
14769
Read the following A to D statements and select the option that contains both correct statements: A. Z-line is present in the centre of the light band. B. Thin filaments are firmly attached to the M-line C. The central part of thick filaments, not overlapped by thin filaments is called Z-band D. Light band contains only thin filaments
6
608
Recommended Questions
A and D, B and C...
1
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Edit
Delete
14768
During muscular contraction, which of the following events occur? (i) H-zone disappears (ii) A band widens (iii) I band shortens (iv) Width of A band is unaffected (v) M line and Z line come closer
6
608
Recommended Questions
(i),(iii),(iv) and (v), (i),(ii) and (v)...
1
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Edit
Delete
14767
Dark bands (thick filaments) contain myosin and are called:
6
608
Recommended Questions
A-bands or Isotropic band, A-bands or Anisotropic bands...
2
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Delete
14766
Match Column-I with Column-II: Column-I A. Structural and functional unit of a myofibril B. Protein of thin filament C. Protein of thick filament D. The central part of thick filament not overlapped by thin filament Column-II I. H-zone II. Myosin III. Sarcomere IV. Actin
6
608
Recommended Questions
A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV, A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV...
4
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Delete
14765
Unit of contraction in a muscle fiber is:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Sarcomere, Muscle fiber...
1
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Edit
Delete
14764
Sarcomere is described as the part of myofibril between two
6
608
Recommended Questions
M-lines, Z-lines...
2
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Edit
Delete
14763
Each myosin filament comprises all the following, except
6
608
Recommended Questions
Each myosin filament is a polymerised protein, many monomeric proteins called meromyosins constitute one thick filament, Actin binding sites and ATP binding sites are present on the cross-arm which is part of HMM...
3
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Edit
Delete
14762
…………… projects outwards at regular ……… from each other from the surface of polymerized Myosin Filaments and is also known as ………
6
608
Recommended Questions
Head and short arm, angle, cross arm, Head and short arm, distance, cross arm...
3
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Edit
Delete
14761
Choose the correct statement.
6
608
Recommended Questions
In a resting muscle fibre, a subunit of troponin masks the active binding sites on myosin for actin filaments, The myosin monomer called meromyosin has a globular head which has binding sites for ATP and active sites for actin...
2
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Edit
Delete
14760
The globular head of the myosin filament has active site/s for binding to: I. ATP II. the binding site for actin filament III. Calcium
6
608
Recommended Questions
Only I, Only I and II...
2
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Edit
Delete
14759
In a myosin molecule HMM (heavy meromyosin) is present in (i) Globular head (ii) Short arm (iii) Myosin tail
6
608
Recommended Questions
(i), (ii), (iii), (i) only...
3
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Edit
Delete
14758
Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances, is correctly categorised?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive enzymes secreted in the stomach, Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins in striated muscles...
2
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Edit
Delete
14757
Myosin filaments are:-
6
608
Recommended Questions
thin filament, found only in I band...
4
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Edit
Delete
14756
Following is the figure of actin (thin) filaments. Identify A, B and C:
6
608
Recommended Questions
A - Tropomyosin, B - Troponin, C - F-actin, A - Troponin, B - Myosin, C - Tropomyosin...
4
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Edit
Delete
14755
In the rest state, a subunit of Troponin masks
6
608
Recommended Questions
Active binding sites for actin on the myosin filaments, Active binding sites for myosin on the myosin filaments...
3
View
Edit
Delete
14754
Skeletal muscles appear striated due to the presence of two characteristic proteins in alternating dark and light bands. Which of the following is a correct match of the protein with its light refractive property and color?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Myosin Light Anisotropic, Actin Dark Anisotropic...
4
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Delete
14753
The above figure is related with myosin monomer (meromyosin). Identify A to C:
6
608
Recommended Questions
A - head, B - cross arm, C - GTP binding sites, A - head, B - cross arm, C - Ca²⁺ binding sites...
3
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Edit
Delete
14752
The head part of the HMM of muscle fiber is
6
608
Recommended Questions
Globular, Triangular...
1
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Edit
Delete
14751
The globular head is/has
6
608
Recommended Questions
An active ATPase enzyme, Binding sites for ATP...
4
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Edit
Delete
14750
Given below is a diagrammatic representation of anatomy of a muscle fibre. Choose the correct option with respect to the labelled structure.
6
608
Recommended Questions
'A' consists of actin protein only, 'B' consists of myosin protein only...
4
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Delete
14749
Cardiac muscles can be best defined as:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Many cardiac muscle cells assemble in a branching pattern., Single cardiac muscle fibre enclosed by connective tissue layer....
1
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Edit
Delete
14748
Myofibrils has not
6
608
Recommended Questions
Alternate dark and light bands, Striated appearance because of distribution pattern of two important proteins- Actin and Myosin...
4
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Edit
Delete
14747
Skeletal muscle bundles [fascicles] are held together by a common connective tissue layer called:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Perimysium, Endomysium...
3
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Delete
14746
The type of muscles present in our:
6
608
Recommended Questions
upper arms are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape, heart is involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles...
4
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Delete
14745
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below: Column I I. Smooth muscle II. Skeletal muscle III. Cardiac muscle Column II 1. Striated, voluntary 2. Non-Striated, involuntary 3. Striated, Involuntary Codes: I II III
6
608
Recommended Questions
1 2 3, 3 1 2...
3
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Delete
14744
Which of the following is not a feature of Visceral muscles?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Located in visceral organs of the body like the alimentary canal, No striations and smooth in appearance...
4
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Edit
Delete
14743
All the muscles have the following special properties, except
6
608
Recommended Questions
Excitability, Extensibility...
3
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Edit
Delete
14742
Which of the following is not a feature of skeletal muscles?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Are associated with skeletal components of the body, Striped appearance...
4
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Edit
Delete
14741
Based on location how many types of muscles are reported?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Three, skeletal, visceral and cardiac, Two, smooth and skeletal...
1
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Edit
Delete
14740
Which of the following statements is wrong? 1. Movement is one of the significant features of living beings 2. Streaming of protoplasm in the unicellular organisms like Amoeba is a simple form of movement 3. Animals and plants exhibit a wide range of movements 4. Movement of cilia, flagella and tentacles is limited to lower organisms
6
608
Recommended Questions
Movement is one of the significant features of living beings, Streaming of protoplasm in the unicellular organisms like Amoeba is a simple form of movement...
4
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Delete
14739
Cilia in paramecium do not help in
6
608
Recommended Questions
Movement of food through cytopharynx, Locomotion...
3
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Edit
Delete
14738
Which of the following is not correct? 1. Cilia and flagella are the outgrowths of the cell membrane 2. Flagellar movements help in the swimming of spermatozoa, maintenance of water current in the canal system of sponges 3. Locomotion of Protozoan like Euglena is also carried by cilia 4. 40-50 percentage of body weight of a human adult is contributed by muscles
6
608
Recommended Questions
Cilia and flagella are the outgrowths of the cell membrane, Flagellar movements help in the swimming of spermatozoa, maintenance of water current in the canal system of sponges...
3
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Delete
14737
Which of the following includes non-muscular movement?
6
608
Recommended Questions
(a) and (b), (a), (c) and (d)...
3
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Edit
Delete
14736
Which of the following statements is not correct?
6
608
Recommended Questions
All locomotions are movements., All movements are not locomotions...
4
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Edit
Delete
14735
Which of the following statements is not correct?
6
608
Recommended Questions
All locomotions are movements., All movements are not locomotions...
4
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Edit
Delete
14734
Cells of Human body exhibit which type of movement:
6
608
Recommended Questions
Amoeboid, Muscular...
4
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Edit
Delete
14733
Locomotion can be
6
608
Recommended Questions
Movement of tongue, Movement of eyelids...
3
View
Edit
Delete
14732
Based on location how many types of muscles are reported?
6
608
Recommended Questions
Three, skeletal, visceral and, cardiac, Two, smooth and skeletal...
1
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Edit
Delete
14731
Passage of ova through the female reproductive tract is facilitated mainly by
6
608
Recommended Questions
Amoeboid movement, Ciliary movement...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14730
Which of the following is not true about ribs of human?
6
608
Recommended Questions
12 pairs of ribs, Thin flat bone, connected dorsally to the sternum and ventrally to the vertebral column...
2
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Edit
Delete
14729
The tentacles of Hydra do not help in
6
608
Recommended Questions
Capturing prey, Locomotion...
3
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Edit
Delete
14728
136
6
607
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
14727
Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and choose the correct option from the codes given below: Column I A. Filtration fraction B. Normal Blood Urea Level C. GFR Column II a. 19% b. 23% c. 70-100 mg % d. 15-40 mg % e. 180 ml/min f. 125 ml/min
6
607
Recommended Questions
b d f, a d f...
2
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14726
Which of the following cannot be expected in the filtrate when it arrives to descending limb of Henle's loop?
6
607
Recommended Questions
I, II, III & IV, I only...
4
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Delete
14725
Which of the following statements about the kidneys is incorrect?
6
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Recommended Questions
They consume over 20% of the oxygens used by the body at rest., Approximately 1200ml of fluid is filtrated by the kidneys each day....
2
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14724
Due to insufficient filtration in the Bowman's capsule, all are likely to happen except:
6
607
Recommended Questions
Accumulation of fluid in the body, Increase in blood pressure...
4
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14723
Which of the following layers comes first when we see from glomerular side?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Endothelium, Epithelium of Bowman's capsule...
1
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14722
Read the following statements a. Glucose is partially absorbed in the PCT. b. ADH helps in diluting the urine by acting on DCT and collecting ducts c. In cortical nephrons, vasa recta are absent or highly reduced. d. In a healthy person, 180 litre glomerular filtrate is formed per day by the kidney. Which statements are incorrect with respect to a healthy adult human?
6
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Recommended Questions
c and d only, a and b only...
2
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14721
The name of the blood vessel delivering blood directly to the glomerulus is the
6
607
Recommended Questions
renal artery, interlobar artery...
4
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14720
In 5 minutes how much blood is filtered by kidneys?
6
607
Recommended Questions
5700 mL, 4400 mL...
1
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14719
Which of the following is not correct with respect to urine formed by an adult human?
6
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Recommended Questions
Excretes an average 2 to 2.5 L of urine per day, Light yellow colored watery fluid...
1
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14718
Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Henle's loop - most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrated, Distal convoluted tubule - reabsorption of ions into the surrounding blood capillaries...
4
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14717
Podocytes are not
6
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Recommended Questions
Arranged in intricate manner, Left with some spaces called filtration slits...
4
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14716
What three physical barriers must filtrate cross within the renal corpuscle?
6
607
Recommended Questions
podocytes, pedicels, and filtration slits, macula densa, vascular pole, and parietal layer of glomerular capsule...
3
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14715
Glomerular Filtration is not
6
607
Recommended Questions
Ultra filtration, Occurs via three layers...
4
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14714
How much blood is pumped out by each ventricle of the heart in a minute goes to kidney?
6
607
Recommended Questions
1/5th, 1/3 rd...
1
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14713
70 to 80 percent of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed in
6
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Recommended Questions
Distal convoluted tubule, Proximal convoluted tubule...
2
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14712
During counter current mechanism, interstitial medullary concentration can be increased up to 4 times due to
6
607
Recommended Questions
i, ii, iii & iv, i & ii...
2
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14711
Which of the following is not important for maintaining the increasing osmolarity in the medullary interstitium?
6
607
Recommended Questions
The proximity between Henle's loop and vasa recta, Counter current flow in two limbs of tubule...
2
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14710
During the concentration of urine by the human kidneys, NaCl is returned to the medullary interstitium by the:
6
607
Recommended Questions
Descending limb of the loop of Henle, Ascending limb of the loop of Henle...
4
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14709
In order to produce concentrated urine, large amounts of water can be reabsorbed from:
6
607
Recommended Questions
Ascending limb of loop of Henle, Descending limb of loop of Henle...
4
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14708
What is used as an osmolyte in human beings to increase medullary interstitial osmolality during concentration of urine?
6
607
Recommended Questions
TMAO, Urea...
2
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14707
Urea will enter the
6
607
Recommended Questions
Thin segment of AL of LOH, Thick segment of AL of LOH...
1
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14706
Mark the incorrect statement with respect to counter current mechanism
6
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Recommended Questions
Osmolarity of filtrate increases while moving down the descending limb of loop of Henle, There will be no urine formation if loop of Henle is absent in mammalian nephrons...
2
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14705
Match the terms given in Column-I with their physiological processes given in column-II and choose the correct answer: Column-I (A) Proximal convoluted tubule (B) Distal convoluted tubule (C) Henle’s loop (D) Counter-current mechanism (E) Renal corpuscle Column-II (i) Formation of concentrated urine (ii) Filtration of blood (iii) Reabsorption of 70-80% of electrolytes (iv) Ionic balance (v) Maintainance of a concentration gradient in the medulla
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(A)-(iii); (B)-(v); (C)-(iii); (D)-(ii); (E)-(i), (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i);(D)-(v);(E)-(ii)...
2
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14704
Choose the correct statement
6
607
Recommended Questions
ADH deficiency leads to diabetes mellitus, Kidneys produce urine more concentrated than initial filtrate...
2
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14703
Which of the following is the correct way of writing the unit of osmolarity?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Mosmo/L, mOsmol/L...
2
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14702
Which of the following organisms have the capacity to concentrate urine?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Mammals, Fishes...
1
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14701
Which of the following is not a part of urine formation?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Glomerular Filtration, Reabsorption...
4
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14700
How many times can human urine be concentrated in counter current mechanism?
6
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Recommended Questions
Four times, Five times...
1
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14699
The NaCl which is transported by the ascending limb of Henle's loop which is exchanged with the.......
6
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Recommended Questions
Ascending limb of vasa recta, Descending limb of vasa recta...
2
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14698
In the given diagram what would be the value of the osmolality of fluid at points A and B respectively?
6
607
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1000 and 1000, 1200 and 1000...
4
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14697
Kidney matrix retains some amount of urea to
6
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Recommended Questions
Maintain a desired osmolarity, Maintain metabolism...
1
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14696
The osmotic concentration of glomerular filtrate is the highest at the bottom of the U-shaped Henle's loop. It is about __________ mOsmL⁻¹
6
607
Recommended Questions
300, 600...
4
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14695
Ketonuria: Ketone bodies in urine:: Uremia: _______. Complete the analogy.
6
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Recommended Questions
Elevated urea in circulating blood, Excretion of urea in urine...
1
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14694
What is Glomerulonephritis?
6
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Accumulation of glomus at the level of roots in plants, Increasing Glomerular capillaries...
3
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14693
Sebaceous gland secretion mainly contains
6
607
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Amino acids and glucose, Sterols and lactic acid...
4
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14692
How much Carbon dioxide is removed by lungs?
6
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200mL/second, 200mL/minute...
2
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14691
Which pair is correct:
6
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Recommended Questions
Sweat = temperature regulation, Saliva = sense of food taste...
1
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14690
The cleared blood is pumped back to the body through a....... after adding...... it
6
607
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Vein, Heparin, Vein, Anti-Heparin...
2
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14689
A person passes lot of dilute urine and drinks a lot of water but does not have glycosuria. He is most likely suffering from:
6
607
Recommended Questions
Type 1 diabetes mellitus, Type 2 diabetes mellitus...
4
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14688
The blood drained from a convenient......... is pumped into a dialysing unit called.........
6
607
Recommended Questions
Vein, artificial Kidney, Artery, artificial Kidney...
2
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14687
How much of urea is excreted out per day?
6
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Recommended Questions
50g, 28g...
2
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14686
Haemodialysis
6
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Recommended Questions
A process for removal of extra blood, A process for removal of extra cellular fluid...
3
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14685
Which of the following is not associated with micturition reflex?
6
607
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Relaxation of urethral sphincter, Contraction of detrusor muscle...
3
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14684
Micturition reflex is
6
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Recommended Questions
Hormonal mechanism to control Micturition, Neural mechanism to control Micturition...
2
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14683
Analysis of urine helps in clinical diagnosis of many metabolic disorder as well as malfunctioning of kidney. Given below are some disorders a. Glycosuria b. Ketonuria c. Haematuria d. Proteinuria Choose the correct option which indicates disorders of diabetes mellitus if not controlled?
6
607
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a only, a & b only...
2
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14682
Micturition does not involve
6
607
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Relaxation of urethral sphincter, Contraction of urinary bladder...
4
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14681
For the ejection of urine the voluntary signal is given by
6
607
Recommended Questions
ANS, CNS...
2
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14680
During the process of micturition:
6
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Recommended Questions
Urinary bladder Contracts, Urethral sphincter Contracts, Urinary bladder Contracts, Urethral sphincter Relaxes...
2
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14679
Substance 'X' which converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I is secreted by
6
607
Recommended Questions
Wall of heart, Adrenal cortex...
4
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14678
The amount of urine produced is generally increased when there is:
6
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Recommended Questions
increased ADH secretion, increased atrial natriuretic hormone secretion...
2
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14677
Regarding the control of water balance by the kidneys:
6
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Recommended Questions
The renal medulla has an osmotic gradient that decreases from the border with the cortex to the renal papilla., ADH is secreted by anterior pituitary in response to a decrease in the osmolality of the blood....
4
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14676
Which of the following does not favor the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Alcohol, Caffeine...
3
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14675
This hormone promotes loss of sodium and water in urine, thereby increasing urinary output. This hormone is released from
6
607
Recommended Questions
JG cells, Liver...
4
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14674
Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH) will promote a(n) _______ in the excretion of sodium and water; thus _______ blood volume and blood pressure.
6
607
Recommended Questions
decrease, decreasing, decrease; increasing...
3
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14673
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Exposure to cold temperatures stimulates ADH release, An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates the formation of angiotensin II...
4
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14672
Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in distal convoluted tubule?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Increase in aldosterone levels, Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels...
1
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14671
A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates:
6
607
Recommended Questions
Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone, Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline...
4
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14670
Which area actually secretes renin into the blood?
6
607
Recommended Questions
macula densa, juxtaglomerular apparatus...
3
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14669
Juxtaglomerular apparatus is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in the:
6
607
Recommended Questions
DCT and Efferent arteriole at the point of their contact, DCT and the Afferent arteriole at the point of their contact...
2
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14668
Which of the following physiological changes is not associated with Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone system?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Increase in GFR, Increase in blood pressure...
4
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14667
JGA is formed by
6
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Recommended Questions
Cellular modifications in the DCT and efferent arterioles' contact region, Cellular modifications in the PCT and efferent arterioles's contact region...
4
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14666
The targets of angiotensin II are blood vessels and:
6
607
Recommended Questions
nerves, adrenal cortex...
2
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14665
An increase in the blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the release of:
6
607
Recommended Questions
Erythropoietin, Atrial natriuretic factor...
2
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14664
The greater the number of blood vessels dilated, the _______.
6
607
Recommended Questions
higher the blood pressure, lower the blood pressure...
2
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14663
Within the renal tubule, two hormones play a role in determining the final volume and sodium concentration of the urine. The hormone ___ regulates sodium reabsorption, while _____ regulates water reabsorption.
6
607
Recommended Questions
aldosterone; antidiuretic hormone (ADH), cortisol; atrial natriuretic peptide...
1
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14662
Concentration of urine depends upon which organ:
6
607
Recommended Questions
Bowman's capsule, Length of Henle's loop...
2
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14661
If Henle's loop was absent from mammalian nephron, which of the following is to be expected:
6
607
Recommended Questions
There will be no urine formation, There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed...
4
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14660
The concentrated filtrate gets diluted due to
6
607
Recommended Questions
Passage of electrolytes to the medullary fluid, Passage of water to the inner side of tubules...
1
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14659
Excretion of dilute urine requires
6
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Recommended Questions
relative permeability of the distal tubule to water, transport of sodium and chloride ions out of the descending loop of Henle...
4
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14658
Describe urine in relationship to glomerular filtration tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion urine:
6
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Recommended Questions
glomerular filtration + tubular reabsorption + tubular secretion, glomerular filtration - tubular reabsorption -tubular secretion...
4
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14657
Complete the analogy with respect to reabsorption PCT: Glucose and amino acids:: DCT: _____
6
607
Recommended Questions
K⁺ and H⁺, H⁺ and HCO₃⁻...
3
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14656
The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is
6
607
Recommended Questions
distal convoluted tubule, proximal convoluted tubule...
2
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14655
Which is correctly matched? 1. Bowman's capsule - Ultrafiltration and secretion 2. Collecting duct - absorption of large amount of Urea 3. Ascending part of loop of Henle - Secretion of Glucose and amino acids 4. DCT - Reabsorption of HCO₃⁻
6
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Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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14654
Which of the following process of urine formation takes place all along the renal tubule and collecting duct?
6
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Recommended Questions
Ultrafiltration and tubular reabsorption, Ultrafiltration and tubular secretion...
3
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14653
Urinary excretion is equivalent to: GF = Glomerular filtration. TR = Tubular reabsorption. TS = Tubular secretion.
6
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Recommended Questions
GF + TR + TS, GF - (TR + TS)...
3
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14652
Which of the following statement is correct with respect to excretion?
6
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Recommended Questions
Our lungs remove large amount of CO₂ (180 litres/day) and also significant quantity of water everyday, The ascending limb is permeable to water and also allows transport of electrolytes actively or passively...
3
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14651
Reabsorption is minimum of which of the following segments of tubule?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Ascending limb, PCT...
1
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14650
Which of the following substances are not reabsorbed by passive means of transport in tubules?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Water, Nitrogenous waste...
3
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14649
The process of reabsorption occurs is verified by
6
607
Recommended Questions
Comparison between urine released and Filtrate formed, Release of Renin...
1
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14648
Tubular secretion does not allow
6
607
Recommended Questions
Ionic balance of body fluids, Acid base balance of body fluids...
3
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14647
Which one of the following is correct regarding the excretion?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Large amount of water from renal filtrate is reabsorbed in DCT and a less amount is reabsorbed by PCT., The descending limb of loop of Henle is almost impermeable to salts....
2
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14646
This segment allows passage of small amounts of urea into the medullary interstitium to keep up the osmolarity. Which segment does the statement suggest?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Descending limb of Henle's loop., Ascending limb of Henle's loop....
3
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14645
The process of reabsorption is carried by
6
607
Recommended Questions
Tubular endothelial cells, Tubular epithelial cells...
2
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14644
Which of the following part of the nephron is not involved in tubular secretion?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Bowman's capsule, PCT...
1
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14643
The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by the:
6
607
Recommended Questions
Simple cuboidal epithelium, Simple columnar epithelium...
3
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14642
The majority of water and salt filtered into Bowman's capsule is reabsorbed by:
6
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Recommended Questions
the brush border of the transport epithelia of the proximal tubule, diffusion from the descending limb of the loop of Henle into the hypertonic interstitial fluid of the medulla...
1
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14641
Selective secretion of which of the following ions does not take place in PCT?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Hydrogen ions, Ammonia...
4
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14640
On average, what amount of urea is excreted out per day by a healthy human being?
6
607
Recommended Questions
5-10 gm, 15-20 gm...
3
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14639
Which of the following statements is correct?
6
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Recommended Questions
The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water, The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water...
1
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Delete
14638
Which one of the following statements in regard to excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water, Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO₃...
3
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14637
Which of the following is not reabsorbed by PCT?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Glucose, Amino acid...
3
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14636
Which of the following is almost completely reabsorbed by active reabsorption in the nephrons of a healthy person?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Urea, Creatinine...
3
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14635
Which of the following substances are not reabsorbed by active means of transport?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Glucose, Amino Acids...
3
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Delete
14634
Renin
6
607
Recommended Questions
Stimulates the glomerular blood flow, Suppresses the GFR...
1
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14633
The process of reabsorption occurs by
6
607
Recommended Questions
Active mechanism, Passive mechanism...
3
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14632
Vasa recta is
6
607
Recommended Questions
A minute vessel, A minute artery...
1
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14631
Which section of the nephron follows the ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
6
607
Recommended Questions
descending limb of the loop, proximal convoluted tubule...
3
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14630
In the accompanying diagram of a human nephron the functional parts are labelled as A, B, C, D, E. Study the diagram to answer the questions given: P: Active secretion of H+ and K+ into the filtrate occurs in which parts? Q: Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water is a function of R: Reabsorption of water is minimum in which segment? Choose the correct option:
6
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Recommended Questions
B, D C E, A, B, C C E...
3
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14629
Which of the parts labeled A–D are correctly identified with their functions?
6
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Recommended Questions
A–Afferent arteriole – Carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards the renal vein, B–Brush border – Create minute spaces epithelium for the filtration of blood into the Bowman's capsule...
4
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14628
The concentrations of which plasma electrolyte is not regulated mainly by the kidneys?
6
607
Recommended Questions
hydrogen, potassium...
3
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14627
The network of peritubular capillaries is formed by
6
607
Recommended Questions
Efferent Arteriole, Afferent Arteriole...
1
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14626
Vasa recta in cortical nephrons:
6
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Recommended Questions
Arises from afferent arteriole rather than efferent arteriole, Does not get involved in counter current exchange with loop of Henle...
4
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14625
Our excretory system has
6
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Recommended Questions
Two million nephrons, One million nephrons...
1
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14624
Our excretory system has
6
607
Recommended Questions
Two million nephrons, One million nephrons...
1
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Edit
Delete
14623
Which of the following is not a part of nephron?
6
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Recommended Questions
Glomerulus, PCT...
3
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14622
Which of the following is correct about juxtamedullary nephrons?
6
607
Recommended Questions
They lack vasa recta, They are about 85% of the nephrons...
4
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14621
The parts of nephron situated in cortical region of kidney are
6
607
Recommended Questions
Loop of Henle, PCT, and collecting duct, Collecting duct, PCT, and malpighian corpuscle...
4
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14620
The blood from the glomerulus is carried away by:
6
607
Recommended Questions
Afferent arteriole, Efferent arteriole...
2
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14619
Nephron is
6
607
Recommended Questions
a structural unit of the kidney, a functional unit of the kidney...
3
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14618
If one goes from inside to outside then which of the following parts comes first?
6
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Recommended Questions
Hilum, Calyces...
2
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14617
If one goes from the outer side to the inside, which of the following parts comes first?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Hilum, Calyces...
1
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14616
The path of urine has which of the following part of kidney as the first organ to be encountered (other than nephron and collecting Duct)?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Renal calyces, Medullary pyramids...
2
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14615
Column of Bertini is a part of
6
607
Recommended Questions
Cortex, Medulla...
1
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14614
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
6
607
Recommended Questions
The medullary zone of the kidney is divided into a few conical masses called medullary pyramids projecting into calyces., Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis....
2
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14613
Medullary pyramids project into
6
607
Recommended Questions
Calyces, Medulla...
1
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14612
Which statement does not correctly describe the path of urine flow?
6
607
Recommended Questions
ducts in each renal papilla drain into a minor calyx, the minor calyces merge to form a major calyx...
4
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14611
Match the items in Column - I with those in Column - II: Column I (a) Podocytes (b) Protonephridia (c) Nephridia (d) Renal calculi Column II (i) Crystallised oxalate (ii) Annelids (iii) Amphioxus (iv) Filtration slits Select the correct option from the following:
6
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Recommended Questions
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i), (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)...
3
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14610
Identify the parts labeled A, B, C, and D in the given diagram of the kidney.
6
607
Recommended Questions
Medullary pyramid Renal Artery Renal capsule Papilla, Cortex Renal vein Glisson's capsule Calyx...
4
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14609
Glomerulus along with Bowman's Capsule is called as
6
607
Recommended Questions
Malpighian body, Renal capsule...
1
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Edit
Delete
14608
Which of the following will take away blood from glomerulus?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Renal artery, Renal vein...
3
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14607
The extensions of cortex between the medullary pyramids are called
6
607
Recommended Questions
Renal columns of Bellini, Renal columns of Bertini...
2
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14606
Figure shows a human urinary system with structures labelled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies them and gives their characteristics and/or functions.
6
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Recommended Questions
B-pelvis - broad funnel-shaped space inner to the hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle., C- Medulla- inner zone of kidney and contains complex nephrons....
4
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14605
Kidneys are situated in
6
607
Recommended Questions
Between the last thoracic and 5th lumbar vertebra, Between the last thoracic and 3rd lumbar vertebra...
2
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14604
Afferent arteriole is a fine branch of
6
607
Recommended Questions
Renal vein, Renal artery...
2
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14603
The measurements of human kidneys are not
6
607
Recommended Questions
10-12 cm in length, Kidneys weigh 240-340 g...
2
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14602
Which of the following has no role in the elimination of excretory wastes?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Kidneys, Lungs...
4
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14601
Human excretory system does not involve
6
607
Recommended Questions
Urethra, Vestibule...
2
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Edit
Delete
14600
Which of the following is not the primary function of protonephridia?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Ionic volume regulation, Fluid volume regulation...
4
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Delete
14599
Which of the following has not the protonephridia as an excretory organ?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Rotifers, Amphioxus...
4
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Edit
Delete
14598
The production of urea and uric acid is because of
6
607
Recommended Questions
Conservation of water, Terrestrial adaptation...
3
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Edit
Delete
14597
Which one of the following characteristics is common in both humans and adult frogs?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Internal fertilization, Nucleated RBCs...
3
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Edit
Delete
14596
Which is not correctly matched?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Malpighian tubules - Cockroaches, Mosquito, Antennal glands - Planaria, Crab...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14595
Consider the following statements: I. Many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians, and aquatic insects are ammonotelic. II. Mammals, many terrestrial amphibians, and cartilaginous fishes are ureotelic. III. Reptiles, birds, land snails, and insects are uricotelic. Which of the above statements are true?
6
607
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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Edit
Delete
14594
Which of the following nitrogenous waste is least toxic and can be removed with minimum loss of water?
6
607
Recommended Questions
Urea, Ammonia...
4
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Edit
Delete
14593
The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesised.
6
607
Recommended Questions
in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver, in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys...
4
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Edit
Delete
14592
170
6
606
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14591
Serum is-
6
606
Recommended Questions
Blood – corpuscles, Blood – corpuscles – clotting factors...
4
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Edit
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14590
Lymph differs from blood in possessing
6
606
Recommended Questions
More proteins and less waste products, Less proteins and more waste products...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14589
Which of the following are not correct: (i) Spleen is the graveyard for RBC (ii) All the mammals have biconcave RBCs (iii) Clotting factors present in plasma are in active form. (iv) All the substances released by platelets are involved in clotting only.
6
606
Recommended Questions
(i), (iii), (iv), (ii), (iii), (iv)...
2
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Delete
14588
Which of the following sequence is correct in terms of abundance in blood?
6
606
Recommended Questions
RBC > WBC > Platelets, WBC > RBC > Platelets...
3
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Edit
Delete
14587
In a mm³ of blood, the maximum number and minimum number of cells would be respectively
6
606
Recommended Questions
WBCs, RBCs, RBCs, WBCs...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14586
A decrease in plasma albumin levels is likely to affect:
6
606
Recommended Questions
Clot formation, Oxygenation of hemoglobin...
3
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Edit
Delete
14585
Find out the false statement about blood?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Special connective tissue, Fluid matrix...
4
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Edit
Delete
14584
How much percentage of water present in plasma?
6
606
Recommended Questions
6-8%, 90-92%...
2
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Edit
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14583
Hemoglobin in healthy individual:
6
606
Recommended Questions
12–20 g/10 mL of blood, 12–14 g/100 mL of blood...
2
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Edit
Delete
14582
B and T forms, responsible for the immune response are the type of:
6
606
Recommended Questions
Thrombocytes, Lymphocytes...
2
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Edit
Delete
14581
Serum differs from blood in
6
606
Recommended Questions
lacking globulins, lacking albumins...
3
View
Edit
Delete
14580
The number of RBC in a healthy individual are:
6
606
Recommended Questions
5 million to 5.5 million RBCs, 5 billion to 5.5 billion RBCs...
1
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Edit
Delete
14579
Oxygen carrier in human blood is
6
606
Recommended Questions
Carbonic anhydrase, Haemoglobin...
2
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Edit
Delete
14578
The transport of respiratory gases is taken care by which blood component?
6
606
Recommended Questions
RBC, WBC...
1
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Edit
Delete
14577
Haemoglobin is
6
606
Recommended Questions
an oxygen carrier in human blood, a protein used as food supplement...
1
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Edit
Delete
14576
_______ is known as the graveyard of RBCs.
6
606
Recommended Questions
Liver, Spleen...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14575
The life span of the erythrocytes in humans is about
6
606
Recommended Questions
120 days, 150 days...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14574
Medulla Oblangata regulates the Cardiac activity via
6
606
Recommended Questions
CNS, ANS...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14573
How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output, Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output...
1
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Edit
Delete
14572
The hormonal regulation of Cardiac output is
6
606
Recommended Questions
mediated by adrenal cortex, mediated by adrenal medulla...
2
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Edit
Delete
14571
The sympathetic nerves give ______ neural signals to heart and increases the ______.
6
606
Recommended Questions
stimulatory, ventricular contraction, inhibitory, stroke volume...
1
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Edit
Delete
14570
The neurocenter for the activity of the Heart is located in
6
606
Recommended Questions
Pons, midbrain...
3
View
Edit
Delete
14569
What is the effect of parasympathetic neural signals on Heart Activity?
6
606
Recommended Questions
decreases the rate of heart beat, decreases the speed of conduction of action potential...
4
View
Edit
Delete
14568
Read the following statements:- (1) Lymph is devoid of RBC (2) Exchange of nutrients, gasses etc, between blood and the tissue cell always occur through the lymph (3) Tissue fluid is also called as lymph. (4) Lymph is a colourless fluid containing all types of WBCs which are responsible for the immune response of the body. How many statements are correct?
6
606
Recommended Questions
2, 3...
2
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Edit
Delete
14567
Read the following: a. Lymph absorbs and transports fat from the intestine. b. Lymph nodes produce fibrinogen. c. Lymphatic capillaries present in the intestinal villi are known as lacteals. d. Lymph transports oxygen only. Which of these statements are true?
6
606
Recommended Questions
a, c, b, d...
1
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14566
Match the following: p. Lymph q. Mixed Blood r. Fibrins s. Rh antigen e. Amphibians f. Tissue Fluid g. RBC h. Blood Clot
6
606
Recommended Questions
p–g; q–h; r–e; s–f, p–f; q–e; r–h; s–g...
2
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Delete
14565
Arterial blood pressure in human beings is:
6
606
Recommended Questions
120 and 80 mm Hg, 150 and 100 mm Hg...
1
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Edit
Delete
14564
Which of the following is least likely to be caused by reduced blood/oxygen supply to heart muscles?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Atherosclerosis, Myocardial ischaemia...
1
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Edit
Delete
14563
Congestion of the lungs is one of the main symptoms in:
6
606
Recommended Questions
Hypotension, Coronary artery disease...
4
View
Edit
Delete
14562
Heart disorder in which cardiac muscles are suddenly damaged by inadequate supply of blood is
6
606
Recommended Questions
Heart failure, Cardiac arrest...
3
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Edit
Delete
14561
The normal blood pressure is ____ and if it gets increased, such disorder is called ____
6
606
Recommended Questions
120/80; hypertension, 80/120; blood tension...
4
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Edit
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14560
Congestion of _______ is the main symptom of _______.
6
606
Recommended Questions
Blood vessels, Heart failure, Blood vessels, Cardiac Arrest...
3
View
Edit
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14559
Congestive Heart disease is another name for
6
606
Recommended Questions
Heart failure, Cardiac Arrest...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14558
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure?
6
606
Recommended Questions
100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure, 105/50 mmHg makes one very active...
3
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Edit
Delete
14557
Which one of the following match is wrong?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Angina Pectoris – Acute chest pain, Heart Failure – Not enough blood supply to body...
4
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Delete
14556
Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct information: (a) Coronary Artery disease, (CAD) often referred to as Atherosclerosis (b) Heart failure means when the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply (c) High blood pressure leads to heart disease and also affects vital organs like brain and kidney (d) Angina occurs due to conditions that affect the blood flow
6
606
Recommended Questions
Statements (b), (c) and (d), Statements (a), (b)...
4
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Delete
14555
Hypertension affects mainly organ:
6
606
Recommended Questions
Intestine, Kidney...
2
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Edit
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14554
The state of heart when it not pumping blood effective enough to meet the needs of the body is called
6
606
Recommended Questions
CAD., Atherosclerosis....
4
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Edit
Delete
14553
The resting pressure of healthy heart is
6
606
Recommended Questions
120 mmHg, 80 mmHg...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14552
Which of the following disorders of circulatory system is not correctly stated?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Hypertension – A sustained blood pressure of 140/90 or above, CAD – The lumen of coronary arteries become narrower due to deposits of calcium, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissue...
3
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Edit
Delete
14551
Thickening of arteries due to cholesterol deposition is:
6
606
Recommended Questions
atherosclerosis, rheumatic heart...
1
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Edit
Delete
14550
Complete stoppage of heart beat is termed as
6
606
Recommended Questions
Heart attack, Heart block...
3
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Edit
Delete
14549
Choose the incorrect match (1) Cardiac arrest – Condition in which heart stops beating (2) T-wave – Represents depolarization of ventricles (3) SAN – Generates maximum number of action potentials (4) P-wave – Represents contraction of both atria
6
606
Recommended Questions
Cardiac arrest – Condition in which heart stops beating, T-wave – Represents depolarization of ventricles...
2
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Delete
14548
In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respective activity of the human heart?
6
606
Recommended Questions
P-depolarization of ventricles, R-repolarization of ventricles...
3
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Edit
Delete
14547
If one wants to analyse the detailed cardiac activity, the multiple leads are attached to–
6
606
Recommended Questions
Wrist and arms, Abdomen...
3
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Edit
Delete
14546
The machine taking the reading of electrical activity of heart is known as
6
606
Recommended Questions
Electrocardiogram, Electrocardiograph...
2
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Edit
Delete
14545
Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Peak P-Initiation of left atrial contraction only, Complex QRS-One complete pulse...
2
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Edit
Delete
14544
What does the T wave represent in ECG?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Atrial Diastole, Atrial systole...
3
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Edit
Delete
14543
In ECG the ventricular contraction occurs
6
606
Recommended Questions
Just after P wave and before Q wave., Just after Q wave but before T wave....
2
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Edit
Delete
14542
By counting number of QRS complex, one may get which information?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Rate of breathing, cardiac output...
3
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Edit
Delete
14541
Which of the following statements is not correct about ECG?
6
606
Recommended Questions
P wave represents atrial depolarisation., QRS wave initiates ventricular contraction....
4
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Edit
Delete
14540
The results of ECG are known as
6
606
Recommended Questions
Electrocardiogram, Electrocardiograph...
1
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Edit
Delete
14539
The standard ECG is obtained by connecting the patient to the machine with how many leads?
6
606
Recommended Questions
4, 3...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14538
The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the
6
606
Recommended Questions
contraction of both the atria, initiation of the ventricular contraction...
1
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Edit
Delete
14537
Three lead configuration of ECG has arrangement?
6
606
Recommended Questions
one to each wrist and one to right ankle., one to each ankle and one to right wrist....
3
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Edit
Delete
14536
T-wave in electrocardiogram represents
6
606
Recommended Questions
The return of ventricles from excited to normal state., Depolarisation of ventricles from normal to excited state....
1
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Edit
Delete
14535
P wave and QRS complex in ECG respectively represent:-
6
606
Recommended Questions
Atrial repolarization and Ventricular depolarization, Ventricular depolarization and Atrial repolarization...
3
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Edit
Delete
14534
The following is the diagrammatic representation of standard ECG. Identify the correct statement:
6
606
Recommended Questions
P is caused by atrial repolarization., Q, when present, always shows myocardial ischemia....
4
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Delete
14533
The deviation from the characteristic ECG indicates a possible abnormality; this information can be utilized in which field of Biology?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Clinical Biology, Biotechnology...
1
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Edit
Delete
14532
In a surface ECG the QRS complex represents:
6
606
Recommended Questions
Atrial depolarization, Atrial repolarization...
3
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Edit
Delete
14531
Coronary Artery Disease is also referred as
6
606
Recommended Questions
Atherosclerosis, Angina...
1
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Edit
Delete
14530
The lumen of arteries gets _____ because _____ of _____
6
606
Recommended Questions
narrower, dissolution, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues., narrower, deposition, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues....
2
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Delete
14529
During ECG of a healthy person, P-wave represents
6
606
Recommended Questions
Ventricular depolarisation, Ventricular repolarisation...
4
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Edit
Delete
14528
Which of the following correctly explains a phase/event in cardiac cycle in a standard electrocardiogram?
6
606
Recommended Questions
QRS complex indicates atrial contraction, QRS complex indicates ventricular contraction...
2
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Edit
Delete
14527
Angina is more common in–
6
606
Recommended Questions
Young Men, Aged Women...
3
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Edit
Delete
14526
What does the QRS complex represent in ECG?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Atrial Diastole, Atrial systole...
3
View
Edit
Delete
14525
The action potential causes _____ and then the _____ to undergo _____ followed by _____.
6
606
Recommended Questions
ventricles, atria, contraction, relaxation, atria, ventricles, contraction, relaxation...
2
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Delete
14524
Atrial systole
6
606
Recommended Questions
Increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by 70 percent, Is due to the generation of the action potential in AVN...
3
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Edit
Delete
14523
The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be grafted at the site of
6
606
Recommended Questions
Atrioventricular bundle, Purkinje system...
3
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Delete
14522
Depolarisation and repolarisation actually initiate _________ in different chambers of heart?
6
606
Recommended Questions
contraction and relaxation, relaxation and contraction...
1
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Edit
Delete
14521
Which of the following is known as the natural pacemaker of the heart?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Sino atrial node, Atrioventricular node...
1
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Edit
Delete
14520
The action potential of ventricular side and to the entire ventricular musculature is conducted by–
6
606
Recommended Questions
AVN, AV bundle and Bundle of His, SAN, AVN, AV bundle and Bundle of His...
1
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Edit
Delete
14519
Which one of the following is wrong with respect to nodal tissue.
6
606
Recommended Questions
auto excitable, not localized to a single chamber....
3
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Edit
Delete
14518
Normal activities of the human heart are regulated:
6
606
Recommended Questions
Intrinsically, By the autonomic nervous system...
1
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Edit
Delete
14517
Which of the following sequences best represents the pathway of an action potential through the Heart's conduction system? (i) Sino-atrial (SA) node (ii) Purkinje fibres (iii) Bundle of His (iv) Atrio-ventricular (AV) node (v) Right and left bundle branches
6
606
Recommended Questions
(i),(iv),(iii),(ii),(v), (iv),(i),(iii),(v),(ii)...
4
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Delete
14516
What does the depolarization of ventricles initiate?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Atrial Diastole, Atrial systole...
3
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Edit
Delete
14515
SAN is responsible for
6
606
Recommended Questions
initiating and maintaining a random contractile ability of heart, initiating and maintaining a rhythmic contractile ability of heart...
2
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Edit
Delete
14514
'Bundle of His' is a part of which one of the following organs in humans?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Heart, Kidney...
1
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Edit
Delete
14513
The number of action potential generated by SAN:
6
606
Recommended Questions
70–75 times per minute., 50–72 times per minute....
1
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Edit
Delete
14512
In the given section of the human heart which part ensures that atria contact prior to the ventricles?
6
606
Recommended Questions
A, B...
1
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Edit
Delete
14511
Ventricular contraction is in command of:
6
606
Recommended Questions
S.A. Node, A.V. Node...
1
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Edit
Delete
14510
During ventricular diastole, which of the following event take place earliest?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Closure of semilunar valve, Opening of cuspid valve...
1
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Edit
Delete
14509
During a cardiac cycle: 1. About 70 ml of blood is pumped by the two ventricles 2. The left atrium and the left ventricle contract simultaneously 3. More blood is pumped into the systemic than in pulmonary circulation 4. The atria contract prior to the ventricles
6
606
Recommended Questions
About 70 ml of blood is pumped by the two ventricles, The left atrium and the left ventricle contract simultaneously...
4
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Delete
14508
Arrange the following events in a proper sequence. (i) Increased ventricular pressure (ii) Attempted backflow of blood into the atria (iii) Ventricular systole (iv) Closure of AV valves
6
606
Recommended Questions
(i) - (ii) - (iii) - (iv), (ii) - (i) - (iii) - (iv)...
3
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Delete
14507
Imagine, if the semilunar valves do not work, which of the following event won't happen surely?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Atrial Contraction, Ventricular Contraction...
4
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Delete
14506
When the sinoatrial node generates an action potential which stimulates both the atria to undergo a simultaneous contraction, it is called atrial systole. This causes the flow of blood into the ventricles and is responsible for ________ filling of ventricles.
6
606
Recommended Questions
70 percent, 30 percent...
2
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Edit
Delete
14505
How much volume of blood each ventricle pumps out approximately during a cardiac cycle?
6
606
Recommended Questions
70 mL, 70 mL × 72...
1
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Edit
Delete
14504
The lub sound of heart is produced during which phase of cardiac cycle?
6
606
Recommended Questions
ventricular systole, atrial diastole...
1
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Edit
Delete
14503
The value of beat volume is
6
606
Recommended Questions
5L, 70 mL...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14502
Consider the following events during a cardiac cycle: I. Closure of the AV valves II. Opening of the semilunar valves These events occur during:
6
606
Recommended Questions
Atrial diastole, Atrial systole...
4
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14501
The second heart sound during the cardiac cycle is produced by the:
6
606
Recommended Questions
Simultaneous opening of the atrioventricular valves, Simultaneous closure of the atrioventricular valves...
4
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14500
The tricuspid and bicuspid valves are closed because of
6
606
Recommended Questions
Atrial systole, Attempted backflow of blood into the atria...
2
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Edit
Delete
14499
If the strength of ventricular contraction increases then it will cause
6
606
Recommended Questions
increase in Heart beat rate, increase in cardiac output...
4
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Edit
Delete
14498
When the heart beats, the familiar lub-dup sound occurs as the valves of the heart _____.
6
606
Recommended Questions
open, close...
2
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Edit
Delete
14497
Which of the following statement is true?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Cardiac output of an athlete is much lower than that of an ordinary man., In each minute a single cardiac cycle is performed....
4
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Delete
14496
The pumping pressure of healthy heart is
6
606
Recommended Questions
120 mmHg, 80 mmHg...
1
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Edit
Delete
14495
Doctors use a stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard when
6
606
Recommended Questions
AV valves open up, Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria...
3
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Delete
14494
The pumping pressure is also known as _____ and the resting pressure is also known as _____
6
606
Recommended Questions
systolic pressure, diastolic pressure, diastolic pressure, systolic pressure...
1
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14493
The duration of cardiac cycle is–
6
606
Recommended Questions
0.8 second, 0.5 second...
1
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14492
Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding human blood circulatory system: (a) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins (b) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to the brain is reduced (c) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any person with any blood group under ABO system (d) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting Which two of the above statements are correct?
6
606
Recommended Questions
(a) and (b), (b) and (c)...
4
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14491
In open circulatory system, blood is pumped through
6
606
Recommended Questions
Sinuses to large vessels, Large vessels to sinuses...
2
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14490
In single circulation, the heart pumps
6
606
Recommended Questions
oxygenated blood, deoxygenated blood...
2
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14489
At which point, the pulmonary artery is different from the pulmonary vein:
6
606
Recommended Questions
Its lumen is broad, Its wall is thick...
2
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14488
The pathway of single circulation is
6
606
Recommended Questions
Heart – body – gills – Heart, Heart – gills – body – Heart...
2
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14487
Which system of blood vessels is present in our body exclusively for the circulation of blood to and from the cardiac musculature?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Portal system, Shunting...
3
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Edit
Delete
14486
The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from
6
606
Recommended Questions
heart, stomach...
4
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Edit
Delete
14485
What percentage of ventricular filling is achieved by atrial contraction?
6
606
Recommended Questions
30, 50...
1
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Edit
Delete
14484
The given figure shows schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the labels along with their functions and select the correct option.
6
606
Recommended Questions
C - Vena Cava - takes blood from body parts to right atrium, PCO₂ = 45 mm Hg, D - Dorsal aorta - takes blood from heart to body parts, PO₂ = 95 mm Hg...
1
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14483
Find the odd statement
6
606
Recommended Questions
SA node generates the maximum number of action potential per minute so it sets the pace of the activities of the heart, About 70ml of blood in pumped out by each ventricle during a cardiac cycle is stroke volume...
4
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Edit
Delete
14482
Hepatic portal system connect
6
606
Recommended Questions
Liver and heart., Liver and Kidney....
3
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Edit
Delete
14481
Which of the following order is correct?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Veins – capillaries – arteries, Arteries – arterioles – capillaries – venules – veins...
2
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Delete
14480
Arteries have _______ layer of smooth muscles than _______
6
606
Recommended Questions
thicker, vein, thicker, aorta...
1
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Edit
Delete
14479
Which vessels bring blood to right atrium?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Vena Cava and coronary sinus, Pulmonary veins...
1
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Delete
14478
The passage of blood from left atrium to body is
6
606
Recommended Questions
left atrium – left ventricle – Aorta – Body, left atrium – right ventricle – Aorta – Body...
1
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14477
Incomplete double circulation occurs in
6
606
Recommended Questions
Fishes, Amphibians...
4
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Edit
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14476
The hepatic portal ______ carries blood from ______ to liver before it is delivered to the ______.
6
606
Recommended Questions
vein, Pancreas, Pulmonary, artery, intestine, systemic...
3
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14475
The right atria of the human heart receive:
6
606
Recommended Questions
Oxygenated blood, Deoxygenated blood...
2
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14474
The passage of blood from right atrium to body is
6
606
Recommended Questions
right atrium–right ventricle–pulmonary vein–body, right atrium–right ventricle–pulmonary artery–lung...
2
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14473
Which of the following matches correctly?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Inferior vena cava - Receives deoxygenated blood from the head and body, Superior vena cava - Receives deoxygenated blood from the lower body and organs...
3
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14472
All veins carry deoxygenated blood except
6
606
Recommended Questions
pulmonary vein, hepatic vein...
1
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Edit
Delete
14471
Open circulatory system is present in
6
606
Recommended Questions
Arthropods, Molluscs...
4
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Edit
Delete
14470
Match the vessels in Column-I with appropriate organs in Column-II: Column-I (A) Hepatic portal vein (B) Pulmonary trunk (C) Coronary circulation (D) Inferior vena cava Column-II (p) Heart's blood system (q) Returns blood to the heart from lower limbs (r) Carries blood to the liver (s) Leads to lungs
6
606
Recommended Questions
(A)→(r), (B)→(s),(C)→(p),(D)→(q), (A)→(r),(B)→(q),(C)→(s),(D)→(p)...
1
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14469
What does systemic circulation provide to tissue?
6
606
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nutrient, oxygen...
4
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14468
Which one is incorrect in the following:
6
606
Recommended Questions
Inter atrial septa – thin and muscular, Atrio– ventricular septa – thick and fibrous...
4
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14467
Consider the following statement with respect to heart: (i) It has the double walled membranous bag. (ii) Human heart has four chambers: two larger atria and two median ventricles. (iii) Human heart is mesodermal in origin and is situated in abdominal cavity. (iv) There is no clear separation between atria and ventricles. How many of the statements given above are correct?
6
606
Recommended Questions
2, 3...
3
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14466
Which of the following statements is not true for the human heart?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Adrenal medullary hormones can increase the cardiac output, Neural signal through the sympathetic nerves can initiate the heart beat...
2
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Delete
14465
The sino-atrial node is the normal pacemaker of the human heart because:
6
606
Recommended Questions
It is located in the right atrium., It is the only part of the conducting system that can generate impulse....
3
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Delete
14464
The inter-atrial septum in the human heart can be best described as:
6
606
Recommended Questions
A thin muscular wall, A thick muscular wall...
1
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14463
Semilunar valves are found between
6
606
Recommended Questions
left ventricle and aorta, right ventricle and pulmonary artery...
4
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14462
SAN is present in ________ while AVN is present in ________.
6
606
Recommended Questions
Right upper corner and left lower corner of both the atria., Right upper corner and left lower corner of right atrium....
2
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14461
Match the following nodal tissues of heart with their correct location Column I (a) AV node (b) SA node (c) Bundle branch (d) Purkinje fibres Column II (i) Right upper corner of the right atrium (ii) Left upper corner of the right atrium (iii) Base of inter atrial septum tilted towards right (iv) Lower right corner of the right atrium (v) Interventricular septum (vi) Musculature of ventricles
6
606
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(iii) (ii) (vi) (v), (iii) (i) (v) (vi)...
2
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14460
The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by the valve named
6
606
Recommended Questions
bicuspid valve, tricuspid valve...
2
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14459
A patch of nodal tissue responsible for initiating the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart is present in:
6
606
Recommended Questions
Lower left corner of the left ventricle, Upper right corner of the right atrium...
2
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14458
Bicuspid valves are present between
6
606
Recommended Questions
left atria and aorta, right atria and pulmonary artery...
3
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14457
Human Heart has SA node which makes it–
6
606
Recommended Questions
myogenic heart, neurogenic heart...
1
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14456
Which of the following plasma protein helps in coagulation of blood?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Fibrin, Prothrombin...
1
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14455
During the initiation of coagulation of blood, the platelets are activated by–
6
606
Recommended Questions
Thrombin, Trauma...
2
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14454
Which of the following is correct regarding thrombin?
6
606
Recommended Questions
It is a protein of primary structure, Converts soluble fibrinogen of plasma into insoluble fibrin...
2
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14453
Fibrins are formed by conversion of ______ in ______ by the enzyme ______
6
606
Recommended Questions
Fibrinogen, serum, Thrombokinase, prothrombin, plasma, thrombin...
3
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14452
Arrange the following component in the sequence of activation of blood clotting mechanism?
6
606
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(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (i), (iv), (v), (ii), (iii)...
2
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14451
Thrombokinase performs a specific function in human body. Choose the correct option
6
606
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Thrombin → Prothrombin, Fibrinogen → Fibrin...
4
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14450
If a person gets his blood count done from a lab and finds his platelets to be 20000 and then meets an accident on that day. Which of the following is correct?
6
606
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as the platelet count is normal, there will be no harm to him because of platelets., Clotting disorders...
4
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Delete
14449
Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body.
6
606
Recommended Questions
Erythrocytes, Leucocytes...
4
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14448
Match the following: (i) Fibrinogen p. Defence (ii) Globulin q. Osmotic balance (iii) Albumin r. Clotting
6
606
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(i) → r, (ii) → p, (iii) → q, (i) → p, (ii) → r, (iii) → q...
1
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14447
Platelets are formed from–
6
606
Recommended Questions
Megakaryoblast, Megakaryocyte...
2
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14446
Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when a factor from mother passes into the foetus through the placenta. The factor is
6
606
Recommended Questions
Rh antigen, Rh antibodies...
2
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14445
Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented during a second pregnancy in a Rh negative mother who is likely to carry a Rh positive fetus by:
6
606
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Administering anti – Rh antibodies to the mother just before the delivery of the second child, Administering Rh antigen to the mother just after the delivery of the first child...
4
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14444
A person can receive blood only from a donor of his/her blood group if the blood group of this person is:
6
606
Recommended Questions
O, AB...
1
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14443
During 'Erythroblastosis fetalis' there is
6
606
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Foetal stem cells fails to form RBC., RBC fails to transport O₂ to foetal tissues....
3
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14442
There is a possibility of exposure of the maternal blood [of Rh -ve mother] to small amounts of Rh +ve blood from the fetus during the:
6
606
Recommended Questions
First trimester of any pregnancy, Third trimester of the second pregnancy only...
3
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14441
To avoid Erythroblastosis Foetalis–
6
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Recommended Questions
the mother is administered anti-Rh antibodies., the baby is administered Rh antibodies....
1
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14440
Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) may occur in the fetus of a second pregnancy if:
6
606
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The mother is Rh⁺ and the baby is Rh⁻, The mother is Rh⁺ and the baby is Rh⁺...
4
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14439
_____ population has Rh _____ on the surface of _____ present in their _____.
6
606
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20%, antigen, platelets, plasma, 80%, antigen, RBC, blood...
2
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14438
A person with AB blood group:
6
606
Recommended Questions
Has A and B antigens in his plasma, Lacks any antibodies on RBC surface...
3
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14437
ABO blood grouping is based on
6
606
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presence of two soluble antibodies, absence of two surface antigens...
4
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14436
Choose the incorrect match with respect to blood components
6
606
Recommended Questions
Leucocytes – 6000 - 8000 mm⁻³, Globulins – Involved in defence mechanisms...
3
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14435
Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has
6
606
Recommended Questions
Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma, Both A and B antibodies in the plasma...
1
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14434
When the plasma of a person has both anti A and anti B antibodies the blood group of this person would be:
6
606
Recommended Questions
A, B...
4
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14433
Different blood groups are due to:
6
606
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Specific antigens on the surface of WBCs, Specific antibodies on the surface of RBCs...
3
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14432
A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in an accident and needs immediate blood transfusion. His one friend who has a valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood donation without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Type AB, Type O...
2
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14431
Which of the following cell will play a role in inflammatory reactions?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Eosinophil, Basophil...
2
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14430
Identify the given figure and select the correct option
6
606
Recommended Questions
Neutrophil - phagocytic cell which destroy foreign organisms entering the body, Eosinophil - their number increases during allergic infection...
1
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14429
Select the option having all the correct characteristics:
6
606
Recommended Questions
0.3-0.5, Phagocytic, 0.5-1.0, Secrete histamine...
2
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14428
Which of the following sequence is correct in terms of abundance?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Neutrophils > Lymphocytes > Monocytes > Eosinophils > Basophils, Neutrophils > Lymphocytes < Monocytes > Eosinophils > Basophils...
1
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14427
Leucocytes are _____ and _____.
6
606
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colourless and enucleated, coloured and nucleated...
3
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14426
Which of the following cell/cells will play a role in immune responses?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Ganulocytes, Neutrophils...
3
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14425
Which of the following cell/cells will play a role in phagocytosis?
6
606
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monocytes, Neutrophils...
4
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14424
Which blood cell can secrete and transport heparin, histamin and serotonin?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Acidophil, Basophil...
2
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14423
Which of the following cell/cells are not Granulocytes?
6
606
Recommended Questions
Eosinophil, Basophil...
3
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Delete
14422
144
6
605
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
14421
The following statements refer to gas carriage by blood. Choose the correct statement:
6
605
Recommended Questions
After leaving the lungs, each litre of blood contains about 20 ml of oxygen., Haemoglobin is half saturated with oxygen when the PO₂ is about 30 mm Hg....
2
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14420
In the given diagram of the oxygen dissociation curve, under normal physiological conditions, the partial pressure of oxygen at the tissue level is represented by:
6
605
Recommended Questions
A, B...
2
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14419
Which of the following does not shift the oxy-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?
6
605
Recommended Questions
increased pH, increased carbon dioxide...
1
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14418
In the human body, CO₂ is primarily carried in blood as
6
605
Recommended Questions
Dissolved in plasma, Carbaminohaemoglobin...
3
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14417
A curve obtained when percentage saturation of Hb with O₂ is plotted against the pO₂ is also called as
6
605
Recommended Questions
Association curve, Dissociation Curve...
4
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14416
The partial pressure of oxygen is equal in
6
605
Recommended Questions
Atmospheric air and Alveoli, Alveoli and Oxygenated blood...
4
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14415
Choose the incorrect statement
6
605
Recommended Questions
Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO₂ to the alveoli, Carbonic anhydrase is present in very high concentration in RBC...
4
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14414
In case of a decrease in the carbon dioxide concentration of blood, the Hb-O₂ saturation curve will shift towards:
6
605
Recommended Questions
Right side, Left side...
2
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14413
Factors which can cause right shift in oxyhaemoglobin curve include all except
6
605
Recommended Questions
Increase in pCO₂, Decrease in pO₂...
3
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14412
An increase from pH 7.2 to pH 7.4 around hemoglobin causes:
6
605
Recommended Questions
Hemoglobin to release all bound oxygen molecules., An increase in the affinity of hemoglobin to bind oxygen molecules....
2
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Delete
14411
What amount of carbon dioxide is delivered by every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood to the alveoli?
6
605
Recommended Questions
4 ml, 5 ml...
1
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14410
Oxygen binding to haemoglobin in blood is
6
605
Recommended Questions
directly proportional to the concentration of CO₂ in the medium, inversely proportional to the concentration of CO₂ in the medium...
2
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14409
What is true about RBCs in humans?
6
605
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They carry about 20-25 per cent of CO₂, They transport 99.5 per cent of O₂...
1
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14408
Every 2000 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately, how much mL CO₂ to alveoli?
6
605
Recommended Questions
4 mL, 4.2 mL...
4
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Edit
Delete
14407
Frogs respire through
6
605
Recommended Questions
Skin, Lungs...
4
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Delete
14406
Oxygen binding to hemoglobin in blood is:
6
605
Recommended Questions
directly proportional to the concentration of CO₂ in the medium., inversely proportional to the concentration of CO₂ in the medium....
2
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Delete
14405
How many of the following factors are favourable for the shifting of Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation Curve to the left side: low pO₂, high pCO₂, more H⁺ Concentration, Higher temperature, High pO₂, Low pCO₂, less H⁺ Concentration, lower temperature.
6
605
Recommended Questions
3, 4...
2
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Delete
14404
Approximately seventy percent of carbon dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs
6
605
Recommended Questions
as bicarbonate ions, in the form of dissolved gas molecules...
1
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Delete
14403
Mark the incorrect statement regarding the transport of gas.
6
605
Recommended Questions
About 97% of O₂ is transported by RBC., Nearly 20-25% of CO₂ is transported by RBC....
4
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Delete
14402
Binding of Oxygen with Hb is primarily related to
6
605
Recommended Questions
Partial pressure of O₂, Partial pressure of CO₂...
1
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14401
The solubility of carbon dioxide is about ____ times higher than that of oxygen across the respiratory membrane.
6
605
Recommended Questions
20-25, 25-50...
1
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14400
The formation of Carbonic acid from Carbon dioxide and water has catalyzed the enzyme
6
605
Recommended Questions
Carbonic anhydrase, Carbonic anhydride...
1
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Delete
14399
Carbonic anhydrase plays an important role in the transport of carbon dioxide in
6
605
Recommended Questions
Leucocytes, Thrombocytes...
3
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Edit
Delete
14398
The binding of Hb with Carbon dioxide forms
6
605
Recommended Questions
Methamoglobin, Carbamino-haemoglobin...
2
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Edit
Delete
14397
The red coloured, Fe containing pigment present in the erythrocytes is
6
605
Recommended Questions
Haemoglobin, Myoglobin...
1
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Delete
14396
Which of the following is true
6
605
Recommended Questions
Gills are used by most of the aquatic animals, Lungs are used by most of the terrestrial animals...
4
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Delete
14395
Each Hb can carry a maximum of ___ oxygen molecules.
6
605
Recommended Questions
2, 4...
2
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Delete
14394
Which of the following match is correct?
6
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Recommended Questions
Emphysema: reduction of surface area of alveoli and bronchi, Pneumonia: occupational disease with asbestos...
1
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14393
Read the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all correct ones only: (a) Exchange of O₂ and CO₂ at alveoli and tissue occur by active transport. (b) Long exposure to industrial dust leads to inflammation leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious lung damage. (c) EICM and IICM are muscles actively involved in normal and forced breathing respectively. (d) Spirometer is unable to find out the functional residual capacity and total lung capacity.
6
605
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b, c and d, b and d...
1
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14392
Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?
6
605
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Inflammation of bronchioles; decreased respiratory surface, Increased number of bronchioles; increased respiratory surface...
1
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14391
In which of the following disorders there is difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles?
6
605
Recommended Questions
Emphysema, Asthma...
2
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Delete
14390
In which of the following disorders alveolar walls are damaged, surface area for gaseous exchange is reduced and the air sacs remain filled with air even after expiration?
6
605
Recommended Questions
Pneumonia, Coryza...
3
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14389
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking
6
605
Recommended Questions
asthma, respiratory acidosis...
4
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Delete
14388
Emphysema is a chronic disorder, it leads to
6
605
Recommended Questions
Loss of elasticity of walls of bronchioles and alveoli, Surface area of exchange of gases is increased...
1
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Edit
Delete
14387
Which of the following is not a symptom of asthma?
6
605
Recommended Questions
Difficulty in breathing, Breathing noisily/wheezing...
3
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Delete
14386
Excessive cigarette smoking leading to damage of alveolar walls is associated with
6
605
Recommended Questions
Asthma, Emphysema...
2
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Delete
14385
What is the primary function of the Pneumotaxic Center in the regulation of respiration in human beings?
6
605
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It increases the rate and depth of breathing, It decreases the rate of and depth of breathing...
3
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14384
A center that moderates the functions of the respiratory rhythm center is located in:
6
605
Recommended Questions
Dorsal medulla oblongata, Ventral medulla oblongata...
3
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14383
How many of the following statements are correct? a. Normal exhalation during quiet breathing in an active process involving intensive muscle contraction. b. Air flow during breathing is due to pressure gradient between the lungs and atmospheric air. c. A specialised centre present in the medulla region of the brain called respiratory rhythm centre is primarily responsible for regulation of respiration. d. Respiratory rate decreases during fever.
6
605
Recommended Questions
One, Two...
2
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14382
Respiration is under neural and chemical regulation. The receptors for chemical regulation are located in the:
6
605
Recommended Questions
walls of the carotid and aortic arteries and in the medulla oblongata., walls of the carotid and aortic arteries only....
1
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Delete
14381
Respiratory rhythm centre is present in the medulla and is primarily responsible for regulation of respiration as per demands of the body tissues. This centre is regulated by
6
605
Recommended Questions
Pneumotaxic centre present pons region, Central chemoreceptor adjacent to rhythm centre...
4
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Delete
14380
'Chemosensitive Area' for regulation of respiration is present on?
6
605
Recommended Questions
Medulla, Pons...
1
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Edit
Delete
14379
Pneumotaxic Centre is present in the
6
605
Recommended Questions
forebrain, midbrain...
3
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Edit
Delete
14378
Aortic arch and carotid artery receptors cannot recognise changes in
6
605
Recommended Questions
CO₂ Concentration, O₂ Concentration...
2
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Delete
14377
Human beings have a significant ability to maintain and moderate the respiratory rhythm. This is done by neural control. Which of the following is not related with respiration?
6
605
Recommended Questions
Pneumotaxic centre, Respiratory rhythm centre...
3
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Delete
14376
Chemosensitive area of respiratory centre medulla is affected by
6
605
Recommended Questions
less CO₂ and H⁺ ions, less O₂ and H⁺ ions...
3
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Delete
14375
Which substances when present in high level can activate the chemosensitive area present adjacent to rhythm centre?
6
605
Recommended Questions
CO₂ and O₂, HCO₃⁻ ions and O₂...
3
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Edit
Delete
14374
Central chemoreceptors in the brain respond to changes in the
6
605
Recommended Questions
Oxygen concentration in blood, Carbon dioxide concentration in CSF...
2
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Edit
Delete
14373
Pneumotaxic centre is located in:
6
605
Recommended Questions
Pons, Cerebrum...
1
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Edit
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14372
Match the following columns and select the correct option: Column I (a) Pneumotaxic Centre (b) O₂ Dissociation curve (c) Carbonic Anhydrase (d) Primary site of exchange of gases Column II (i) Alveoli (ii) Pons region of the brain (iii) Haemoglobin (iv) R.B.C.
6
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(i) (iii) (ii) (iv), (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)...
2
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14371
Consider the characters of a respiratory control center in humans: I. It is located in pons II. It moderates the functions of respiratory rhythm center III. Its absence results in an increase in depth of respiration The respiratory control center is:
6
605
Recommended Questions
Pneumotaxic center, Apneustic center...
1
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Edit
Delete
14370
Respiration is controlled by
6
605
Recommended Questions
medulla oblongata, cerebellum...
1
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Edit
Delete
14369
Pneumotaxic centre which can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre is present at:
6
605
Recommended Questions
Pons region of brain, Thalamus...
1
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Delete
14368
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to transportation of gases?
6
605
Recommended Questions
A. Blood transport CO₂ comparatively easily because of its higher solubility, B. CO₂ diffuses into blood, passes into RBCs and reacts with water to form H₂CO₃...
3
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14367
Carbon dioxide generated in the tissue is carried in venous blood primarily as
6
605
Recommended Questions
Dissolved gas in plasma, Carbamino hemoglobin...
3
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Delete
14366
Which of the following statements is correct regarding CO₂ and O₂ transport in blood?
6
605
Recommended Questions
100 ml of oxygenated blood carries 53 ml of O₂, 100 ml of blood always transport equal amounts of O₂ and CO₂...
3
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Delete
14365
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to transport of carbon dioxide in blood?
6
605
Recommended Questions
About 20-25 percent of carbon dioxide is carried by haemoglobin in the form of carbamino haemoglobin, 70 percent of CO₂ is carried in a dissolved states through plasma...
2
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Edit
Delete
14364
Carbonic anhydrase is present in
6
605
Recommended Questions
R.B.C, Plasma...
3
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Edit
Delete
14363
At 40 mmHg of partial pressure of oxygen haemoglobin is _____ saturated
6
605
Recommended Questions
50 %, 75 %...
2
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Delete
14362
What percentage of haemoglobin is saturated with oxygen in the blood at pO₂ 30 mm Hg and pCO₂ 40 mm Hg?
6
605
Recommended Questions
50 %, 85 %...
1
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Delete
14361
Dissociation of oxygen from blood to tissue is facilitated by
6
605
Recommended Questions
Low pO₂ at the level of tissue, Metabolic activities of the tissue...
4
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Edit
Delete
14360
The number of oxygen molecules (O₂) that can conjugate with one molecule of haemoglobin are
6
605
Recommended Questions
2, 4...
2
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Edit
Delete
14359
Oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curves are represented as A and B. Select the incorrect interpretation
6
605
Recommended Questions
Curve B has increased ability to unload O₂ in tissues, with respect to curve A., The shift in a curve from B to A is associated with decreased P50 value....
3
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Delete
14358
Why the partial pressure of CO₂ is high at tissue-site?
6
605
Recommended Questions
Due to the saturation of O₂ with Hb, Release of H⁺ at the tissue site...
3
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Edit
Delete
14357
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the pulmonary artery is
6
605
Recommended Questions
More than that in tissues, Equal to that in systemic arteries...
4
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Delete
14356
In the process of respiration how many times the process of diffusion takes place in respiration
6
605
Recommended Questions
4, 3...
3
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Delete
14355
At lungs carbon dioxide diffuses out of the pulmonary capillaries into the alveoli. As a result hemoglobin’s ability to bind to oxygen would:
6
605
Recommended Questions
be unstable, stay the same...
4
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Edit
Delete
14354
The partial pressure of CO₂ is minimum in the
6
605
Recommended Questions
atmospheric air, Alveoli...
1
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Edit
Delete
14353
The most important primary factor in determining the percent saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen is
6
605
Recommended Questions
Partial pressure of oxygen, Acidity...
1
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Delete
14352
The pO₂ in systemic arteries and systemic veins is respectively
6
605
Recommended Questions
95, 40 mmHg, 95, 45 mmHg...
1
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Delete
14351
Given below a diagram of a section of an alveolus with a pulmonary capillary. Which of the following is a correct statement for diffusion of gases?
6
605
Recommended Questions
Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ from A to B or B to A takes place with the same rate., O₂ will diffuse faster from A to B than CO₂ from B to A...
2
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14350
At tissue sites, partial pressure of CO₂ is high due to ______ process.
6
605
Recommended Questions
Anabolic, catabolic...
2
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14349
Partial pressure of CO₂ in alveoli of lungs:
6
605
Recommended Questions
Is equal to that in the deoxygenated blood., Is more than that in the deoxygenated blood....
3
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Delete
14348
Which of the following statements is not correct?
6
605
Recommended Questions
Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration is about 2200 ml, Partial pressure of O₂ and CO₂ in alveoli is 40 mm Hg and 104 mm Hg respectively...
2
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Delete
14347
The partial pressure of O₂ and CO₂ in the arterial blood respectively is
6
605
Recommended Questions
40 mmHg and 45 mmHg, 100 mmHg and 45 mmHg...
3
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Delete
14346
The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is
6
605
Recommended Questions
equal to that in the blood, more than that in the blood...
2
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14345
The figure given below shows a small part of the human lung where exchange of gases takes place. In which one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function?
6
605
Recommended Questions
A - Alveolar cavity - main site of exchange of respiratory gases, D - Capillary wall - exchange of O₂ and CO₂ takes place here...
1
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14344
The amount of CO₂ that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial pressure is much higher as compared to that of O₂. This is because:
6
605
Recommended Questions
Solubility coefficient of CO₂ is higher, Solubility coefficient of CO₂ is lesser...
1
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Delete
14343
Transport of gases in alveoli takes place by:
6
605
Recommended Questions
Active transport, Passive transport...
3
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14342
pCO₂ is high and pO₂ is low can be found in
6
605
Recommended Questions
alveoli, tissues...
2
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Delete
14341
More binding of CO₂ occurs when pCO₂ is ____ and pO₂ is ____
6
605
Recommended Questions
high, high, low, high...
3
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14340
In alveoli,
6
605
Recommended Questions
pCO₂ is high and pO₂ is low, pCO₂ is low and pO₂ is high...
2
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Delete
14339
Given below are the partial pressures (in mmHg) of oxygen and carbon dioxide at different parts involved in diffusion in comparison to those in atmosphere. Respiratory gas O₂ CO₂ Atmospheric air 159 A Alveoli B 40 Body (deoxygenated) 40 C Blood (Oxygenated) D 40 Tissues 40 45 Choose the correct option with respect to the values of partial pressures (in mmHg) marked as A, B, C and D.
6
605
Recommended Questions
A: 0.3, B: 104, C: 40, D: 52, A: 32, B: 116, C: 45, D: 45...
3
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14338
The diffusion membrane or respiratory membrane does not include
6
605
Recommended Questions
Thin squamous epithelium, Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium...
2
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14337
Diffusion membrane consists of
6
605
Recommended Questions
Squamous epithelium of alveoli, endothelium of alveolar capillaries...
4
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14336
Which of the following events happen when air expelled from lungs
6
605
Recommended Questions
Ribs and sternum returned to original position, volume of thorax decreased...
4
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Delete
14335
Which of the following events happen when air enters lungs 1. Ribs and sternum raised 2. volume of thorax increased 3. Diaphragm contracted 4. All of the above
6
605
Recommended Questions
Ribs and sternum raised, volume of thorax increased...
4
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14334
Vital capacity (VC) can be stated as
6
605
Recommended Questions
TV + IRV, TV + FRC...
4
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14333
Given below are four statements A-D each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in two statements. A. Healthy man can inspire or expire approximately ___ ml of air per minute. B. Inspiratory reserve volume average ___ ml. C. Residual volume averages ___ ml. D. Volume of air accumulated in the lungs at the end of forced inspiration is ___.
6
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A - 500 ml, B - 2500 to 3000 ml, B - 2500 to 3000 ml, C - 1000 ml to 1100 ml...
4
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14332
A healthy man can inspire or expire approximately ____ of air per breath normally
6
605
Recommended Questions
500 ml, 1000 ml to 1100 ml...
1
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14331
The maximum amount of air that a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration, under normal physiological conditions, would be about:
6
605
Recommended Questions
1600 ml, 2300 ml...
3
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14330
Select the incorrectly matched pair
6
605
Recommended Questions
Additional volume of air person can expire by a forceful expiration - Expiratory reserve volume, Maximum amount of air expelled forcefully from lungs after maximum forceful inspiration - Vital capacity...
4
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14329
Maximum volume of air a person can breathe after forceful expiration is termed as
6
605
Recommended Questions
Inspiratory capacity, Vital capacity...
2
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14328
Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of maximum forceful inspiration includes
6
605
Recommended Questions
ERV + RV, IRV + ERV...
4
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14327
The volume of air expired forcefully after forceful inspiration
6
605
Recommended Questions
TV+IRV, TV+ERV+IRV...
2
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Delete
14326
What is vital capacity of our lungs?
6
605
Recommended Questions
Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume, Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume...
4
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14325
The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is
6
605
Recommended Questions
(A) only, (A) & (B) only...
3
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14324
The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration includes
6
605
Recommended Questions
ERV (Expiratory Reserve volume), TV (Tidal Volume)...
4
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14323
Total volume of air a person can expire after a normal inspiration is
6
605
Recommended Questions
A only, B & C only...
2
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14322
Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration is
6
605
Recommended Questions
Inspiratory capacity, Functional residual capacity...
2
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14321
The volume of air expired forcefully after normal inspiration
6
605
Recommended Questions
TV+IRV, TV+ERV...
2
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Delete
14320
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
6
605
Recommended Questions
a-iii b-ii c-i d-iv, a-iii b-i c-ii d-iv...
2
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14319
The Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is the total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of forced inspiration. This includes:
6
605
Recommended Questions
RV; IC (Inspiratory Capacity); EC (Expiratory Capacity); and ERV, RV; ERV; IC and EC...
4
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14318
Vital capacity is
6
605
Recommended Questions
RV + TV + IRV, ERV + RV...
4
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14317
The amount of air that enters the lungs during normal, restful breathing is called the______.
6
605
Recommended Questions
Vital capacity, Tidal volume...
2
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14316
Mark the incorrect combination with respect to pulmonary capacities
6
605
Recommended Questions
IC = TV + IRV, FRC = RV + ERV...
3
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14315
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below. Column-I a. Inspiratory capacity b. Vital capacity c. Residual volume d. Functional residual capacity Column-II i. IRV + EC ii. TV + IRV iii. TLC – VC iv. TLC – IC
6
605
Recommended Questions
a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii), a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)...
4
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14314
Match the lung volumes given in column I with their respective values in column II. Column-I a. Tidal volume b. Residual volume c. Inspiratory reserve volume d. Expiratory reserve volume Column-II i. 1000 mL ii. 2500-3500 mL iii. 1200 mL iv. 500 mL
6
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Recommended Questions
a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)...
4
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14313
Breathing is best described as
6
605
Recommended Questions
Utilisation of O₂ by the cells for catabolic reaction., Transport of gases by the blood....
3
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14312
Choose the correct sequence during expiration (i) Pressure increases in pulmonary cavity (ii) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases (iii) Expulsion of air from high pressure to low pressure (iv) Decrease in volume of pulmonary cavity
6
605
Recommended Questions
i → ii → iii → iv, iv → i → iii → ii...
3
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14311
Read the following steps and arrange them in correct sequence for the process of inspiration: A. Increases thoracic volume B. Air moves into lungs C. The contraction in diaphragm and EICM D. Increases pulmonary volume E. Lungs expand F. Decreases the pulmonary pressure (IPP)
6
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Recommended Questions
A, B, C, D, E, F, C, D, A, E, F, B...
3
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14310
The diaphragm and external intercostal muscles are _______ when expiration occurs.
6
605
Recommended Questions
contracted, relaxed...
2
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Delete
14309
On an average, a healthy human breathes _____ times/minute.
6
605
Recommended Questions
70-72, 20-25...
3
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14308
What happens to the volume of the pulmonary cavity when there is an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber?
6
605
Recommended Questions
It decreases, It increases...
2
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14307
By the contraction in radial muscle of diaphragm it become flattened in shape, so, volume of thoracic cavity increases in:-
6
605
Recommended Questions
Anterior-posterior axis, Dorsal-ventral axis...
1
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14306
Select the correct statement:
6
605
Recommended Questions
Expiration occurs due to external intercostal muscles., Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure during inspiration....
2
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14305
In the given figure, identify the muscles involved in raising the rib cage
6
605
Recommended Questions
External intercostals, Internal intercostals...
1
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14304
Contraction of diaphragm:
6
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Recommended Questions
Increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis, Increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis...
1
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14303
The movement of air into the lungs occurs due to a pressure gradient between the lungs and the atmosphere. So, inspiration occurs when/due to
6
605
Recommended Questions
Intra pulmonary is less than the atmospheric pressure, Increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis...
4
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14302
During inspiration, the diaphragm
6
605
Recommended Questions
Contracts, Expands...
1
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14301
During inspiration there is _______ pressure in the lungs with respect to atmospheric pressure.
6
605
Recommended Questions
positive, negative...
2
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14300
Pressure gradient between the lungs and atmosphere is maintained by
6
605
Recommended Questions
diaphragm, external intercostal muscles...
4
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14299
The mechanism of breathing depends on animal's
6
605
Recommended Questions
habitat, level of organisation...
3
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14298
Inspiration occurs when intra-pulmonary pressure is
6
605
Recommended Questions
Higher than atmospheric pressure, Lower than atmospheric pressure...
2
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14297
Inspiration can occur if A pressure is less than atmospheric pressure, i.e., there is B pressure in the lungs with respect to atmosphere pressure. Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly.
6
605
Recommended Questions
Intra-pulmonary Positive, Intra-pulmonary Negative...
2
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14296
Which of the following is the part of the thoracic chamber?
6
605
Recommended Questions
ribs and vertebral column, diaphragm...
4
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14295
Which of the following comprise the lungs
6
605
Recommended Questions
tracheae along with network of bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli, network of bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli...
2
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14294
Choose the wrong statement
6
605
Recommended Questions
CO₂ is the harmful molecule and released during catabolic reactions, respiration will always require O₂...
2
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14293
Nasopharynx opens through ________ of the larynx region into the trachea.
6
605
Recommended Questions
glottis, gullet...
1
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14292
Which of the following constitute the conduction part of the respiratory system
6
605
Recommended Questions
external nostrils to trachea, external nostrils to primary bronchioles...
4
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14291
The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the option, which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.
6
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Recommended Questions
A-trachea-long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air, B-pleural membrane-surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing...
3
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14290
The common passage for food and air is
6
605
Recommended Questions
nasal passage, nasopharynx...
4
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14289
Which of the following constitute the exchanging part of the respiratory system?
6
605
Recommended Questions
external nostrils to trachea, external nostrils to primary bronchioles...
3
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14288
Which of the following is true about pleural membranes except
6
605
Recommended Questions
outer pleural membrane is in close contact with the thoracic lining, inner pleural membrane is in contact with the lung surface...
4
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14287
Which of the following is not supported by cartilaginous rings
6
605
Recommended Questions
Primary bronchioles, tertiary bronchioles...
4
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14286
Trachea divides into two right and left primary bronchi at the level of:
6
605
Recommended Questions
Seventh cervical vertebra, Third thoracic vertebra...
3
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14285
Which of the following is true about epiglottis
6
605
Recommended Questions
thin elastic cartilaginous flap, prevent food entry into larynx...
4
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14284
How many external nostrils are present in human beings
6
605
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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14283
Lungs are covered by a double layered membrane which is called
6
605
Recommended Questions
Pleural membrane, Visceral membrane...
1
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14282
Trachea divides at the level of _____ thoracic vertebra into left and right primary bronchi
6
605
Recommended Questions
5th, 6th...
1
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14281
Which of the following is the function of the conducting part of the respiratory system?
6
605
Recommended Questions
clears the foreign particle, humidifies air...
4
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14280
Which of the following is entirely made of cartilage?
6
605
Recommended Questions
Nasal septum, Larynx...
2
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14279
The volume of air involved in breathing movements can be estimated by using
6
605
Recommended Questions
ECG, Sphygmomanometer...
3
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14278
146
6
604
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
14277
Carrier proteins facilitate the absorption of substance like
6
604
Recommended Questions
amino acids and glucose, glucose and fatty acids...
1
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14276
Mark the incorrect statement
6
604
Recommended Questions
Fructose, mannose and some amino acids are absorbed by facilitated diffusion, Various nutrients like amino acids, fatty acid, monosaccharides like glucose, electrolytes like Na⁺ are absorbed by active transport only...
2
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14275
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Microvilli increase the surface area of the small intestine for the absorption of nutrients., Enzymes located on the brush border finish the digestion of chyme....
4
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14274
Which statement is correct with reference to chylomicron?
6
604
Recommended Questions
They are end products of fat digestion, The reconstructed triglycerides in the intestinal cells combine with phospholipids and cholesterol and are released into lymph in the form of protein-coated fat droplets called chylomicrons...
2
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14273
Most of the water is absorbed in
6
604
Recommended Questions
Small intestine, Large intestine...
2
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14272
Which one of the following statement is false regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen., Glucose and amino acids are absorbed with the help of carrier ions like Na⁺....
1
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Delete
14271
Stomach is the site of absorption of
6
604
Recommended Questions
Simple sugars, Water...
4
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Delete
14270
The irregular movement of bowel characterizes which digestive disorder?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Constipation, Diarrhoea...
1
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14269
Which of the following is not observed in Diarrhoea?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Abnormal frequency of bowel movement, Increased liquidity of fecal discharge...
4
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14268
Mark the condition where food is not properly digested leading to feeling of fullness. This can be caused due to inadequate secretion, food poisoning, over eating etc.
6
604
Recommended Questions
Vomiting, Constipation...
3
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14267
Match column I with column II: Column I (a) Vomiting (b) Diarrhoea (c) Constipation (d) Indigestion Column II (i) Inadequate enzyme secretion (ii) Irregular bowel movement (iii) Increased liquidity of faecal discharge (iv) A feeling of nausea
6
604
Recommended Questions
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv), (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)...
3
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14266
Vomiting is an emetic reflex which is regulated by
6
604
Recommended Questions
Hypothalamus, Superior colliculi of midbrain...
3
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Delete
14265
What cannot be the cause of indigestion?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Inadequate enzyme secretion, Anxiety and food poisoning...
4
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Delete
14264
When skin and eyes turn yellow, it is the symptom of
6
604
Recommended Questions
Vomiting, Diarrhoea...
3
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14263
Match the following disorders with their characters Column I (a) Constipation (b) Indigestion (c) Vomiting (d) Diarrhoea Column II (i) Abnormal frequency of bowel movement and increased liquidity of the faecal discharge (ii) A reflex action (feeling of nausea) (iii) Faeces are retained within the rectum as the bowel movements occur irregularly (iv) Feeling of fullness due to anxiety, food poisoning and overeating
6
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Recommended Questions
a (iv), b (ii), c (iii), d (i), a (iii), b (iv), c (ii), d (i)...
2
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14262
Match the following columns and choose the correct answer from the options given below a. Indigestion (i) Ejection of stomach contents through the mouth b. Constipation (ii) It reduces the absorption of food c. Diarrhoea (iii) The faeces are retained in the rectum as the bowel movements becomes irregular d. Vomiting (iv) Food is not properly digested
6
604
Recommended Questions
a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii, a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii...
4
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14261
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature regarding protein energy malnutrition, marasmus?
6
604
Recommended Questions
It is produced by a simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories, It is found in infant less than a year of age...
4
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14260
Which group of three of the following statements A to E contains all correct statements with respect to Kwashiorkor? A. Caused mainly by deficiency of proteins. B. Fat is not left under the skin. C. Extensive oedema and swelling of the body parts. D. Is found in a child more than one year of age. E. Extreme emaciation and thinning of limbs occur.
6
604
Recommended Questions
A, C and E, A, C and D...
2
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14259
Emaciation of the body, thinning of limbs, skin becomes dry, thin and wrinkled. The above symptoms are associated with-
6
604
Recommended Questions
Marasmus, Kwashiorkar...
1
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14258
Kwashiorkor disease is due to:
6
604
Recommended Questions
simultaneous deficiency of proteins and fats, simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories...
4
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14257
When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from
6
604
Recommended Questions
marasmus, rickets...
1
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14256
Marasmus is not characterized by-
6
604
Recommended Questions
Protein deficiency, Impaired growth...
4
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14255
All the following conditions are observed in Marasmus, except
6
604
Recommended Questions
It is found in infants less than a year in age, if the mother's milk is replaced too early by other foods which are poor in both proteins and caloric value, The layer of fat beneath the skin disappears...
3
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14254
The common feature of Marasmus and Kawashiorkor are
6
604
Recommended Questions
Wasting of muscles, Failure of growth and brain development...
4
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Delete
14253
The replacement of mother's milk by high calorie and low protein diet in a child results in
6
604
Recommended Questions
Marasmus, Kawashiorkar...
2
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Delete
14252
Fats under the skin, Extensive oedema and swelling of body parts. These are related to
6
604
Recommended Questions
Marasmus, Kwashiorkor...
2
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Edit
Delete
14251
Protein deficiency occurs in a child more than one year results in
6
604
Recommended Questions
Marasmus, Kawashiorkar...
2
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Edit
Delete
14250
What prevents the backflow of fecal matter into the small intestine?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Ileo-caecal valve, Sphincter of Boyden...
1
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Delete
14249
Which of the following is not the function of the large intestine?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Absorption of some water, minerals and certain drugs, Nutrient absorption...
2
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14248
Mucosa forms many small finger like villi in the:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Stomach, Colon...
4
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Delete
14247
Principal organ for the absorption of nutrients is
6
604
Recommended Questions
Buccal cavity, Stomach...
3
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14246
Lacteals, lymph capillaries are found in:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Spleen, Intestinal villi...
2
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14245
What are the tiny finger-like projections called that are inside the small intestine? These tiny finger-like projections absorb the nutrients from the food and send the vitamins, minerals, proteins, carbohydrates and fats into our bloodstream:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Esophagus, Arteries...
3
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14244
How many of the following statements are wrong? a. The bile duct and the pancreatic duct open together into the duodenum as the common hepato-pancreatic duct which is guarded by sphincter of Boyden. b. The parotid, sub-maxillary and sub-lingual salivary glands are located just outside the buccal cavity. c. In duodenum, glands are only found in submucosa which are Brunner's glands, a type of simple branched tubular glands. d. There is no modification of the four layers namely serosa, muscularis, sub-mucosa and mucosa in different parts of alimentary canal. e. lipases are absent in the secretion of gastric glands.
6
604
Recommended Questions
One, Two...
3
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14243
To make pancreatic enzyme in action, which of the following is required? (i) Enterokinase (ii) Bile (iii) Intrinsic factor (iv) HCl
6
604
Recommended Questions
(i), (ii), (iii) (iv), (i), (ii) only...
2
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14242
Which of the following is not present in the mucosa of intestine?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Crypts of Lieberkuhn, Brunner's gland...
2
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14241
Which of the following enzyme is not included in the secretions of the brush border cells of mucosa?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Maltase, Dipeptidase...
4
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14240
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
6
604
Recommended Questions
About 30% of starch is hydrolysed in the buccal cavity, Small amounts of lipases are also secreted by gastric glands...
4
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Delete
14239
The enzyme that is not present in succus entericus is
6
604
Recommended Questions
maltase, nucleases...
2
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Edit
Delete
14238
Lipases can be activated by:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Enterokinase, Enterogastrone...
4
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Edit
Delete
14237
Three secretions meeting the food in small intestine are:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Bile, gastric juice and saliva, Bile, pancreatic juice and gastric juice...
4
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Delete
14236
Which of the following enzyme is not a disaccharidase?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Sucrase, Lactase...
4
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14235
Succus entericus is the term used for which of the following?
6
604
Recommended Questions
A junction present between ileum and large intestine, Foramen present in the heart...
4
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Delete
14234
Structure present in the submucosa of GIT is
6
604
Recommended Questions
Gastric gland, Villi...
4
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14233
Structure present in the submucosa of GIT is
6
604
Recommended Questions
Gastric gland, Villi...
4
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Delete
14232
The secretion of the brush border cells along with secretions of goblet cells of present in mucosa of small intestine constitutes:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Chyme, Chyle...
3
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Delete
14231
Lactose is composed of
6
604
Recommended Questions
glucose + fructose, glucose + glucose...
3
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Delete
14230
Which of the following is the physiologic calorific value of carbohydrates and proteins (kCal/g)?
6
604
Recommended Questions
4.1, 4.0...
2
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14229
Match the following structures with their respective location in organs: (a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas (b) Glisson's Capsule (ii) Duodenum (c) Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small intestine (d) Bruunner's Glands (iv) Liver Select the correct option from the following:
6
604
Recommended Questions
iii ii i iv, iii i iv ii...
4
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14228
Which of the following is the physiologic calorific value of fats (kCal/g)?
6
604
Recommended Questions
4.1, 4.0...
4
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Delete
14227
Match the column I with column II Column I a. Bilirubin and biliverdin b. Hydrolysis of starch c. Digestion of proteins d. Salivary glands Column II i. Sub-lingual ii. Bile pigments iii. Trypsin iv. Amylase
6
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Recommended Questions
a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii), a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)...
4
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Delete
14226
Brunner's glands occur in
6
604
Recommended Questions
sub-mucosa of duodenum, sub-mucosa of stomach...
1
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Delete
14225
The intestinal mucosal epithelium has goblet cells which secretes:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Digestive enzymes, Intestinal digestive enzymes...
3
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Delete
14224
Match the items given in Column - I with those in Column - II and choose the correct option: Column-I (a) Rennin (b) Enterokinase (c) Oxyntic cells (d) Fructose Column-II (i) Vitamin B₁₂ (ii) Facilitated transport (iii) Milk proteins (iv) Trypsinogen
6
604
Recommended Questions
iii, iv, ii, i, iv, iii, i, ii...
4
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14223
Match Column-I with Column-II Column I (i) Brunner's gland (ii) Rugae (iii) Succus entericus (iv) Carbohydrate splitting enzyme Column II a. Salivary amylase b. Nucleosidase c. Mucosa layer d. Sub-mucosa Choose the correct option
6
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Recommended Questions
i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c, i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a...
4
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14222
Enterokinase / enteropeptidase takes part in conversion of:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Pepsinogen to pepsin, Trypsinogen to trypsin...
2
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Delete
14221
How many enzymes in the list given below found in pancreatic juice? Enterokinase, Chymotrypsin, Aminopeptidase, Pepsin, Lactase, Rennin, Carboxypeptidase, Nuclease, Nucleotidase & Elastase:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Six, Three...
4
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14220
Chymotrypsinogen and pro-carboxypeptidase of pancreatic juice are activated by
6
604
Recommended Questions
Enterokinase, Exopeptidase...
3
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Edit
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14219
Carbohydrates in the chyme are hydrolysed to disaccharide by amylase of
6
604
Recommended Questions
Pancreatic juice, Gastric juice...
1
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Delete
14218
One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in humans is.
6
604
Recommended Questions
Enterokinase, Trypsinogen...
2
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Delete
14217
Following are certain enzymatic reactions taking place in the human alimentary canal. Each reaction is depicted with suitable enzyme A, B, C and D. Find from the options the correct set of enzymes required to carry out these reactions Starch → Maltose Nucleosides → Sugars + Bases Di and monoglycerides → Fatty acids + Glycerol Trypsinogen → Trypsin
6
604
Recommended Questions
A — Pancreatic amylase B — Nucleotidase C — Lipase D — Trypsin, A — Salivary amylase B — Nucleases C — Dipeptidases D — Enterokinase...
4
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14216
Which of the following do not belong to category of brush border enzymes?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Lactase, nucleotidase, Aminopeptidase, sucrase...
3
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Delete
14215
Which of the following glandular secretions involved in digestion would be most likely released initially as inactive precursors?
6
604
Recommended Questions
protein-digesting enzymes, fat-solubilizing bile salts...
1
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Delete
14214
Trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase, amylase, lipase and nuclease enzymes are found in:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Pancreatic juice, Succus entericus / intestinal juice...
1
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Edit
Delete
14213
Which enzymes are likely to act sequentially on egg white eaten by man as it moves down the alimentary canal?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Trypsin → Pepsin → Carboxypeptidase, Pepsin → Trypsin → Carboxypeptidase...
2
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14212
In jaundice - what is not observed?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Liver is affected, Skin and eyes turn yellow because of deposition of bile salts...
2
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14211
What will happen if bile duct gets blocked?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Faces become dry, Acidic chyme will not be neutralised...
4
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14210
Liver secretes?
6
604
Recommended Questions
No digestive enzymes, Many digestive enzymes...
1
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Delete
14209
Bile produced in the liver is associated with which of the following?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Emulsification of fats into tiny globules (micelles) in the small intestine by bile salts, Digestive action of pancreatic amylase...
1
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14208
Digestion of fats starts in
6
604
Recommended Questions
Mouth, Stomach...
3
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14207
Which type of cells are the part of tubular glands of the stomach epithelium?
6
604
Recommended Questions
D only, A & D...
4
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14206
Gastric glands are found in
6
604
Recommended Questions
Mucosa and submucosa, Crypts of Lierkuhn...
3
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14205
Gastric juice contains
6
604
Recommended Questions
Trypsin, lipase, rennin, Pepsin, lipase, rennin...
2
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Edit
Delete
14204
Which of the following is not a correct match of the substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the end product?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Starch — Amylase — Maltose — Maltase — Glucose, Protein — Pepsin — Peptones/Proteoses...
4
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14203
Gastric juice does not contain:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Lipase, Rennin...
4
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Edit
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14202
Vitamin B12 is absorbed by the help of secretions of which cells of stomach?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Goblet cells, Parietal cells...
2
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14201
Which of the following is true about digestion and absorption of food?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Trypsin, chymotrypsin and carboxypeptidase are brush border enzymes, The chemical process of digestion is initiated in the oral cavity. About 60% Starch is hydrolysed here by salivary amylase to form maltose...
3
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14200
Mark the correct pair of food components in human which reach to stomach in undigested form
6
604
Recommended Questions
Starch and fat, Starch and Protein...
4
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14199
HCl provides the pH which is about
6
604
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1.8, 3.2...
1
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14198
The food in stomach is called
6
604
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Bolus, Chyme...
2
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14197
If for some reason the parietal cells of the gastric epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to happen?
6
604
Recommended Questions
The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently, The pH of stomach will fall abruptly...
4
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Delete
14196
Which of the following gastric secretions is correctly matched with its source?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Pepsin-Chief cells, Chymotrypsin-Parietal cells...
1
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14195
Which of the following gastric secretory cells is correctly matched with its secretion(s)?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Chief cells - gastrin, parietal cells -- hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor...
2
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14194
The initial step in the digestion of milk in infants is carried out by?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Lipase, Trypsin...
3
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14193
The pH of stomach is 1.6, then which enzyme will digest protein?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Trypsin, Pepsin...
2
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Delete
14192
What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin, Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen...
3
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Delete
14191
Pepsin converts:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Protein into amino acid, Fat into fatty acid...
4
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14190
The parietal cells or the oxyntic cells located in the stomach's gastric pits mainly secrete:-
6
604
Recommended Questions
HCl and Intrinsic factor, Pepsinogen and Gastric lipase...
1
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Delete
14189
Which of the following reactions is not catalysed by a brush border enzyme?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Maltose → glucose + glucose, Lactose → glucose + glucose...
3
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14188
The saliva secreted by salivary glands does not
6
604
Recommended Questions
Contain electrolytes like Na⁺, K⁺, Cl⁻ and HCO₃⁻, Give safety against dental carries...
3
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14187
Which of the following enzyme present in saliva acts as an antibacterial agent that prevents infection?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Salivary amylase, Thiocyanate...
3
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14186
Match the following Column I a. Sphincter of boyden b. Sphincter of Oddi c. Cardiac sphincter d. Pyloric sphincter Column II i) Regulates openings of oesophagus into stomach (ii) Surrounds the opening of bile duct into pancreatic duct (iii) Regulates the opening of stomach into small intestine (iv) Surrounds ampulla of vater
6
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a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i), a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)...
4
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14185
Small intestine is distinguishable into 3 parts, a 'C' shaped _______ a long coiled middle portion _______ and a highly coiled:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Ileum, jejunum, duodenum, Duodenum, Jejunum, ilium...
3
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14184
To move into the intestinal mucosa, fatty acids and glycerol are first incorporated into:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Chyle, Micelles...
2
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14183
The oesophagus and trachea (wind pipe) open into:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Gullet, Glottis...
4
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14182
The opening of stomach into duodenum is guarded by:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Cardiac sphincter, Sphincter of Boyden...
4
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14181
Which of the following structures prevents the back flow of faecal matter?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Cardiac sphincter, Pyloric sphincter...
3
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Delete
14180
Choose the incorrect match
6
604
Recommended Questions
Auerbach's plexus - Peristalsis, Meissner plexus - Secretion of digestive juices...
3
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Delete
14179
Which of the following statements is false?
6
604
Recommended Questions
The breakdown of most of biomacromolecules occurs in duodenum, Simple substances (digested foods) are absorbed in the jejunum and ileum...
3
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14178
The portion of human stomach into which the oesophagus opens is the:-
6
604
Recommended Questions
Cardiac, Fundus...
1
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14177
The following is a scheme showing the fate of carbohydrates during digestion in the human alimentary canal. Identify the enzymes acting at stages indicated as A, B, C and D. Choose the correct option from those given.
6
604
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A = Amylase, B = Maltase, C = Lactase, D = Invertase, A = Amylase, B = Maltase, C = Invertase, D = Lactase...
4
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14176
The narrow distal part of stomach leading to the intestine is called:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Cardiac, Pyloric...
2
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14175
What regulates the opening of oesophagus into the stomach?
6
604
Recommended Questions
A membranous valve, A muscular sphincter...
2
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Delete
14174
Sphincter of Oddi will guard the opening of
6
604
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A, B...
4
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14173
Our stomach is:
6
604
Recommended Questions
U-shaped, J-shaped...
2
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14172
In the given diagram showing anatomical regions of the human stomach, A, B and C respectively represent:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Fundus, Cardia and Pylorus, Cardia, Pylorus and Fundus...
1
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14171
Caecum is small blind sac which hosts some symbiotic micro-organisms. From it a small finger like vestigial organ arises. This organ is called:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Parotid gland, Vermis...
3
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14170
Common bile duct includes
6
604
Recommended Questions
Right and left hepatic ducts and cystic duct, Common hepatic duct and cystic duct...
2
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14169
Read the following statements:- (a) Human liver is the largest endocrine gland of the body having two lobes. (b) Hepatic lobules are the structural and functional units of the liver and contain hepatocytes which are arranged in a chord-like manner. (c) Glisson’s capsule is covering of each lobule and is made up of connective tissue. (d) Bile juice is formed and secreted by hepatocytes and is stored in a liver sinusoid. Out of these which statements are correct and incorrect?
6
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Statements a and b are correct while c & d are incorrect., Statements a and d are correct while b & c are incorrect....
3
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14168
Common bile duct is formed when:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Right and left hepatic ducts are fused, Bile duct is fused with pancreatic duct...
4
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14167
Bile duct and pancreatic duct open together into the duodenum as the common hepato-pancreatic duct which is guarded by a sphincter called
6
604
Recommended Questions
Sphincter of Boyden, Pyrolic sphincter...
3
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14166
Cystic duct arises from:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Liver, Kidney...
4
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14165
Parotid glands are located below:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Eye, Tongue...
4
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Delete
14164
The optimum pH for the enzyme salivary amylase is:
6
604
Recommended Questions
4.5, 6.8...
2
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14163
Function of gall bladder is:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Storage of bile, Secretion of bile...
1
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14162
Which of the following is incorrect about pancreas?
6
604
Recommended Questions
It is compound gland as it has both exocrine and endocrine part, Exocrine part secretes alkaline pancreatic juice having enzymes...
4
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14161
A mass peristaltic movement is responsible for:-
6
604
Recommended Questions
Release of bile and pancreatic juice into the duodenum, Passage of chyme from stomach to duodenum...
4
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14160
Study the given diagram and choose the correct statements: I. A is involved in the absorption of fatty acids II. B is a gland
6
604
Recommended Questions
Only I, Only II...
3
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14159
The intrinsic nervous system that is responsible for peristalsis is present in which part shown in the given transverse section of the human gut?
6
604
Recommended Questions
A, B...
2
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14158
Select the incorrect option.
6
604
Recommended Questions
Polysaccharides Amylase → pH 6.8 Amylase Disaccharides, Paneth cells in mucosa of gut secrete lysozyme that has antibacterial effects....
3
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14157
Mark the incorrect match regarding the process involved in digestion and absorption?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Muscular activities of different parts of the alimentary canal. - Hormonal control, Absorption and transport of water - Passive process and depends upon the osmotic gradient...
1
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14156
Peristalsis occurs
6
604
Recommended Questions
from the mouth to the small intestine, from the beginning of the esophagus to the anus...
2
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14155
The mucosal layer in the stomach form irregular folds known as:-
6
604
Recommended Questions
villi, lumen...
3
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14154
If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional, this will adversely affect:
6
604
Recommended Questions
production of somatostatin, secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands...
4
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14153
Which of the following is a sub-mucosal gland?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Oxyntic glands of stomach, Crypts of Lieberkuhn of small intestine...
3
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14152
Waves of muscle contraction that move the intestinal content are:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Caused by contraction of skeletal muscle, Regulated by liver secretions...
3
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14151
Transverse section of gut shows four layers of the wall i.e serosa, muscularis, submucosa and mucosa. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding its arrangement and modification?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Serosa is the outermost layer which is made of thin mesothelium, Oblique muscle layer is present in stomach...
4
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14150
Given below is a diagrammatic representation of transverse section of gut. Choose the option which is correct for the layers labelled as A, B, C, and E.
6
604
Recommended Questions
A — Serosa, B — Longitudinal muscle layer, C — Circular muscle layer, D — Mucosa, E — Submucosa, A — Mucosa, B — Circular muscle layer, C — Longitudinal muscle layer, D — Submucosa, E — Serosa...
4
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14149
Muscularis layer of the wall of the alimentary canal is formed by:-
6
604
Recommended Questions
Smooth muscle arranged into an inner longitudinal and an outer circular layer, Smooth muscle arranged into an inner circular and an outer longitudinal layer...
2
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14148
Mucosa forms irregular folds (rugae) in the:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Ileum, Stomach...
2
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14147
Brunner's gland are characteristic feature of:-
6
604
Recommended Questions
jejunum of small intestine, ileum...
3
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14146
Duodenal glands / Brunner's glands are present in:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Submucosa, Mucosa...
1
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14145
The undigested substance (faeces) enter into the _______ of large intestine through _______ valve which prevents backflow of faecal matter:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Caecum, ileo-caecal, Colon, ileo-colon valve...
1
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14144
When each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone, then this type of attachment is called
6
604
Recommended Questions
Thecodont, Lophodont...
1
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14143
Alimentary canal begins with:-
6
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Recommended Questions
An vertical slit, the mouth, An anterior opening, buccal cavity...
4
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14142
In mammals, the teeth are. I. only two sets, present throughout life. II. embedded in the socket of the jaw bones. III. different types. These conditions are respectively referred as
6
604
Recommended Questions
diphyodont, heterodont and thecodont, diphyodont, thecodont and heterodont...
2
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14141
The hard chewing surface of teeth helping in mastication of food is called:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Dentine, Frenulum...
4
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14140
Muscularis layer in the wall of the alimentary canal is formed by smooth muscles usually arranged into:-
6
604
Recommended Questions
an inner circular and an outer longitudinal layer., an inner longitudinal and an outer circular layer....
1
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14139
Process of conversion of complex food substances to simple absorbable form is called:-
6
604
Recommended Questions
Assimilation, Deamination...
3
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14138
Which of the following cannot be the parasites of intestine?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Tapeworm, Pinworm...
3
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14137
In addition to neural control, hormones also influence the:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Gastric secretions, Intestinal secretions...
4
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14136
Frenulum is:
6
604
Recommended Questions
Adenoid present on pharyngeal wall, Tonsils located on lateral wall of soft palate...
3
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14135
Which of the following components of our food are taken in small quantities?
6
604
Recommended Questions
Carbohydrate and proteins, Proteins and minerals...
4
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14134
Populations subsisting primarily on corn would likely to suffer from:
6
604
Recommended Questions
PEM, Pellagra...
2
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14133
Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead to
6
604
Recommended Questions
indigestion, jaundice...
1
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14132
231
6
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1, 2...
1
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14131
230
6
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1, 2...
1
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14130
229
6
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Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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14129
228
6
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Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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14128
227
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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14127
226
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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14126
225
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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14125
224
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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14124
223
6
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1, 2...
1
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14123
222
6
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1, 2...
1
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14122
221
6
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1, 2...
1
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14121
220
6
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1, 2...
1
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14120
219
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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14119
218
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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14118
217
6
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1, 2...
1
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14117
216
6
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1, 2...
1
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14116
215
6
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1, 2...
1
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14115
214
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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14114
213
6
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1, 2...
1
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14113
212
6
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1, 2...
1
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14112
211
6
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1, 2...
1
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14111
210
6
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1, 2...
1
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14110
209
6
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1, 2...
1
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14109
208
6
603
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1, 2...
1
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14108
207
6
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1, 2...
1
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14107
206
6
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1, 2...
1
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14106
205
6
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1, 2...
1
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14105
204
6
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1, 2...
1
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14104
203
6
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1, 2...
1
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14103
202
6
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1, 2...
1
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14102
201
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1, 2...
1
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14101
200
6
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1, 2...
1
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14100
199
6
603
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1, 2...
1
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14099
198
6
603
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1, 2...
1
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14098
197
6
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1, 2...
1
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14097
196
6
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1, 2...
1
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14096
195
6
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1, 2...
1
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14095
194
6
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1, 2...
1
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14094
193
6
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1, 2...
1
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14093
192
6
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1, 2...
1
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14092
191
6
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1, 2...
1
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14091
190
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1, 2...
1
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14090
189
6
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1, 2...
1
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14089
188
6
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1, 2...
1
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14088
187
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1, 2...
1
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14087
186
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1, 2...
1
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14086
185
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1, 2...
1
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14085
184
6
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1, 2...
1
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14084
183
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1
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14083
182
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1, 2...
1
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14082
181
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1, 2...
1
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14081
180
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1, 2...
1
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14080
179
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1, 2...
1
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14079
178
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1, 2...
1
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14078
177
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14077
176
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14076
175
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14075
174
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14074
173
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14073
172
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14072
171
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14071
170
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14070
Which of the following secondary metabolites is an anticancer drug?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Vinblastin, Concanavalin A...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14069
Carotenoids and anthocyanin pigments are examples of
6
603
Recommended Questions
Primary metabolites, Secondary metabolites...
2
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Delete
14068
How many groups of the methane can be substituted to form an amino acid Glycine.
6
603
Recommended Questions
4, 3...
4
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Delete
14067
Which group of the amino acid contributes essentially to the chemical and physical properties of amino acids?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Amino group, Carboxyl group...
4
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Delete
14066
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below: Column I (Amino Acid) Column II (Nature) I. Tryptophan 1. Sulfur-containing II. Cysteine 2. Aromatic III. Valine 3. Basic IV. Lysine 4. Neutral Codes: I II III IV
6
603
Recommended Questions
1 2 3 4, 2 1 4 3...
2
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14065
Identify the amino acid with hydroxymethyl as its R group:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Glycine, Alanine...
3
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Delete
14064
How many types of proteinaceous amino acids are there?
6
603
Recommended Questions
20, more than 20...
1
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Edit
Delete
14063
The body meets the demand of essential amino acids through
6
603
Recommended Questions
Food, Body synthesised on its own...
1
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Edit
Delete
14062
Following is the diagrammatic representation of three different amino acids labelled as 1, 2 and 3? Select the option which is correct identification of amino acids 1, 2 and 3.
6
603
Recommended Questions
Glycine, Valine, Threonine, Glycine, Isoleucine, Aspartic acid...
3
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Delete
14061
Category of aromatic amino acids include all except
6
603
Recommended Questions
Serine, Tyrosine...
1
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Delete
14060
The zwitterion is shown by:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Only A, Only B...
2
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Delete
14059
Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Alanine, Asparagine...
3
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Delete
14058
Lecithin is formed by
6
603
Recommended Questions
Fatty acid (2) + Phosphoric acid (1) + Ethanolamine, Fatty acid (2) + Phosphoric acid (1) + Serine...
4
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Delete
14057
Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Lecithin – a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane, Palmitic acid – an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms...
1
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Delete
14056
Which of the following is diagrammatic representation of phospholipid (lecithin)?
6
603
Recommended Questions
CH₂OH | CH₂OH | CH₂OH, O || R₂C-O-CH₂-C-O-R₁ | O || CH₂-C-O-R₃...
3
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Delete
14055
The molecule that provides stability to cell membrane is
6
603
Recommended Questions
CH₂OH CH₂OH CH₂OH, HN C O CH NH...
3
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Delete
14054
Which of the following is true about Cholesterol?
6
603
Recommended Questions
It contains four fused hydrocarbon rings, Organic molecule...
4
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Delete
14053
Which of the following is true about Lipids
6
603
Recommended Questions
It is a polymer of Fatty acids and Glycerol, Water soluble...
4
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14052
Which one is false?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Fatty acids may be unsaturated (with one or more C = C bonds) or saturated (without double bonds), Fatty acid(s) may be esterified with glycerol forming monoglyceride, diglyceride and then triglyceride...
3
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Delete
14051
Upon complete hydrolysis, one molecule of triglyceride will yield how many molecules of fatty acids?
6
603
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
14050
Find the wrong statement
6
603
Recommended Questions
Living state is non-equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work, There is no uncatalysed metabolic conversion in living systems...
4
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Delete
14049
Consider the following statements: I: There is no uncatalysed metabolic conversion in living systems. II: The living state is a non-equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work. III: The living state and metabolism are synonyms, without metabolism there cannot be a living state. Which of the above statements are true?
6
603
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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Delete
14048
Which of the following elements is present in higher proportion [% weight of the total] in Earth's crust with respect to the average composition of a human body?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Carbon, Nitrogen...
4
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Edit
Delete
14047
Which of the following elements is present in higher proportion [% weight of the total] in Earth's crust with respect to the average composition of a human body?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Carbon, Nitrogen...
4
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Delete
14046
About 98% of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Phosphorous and sulphur, Sulphur and magnesium...
1
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14045
In a normal adult, ascending order of concentration of following molecules is
6
603
Recommended Questions
K > Na > Fe > Cu, Na > K > Cu > Fe...
1
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14044
In an average composition of a cell, the maximum % of total cellular mass [after water and protein] is constituted by:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Carbohydrates, Lipid...
3
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14043
In a 50 gm living tissue, what would be the amount of water?
6
603
Recommended Questions
15-25 gm, 25-30 gm...
3
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Delete
14042
There cannot be a living state without:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Metabolism, Capability of reproduction...
1
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Delete
14041
Which of the following elements is present in very less quantity in the body?
6
603
Recommended Questions
K, Ca...
4
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Delete
14040
The six most common atoms in organic molecules are:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Helium, Calcium and Sulphur, Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Calcium, Magnesium and Sulphur...
4
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14039
Which of the following is true?
6
603
Recommended Questions
All the elements present in a sample of earth's crust are also present in a sample of living tissue, Carbon and Hydrogen are present in more amount in any living organism than earth's crust....
4
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Delete
14038
Which of the following secondary metabolites is a polymeric substance?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Ricin, Monoterpenes...
4
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Edit
Delete
14037
Which of the following element is present in negligible amount in human body?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Magnesium, Sulphur...
3
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Edit
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14036
Which of the following is not strictly a biomacromolecule?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Proteins, Lipids...
2
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14035
Which of the following is not a strict macromolecules?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Carbohydrates, Nucleic acids...
4
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Edit
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14034
Three of the following statements about enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which one is wrong?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Enzymes are denatured at high temperatures but in certain exceptional organisms they are effective even at temperatures 80° - 90°C, Enzymes are highly specific...
3
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14033
Which of the following statements about enzymes is true? 1. Enzymes do not alter the overall change in free energy for a reaction 2. Enzymes are proteins whose three dimensional shape is key to their functions 3. Enzymes speed up reactions by lowering activation energy 4. Enzyme are highly specific for reactions 5. An enzyme like any protein has the secondary and tertiary structure. 6. The energy input needed to start a chemical reaction is called activation energy
6
603
Recommended Questions
All are correct, All except 5...
1
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14032
A non-proteinaceous enzyme is
6
603
Recommended Questions
lysozyme, ribozyme...
2
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14031
CO₂ dissolving in water is a
6
603
Recommended Questions
Physical process, Catalysed process in living system...
4
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Delete
14030
Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme, Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme...
2
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Delete
14029
Which one is correct?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Inorganic catalysts work efficiently at high temperature and high pressure while enzymes get damaged at high temperature (above 40°C), Thermophilic organisms living in hot vents and sulphur springs have enzymes that are stable and retain their catalytic power even at high temperature (80 - 90°C)...
4
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Delete
14028
Which of the following is true?
6
603
Recommended Questions
The conversion of acetic acid to cholesterol is an anabolic process., The conversion of glucose to lactic acid is a catabolic process....
4
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Delete
14027
Which of the following is true about carbonic anhydrase?
6
603
Recommended Questions
It accelerates the rate of formation of carbonic acid by 10 million times., In its absence only 200 molecules of carbonic acid is formed in an hour....
4
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Delete
14026
Find the correct statement 1. Catalysed reactions proceed at rates higher than that of uncatalysed ones. 2. In skeletal muscle under anaerobic conditions lactic acid is formed from pyruvic acid. 3. In yeast during fermentation ethanol is formed from pyruvic acid. 4. All of these
6
603
Recommended Questions
Catalysed reactions proceed at rates higher than that of uncatalysed ones., In skeletal muscle under anaerobic conditions lactic acid is formed from pyruvic acid....
4
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Edit
Delete
14025
The substrate has to go through a much higher energy state or transition state in case of:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Exothermic reactions only, Endothermic reactions only...
3
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Delete
14024
Which of the following describes the graph correctly?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Endothermic reaction with energy A in the presence of enzyme and B in the absence of enzyme, Exothermic reaction with energy A in the presence of enzyme and B in the absence of enzyme...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14023
During catalytic cycle of an enzyme action the binding of the __a__ induces the __b__ to alter its shape. Here a and b is ________
6
603
Recommended Questions
Substrate, enzyme., Enzyme, substrate....
1
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14022
Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is
6
603
Recommended Questions
Transient but stable, Permanent but unstable...
3
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14021
Activation energy: (1) Is the difference in the average energy content of 'S' from that of its transition state (2) Helps to change reactants into unstable transition state before they can be converted into products (3) Is minimum energy required from outside to overcome the energy barrier of reactant or to start a reaction (4) All are correct
6
603
Recommended Questions
Is the difference in the average energy content of 'S' from that of its transition state, Helps to change reactants into unstable transition state before they can be converted into products...
4
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Delete
14020
A. Catalyses the transfer of a group (other than hydrogen). B. Catalyses removal group from substrates by mechanism other than hydrolysis leaving double bond C. Catalyzing the linking of 2 molecules by using energy into one molecule. Identify the classes of enzymes for above functions:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Ligase Lyase Transferase, Transferase Lyase Ligase...
2
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14019
Which of the following is correct?
6
603
Recommended Questions
The ES complex formation is a transient phenomenon, The structure of the substrate gets transformed into the structure of product....
4
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Edit
Delete
14018
Which one of the following graphs show the relationship between the rate of an enzymatic activity and substrate conc. (S):
6
603
Recommended Questions
Graph (a), Graph (b)...
4
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Edit
Delete
14017
Enzymes work at optimum temperature. Over a range of 0 to 40°C, what would happen to the rate of enzyme controlled reactions for every 10°C rise in temperature?
6
603
Recommended Questions
The rate doubles itself, Decreases by half...
1
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Delete
14016
The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration) what do the two axis (X and Y) represent?
6
603
Recommended Questions
X-axis: Temperature, Y-axis: Enzyme activity, X-axis: Substrate concentration, Y-axis: Enzyme activity...
1
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Edit
Delete
14015
Mark the Incorrect statement
6
603
Recommended Questions
Co-enzymes are also organic compounds but their association with apoenzyme is only transient, Vmax (maximum velocity) represent that there are no substrate molecules to bind with free enzyme molecule...
2
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Edit
Delete
14014
Which one of the graphs show the effect of temperature on the velocity of a typical enzymatic reaction?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Graph a, Graph b...
3
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Delete
14013
Which one of the graphs shows the effect of pH on the velocity of a typical enzymatic reaction (V)?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Graph 1, Graph 2...
3
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Delete
14012
kₘ (Michaelis constant) value of enzyme is the substrate concentration at which velocity of reaction
6
603
Recommended Questions
Vmax, one fourth of Vmax...
4
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Edit
Delete
14011
Which of the following is incorrect?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Enzymatic activity is maximum at its optimum pH and temperature., Enzymatic activity declines both below and above the optimum value....
3
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Edit
Delete
14010
Which of the following is true?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Inorganic catalyst work efficiently at high temperatures and high pressures, Generally, enzymes get damaged at high temperatures...
4
View
Edit
Delete
14009
Which of the following is true?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Inorganic catalyst work efficiently at high temperatures and high pressures, Generally, enzymes get damaged at high temperatures...
4
View
Edit
Delete
14008
Which of the following is correct?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Physical change refers to change in shape without breaking the bonds, Change in state of matter also takes place in physical change...
4
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Edit
Delete
14007
In non-competitive inhibition: 1. the substrate and inhibitor cannot bind to the enzyme at the same time 2. the inhibitor binds only to the substrate-enzyme complex 3. the inhibitor can bind to the enzyme at the same time as the enzyme's substrate 4. the binding of the inhibitor to the enzyme reduces its activity but does not affect the binding of substrate
6
603
Recommended Questions
the substrate and inhibitor cannot bind to the enzyme at the same time, the inhibitor binds only to the substrate-enzyme complex...
4
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Edit
Delete
14006
Given below is the graph showing the effect of substrate concentration on enzyme activity. In the presence of a competitive inhibitor, when the concentration of the substrate is progressively increased:
6
603
Recommended Questions
The Km value increases but the reaction will not achieve Vmax, The Km value increases but the reaction can ultimately achieve Vmax...
2
View
Edit
Delete
14005
Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action.
6
603
Recommended Questions
Substrate binds with enzyme as its active site, Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate....
2
View
Edit
Delete
14004
Which of the following class of enzyme catalyse removal of groups from substrates by mechanism other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Lyases, Ligases...
1
View
Edit
Delete
14003
The adjoining graph shows change in conc. of substrate on enzyme activity. Identify A, B and C:
6
603
Recommended Questions
A: Ki, B: Km, C: Vmax, A: Vmax/2, B: Km, C: Ki...
3
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Edit
Delete
14002
The inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of
6
603
Recommended Questions
competitive inhibition, non-competitive inhibition...
1
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Delete
14001
In competitive inhibition: (1) Inhibitor resembles the substrate in molecular structure (2) Competition between substrates and inhibitors to occupy active sites (3) Binding the inhibitors to activities sites declines the enzyme action (4) All are correct
6
603
Recommended Questions
Inhibitor resembles the substrate in molecular structure, Competition between substrates and inhibitors to occupy active sites...
4
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Edit
Delete
14000
In competitive inhibition:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Inhibitor resembles the substrate in molecular structure, Competition between substrates and inhibitors to occupy active sites...
4
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Edit
Delete
13999
Which of the following set of coenzymes are nucleotides of vitamin niacin?
6
603
Recommended Questions
NAD, NADP, FMN, FAD...
1
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Delete
13998
The competitive inhibitor of enzyme succinic dehydrogenase is
6
603
Recommended Questions
succinate, malonate...
2
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Delete
13997
Study the reaction given below CO₂ + H₂O ⇌ H₂CO₃ In absence of any enzyme this reaction is very slow, with 200 molecules of H₂CO₃ formed in one hour. In presence of an enzyme the reaction speeds up dramatically with about 600,000 molecules formed every second. Name the enzyme which has accelerated up the reaction by 10 million times.
6
603
Recommended Questions
Ribozyme, Carbonic anhydrase...
2
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Delete
13996
Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein, Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme...
2
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Delete
13995
Consider the following statements: (A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group (B) A complete catalytic enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme
6
603
Recommended Questions
(A) is False but (B) is True, Both (A) and (B) are True...
4
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Delete
13994
The vitamin Niacin functions as a coenzyme in:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Nucleoprotein synthesis, Hydrogen transport...
1
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Delete
13993
When the co-factor is removed from the enzyme, the catalytic activity:
6
603
Recommended Questions
is lost., is reduced....
1
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Edit
Delete
13992
Which of the following organic compound association with the apoenzyme is only transient?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Prosthetic group, Coenzymes...
2
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Edit
Delete
13991
The cofactor present in the enzyme peroxidase is
6
603
Recommended Questions
NADP, NAD...
3
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Edit
Delete
13990
The non-protein constituent of the enzymes are called
6
603
Recommended Questions
Apoenzyme, Holoenzyme...
3
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Edit
Delete
13989
The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Nucleic acid, Carbohydrates...
3
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Delete
13988
An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called:
6
603
Recommended Questions
coenzyme, holoenzyme...
1
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Delete
13987
Which of the following is an organic compound?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Prosthetic group, Coenzymes...
4
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Delete
13986
I. Small organic molecules II. Difficult to remove without denaturing the enzyme III. Haem is an example The above characters are of which of the following co-factors of an enzyme?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Metal ions, Prosthetic groups...
2
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13985
The protein constituent of the enzymes are called
6
603
Recommended Questions
Apoenzyme, Prosthetic group...
1
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Edit
Delete
13984
Most enzymes consist of two parts i.e.
6
603
Recommended Questions
Holoenzyme and prosthetic group, Enzyme and coenzyme...
4
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Delete
13983
Which of the following contain the vitamin niacin?
6
603
Recommended Questions
NAD, NADP...
4
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Edit
Delete
13982
Which of the following cofactor is essential for the proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Zinc, Copper...
1
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Edit
Delete
13981
Which of the following are co-factors?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Co-enzymes, Metal ions...
4
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Delete
13980
How many statements are false from given information? (a) Ribozymes are enzyme made up of protein. (b) In every chemical reaction transition state energy is always greater than activation energy. (c) Co-factors are always proteinous in nature (d) Enzyme inhibition can not be removed. (e) Enzyme action can be stopped at low temp. (f) Km value (Michaelis constant) is the specific concentration of substrate molecule.
6
603
Recommended Questions
2, 3...
2
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Delete
13979
Look at the graph given below. The reaction rate the reaction can be increased beyond point C by:
6
603
Recommended Questions
increasing the amount of substrate, adding more water...
3
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Edit
Delete
13978
The following graphs show enzymatic activity for certain factors on x-axis and y-axis. Which of the following is correct in such regard?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Figure (1); x-axis - Potential energy, y-axis- Progress of reaction, Figure (2); x-axis - Enzymatic activity, y-axis- Temperature...
4
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Edit
Delete
13977
Which of the following does not affect the activity of simple enzyme?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Temperature, Presence of coenzymes...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13976
Which of the following does not affect the activity of simple enzyme?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Temperature, Presence of coenzymes...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13975
The rate of enzyme action decreases at higher temperature [after a certain value] because the increased heat
6
603
Recommended Questions
changes the pH of the system, alters the active site of the enzyme...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13974
The Km value of an enzyme denotes the substrate concentration at which the enzyme catalyzed reaction:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Reaches Vmax, Shows decline in the rate of reaction...
3
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Edit
Delete
13973
The Km value of an enzyme denotes the substrate concentration at which the enzyme catalyzed reaction:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Reaches Vmax, Shows a decline in the rate of reaction...
3
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Edit
Delete
13972
Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Non-competitive inhibition, Competitive inhibition...
2
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Edit
Delete
13971
During catalytic cycle of an enzyme–
6
603
Recommended Questions
Enzyme alter its shape to fit the substrate molecule., Substrate alter its shape to get fit into the enzyme molecule....
1
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Edit
Delete
13970
Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is
6
603
Recommended Questions
transient but stable, permanent but unstable...
3
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Edit
Delete
13969
The figure given below shows the conversions of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In which one of the four options (1-4), the components of the reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified correctly:
6
603
Recommended Questions
A: Transition state, B: Potential energy, C: Activation energy without enzyme, D: Activation energy with enzyme, A: Potential energy, B: Transition state, C: Activation energy with enzyme, D: Activation energy without enzyme...
1
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Edit
Delete
13968
Which of the following is correct for enzyme catalysed reaction?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Substrate is converted into Enzyme, Substrate is consumed in the reaction completely...
3
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Edit
Delete
13967
Enzymes catalyse biochemical reactions by
6
603
Recommended Questions
Lowering the activation energy, Increasing the activation energy...
1
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Edit
Delete
13966
All enzymes are proteins except
6
603
Recommended Questions
Trypsin, Pepsin...
4
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Delete
13965
The steps in catalytic cycle of an enzyme action are given in random order I. The enzyme releases the products. Now enzyme is free to bind another substrate II. The active sites, now in close proximity of substrate break the bond of substrate and E – P complex forms III. Binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape fitting more tightly around the substrate IV. The substrate binds to the active site of enzyme (i.e., fitting into the active site). The correct order is
6
603
Recommended Questions
I, II, III, IV, IV, III, II, I...
2
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Edit
Delete
13964
Electron transferring enzymes belongs to which class of enzymes
6
603
Recommended Questions
Transferases, Oxidoreductases...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13963
Select the option which is incorrect for enzyme catalase.
6
603
Recommended Questions
The cofactor present is inorganic and proteinaceous in nature, Haem is the prosthetic group required by the enzyme...
1
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Edit
Delete
13962
Which of the following class of enzyme catalyse the joining of C-O and hydrolysis of C-N bonds respectively?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Lyases and Ligases, Ligases and Lyases...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13961
The reaction, X—C—Y—C—C → X—Y + C=C is catalyzed by a/an
6
603
Recommended Questions
Transferase, Hydrolase...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13960
Which of the following class of enzyme is used for catalysing hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide bonds?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Lyases, Ligases...
3
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Edit
Delete
13959
Which of the following class of enzymes helps in catalysing a transfer of a group (other than hydrogen) between a pair of substrates?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Ligases, Lyases...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13958
Which of the following class of enzyme catalyse the linking together of 2 compounds?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Lyases, Ligases...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13957
Category of enzymes that includes all enzymes catalysing interconversion of optical, geometric or positional isomers are called
6
603
Recommended Questions
Lyases, Ligases...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13956
NAD and NADP are considered as
6
603
Recommended Questions
Apoenzyme and cofactor respectively., Coenzyme and co-factor respectively....
3
View
Edit
Delete
13955
What level of protein organization structure explains the 3-D shape of an enzyme?
6
603
Recommended Questions
primary structure, tertiary structure...
2
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Edit
Delete
13954
Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes, in which:
6
603
Recommended Questions
they require metal ions for their activity., they (prosthetic groups) are tightly bound to apoenzymes....
2
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Delete
13953
Which of the following statements is not correct?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Carbonic anhydrase enzyme accelerate the rate of reaction CO₂ + H₂CO₃ by 10⁷ times, Functional aspect of enzymes is related to the tertiary structure of proteins...
3
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Edit
Delete
13952
Similarity between Inulin, Lecithin and Insulin is -
6
603
Recommended Questions
All are polymeric compound., All are natural polypeptides....
4
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Delete
13951
Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds are correctly identified along with its related function?
6
603
Recommended Questions
A- Triglyceride – a major source of energy, B- Uracil – a component of DNA...
3
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Edit
Delete
13950
Fats and oils are
6
603
Recommended Questions
Glycolipids, Triglycerides...
2
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13949
The number of correct statements amongst the given statements is: I. Amino acids are substitute methanes. II. The R group in serine is hydroxyl-methyl. III. Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including the carboxyl carbon. IV. Glycerol is trihydroxypropane. V. Lecithin is a phospholipid.
6
603
Recommended Questions
2, 3...
4
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Edit
Delete
13948
In triglycerides, glycerol is linked to fatty acid with a/an
6
603
Recommended Questions
Ether bond, Ester bond...
2
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Delete
13947
The given structure represents a
6
603
Recommended Questions
Glycolipid, Steroid...
3
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Edit
Delete
13946
Which one of the following is False?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Fatty acids and glycerol are soluble in water, phospholipids are found in the cell membrane...
1
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Edit
Delete
13945
Which of the following is true about Glycerol
6
603
Recommended Questions
It is trihydroxy propane, Fatty acids are esterified with glycerol...
4
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Edit
Delete
13944
Which of the following is true about lipids?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Small molecular weight compounds, Molecular do not exceed above 800 Da...
4
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Edit
Delete
13943
In the formation of a macromolecule, what type of reaction would join two subunits together?
6
603
Recommended Questions
hydrophobic reaction, hydrolysis reaction...
3
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Edit
Delete
13942
An example of protein with quaternary structure is
6
603
Recommended Questions
Myoglobin, Hemoglobin...
2
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Edit
Delete
13941
Read the following statement (A-D): (a) Each protein is a polymer of amino acids. (b) A protein is a hetero polymer and not a homopolymer. (c) Dietary proteins are the source of essential amino acid. (d) Collagen is the most abundant protein in whole of the biosphere. How many of the above statement are right?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Three, One...
1
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Edit
Delete
13940
Biologists describe the protein structure at four levels. Which level described the sequence of amino acids, i.e., the positional information in a protein?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Primary structure, Secondary structure...
1
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Delete
13939
The “primary structure” of a protein refers to:
6
603
Recommended Questions
coiling due to hydrogen bonding between amino acids, the alpha helix or pleated sheets...
4
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Edit
Delete
13938
Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Collagen, RUBISCO...
1
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Edit
Delete
13937
Which protein is found in the maximum amount:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Catalase, Zinc carbonic anhydrase...
4
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Edit
Delete
13936
Zwitterions are ionized species of
6
603
Recommended Questions
Acidic amino acids, Basic amino acids...
4
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Edit
Delete
13935
Non-essential amino acids
6
603
Recommended Questions
Must be obtained from, Are synthesized in our body...
4
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Edit
Delete
13934
A basic amino acid among the following is
6
603
Recommended Questions
Glutamate, Aspartate...
3
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Edit
Delete
13933
Nucleic acids exhibit
6
603
Recommended Questions
Secondary structure, Tertiary structure...
1
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Edit
Delete
13932
Select the correct statement
6
603
Recommended Questions
The base pairs in DNA are stacked 0.34 nm apart, The diameter of a right handed helical ds B-DNA molecules is 34 Å...
1
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Edit
Delete
13931
Give below is a diagrammatic representation which indicates the secondary structure of DNA. Choose the correct option for the structures labelled as A, B, C and D.
6
603
Recommended Questions
A. Guanine B. Cytosine C. Adenine D. Thymine, A. Guanine B. Thymine C. Adenine D. Cytosine...
3
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13930
Backbone of DNA is formed by:-
6
603
Recommended Questions
Sugar — Phosphate — Sugar, Nitrogen base — Phosphate — Sugar...
1
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Edit
Delete
13929
In which of the following energy is released?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Conversion of glucose into pyruvate, Formation of proteins from amino acids...
4
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Edit
Delete
13928
In B-DNA, one full turn of the helical strand contains
6
603
Recommended Questions
11 base pairs, 8 base pairs...
3
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Edit
Delete
13927
If the sequence of bases in one of the DNA strand is A G G A G A G A A, then the sequence of bases in the other complementary strand of DNA would be
6
603
Recommended Questions
C C T T C T T, T C T C T C C...
3
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Delete
13926
Nucleotide is made up of
6
603
Recommended Questions
Heterocyclic compound, Monosaccharide, Phosphoric acid., Nitrogenous base, hexose sugar, phosphate....
1
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Edit
Delete
13925
C' represents carbon of
6
603
Recommended Questions
sugar of nucleotides, Nitrogenous bases of nucleotides...
1
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Edit
Delete
13924
Which of the following represents uridylic acid?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Uracil + Ribose, Uridine + Phosphoric acid...
2
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Edit
Delete
13923
In nucleic acid the bond between the phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar is
6
603
Recommended Questions
Hydrogen bond, Glycosidic bond...
3
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Edit
Delete
13922
Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. Each nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by -
6
603
Recommended Questions
Base-sugar-OH, Base-sugar-phosphate...
2
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Edit
Delete
13921
The following diagram depicts the structure of a:
6
603
Recommended Questions
Nucleoside, Nucleotide...
2
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Edit
Delete
13920
Identify the given compound:
6
603
Recommended Questions
An amino acid, A purine base...
2
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Edit
Delete
13919
Which of the following is not a nucleoside?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Uridine, Cytidylic acid CMP...
2
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Edit
Delete
13918
The compound shown below:
6
603
Recommended Questions
is a component of the ATP molecule, is most commonly found in ori region of DNA...
1
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Edit
Delete
13917
The structure given below is of
6
603
Recommended Questions
A purine base, Adenosine...
3
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Edit
Delete
13916
The molecule represented is:-
6
603
Recommended Questions
uridine and it is pyrimidine, uridylic acid and it is nucleoside...
4
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Edit
Delete
13915
Choose the incorrect match.
6
603
Recommended Questions
Arachidonic acid - 20C fatty acid including carboxyl carbon, Lecithin - Phospholipid found in cell membrane...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13914
The following diagram shows the molecular structure of:
6
603
Recommended Questions
A hexose sugar, An aromatic amino acid...
3
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Edit
Delete
13913
Which of the following monosaccharide is pentose sugar?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Mannose, Ribose...
2
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Edit
Delete
13912
The elemental composition in human body in descending order is
6
603
Recommended Questions
Oxygen - Carbon - Nitrogen - Calcium, Carbon - Oxygen - Nitrogen - Calcium...
1
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Edit
Delete
13911
When chemical analysis of living tissue was done using trichloroacetic acid, then the filtrate formed was
6
603
Recommended Questions
acid insoluble fraction, acid soluble fraction...
2
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Delete
13910
Which of the following is incorrect match of the compounds shown?
6
603
Recommended Questions
A steroid, deficiency of which causes hypersensitivity to a variety of stimuli and airway obstruction in the lungs of new born., It is found in animals only. It is precursor of hormones such as progesterone, testosterone, estradiol and cortisol....
1
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Edit
Delete
13909
Which of the following is not a secondary metabolite?
6
603
Recommended Questions
Antibiotics, Vitamins...
2
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Edit
Delete
13908
The most abundant chemical in living organisms is -
6
603
Recommended Questions
Water., Protein....
1
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Edit
Delete
13907
A secondary metabolite that is alkaloid in nature is
6
603
Recommended Questions
codeine, Anthocyanin...
1
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Edit
Delete
13906
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
6
603
Recommended Questions
The acid insoluble fraction, has only four types of organic compounds, proteins, polysaccharides nucleic acids and lipids, Chemical compounds found in living organisms are of two types, acid soluble and acid insoluble...
3
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Delete
13905
The four elements making 99% of living system are:
6
603
Recommended Questions
CHOS, CHOP...
3
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Edit
Delete
13904
Lipids were found to be present in the acid insoluble pool because
6
603
Recommended Questions
It forms vesicles on disruption, Vesicles are water insoluble...
4
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Edit
Delete
13903
Which element is present negligible in human body?
6
603
Recommended Questions
O, C...
4
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Edit
Delete
13902
Which of the following is true about compounds present in acid soluble pool?
6
603
Recommended Questions
They have molecular weight ranging from 18 to 800 Daltons, They are called as micromolecules...
4
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Edit
Delete
13901
256
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13900
255
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13899
254
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13898
253
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13897
252
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13896
251
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13895
250
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13894
249
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13893
248
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13892
247
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13891
246
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13890
245
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13889
244
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13888
243
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13887
242
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13886
241
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13885
240
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13884
239
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13883
238
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13882
237
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13881
236
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13880
235
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13879
234
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13878
233
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13877
232
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13876
231
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13875
230
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13874
229
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13873
228
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13872
227
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13871
226
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13870
225
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13869
224
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13868
223
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13867
222
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13866
221
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13865
220
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13864
219
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13863
218
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13862
217
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13861
216
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13860
215
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13859
214
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13858
213
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13857
212
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13856
211
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13855
210
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13854
209
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13853
208
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13852
207
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13851
206
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13850
205
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13849
204
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13848
203
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13847
202
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13846
201
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13845
200
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13844
199
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13843
198
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13842
197
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13841
196
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13840
195
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13839
194
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13838
193
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13837
192
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13836
191
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13835
190
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13834
189
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13833
188
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13832
187
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13831
186
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13830
185
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13829
184
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13828
183
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13827
182
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13826
181
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13825
180
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13824
179
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13823
178
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13822
177
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13821
176
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13820
175
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13819
174
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13818
173
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13817
172
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13816
171
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13815
170
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13814
169
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13813
168
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13812
167
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13811
166
6
602
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
13810
The first pair of wings of a cockroach arises from the:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Prothorax, Mesothorax...
2
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Edit
Delete
13809
What is true regarding the morphology of Periplaneta americana?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Head is formed by the fusion of 10 segments, Hypopharynx acts as the tongue...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13808
The terga sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by
6
602
Recommended Questions
cementing glue, muscular tissue...
3
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Edit
Delete
13807
The male and female cockroaches can be distinguished by their:
6
602
Recommended Questions
size, wings...
3
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Edit
Delete
13806
Male cockroach and female cockroach can be differentiated by:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Ocelli, Anal cerci...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13805
Neuroglial cells are associated with:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Heart, Kidney...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13804
Which of the following is not a correct statement for neuroglial cell?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Neuroglial cells make up more than one half the volume of neural tissue in our body, It protects and supports the neurons...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13803
Nervous tissue is made up of neurons and neuroglial cells. Point out which of the following statement about these two cells is false: I. Neuroglia make up more than one-half the volume of neural tissue in our body II. Neuroglia protect and support neurons III. When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated which swiftly travels along its cytosol IV. This disturbance at the neuron endings triggers stimulation or inhibition of adjacent neurons or other cells
6
602
Recommended Questions
Only I and IV, Only II and III...
3
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Edit
Delete
13802
Neuroglia makes more than _______ of the volume of neural tissue in our body.
6
602
Recommended Questions
10%, 50%...
2
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Edit
Delete
13801
Which type of animal tissue changes the diameter of a blood vessel?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Epithelium, Connective...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13800
Following is the diagram of different types of muscle tissue. Select the option which is correct identification of muscle tissue and its location.
6
602
Recommended Questions
Cardiac muscle in heart, Smooth muscle in wall of blood vessels, Skeletal muscle in arm, Skeletal muscle in arm, Smooth muscle in thigh, Cardiac muscle in heart...
3
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Edit
Delete
13799
Intercalated disc are a type of
6
602
Recommended Questions
Adherent junction., Desmosomes....
3
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Edit
Delete
13798
Smooth muscles occur on
6
602
Recommended Questions
viscera, internal organs...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13797
Intercalated discs are associated with what type of tissues/muscles?
6
602
Recommended Questions
dense regular connective tissue, dense irregular connective tissue...
3
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Edit
Delete
13796
Which type of tissue is correctly matched with its location?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Areolar tissue - Tendons, Transitional epithelium - Tip of nose...
4
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Edit
Delete
13795
Choose the incorrect match
6
602
Recommended Questions
Smooth muscle-intercalated disc, Fibroblast-secretes fibers...
1
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Edit
Delete
13794
Smooth muscles are
6
602
Recommended Questions
involuntary, fusiform, non-striated, voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical...
1
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Edit
Delete
13793
Which of the following is a true statement about cardiac muscle cells?
6
602
Recommended Questions
They lack an orderly arrangement of actin and myosin filaments, They have less extensive sacroplasmic reticulum and thus contract more slowly than smooth muscle cells...
3
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Edit
Delete
13792
Intercalated discs are characteristic of muscles found in
6
602
Recommended Questions
heart, thigh...
1
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Edit
Delete
13791
Which of the following is not a feature of Visceral muscles?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Located in visceral organs of the body like the alimentary canal, No striations and smooth in appearance...
4
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Edit
Delete
13790
Which of the following is not a feature of cardiac muscles?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Muscles of heart, Muscles assemble in a unbranched pattern...
2
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Edit
Delete
13789
Skeletal muscle fibres are
6
602
Recommended Questions
Branched, spindle-shaped and uninucleated, Striped, multinucleated and unbranched...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13788
What is wrong with respect to skeletal muscles?
6
602
Recommended Questions
The striated skeletal muscle fibres are bundled together in a randomly fashion., A sheath of loose connective tissue encloses many bundles of muscle fibres....
4
View
Edit
Delete
13787
Each muscle is composed of many long, cylindrical fibres arranged in parallel arrays. These fibres are composed of numerous fine fibrils, called:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Microfilament, Myofibrils...
2
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Edit
Delete
13786
The attachment of skeletal muscles to bones and that of one bone to another is due to:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Ligaments and tendons, Tendons and ligaments...
2
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Edit
Delete
13785
Which of the following is not a feature of skeletal muscles?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Are associated with skeletal components of the body, Striped appearance...
4
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Edit
Delete
13784
Which one of the following categories does adipose tissue belong?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Epithelial, Connective...
2
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Edit
Delete
13783
Match the following. Column I A. Adipose tissue B. Stratified epithelium C. Hyaline cartilage D. Fluid connective tissue Column II 1. Nose 2. Blood 3. Skin 4. Fat storage Codes
6
602
Recommended Questions
1 2 3 4, 4 3 1 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13782
Which one of the following is not a connective tissue?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Bone, Cartilage...
4
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13781
A specialised connective tissue containing chondrocytes can be found at/in
6
602
Recommended Questions
Myocardium, Blood vessels...
3
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13780
Cartilage is present A. In the tip of nose and middle ear joints B. Between adjacent bones of vertebral column C. Between adjacent bones of limbs and hands in adults
6
602
Recommended Questions
A, B and C, A and B...
3
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Delete
13779
Blood is different from other connective tissue because (i) It is mesodermal in origin. (ii) Blood cells do not form the composition of blood plasma or matrix. (iii) It contains different kind of cells performing different function. (iv) It lack fibres.
6
602
Recommended Questions
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (ii), (iv) only...
2
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Delete
13778
See the figures given below and select the mismatch with respect to identification or corresponding feature listed.
6
602
Recommended Questions
Voluntary, striated fibres exhibiting structural syncytium., Cell body is rich in Nissl’s granules...
4
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13777
Following is the diagrammatic representation of dense connective tissue, with irregular arrangement of fibres. Mark the option in which this category does not exist?
6
602
Recommended Questions
skin, Perichondrium...
3
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13776
Which among the following are incorrect with respect to connective tissue?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Tendon is dense regular connective tissue., Bones are rich in collagen fibres....
4
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13775
Which of the following is incorrect?
6
602
Recommended Questions
White adipose tissue - Adipocytes with single large fat droplet, Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue...
4
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13774
Dense irregular connective tissue with fibroblasts and many fibres (mostly collagen) that are oriented irregularly are found in
6
602
Recommended Questions
Tendon, Ligament...
3
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13773
Dense irregular connective tissue has
6
602
Recommended Questions
Oriented parallel, Has less fibres...
3
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13772
Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts labeled A, B, C, and D and select the right option for them:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Part-A: Mast cell, Part-B: Macrophage, Part-C: Fibroblast, Part-D: Collagen fibres, Part-A: Macrophage, Part-B: Collagen fibres, Part-C: Fibroblast, Part-D: Mast cell...
4
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13771
Which among the following has been mismatched?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Smooth muscle tissue- wall of blood vessels, Areolar tissue- beneath the skin...
4
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Delete
13770
The most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the bodies of complex animals is:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Epithelium, Connective...
2
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13769
Which of the following is mismatched?
6
602
Recommended Questions
matrix - extracellular material in connective tissue, cardiac muscle cells - uninucleate...
4
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13768
Mark the connective tissue which is without fibres and matrix is not secreted by its cellular component
6
602
Recommended Questions
Areolar tissue, Adipose tissue...
3
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Delete
13767
Which of the following is an example of loose connective tissues having cells and fibres loosely arranged in a semifluid ground substance and present beneath skin, often serving as support framework for epithelium?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Fibrous connective tissue, Areolar connective tissue...
2
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13766
In the given diagram of areolar tissue, identify a phagocytic cell:
6
602
Recommended Questions
A, B...
3
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13765
Areolar connective tissue contains (i) Semi-fluid ground substance containing modified polysaccharide. (ii) Fibroblast cells. (iii) Mast cells. (iv) Macrophages.
6
602
Recommended Questions
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (ii), (iii), (iv) only...
1
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Delete
13764
Modified polysaccharides in between cells which act as matrix are secreted by:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Blood cells, Elastin...
4
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13763
Areolar tissue contains secretory cells which secrete the fibres and other components of matrix. Such cells are
6
602
Recommended Questions
Fibroblasts, Macrophages...
1
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13762
In __i__, the collagen fibres are present in rows between parallel bundles of fibres. It is an example of dense __ii__ connective tissue
6
602
Recommended Questions
i-cartilage; ii-regular, i-cartilage; ii-irregular...
4
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13761
Choose the correct option, pairing the principal cell with the tissue
6
602
Recommended Questions
Mast cell — Adipose tissue, Fibroblasts — Areolar tissue...
2
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13760
Which of the following structures or substances is incorrectly paired with a tissue?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Haversian system—bone, platelets—blood...
3
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Delete
13759
Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres loosely arranged in a semifluid ground substance. Which of the following can be taken as an example of it?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Areolar tissue, Cartilage...
4
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13758
Identify figure-I and II, structures A and B respectively? Figures are related with specialised connective tissues:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Fig. I - Cartilage, Fig. II - Bone, A - Collagen, B - Chondrocyte, Fig. I - Cartilage, Fig. II - Bone, A - Collagen, B - Chondroclast...
1
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13757
Strength, elasticity and flexibility to tissues is provided by the fibres of:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Elastin, Adipose tissue...
3
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Delete
13756
Select the incorrectly matched pair from the following:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Chondrocytes - Smooth muscle cells, Neurons - Nerve cells...
1
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13755
Tendon and ligament are example of
6
602
Recommended Questions
dense regular connective tissue, dense irregular connective tissue...
1
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13754
The excess of nutrients which are not used immediately are converted into fats and stored in
6
602
Recommended Questions
Areolar tissue, Adipose tissue...
2
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13753
The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are example of:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Ligament, Areolar tissue...
4
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13752
Match the following and choose the correct option. Column-I a. Adipose tissue b. Cuboidal epithelium c. Hyaline cartilage d. Blood Column-II i. Fibreless matrix ii. Abundant fat cells iii. Thyroid follicles iv. Tracheal rings
6
602
Recommended Questions
a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii), a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)...
2
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13751
Select the odd one with respect to secretions of exocrine glands.
6
602
Recommended Questions
Saliva, Mucus...
3
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13750
The four sketches (A, B, C, and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and function?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Collagen fibres, Cartilage, Attach skeletal muscles to bones, Smooth muscle tissue, Heart, Heart contraction...
4
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13749
Which among the following statements are correct? (I) Saliva is secreted by exocrine glands. (II) Epithelial tissue rests on non-cellular basement membrane. (III) Muscular tissue possesses cell junctions. (IV) Mucus-secreting goblet cells are multicellular.
6
602
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and IV only...
3
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13748
Goblet cells are specialized cells of the
6
602
Recommended Questions
stratified squamous epithelium, cuboidal epithelium...
3
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13747
Which of the following provides structural and functional link between the individual cells in epithelial tissues?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Extracellular fluid which binds the various cells in the tissue together, Cell junctions...
2
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13746
Match the columns. Column 'A' (a) Tight junctions (b) Gap junctions (c) Inter digitations (d) Adhering junctions Column 'B' (i) Macula adherens (ii) Stop substances leaking in columnar epithelium (iii) Common in transitional epithelium (iv) Rapid transfer of ions and molecules
6
602
Recommended Questions
a i, b ii, c iii, d iv, a ii, b iv, c iii, d i...
2
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13745
Cell junctions like tight, adhering, and gap junctions are mainly present between the neighbouring cells of:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Neural tissue, Connective tissue...
4
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13744
Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a glandular tissue. Identify the structure labelled as 'A' and choose the correct option with respect to its example.
6
602
Recommended Questions
Gastric gland, Goblet cells...
2
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13743
Endocrine and exocrine glands are formed from what type of tissue?
6
602
Recommended Questions
connective, blood...
4
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13742
The function of the gap junction is to?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together, Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and some large molecules...
2
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13741
Match the following cell structure with its characteristic feature: Column I (a) Tight junctions (b) Adhering junctions (c) Gap junctions (d) Synaptic junctions Column II (i) Cement neighboring cells together to form a sheet (ii) Transmit information through chemicals to another cell (iii) Establish a barrier to prevent leakage of fluid across epithelial cells (iv) Cytoplasmic channels to facilitate communication between adjacent cells
6
602
Recommended Questions
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii), (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)...
3
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13740
Among the options given below, simple epithelium is not found at which location?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Air sacs of lungs, PCT...
4
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13739
Mark the incorrect statement regarding compound epithelium:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Made up of more than one layer of cells., Vital role in secretion and absorption....
2
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Delete
13738
Which of the following epithelium covers the dry surface of the skin, the moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and of pancreatic ducts?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Pseudostratified epithelium, Simple cuboidal epithelium...
3
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13737
Observe the following figures: Figure A and B indicate glands while Figure C indicates specific type of tissues. Identify these figures:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Unicellular gland, Multicellular gland, Compound epithelium, Unicellular gland, Multicellular gland, Pseudostratified epithelium...
1
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13736
Compound epithelium play major role in
6
602
Recommended Questions
Secretion, Absorption...
3
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13735
Which of the following epithelium their main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Simple epithelium., Compound epithelium....
2
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13734
Compound epithelia is present in -
6
602
Recommended Questions
Dry surface of the skin., Moist surface of buccal cavity....
4
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13733
Columnar epithelium is characterised by the presence of polygonal columns of cells. It occurs in
6
602
Recommended Questions
Inner lining of intestine, Inner lining of stomach...
4
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Delete
13732
The epithelium that covers the dry surface of skin, the moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of large ducts of salivary glands and of pancreatic ducts is
6
602
Recommended Questions
More stretchable, Involved in formation of a diffusion barrier...
4
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13731
Which one of the following types of cell is involved in making of the inner walls of large blood vessels?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Cuboidal epithelium, Columnar epithelium...
3
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13730
Match the following. Column I A. Touch B. Smell C. Cranial nerves D. Medulla oblongata Column II 1. Nasal epithelium 2. Foramen magnum 3. Sensory papillae 4. Peripheral nervous system
6
602
Recommended Questions
A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4, A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3...
4
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13729
Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the epithelial tissue?
6
602
Recommended Questions
It covers the external surface of the body and the internal surface of many organs., The neighbouring cells are held together by cell junctions and there is very little intercellular material....
3
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Delete
13728
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the tissue lining organs and cavities?
6
602
Recommended Questions
They play a role of separating two structures from each other., Cells are compactly packed with large intercellular space or matrix....
2
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13727
The epithelium composed of single layer of tall and slender cells is found in:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Stomach wall, Fallopian tubes...
4
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Delete
13726
Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is present in
6
602
Recommended Questions
Proximal convoluted tubules, Small intestine...
1
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Delete
13725
The cells of epithelial tissues are ______ packed with ______ intercellular matrix.
6
602
Recommended Questions
Loosely, little, Loosely, large...
3
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Delete
13724
This epithelial tissue is found in ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys. Its main functions are secretion and absorption. Choose the correct option
6
602
Recommended Questions
simple epithelium, Simple cuboidal epithelium...
2
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Delete
13723
Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:
6
602
Recommended Questions
A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S, A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R...
1
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13722
Which of the following is mismatched?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Squamous epithelium: Walls of blood capillaries and alveoli of lungs, Cuboidal epithelium: Tubular part of nephrons...
4
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13721
Match the following Column - I a. Squamous epithelium b. Cuboidal epithelium c. Compound epithelium d. Ciliated epithelium Column - II i) Protection against chemical and mechanical stresses (ii) Movement of particle in a specific direction (iii) Formation of diffusion boundary (iv) Secretion and absorption
6
602
Recommended Questions
a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii), a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)...
2
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13720
Which of the following tissue is correctly matched to its location?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Ciliated epithelium - Inner lining of salivary ducts, Glandular epithelium - Moist surface of buccal cavity...
3
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13719
Which of the following characteristics is not correct for squamous epithelium?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Made up of a single thin layer of flattened cells., Cells with irregular boundaries....
3
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Delete
13718
The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is
6
602
Recommended Questions
cuboidal epithelium, columnar epithelium...
4
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13717
The epithelium shown in the following figure is __________. They are mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs like __________
6
602
Recommended Questions
Ciliated cuboidal, neck of nephron, Ciliated columnar, trachea, loop of Henle...
3
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13716
The air sacs in the lungs are comprised of _____ cells.
6
602
Recommended Questions
simple squamous, simple columnar...
1
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13715
The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known as:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Squamous epithelium, Columnar epithelium...
3
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Delete
13714
Select the incorrect statement
6
602
Recommended Questions
The columnar epithelium is present in the stomach and intestine, Cilia move the particle in a specific direction...
4
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Delete
13713
Which among the following organs possess all the four types of tissue?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Skin, Stomach...
3
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Edit
Delete
13712
According to which of the following properties, the structure of a particular cell varies inside a tissue:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Origin of the cell, Nucleus of the cell...
3
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Delete
13711
Which of the following statement correctly defines a tissue?
6
602
Recommended Questions
A group of cells having different anatomy can perform a specific function., An aggregate of similar cells forming a definite kind of structure performing a specific function....
2
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Delete
13710
Coordination, homeostasis and response to stimuli is the function of
6
602
Recommended Questions
Epithelial tissue, Muscular tissue...
4
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13709
What is the association of two or more organs interacting physically or chemically to perform a particular function called as:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Tissue-organ system, Organ system...
2
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Delete
13708
The complex animals mainly consist of how many types of tissues?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Four, Three...
1
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Edit
Delete
13707
In water, frogs respire through
6
602
Recommended Questions
Skin, lungs...
1
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Edit
Delete
13706
Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal Vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca, Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca...
3
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Delete
13705
Assertion (A) Bidder canal is associated with the conduction of sperms of frog. Reason (R) These canals are the part of frog’s reproduction system and connect to the cloaca of frog.
6
602
Recommended Questions
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion, Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion...
3
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13704
Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frogs are:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Without nucleus but with haemoglobin, Nucleated and with haemoglobin...
2
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Delete
13703
Which of the following animal is correctly matched to their corresponding respiratory organ?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Earthworm - Open circulatory system with haemoglobin, Cockroach - Three pairs of spiracles in each thorax...
4
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Delete
13702
An animal which contains three-chambered heart is ____________.
6
602
Recommended Questions
man, rabbit...
4
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Delete
13701
Ventricle of frog contains:
6
602
Recommended Questions
oxygenated blood, deoxygenated blood...
4
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13700
Assertion (A): Hibernation during winter and aestivation during summer is seen in frogs. Reason (R): Frogs are poikilotherms.
6
602
Recommended Questions
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A., Both A and R are true both R is not the correct explanation for A....
1
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13699
Frogs differ from humans in possessing
6
602
Recommended Questions
paired cerebral hemispheres, hepatic portal system...
3
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Delete
13698
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to Rana tigrina?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Muscular tongue is bilobed at tip and free from behind, Maxillary teeth are arranged along the margin of upper jaw and lower jaw is toothless...
3
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13697
Find the incorrect match 1. Bufo - Toad 2. Rana - Frog 3. Hyla - Tree frog 4. Rana - Common toad
6
602
Recommended Questions
Bufo - Toad, Rana - Frog...
4
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Delete
13696
Which structure is not related with respiration in frog?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Lungs, Skin...
4
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Delete
13695
Choose the correct statement for the digestive system of frog:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Oesophagus is very long, Food is captured by the bilobed tongue...
4
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Delete
13694
Which of the following act(s) as a respiratory organ in a frog on land?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Skin, Buccal cavity...
4
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Delete
13693
Forelimbs of frog have:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Five digits, Four digits...
2
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Delete
13692
Bull frog of India is
6
602
Recommended Questions
Rana tigerina, Rana sylvatica...
1
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Delete
13691
The outermost layer of the skin of the frog is made of:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium, Stratified squamous non keratinized epithelium...
3
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Delete
13690
Regarding feeding habits:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Tadpole is herbivorous and frog is carnivorous, Tadpole is carnivorous and frog is herbivorous...
1
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Delete
13689
Frogs are amphibians in the order
6
602
Recommended Questions
Apoda, Urodela...
3
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Delete
13688
Regarding frog: I. They undergo aestivation and hibernation II. They are carnivorous III. They are poikilotherms
6
602
Recommended Questions
I, II, III are correct, I and II are correct...
1
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Delete
13687
Regarding frog: I. They undergo aestivation and hibernation II. They are carnivorous III. They are poikilotherms
6
602
Recommended Questions
I, II, III are correct, I and II are correct...
1
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Delete
13686
Gas exchange between the air and blood stream occurs in three locations in the frog: (1) the skin (2) the lining of the mouth (3) the lungs
6
602
Recommended Questions
(1) and (2), (1) and (3)...
4
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13685
Regarding respiration in frogs: I. The skin of a frog is permeable to oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as to water. II. When a frog is underwater, oxygen is transmitted through the skin directly into the bloodstream. III. On land, adult frogs use their lungs to breathe. The correct statements are:
6
602
Recommended Questions
I, II, III, I and II...
1
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Edit
Delete
13684
In the given diagram of the heart of frog identify X:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Conus arteriosus, Left atrium...
1
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Delete
13683
In frog:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Hemoglobin is present in red blood corpuscles which are biconvex and nucleated., Hemoglobin is present in red blood corpuscles which are biconcave and nucleated....
1
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Delete
13682
Male and female frogs are distinguishable externally only during breeding season when:
6
602
Recommended Questions
the female develops nuptial pad in the thumb, the male develops nuptial pad in the thumb...
2
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Delete
13681
Regarding skin of the frog, incorrect statement is:
6
602
Recommended Questions
It is made of the epidermis and the dermis, Mucous glands are present in the dermis and open at the surface...
4
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Edit
Delete
13680
In frogs:
6
602
Recommended Questions
The dentition is homodont and the upper jaw is toothless., The dentition is heterodont and the upper jaw is toothless....
3
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Edit
Delete
13679
There are _________ pairs of cranial nerves in frog.
6
602
Recommended Questions
8, 10...
2
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Delete
13678
Consider the following parts of the brain of frog: I. Olfactory lobes II. Optic lobes III. Cerebral hemispheres IV. Diencephalon Forebrain includes:
6
602
Recommended Questions
I, II, III, IV, I, II, III...
3
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Delete
13677
The hindbrain of the frog consists of which of the following?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Option 1, Option 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
13676
The skull of frog is:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Acondylic, Monocondylic...
3
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Delete
13675
In frog, a thin walled urinary bladder is present ________ to the rectum and opens in the ________
6
602
Recommended Questions
Ventral, cloaca, Dorsal, cloaca...
1
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Delete
13674
Regarding reproductive system of a male frog: I. Testes are adhered to the upper part of the kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum called mesorchium. II. Vasa efferentia are 50 to 60 in number and enter kidneys on their side III. Vasa efferentia open into the bidder's canal which finally communicates with urogenital duct.
6
602
Recommended Questions
I, II, III are correct, I and II are correct...
3
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Delete
13673
Identify the incorrect statement amongst the following:
6
602
Recommended Questions
There is no functional connection of ovaries with kidneys in female frog., In male frog, the ureter arises as urogenital duct and opens into the cloaca....
4
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Edit
Delete
13672
The following diagram shows the male reproductive system of a frog. A, B, C, D and E are respectively:
6
602
Recommended Questions
Fat body, Testes, Kidney, Cloaca, Urinary bladder, Fat body, Testes, Kidney, Urinary bladder, Cloaca...
2
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Delete
13671
Given below is the diagram of female reproductive system of a frog marked with A, B, C, D, E and F. Ovary is represented by:
6
602
Recommended Questions
A, B...
3
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Delete
13670
Mucus helps a frog in forming
6
602
Recommended Questions
Thick skin, Dry skin...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13669
Haemoglobin is dissolved in blood plasma of
6
602
Recommended Questions
Frog, Rabbit...
1
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Edit
Delete
13668
The biological adaptation that allows frogs to obtain water for their survival during conditions of water scarcity is the
6
602
Recommended Questions
presence of a modified tongue that acts like a sponge to suck water from damp soils., presence of water channels in the skin by which they absorb water from their surroundings....
2
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Edit
Delete
13667
Bidder's canals is/are present in
6
602
Recommended Questions
Male frog, Both male and female frog...
1
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Edit
Delete
13666
Internal fertilization is not seen in
6
602
Recommended Questions
Birds, Reptiles...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13665
Select the incorrect match with respect to animals and the type of nitrogenous waste excreted by them
6
602
Recommended Questions
Rana - Uricotelic, Pheretima - Ureotelic...
1
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Edit
Delete
13664
In frogs, cloaca receives
6
602
Recommended Questions
Faecal matter, Gametes...
4
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Edit
Delete
13663
In a frog, heart is enclosed within a two-layered sac called
6
602
Recommended Questions
Mesorchium, Pericardium...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13662
Frogs can protect itself from enemies by
6
602
Recommended Questions
Clawed toes, Spiny skin...
3
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Edit
Delete
13661
Which of the following is incorrect statement about frog?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Body is divisible into head and trunk, The skin is moist without scales...
4
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Delete
13660
In frog, oxygen dissolved in water can be taken by
6
602
Recommended Questions
External nares, Spiracles...
4
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13659
A thin-walled, triangular chamber attached dorsally to heart of a frog is known as
6
602
Recommended Questions
Truncus arteriosus, Sinus venosus...
2
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13658
Adult frog (Rana tigrina) cannot respire through
6
602
Recommended Questions
Moist skin, Lungs...
3
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13657
Which of the following structure acts as urinogenital duct in male frogs?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Urethra, Ureter...
2
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13656
A male frog can be distinguished externally from a female frog by all of the following features except
6
602
Recommended Questions
a, b, c and d, a and b only...
4
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13655
On land, a frog respires by
6
602
Recommended Questions
Skin only, Skin and buccal cavity only...
3
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13654
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding a frog?
6
602
Recommended Questions
Digestive system without salivary gland, Respiratory system without intercostal muscles...
4
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13653
Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given: Column I A. Copulatory pad in male frog B. In hibernation, frog respires C. Optic lobes in a frog are a part of D. Bidder’s canal Column II P. Present on 1st digit of forelimbs Q. Present on 1st digit of hind limbs R. Through skin S. Through lungs T. Fore brain U. Mid brain W. Present in female frog’s kidney for the passage of ova X. Present in male frog’s kidney for the passage of sperms
6
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Recommended Questions
P R X W, P R U X...
2
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13652
Regarding frogs: Statement I: They have the ability to change the colour to hide them from their enemies (camouflage). Statement II: They undergo summer sleep called as hibernation as well as winter sleep called as aestivation.
6
602
Recommended Questions
Only Statement II is correct, Only Statement I is correct...
2
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13651
Assertion (A): The alimentary canal of a frog is short. Reason (R): Frog is carnivorous.
6
602
Recommended Questions
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)., Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)....
1
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13650
Dry, cornified skin along with epidermal scales or scutes is found in
6
602
Recommended Questions
Tortoise, Hyla...
1
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13649
The common name of Calotes versicolor is
6
602
Recommended Questions
Garden lizard, Tree lizard...
1
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13648
The animal which is a poikilotherm is
6
602
Recommended Questions
Aptenodytes, Pteropus...
3
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13647
Limbs are present in
6
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Recommended Questions
Osteichthyes, Chondrichthyes...
3
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13646
A poikilotherm having four-chambered heart is
6
602
Recommended Questions
Columba, Chameleon...
3
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13645
In which of the following sets of organisms, does the external fertilization occur?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Echinodermata and mosses, Hemichordata and ferns...
3
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13644
In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Salamandra: (i) A tympanum represents ear, (ii) Fertilization is external - Amphibia, Pteropus: (i) Skin possesses hair, (ii) Oviparous - Mammalia...
1
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13643
In Amphibia: I. Skin is moist without scales II. A tympanum represents the ear III. Fertilization is external 1. Only I and II are correct. 2. Only I and III are correct. 3. Only II and III are correct. 4. I, II, and III are correct.
6
601
Recommended Questions
Only I and II are correct., Only I and III are correct....
4
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13642
Which of the following represent the correct combination without any exception?
6
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Recommended Questions
Mammary gland; hair on body; pinnae; two pairs of limbs - Mammalia, Mouth ventral; gills without operculum; skin with placoid scales; persistent notochord - Chondrichthyes...
2
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13641
Bony endoskeleton is present in (i) Pristis (ii) Hippocampus (iii) Ichthyophis (iv) Myxine
6
601
Recommended Questions
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (ii), (iii) only...
2
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13640
What will you look to identify the sex of the following?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Male frog – a copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb, Female cockroach – anal cerci...
3
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13639
Read the following statements: A. Mouth is located ventrally. B. Notochord is persistent throughout life. C. Gill slits are separate and with operculum. D. Air bladder are absent. How many of the above statements are correct for given figure:
6
601
Recommended Questions
Four., Three....
2
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13638
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below. Column I I. Placoid Scales II. Ctenoid scales III. Ectoparasites IV. Proboscis gland Column II 1. Chondrichthyes 2. Osteichthyes 3. Hemichordata 4. Cyclostomata Codes: I II III IV
6
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Recommended Questions
1 2 3 4, 2 1 4 3...
4
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13637
Buoyancy in a bony fish is maintained with the help of
6
601
Recommended Questions
streamlined body, paired fins...
3
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13636
Select the correct option in respect of characteristics of each group: Cyclostomes (i) Marine (ii) Sucking mouth (iii) 6-15 Pairs of Gills (iv) Placoid scales Chondrichthyes (i) Marine, Fresh water (ii) Ventral mouth (iii) 5-7 Pairs of Gills (iv) Cycloid Scales Osteichthyes (i) Marine (ii) Terminal mouth (iii) 4 Pairs of Gills (iv) Ctenoid/Ganoid
6
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Recommended Questions
(i), (ii) are correct., (i), (iii), (iv) are correct....
3
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13635
Consider the following characters: I. Air bladder II. Operculum III. Viviparity The characters present in bony fishes include:
6
601
Recommended Questions
I, II and III, I and III only...
3
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13634
All cyclostomes are __________ on some fishes; paired fins are ________, cranium is _______ and circulation is ______ type.
6
601
Recommended Questions
Ectoparasites, Absent, Cartilaginous, Open, Endoparasites, Present, Bony, Closed...
3
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13633
The feature lacking in bony fishes would be:
6
601
Recommended Questions
Operculum, Swim bladder...
4
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13632
Which of the following is a fish?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Flying fish, Jelly fish...
1
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13631
Operculum and an air bladder are present in:
6
601
Recommended Questions
Clarias, Pristis...
1
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13630
A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is
6
601
Recommended Questions
Pristis, Torpedo...
2
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13629
Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Viviparous - Mammalia, Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw - Chordata...
4
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13628
In males pelvic fins bear claspers in
6
601
Recommended Questions
Carcharodon, Pterophyllum...
1
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13627
Which of the following statement/s about chondrichthyes are incorrect? 1) Notochord is persistent throughout life 2) Endoskeleton is made up of bones 3) Operculum present 4) Skin is covered by placoid scales
6
601
Recommended Questions
All of the above, None of the above...
4
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13626
Choose the incorrect match with respect to animal, phylum and two features
6
601
Recommended Questions
Clarias - Chordata - Placoid scales, Operculum, Antedon - Echinodermata - Water vascular system, Radial symmetry...
1
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13625
Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Chordata - possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw, Chondrichthyes - possess cartilaginous endoskeleton...
2
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13624
Select the incorrect option with respect to animal listed in column A and features exhibited in column B
6
601
Recommended Questions
Psittacula - Homeothermy, Air sacs to supplement respiration, Panthera tigris - Viviparity, Thecodont dentition...
4
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13623
Match the following: (a) Exocoetus (i) Rohu (b) Pterophyllum (ii) Fighting fish (c) Betta (iii) flying fish (d) Labeo (iv) Angel fish
6
601
Recommended Questions
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv), (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)...
3
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13622
In which of these examples are the members exclusively chondrichthyes
6
601
Recommended Questions
Scoliodon, Pristis, Labeo, Betta, Scoliodon, Pristis, Betta, Trygon...
3
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13621
Which of the following animal has a bony endoskeleton?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Exocoetus, Clarias...
4
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13620
Match the organism in Column-I with its excretory structure in Column-II Column-I (A) Cockroach (B) Earthworm (C) Balanoglossus (D) Clarias Column-II (p) Nephridia (q) Proboscis gland (r) Kidney (s) Malpighian tubules
6
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(A)→(s),(B)→(p),(C)→(q),(D)→(r), (A)→(s),(B)→(p),(C)→(r),(D)→(q)...
1
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13619
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below: Column I Feature (a) Lateral line system (b) Water vascular system (c) Radula (d) Comb plates (e) Parapodia Column II Phylum (i) Ctenophora (ii) Mollusca (iii) Echinodermata (iv) Osteichthyes (v) Annelida
6
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(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v), (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (v)...
2
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13618
A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water and whose ammocoetes larvae after metamorphosis return to the ocean is
6
601
Recommended Questions
Eptatretus, Myxine...
4
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13617
Choose the correct statements.
6
601
Recommended Questions
All mammals are viviparous, All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins...
2
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13616
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to vertebrates?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Vertebrates possess notochord during the embryonic period, Notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in the adult...
4
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13615
Which one of the following pairs of animal comprises 'jawless fishes'?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Lampreys and eels, Mackerels and rohu...
3
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13614
Which of the following does not come under the Class Mammals?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Flying fox, Hedgehog...
4
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13613
Consider the following statements: Chordates- I. Possess a solid, single and ventral nerve cord II. Have pharyngeal gill slits at some point during their development. III. Have post-anal tail Which of the above statements are true?
6
601
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
3
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13612
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
6
601
Recommended Questions
Balanoglossus and Pinctada - Open circulatory system, Branchiostoma and Ascidia - Persistent notochord...
2
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13611
Identify the chordates in which the notochord persists in the adult?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Tunicates, Lancelets...
2
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13610
Similarity between protochordata and hemichordata is
6
601
Recommended Questions
Presence of notochord., Exclusively marine....
2
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13609
The presence of notochord in the larval tail is a characteristic of
6
601
Recommended Questions
Doliolum, Branchiostoma...
1
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13608
False statement with respect to Ascidia is
6
601
Recommended Questions
Present exclusively in marine water, It is a urochordate and notochord is present only in larval tail...
3
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13607
Identify the option where all the columns are not correctly matched:
6
601
Recommended Questions
Pleurobrachia - Ctenophora - Comb plates, Only sexual reproduction, Loligo - Mollusca - Radula, Dioecious...
4
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13606
The character that gives the Phylum Chordata is shown by:
6
601
Recommended Questions
A, B...
2
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13605
All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates, why?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Notochord is replaced by a vertebral column in the adults of some chordates., The ventral hollow nerve cord remains throughout life in some chordates....
1
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13604
Which of the following would be a characteristic of the animal shown in the given diagram?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Excretory organ is the proboscis gland., They migrate for spawning to fresh water....
3
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13603
Which one of the following is correctly matched with its one characteristic and the taxon?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Millipede - Ventral nerve cord - Arachnida, Duckbill platypus - Oviparous - Mammalia...
2
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13602
Which of the following is not an excretory structure found in invertebrates?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Flame cells, Malpighian tubules...
4
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13601
Select the correct statement about class-Aves
6
601
Recommended Questions
They are warm blooded (homoiothermous) animals and are able to maintain a constant body temperature, Respiration occurs through lungs and air sacs connected to lungs for supplement respiration...
4
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13600
Which of the following is not seen in hemichordates?
6
601
Recommended Questions
A tripartite body organization, Stomochord...
3
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13599
In which of the following animals, the body is cylindrical and is composed of an anterior proboscis, a collar, and a long trunk?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Hemichordates, Urochordates...
1
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13598
Which of the following set of animals belong the phylum hemichordate?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Balanoglossus, Saccoglossus, Salpa, Doliolum...
1
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13597
Consider the following statements: I. Platyhelminths are acoelomates and use protonephridia as excretory structures. II. Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates and have bilateral symmetry. III. Adult echinoderms show radial symmetry and exhibit deuterostome type embryonic development. Which of the above statements are true?
6
601
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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13596
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below: Column I (animal) Column II (phylum) I. Loligo 1. Mollusca II. Ophiura 2. Echinodermata III. Beroe 3. Cnidaria IV. Adamsia 4. Ctenophora Codes: I II III IV 1. 1 2 3 4 2. 2 1 4 3 3. 2 1 3 4 4. 1 2 4 3
6
601
Recommended Questions
1 2 3 4, 2 1 4 3...
4
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13595
Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option.
6
601
Recommended Questions
2 3 5 4 1, 2 5 3 4 1...
3
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13594
Mark the correct match with the group and its characteristic? 1. Arthropoda → Compound eye and wings. 2. Mammalia → Viviparity. 3. Echinodermata → Calcareous endoskeleton. 4. Annelida → Fresh water and segmented body.
6
601
Recommended Questions
Arthropoda → Compound eye and wings., Mammalia → Viviparity....
3
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13593
Which of the following structure is associated with locomotion? (i) Parapodia. (ii) Water vascular system. (iii) Radula. (iv) Proboscis.
6
601
Recommended Questions
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) only...
3
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13592
Echinoderms are not characterized by:
6
601
Recommended Questions
An absence of excretory system, Bisexual animals...
2
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13591
How many of the characters given below are true for echinoderms? I. An endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles II. The adult echinoderms are radially symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally symmetrical. III. They are triploblastic and coelomate animals. IV. Digestive system is complete. V. Water vascular system VI. Sexual reproduction, internal fertilization, and direct development.
6
601
Recommended Questions
3, 4...
3
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13590
Which of the following phyla is not correctly matched to its general characters?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Porifera - Primitive multicellular animals which have intracellular digestion, internal fertilization and indirect development, Ctenophora - Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic have comb plates and colloblast cells...
3
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13589
Select the group of animals belonging to different phyla?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Hirudinaria, Limulus, Laccifer., Nereis, Dentalium, Aplysia....
3
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13588
The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of a water vascular system which helps in (A) Locomotion (B) Excretion (C) Respiration (D) Reproduction
6
601
Recommended Questions
(A) only, (B) & (C) only...
3
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13587
The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of a water vascular system which helps in (A) Locomotion (B) Excretion (C) Respiration (D) Reproduction
6
601
Recommended Questions
(A) only, (B) & (C) only...
3
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13586
Vertebrates and seastars may seen as different as two animal groups can be, yet they share 1. The same type of body symmetry as adults. 2. A high degree of cephalization. 3. Certain developmental pattern, including the type of coelom formation. 4. The presence of endoskeleton that include cranium
6
601
Recommended Questions
The same type of body symmetry as adults., A high degree of cephalization....
3
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13585
Animals without excretory system, separate sexes, and calcareous endoskeleton are applicable for
6
601
Recommended Questions
Chaetopeura, Ophiura...
2
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13584
Which of these is not a coelenterate?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Sea pen, Sea fur...
4
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13583
Excretory system is absent, sexes are separate, fertilization is usually external this is correct for:
6
601
Recommended Questions
Option 1, Option 2...
1
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13582
Find out the correct match from the following table: Column-I Column-II Column-III (i) Radula Rasping organ Pila (ii) Hooks and suckers Taenia Annelida (iii) Tube feet Asterias; Dentalium Echinodermata (iv) Comb plates Pleurobrachia; Aurelia Ctenophora
6
601
Recommended Questions
(i) only, (i) and (ii)...
1
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13581
Which of the following is not an annelid?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Leech, Earthworm...
4
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13580
Match column I and column II with respect to animal and its common name
6
601
Recommended Questions
(i) → (a), (ii) → (b), (iii) → (c), (iv) → (d), (i) → (d), (ii) → (b), (iii) → (a), (iv) → (c)...
4
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13579
Endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles, external fertilization, adults shows radial symmetry, development indirect. The above-given feature is true for:
6
601
Recommended Questions
Echinus, Asterias, Pila, ophiura...
1
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13578
In which of the following animals the adults have pentamerous radial symmetry while their larvae are bilaterally symmetrical?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Arthropods, Molluscs...
3
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13577
A land snail, a clam, and an octopus all share
6
601
Recommended Questions
a mantle, calcareous shell...
1
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13576
Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Arthropoda – Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration by mouth, Chordata – Notochord at early stage only and separate anal and urinary openings to the outside...
4
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13575
Which of the following option is correct?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Fertilization is internal and development is indirect in Scypha, Pleurobrachia, Flame cells help in osmoregulation and alimentary canal present in Fasciola, Taenia...
4
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13574
Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Cnidaria – Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia, Platyhelminthes – Planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius...
3
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13573
Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Pila globosa - pearl, Apis indica - honey...
1
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13572
In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Pila (i) Body segmented (ii) Mouth with Radula Mollusca, Asterias (i) Spiny skinned (ii) Water vascular system Echinodermata...
1
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13571
Consider the following sets of some animals. The set that consists of all animals belonging to the same phylum is:
6
601
Recommended Questions
Pinctada, Aplysia, Chaetopleura, Dentallium, Pila, Echinus...
1
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13570
Which of the following is called pearl oyster?
6
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Recommended Questions
Dentalium, Pinctada...
2
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13569
The largest and the second largest phylum of the animal kingdom are
6
601
Recommended Questions
Arthropoda and Echinodermata, Echinodermata and Mollusca...
4
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13568
Presence of radula and feather like gills are the characteristic features of
6
601
Recommended Questions
Pila, Delphinus...
1
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13567
Which one of the following statements is incorrect? 1. In cockroaches and prawns, excretion of waste material occurs through Malpighian tubules. 2. In ctenophores, locomotion is mediated by comb plates. 3. In Fasciola, flame cells take part in excretion. 4. Earthworms are hermaphrodites and yet cross-fertilization takes place among them.
6
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Recommended Questions
In cockroaches and prawns, excretion of waste material occurs through Malpighian tubules., In ctenophores, locomotion is mediated by comb plates....
1
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13566
What is true about Nereis, scorpion, cockroach and silver fish?
6
601
Recommended Questions
They all possess dorsal heart, None of them is aquatic...
1
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Delete
13565
Which of the following is not an arthropod characteristic?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Jointed appendages, Non-segmented bodies...
2
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Delete
13564
Which of the following features is not present in the phylum – Arthropoda?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Metameric segmentation, Parapodia...
2
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13563
Select the option that correctly matches characteristic features with the group of three animals.
6
601
Recommended Questions
Skeleton of spicules – Sycon, Adamsia, Spongilla, Excretion by flame – Taenia, Fasciola, Ancylostoma...
4
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13562
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II regarding and choose your answer from the codes given below: Column I (organism) I. Nereis II. Prawn III. Earthworm IV. Cockroach Column II (respiratory organ) 1. Gills 2. Parapodia 3. Skin 4. Trachea I II III IV 1. 1 2 3 4 2. 2 1 4 3 3. 2 1 3 4 4. 1 2 4 3
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Recommended Questions
1 2 3 4, 2 1 4 3...
3
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13561
Which one of the following features is common in silverfish, scorpion, dragonfly and prawn?
6
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Recommended Questions
Two pairs of legs and segmented body, Living chitinous cuticle and two pairs of antennae...
3
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13560
Chitin is a polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of
6
601
Recommended Questions
prawn, insects...
4
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13559
Which of the group of animals is triploblastic, coelomate and bilateral?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Aschelminthes, Porifera...
3
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13558
Which of the following is the member of the largest phylum
6
601
Recommended Questions
Hookworm, Pinworm...
4
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Delete
13557
Chitinous exoskeleton is present in
6
601
Recommended Questions
Mollusca, Echinodermata...
3
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13556
Match Column - I with Column - II and choose the correct option Column - I a. A vector of disease b. A gregarious pest c. A living fossil d. An economically important Column - II i. Bombyx ii. Limulus iii. Locusta iv. Culex insect
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Recommended Questions
a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv), a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)...
4
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13555
From the given statements which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect for Annelida? a. Pseudometameric segmentation present b. Coelomic fluid acts as a hydrostatic skeleton c. They possess longitudinal and circular muscles which help in locomotion d. Neural system consists of paired ganglia connected by lateral nerves to a single ventral nerve chord
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Recommended Questions
a & b only, b & c only...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13554
Annelids do not represent:-
6
601
Recommended Questions
Circumpharyngeal nerve ring, Longitudinal muscles in the gut...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13553
In the given table, some organisms are classified into categories. However, there is one exception. Select the option with correctly mentioned exceptional organism.
6
601
Recommended Questions
Mucor, Cacti...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13552
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of phylum-Annelida?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Closed circulatory system, Segmentation...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13551
Which of the following animals exhibit all these characters – bilateral symmetry, triploblastic, segmented and eucoelomate?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Echinoderms, Roundworms...
4
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Edit
Delete
13550
See the following diagrams carefully and these animals are
6
601
Recommended Questions
Sycon, Leucosolenia, Hydra, Aurelia...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13549
How many of the followings belong to Nematodes Roundworm, Filarial worm, Hookworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm, Ringworm, Earthworm,
6
601
Recommended Questions
1.7, 2.5...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13548
Which of the following is not true for Roundworms
6
601
Recommended Questions
Complete alimentary canal, Well developed muscular pharynx...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13547
Which of the following is true for given diagram
6
601
Recommended Questions
Male roundworm, Female roundworm...
4
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Edit
Delete
13546
A phylum which are multicellular, having Bilateral symmetry and with false coelom is
6
601
Recommended Questions
Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13545
Which of the following is dioecious?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Taenia, Fasciola...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13544
Pinworm, Hookworm and Filaria worm belong to:
6
601
Recommended Questions
Annelida, Platyhelminthes...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13543
Pseudocoelomate among the following is
6
601
Recommended Questions
Ancylostoma, Nereis...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13542
Which of the following is correct statement
6
601
Recommended Questions
Digestive system is incomplete in Flatworms but complete in Roundworms, Digestive system is complete in Flatworms but incomplete in Roundworms...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13541
Ancylostoma is also known as
6
601
Recommended Questions
Pinworm, Hookworm...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13540
Digestive system consists of a mouth and anus in which animals
6
601
Recommended Questions
Ancylostoma, Wuchereria...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13539
Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates, Molluscs are acoelomates...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13538
Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Coelenterates (cnidarians), Aschelminthes (round worms)...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13537
Which is correct regarding Roundworms
6
601
Recommended Questions
Females are longer than males, Males are longer than females...
1
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Edit
Delete
13536
Which is true for roundworms?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Organ-system level of body organisation, Tube within tube plan...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13535
Consider the following statements: I. The members of Phylum Porifera are exclusively marine. II. Ctenophores are the largest animals that use cilia for locomotion. III. Roundworms may be free-living or parasitic in plants and animals. Which of the above statements are true?
6
601
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13534
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Mesoglea is present in between ectoderm and endoderm in Obelia, Asterias exhibits radial symmetry...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13533
Which of the following is not true about Flatworms
6
601
Recommended Questions
Fertilisation is internal, Indirect development...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13532
The phylum with exclusively marine animals is:
6
601
Recommended Questions
Porifera, Cnidaria...
3
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Edit
Delete
13531
Which is not true for Ctenophora
6
601
Recommended Questions
Mesoglea is absent, Bilateral symmetry...
4
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Edit
Delete
13530
Ctenophora is an exclusively marine phylum, the other such phylum is
6
601
Recommended Questions
Mollusca, Echinodermata...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13529
Which of the following is well marked in Ctenophores?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Comb plates, Tentacles...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13528
One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth and as anus is
6
601
Recommended Questions
Octopus, Asterias...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13527
In contrast to Annelids, the Platyhelminths show:
6
601
Recommended Questions
Absence of body cavity, Presence of pseudocoel...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13526
A phylum which are multicellular, having Bilateral symmetry and without body cavity is
6
601
Recommended Questions
Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13525
Choose the correct statement
6
601
Recommended Questions
All members of phylum echinodermata are marine and parasitic, Bioluminescence is well marked in cnidarians...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13524
Development involves an indirect or larval form in which of the following?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Pleurobrachia, Euspongia...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13523
Some salient features and phyla of organisms are given below. Select the option which shows the correct combination of organism, its phylum and salient features.
6
601
Recommended Questions
Hydra Coelenterata Bilateral symmetry Cnidoblasts present, Planaria Platyhelminthes Bilateral symmetry High regeneration capacity...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13522
Hermaphroditism is found in which phyla?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Ctenophora, Platyhelminthes...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13521
Radial symmetry is seen in
6
601
Recommended Questions
Mollusca, Chordata...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13520
In Planaria, waste material of food digestion and Nitrogenous waste material removed from
6
601
Recommended Questions
Mouth and mouth, Body wall and body wall...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13519
Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Flat worms, Sponges...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13518
Pleurobrachia is
6
601
Recommended Questions
Hermaphrodite, Dioecious...
4
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Edit
Delete
13517
Presence of flame cells is a characteristic feature of
6
601
Recommended Questions
Nereis, Taenia...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13516
Hooks and Suckers are present in
6
601
Recommended Questions
All Flatworms, Parasitic flatworms...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13515
Which of the following is true about digestion of Ctenophores?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Extracellular digestion, Intracellular digestion...
3
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Edit
Delete
13514
Which of the following attribute started from Platyhelminthes
6
601
Recommended Questions
Organ level of organisation, Coelom...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13513
Ctenophores are commonly known as
6
601
Recommended Questions
Sea walnuts, Comb jellies...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13512
Ctenophorans are commonly referred to as
6
601
Recommended Questions
Flatworms, Comb jellies...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13511
Which of the following animal has a diploblastic level of organisation?
6
601
Recommended Questions
sponges, Adamsia...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13510
The function of flame cells are
6
601
Recommended Questions
Digestion and excretion, Attachment and osmoregulation...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13509
Match the following cells/structures with their phyla of origin 1) Flame cells (i) Coelenterata 2) Choanocytes (ii) Platyhelminthes 3) Cnidocytes (iii) Ctenophora 4) Comb plates (iv) Porifera
6
601
Recommended Questions
1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii), 1-(iii), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13508
Which of the following is common in Cnidarians and Ctenophora
6
601
Recommended Questions
Digestion is both intracellular and extracellular, Cnidoblast...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13507
Which of the following is known as Tapeworm
6
601
Recommended Questions
Dugesia tigrina, Taenia solium...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13506
Which of the following is true about Ctenophores?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Reproduction takes place by sexual means only, Fertilisation is external...
4
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Edit
Delete
13505
Planaria possess high capacity of
6
601
Recommended Questions
metamorphosis, regeneration...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13504
Which of the following is known liverfluke
6
601
Recommended Questions
Taeniasaginata, Taeniasolium...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13503
Which of the following helps in excretion and osmoregulation in Flatworms
6
601
Recommended Questions
Flame cells, Nephridia...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13502
The number of ciliated rows present in Comb jellies are
6
601
Recommended Questions
8, 6...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13501
Which is true for flatworms?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Bilaterally symmetrical, Triploblastic body plan...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13500
Read the given features (a) Presence of cnidoblasts (b) Alternation of generation (c) Extracellular and intracellular digestion All of the above given features are observed in
6
601
Recommended Questions
Hydra, Physalia...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13499
The umbrella shaped and free-swimming form of Cnidarians is not present in
6
601
Recommended Questions
Aurelia, Jellyfish...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13498
In which of the following form metamerism is present
6
601
Recommended Questions
Obelia, Hydra...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13497
The distinctive feature of Cnidarians is
6
601
Recommended Questions
Cnidoblast, Polyp and Medusa form...
1
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Edit
Delete
13496
Stinging capsule present in Cnidarians is called
6
601
Recommended Questions
Nematocysts, Choanocytes...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13495
What is not true regarding Cnidarians?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Body is made up of distinct tissues but true organs have not evolved, They are carnivores...
4
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Edit
Delete
13494
Which of the following is wrong about Coelenterata?
6
601
Recommended Questions
They are aquatic and exclusively marine animals., Cnidarians exhibit tissue level of organisation and are diploblastic....
1
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Edit
Delete
13493
The sessile and cylindrical form of Cnidarians is called as
6
601
Recommended Questions
Medusa, Polyp...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13492
A sessile, cylindrical and radial symmetrical life form is found in
6
601
Recommended Questions
Hydra, Obelia...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13491
Metagenesis is not present in
6
601
Recommended Questions
Obelia, Adamsia...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13490
The structure shown in the given diagram is characteristically seen in the Phylum:
6
601
Recommended Questions
Porifera, Ctenophora...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13489
Which of the following is true about Gastro-vascular cavity of Cnidarians?
6
601
Recommended Questions
It contains single opening, Mouth on hypostome...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13488
Which of the following not started from Cnidarians?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Tissue level of Organisation, Radial symmetry...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13487
The name of the phylum Cnidaria is derived from the
6
601
Recommended Questions
Nematocysts, Cnidoblasts...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13486
Both polyp and medusa life forms are present in the life cycle of
6
601
Recommended Questions
Obelia, Physalia...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13485
The skeleton of corals is made up of
6
601
Recommended Questions
Calcium silicate, Calcium phosphate...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13484
The digestive system in Meandrina is
6
601
Recommended Questions
Digestion is extracellular only, Digestion is intracellular only...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13483
Metagenesis refers to
6
601
Recommended Questions
the presence of different morphic forms, alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organism...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13482
Nematocytes are present in
6
601
Recommended Questions
Adamsia, Hirudinaria...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13481
Which of the following cnidarians are radially symmetrical and sessile?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Hydra, Aurelia...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13480
Which of the following is known as Portuguese man of war?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Pennatula, Adamsia...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13479
Which of the following germinal layer is absent in Cnidarians
6
601
Recommended Questions
Ectoderm, Endoderm...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13478
Physalia is a coelenterate which is also known as
6
601
Recommended Questions
sea pen, sea fan...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13477
Which of the following is incorrect statement
6
601
Recommended Questions
Polyp produce medusae asexually, Medusae produce polyp sexually...
3
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Edit
Delete
13476
Stinging capsules (nematocysts) are found in
6
601
Recommended Questions
wasp and honeybee, scorpion and cobra...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13475
Which of the following group consists exclusively of cnidarians?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Aplysia, Gorgonia, Spongilla, Hydra, Hydra, pennatula, obelia, Echinus...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13474
Match the following 1) Pennatula (i) sea fan 2) Gorgonia (ii) brain coral 3) Meandrina (iii) sea anemone 4) Adamsia (iv) sea pen
6
601
Recommended Questions
1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv), 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13473
Meandrina which is also known as Brain Coral is a
6
601
Recommended Questions
Poriferan, Coelenterate...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13472
Alternation of generation is present in
6
601
Recommended Questions
Sea-pen, Sea-fan...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13471
Cnidocytes are used for
6
601
Recommended Questions
Anchorage, Defence...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13470
Which of the following is true about the given organism?
6
601
Recommended Questions
It is a medusa form of Aurelia, It is Fresh water sponge...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13469
Which of the following combinations of phylum and description is incorrect?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Echinodermata—branch Bilateria, coelom from archenteron, Nematoda—roundworms, pseudocoelomate...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13468
The animals belonging to all the following groups are exclusively marine except:
6
601
Recommended Questions
Ctenophora, Porifera...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13467
Which of the following is true about the following organism?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Radial symmetry is present, Fertilisation is external...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13466
In sponges, digestion is
6
601
Recommended Questions
Intercellular, Intracellular...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13465
Fragmentation is a method of asexual reproduction in
6
601
Recommended Questions
Annelida, Platyhelminthes...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13464
The water canal system is found in:
6
601
Recommended Questions
Echinus, Sycon...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13463
Which of the following is true about sponges except
6
601
Recommended Questions
Sponges are hermaphrodite, Fertilisation is internal...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13462
Which of the following is not true about the given organism?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Bilateral symmetry is present, Hermaphrodite...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13461
Fresh water sponge is the common name of
6
601
Recommended Questions
Hydra, Sycon...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13460
Which one of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, leech, dolphin and penguin is correct?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Penguin is homeothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic, Leech is a fresh water form while all others are marine...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13459
Which of the following is not true about Porifera
6
601
Recommended Questions
Cellular level of organisation, Radial symmetry...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13458
Water transport system or canal system is a characteristic feature of which animal?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Spongilla, Hydra...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13457
Correct flow water current in sponges is:-
6
601
Recommended Questions
Ostia → Osculum → Spongocoel → Outside, Osculum → Spongocoel → Ostia → Outside...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13456
Which of the following cell of sponges contains flagella
6
601
Recommended Questions
Nematocyst, Spongioblast...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13455
Water canal is lined by
6
601
Recommended Questions
Spongin fibres, Choanocytes...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13454
The minute pores in the body wall of the sponges is known as
6
601
Recommended Questions
spongocoel, Ostia...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13453
The mode of reproduction in sponges is
6
601
Recommended Questions
Sexual, Asexual...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13452
In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called
6
601
Recommended Questions
ostia, oscula...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13451
Collar cells are present in the members of which phyla
6
601
Recommended Questions
Echinodermata, Coelenterata...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13450
All the following are present in sponges, except
6
601
Recommended Questions
Spicules, Choanocytes...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13449
Which one of the following is incorrect about Porifera?
6
601
Recommended Questions
Presence of spongin fibres, Cellular level of organisation...
3
View
Edit
Delete
13448
Find the incorrect match
6
601
Recommended Questions
Sycon-Scypha, Spongilla-Fresh water sponge...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13447
Canal system in sponges helps in
6
601
Recommended Questions
Food gathering, Respiratory exchange...
4
View
Edit
Delete
13446
Identify the following diagrams and these represent:
6
601
Recommended Questions
(a) radial symmetry, (b) bilateral symmetry, (a) bilateral symmetry, (b) radial symmetry...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13445
46
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13444
45
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13443
44
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13442
43
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13441
42
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13440
41
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13439
40
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13438
39
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13437
38
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13436
37
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13435
36
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13434
35
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13433
34
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13432
33
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13431
32
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13430
31
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13429
30
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13428
29
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13427
28
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13426
27
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13425
26
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13424
25
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13423
24
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13422
23
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13421
22
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13420
21
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13419
20
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13418
19
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13417
18
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13416
17
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13415
16
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13414
15
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13413
14
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13412
13
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13411
12
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13410
11
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13409
10
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13408
9
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13407
8
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13406
7
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13405
6
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13404
5
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13403
4
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13402
3
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13401
2
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13400
1
6
601
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13399
How many statements are correct about decomposition? (A) Oxygen independent process. (B) Faster if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin. (C) Light is the most important climatic factor for decomposition. (D) Warm and moist environment favour decomposition.
5
520
Recommended Questions
One, Two...
1
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Edit
Delete
13398
Read the statements given below and choose the correct option Statement I: Decomposition is purely an anaerobic process. Statement II: The rate of decomposition is controlled by chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors.
5
520
Recommended Questions
Only statement I is correct., Only statement I is incorrect....
2
View
Edit
Delete
13397
Which of the following is the substrate in the process of mineralisation?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Detritus, Humus...
2
View
Edit
Delete
13396
Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Fragmentation-Carried out by organisms such as earthworms, Humification-Leads to the accumulation of a dark-coloured substance humus, which undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate...
1
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Edit
Delete
13395
Which of the following statement is correct?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Dead plant and animals remains, including fecal matter, constitute detritus,, Detritus is the product of decomposition....
1
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13394
Detritus is
5
520
Recommended Questions
Dead raw material for decomposition., Partially decomposed organic matter....
4
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13393
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
5
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All the steps in decomposition operate simultaneously on the humus., Humus is an accumulated dark coloured amorphous substance....
1
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13392
The important step in the process of decomposition in order is:
5
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Recommended Questions
Catabolism → Fragmentation → Leeching → Humification → Mineralization, Catabolism → Fragmentation → Humification → Leeching → Mineralization...
4
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13391
What is the process by which Detritivores break down the detritus into smaller particles?
5
520
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Degradation, Decomposition...
3
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13390
Which of the following does not affect rate of decomposition?
5
520
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Substrate composition, Soil moisture...
4
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13389
In the process of decomposition 'catabolism' is performed by-
5
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Earthworms, Bacteria...
3
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13388
Decomposition would be fast if the detritus contains-
5
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Recommended Questions
Cellulose, Lignin and chitin...
3
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13387
Why do we call the earthworm as the farmer’s friend?
5
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Recommended Questions
It eats the pests., It prevents the growth of weeds....
4
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13386
What does the process of leaching refers to-
5
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Accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous substance, Organic solvents reabsorbed by the plants...
4
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13385
Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from:
5
520
Recommended Questions
Sugarcane roots, Decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter...
2
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13384
The rate of decomposition of detritus is slow when
5
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Recommended Questions
It contains lignin, chitin, tannins and cellulose, Temperature is more than 25°C...
1
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13383
Which of the following promotes the process of decomposition?
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Warm and moist environment, low temperature...
1
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13382
The term "detritivore" includes
5
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Recommended Questions
decomposers, primary consumers...
1
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13381
Ecosystem which shows above pyramid of biomass possess _____ and _____ pyramid of number and energy respectively.
5
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Inverted, upright, Upright, upright...
2
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13380
How many of these have no place in ecological pyramids? Detritivores, Scavengers, Decomposers, Producers, Insectivorous plant
5
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2, 3...
3
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13379
Given below is a hypothetical pyramid of energy. The amount of energy left at the level of secondary consumers would approximately be:
5
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10000 J, 1000 J...
4
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13378
Standing crop is: (i) Amount of detritus in unit area (ii) Number of living organisms in unit area (iii) Amount of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen, and calcium in unit area (iv) Biomass in unit area
5
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(i) and (iv), (i) and (iii)...
3
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13377
The ecological pyramid of numbers in pond ecosystem is:-
5
520
Recommended Questions
Inverted, Upright...
2
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13376
Identify the relationship represented by the pyramid
5
520
Recommended Questions
Pyramid of number, Pyramid of biomass...
2
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13375
The limitations of ecological pyramids include all the following except:
5
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Recommended Questions
The do not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels, They do not represent relationships between organisms at different trophic levels...
2
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13374
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Only three top-carnivores are supported in an ecosystem based on production of nearly 6 million plants., Pyramid of biomass shows a sharp increase in biomass at higher trophic levels....
2
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13373
Which of the following pyramid represents the pyramid of number in grassland?
5
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A, B...
3
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13372
Consider the following statements: I: Trophic level in an ecosystem represents a functional level, not a species as such. II: Saprophytes are accorded the position of a top consumer in an ecosystem. III: A species can occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at the same time. Which of the above statements are true?
5
520
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
2
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13371
Why does the pyramid of energy always upright?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Because energy cannot be destroyed., Smaller organisms have more potential energy than larger ones...
3
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13370
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
5
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Recommended Questions
Any calculations of energy content, biomass or numbers, has to include all organisms at that trophic level., The base of each pyramid represents the producers or the first trophic level while the apex represents tertiary or top level consumer....
4
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13369
In general, the biomass in an ecosystem will be greatest at the trophic level comprising.
5
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Recommended Questions
secondary consumers, primary consumers...
3
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13368
In grassland ecosystem the pyramid of biomass and energy will be A and B respectively. Choose the correct option to fill the blanks A and B.
5
520
Recommended Questions
Upright Upright, Upright Inverted...
1
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13367
Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Dry weight, Number of individuals...
4
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13366
Mark the odd one with respect to shape of ecological pyramids.
5
520
Recommended Questions
Pyramid of energy., Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem....
3
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13365
For which of the following predatory food chain pyramid of biomass is inverted?
5
520
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Grass → Insect → Snake → Frog, Detritus → Sparrow → Earthworms...
3
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13364
If 20 J of energy is trapped at the producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacocks as food in the following chain? Plant → mice → snake → peacock
5
520
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0.02 J, 0.002 J...
1
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13363
What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data? Secondary consumer: 120 g Primary consumer: 60 g Primary producer: 10 g
5
520
Recommended Questions
Inverted pyramid of biomass, Pyramid of energy...
1
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13362
Which one of the following statements for pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three are correct?
5
520
Recommended Questions
It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms, It is inverted in shape...
2
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13361
Which of the following pyramids can never be inverted in a natural ecosystem?
5
520
Recommended Questions
pyramid of numbers, pyramid of energy...
2
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13360
The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally
5
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Recommended Questions
Upright, Inverted...
2
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13359
Which of the following group of organisms is not included in the ecological pyramids?
5
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Recommended Questions
Herbivores, Carnivores...
3
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13358
The base of each pyramid represents the _______ or the ________ level while the apex represents ________.
5
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Consumers, first trophic and top trophic level, Producers, first trophic and top trophic level...
2
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13357
GPP utilizes ________ of incident radiation
5
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Recommended Questions
1 - 5%, 2 - 10%...
2
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13356
If the available energy at first trophic level is 10000 J then how much trophic levels it could support further?
5
520
Recommended Questions
2, 3...
2
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13355
What is the source of energy for all ecosystems on Earth, except for the deep sea hydro-thermal ecosystem?
5
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Sun, Hydrothermal vents...
1
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13354
Choose the odd one with respect to trophic level
5
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Recommended Questions
zooplanktons, tadpole...
4
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13353
Which of the following is false? I. Quantity of biomass in a trophical level at a particular period is called standing crop. II. The energy content in a trophic level is determined by considering a few individuals of a species in that trophic level. III. The succession that occurs in nearly cooled lava is called primary succession. IV. Rate of succession is faster in the secondary succession V. Phytoplankton are the pioneers in aquatic succession
5
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Only II, Only III...
1
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13352
The standing crop is measured as the-
5
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Recommended Questions
Mass of living organisms in a unit area., The number of living organisms in a unit area....
4
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13351
Plants capture approximately _______________ of the sun's energy while other trophic levels capture about _______________ of the energy available to them in their food.
5
520
Recommended Questions
1%, 10%, 10%, 60%...
1
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13350
Identify the odd one out.
5
520
Recommended Questions
Cockroach, Crow...
4
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13349
Which of the following is/are incorrect: A. All ecosystems are constant in size B. In nature food chains exist, not food web C. Flow of energy in ecosystem is unidirectional D. Gene flow occurs between 2 different population (of 2 species)
5
520
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A, C, A, D...
3
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13348
Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels. This is evident from i: Some of the organisms of DFC are prey to the GFC animals ii: In a natural ecosystem, some animals like cockroaches, crows, etc., are omnivores. iii: Some of the organisms of GFC are facultative decomposers
5
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i and iii, i and ii...
2
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13347
The detritus food chain (DFC) begins with ________. It is made up of decomposers which are ________ organisms, mainly ________. They meet their energy and nutrient requirements by degrading ________.
5
520
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detritus, heterotrophic, earthworm and dead organic matter., dead organic matter, heterotrophic, fungi and bacteria, dead organic matter....
2
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13346
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
5
520
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Ecosystems are exempted from the Second Law of thermodynamics., An ecosystem has a tendency toward increasing disorderliness....
1
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13345
What proportion of the PAR (photosynthetically active radiation) is captured by plants?
5
520
Recommended Questions
1 - 10%, 2 - 10%...
2
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13344
What do you mean by a food web?
5
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Group of food chains., Food chains present in a particular area...
3
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13343
Most food chains are composed of
5
520
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1 or 2 species, 3 or 4 species...
2
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13342
What do secondary carnivores refer to?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Animals at second trophic level, Those animals that depend on the herbivores for food...
3
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13341
Which trophic level is incorrectly defined?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Carnivores- secondary or tertiary consumer, Decomposer- microbial heterotrophs...
4
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13340
Which trophic level is incorrectly defined?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Carnivores- secondary or tertiary consumer, Decomposer- microbial heterotrophs...
4
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13339
Consider the following four statements (A–D), select the correct option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F)
5
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A: T, B: T, C: F, D: F, A: F, B: T, C: F, D: T...
4
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13338
Why does the number of trophic levels in the grazing food chain is restricted?
5
520
Recommended Questions
As the transfer of energy follows 10 per cent law, So that food chain remains short...
1
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13337
The second trophic level in a lake is:
5
520
Recommended Questions
Phytoplankton, Zooplankton...
2
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13336
Based on the source of organism's nutrition or food, they occupy a specific place in the food chain that is known as-
5
520
Recommended Questions
Strata, Trophic level...
2
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13335
What does 10 per cent law say?
5
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Less than 10 per cent of the energy is transferred to each trophic level from the lower trophic level, Only 10 per cent of the energy is transferred to each trophic level from the lower trophic level...
2
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13334
Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is
5
520
Recommended Questions
about 60%, less than 50%...
2
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13333
Which are the primary consumers in a grazing food chain?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Carnivores, Herbivores...
2
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13332
Energy flow in an ecosystem is
5
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Recommended Questions
unidirectional, bidirectional...
1
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13331
Consider the following statements: I: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is called as gross primary productivity of an ecosystem. II: The available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs is called secondary productivity. III: The low productivity of the oceans can mainly be attributed to the limited availability of nitrogen. Which of the above statements are true?
5
520
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
2
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13330
At the trophic level of consumers, the rate at which food energy is assimilated, is called:
5
520
Recommended Questions
Secondary productivity, Gross primary productivity...
1
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13329
The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis is called primary production, which is expressed as:
5
520
Recommended Questions
g m⁻², kcal m⁻²...
4
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13328
Primary production is expressed in terms of-
5
520
Recommended Questions
Grams, Grams/year...
3
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13327
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Gross primary productivity is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis., Net primary productivity plus respiration losses, is the gross primary productivity....
4
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13326
Which of the following contributes the maximum to the net primary productivity?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Ocean ecosystem, Land ecosystem...
2
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13325
The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is called
5
520
Recommended Questions
net primary productivity, secondary productivity...
1
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13324
Consider the following two statements: I. The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter. II. Majority of this is contributed by the oceans as they occupy larger area of earth.
5
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Both I and II are correct and II explains I, Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I...
3
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13323
The mass of living material at a tropic level at a particular time is called
5
520
Recommended Questions
Gross primary productivity, Standing state...
4
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13322
What do you mean by Productivity?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Rate of biomass production, Amount of biomass production...
1
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Delete
13321
Net primary productivity is the gross primary productivity minus
5
520
Recommended Questions
that which is consumed by herbivores, that which is consumed by producer in metabolism...
2
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13320
In an ecosystem, the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is termed as:
5
520
Recommended Questions
net primary productivity, gross primary productivity...
2
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13319
The secondary productivity means
5
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Recommended Questions
Rate of increase in the biomass of autotrophs., Rate of increase in the biomass of heterotrophs....
2
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13318
Which of the following is not correctly matched? 1. Productivity - Rate of biomass production 2. Gross primary productivity of earth - Rate of productivity of organic matter during photosynthesis 3. Net primary productivity - Available biomass for consumption by heterotrophs 4. Secondary productivity - Formation of new organic matter by producers
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1 (5 %), 2 (9 %)...
4
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13317
The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis is called as-
5
520
Recommended Questions
Biomass production, Primary production...
2
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13316
The basic requirement for any ecosystem to function and sustain is
5
520
Recommended Questions
Enormous amount of water, Constant input of solar energy...
2
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13315
What is the annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere
5
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Recommended Questions
160 billion tons, 170 billion tons...
2
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13314
Primary productivity of a terrestrial ecosystem depends upon
5
520
Recommended Questions
Photosynthetic capacity of plants., A variety of environmental factors,...
4
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13313
Read the given statements stating true (T) and false (F) and select the correct option. A. Anthropogenic ecosystem possess self regulatory mechanism B. Forest is a natural ecosystem C. Estuaries is a terrestrial ecosystem
5
520
Recommended Questions
T T F, F T F...
2
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13312
Identify the odd one out?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Forest, Grassland...
4
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13311
Which of the following is not a man-made ecosystem?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Pond, Crop-field...
1
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13310
Which vertical strata is occupied by trees in a forest?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Top, Middle...
1
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13309
Find the odd one out with respect to functional component of ecosystem
5
520
Recommended Questions
Productivity, Stratification...
2
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13308
Which of the following could affect the rate of function of a pond?
5
520
Recommended Questions
The solar input, The cycle of temperature...
4
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13307
Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Stratification, Natality...
1
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13306
Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem?
5
520
Recommended Questions
Energy flow, Decomposition...
4
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13305
Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a biotic community is known as
5
520
Recommended Questions
divergence, stratification...
2
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13304
Which of the following is the functional unit of nature?
5
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Recommended Questions
A plant, An animal...
3
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13303
Regional and local variations within each biome lead to the formation of a wide variety of:-
5
519
Recommended Questions
Niche, Population...
4
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13302
The population with the following age pyramid:
5
519
Recommended Questions
Will grow exponentially in near future, Will grow steadily in the future...
3
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13301
Natural selection operates at the level of:-
5
519
Recommended Questions
Organism, Population...
2
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13300
Population Ecology links
5
519
Recommended Questions
Ecology to Evolution, Ecology to Genetics...
3
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13299
To get pollinated by a bee, the Mediterranean Orchid, Ophrys, employs:
5
519
Recommended Questions
Sexual deceit, Pseudo-copulation...
1
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13298
The interacting species live closely together in which of the following interaction?
5
519
Recommended Questions
Parasitism, Predation and Commensalism, Commensalism, Amensalism...
1
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13297
Select the wrongly matched pair 1. Predator - Herbivore. 2. Brood parasitism - Cuckoo. 3. Commensalism - Barnacles on the whale. 4. Mutualism - Sea anemone on a hermit crab.
5
519
Recommended Questions
1 (20 %), 2 (3 %)...
4
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13296
Commensalism is an association of two species in which
5
519
Recommended Questions
one lives, attached to the other, without harming it, both organisms derive benefits from each other...
1
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13295
Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
5
519
Recommended Questions
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i), (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)...
3
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13294
Which one of the following is a matching pair of certain organism(s) and the kind of association?
5
519
Recommended Questions
Shark and sucker fish - predation, Algae and fungi in lichens - mutualism...
2
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13293
Barnacles growing on the back a whale, a type of population interaction, is an example of
5
519
Recommended Questions
Competition, Mutualism...
4
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13292
Sexual deceit is employed by
5
519
Recommended Questions
Ophrys to get pollinated., Orchids on mango for shelter....
1
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Delete
13291
Which of the following associations shows mutualism?
5
519
Recommended Questions
Fig and wasp, Barnacles on whale...
1
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Delete
13290
Epiphytes growing on mango is an example of which type of the given population interaction?
5
519
Recommended Questions
Competition, Protocooperation...
3
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13289
Connell's elegant field experiments are related to:
5
519
Recommended Questions
Paramecium, Barnacles...
2
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Delete
13288
Mycorrhizae are the example of
5
519
Recommended Questions
fungistasis, amensalism...
4
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13287
The process where a population inhibits the growth of other population without affecting itself is known as
5
519
Recommended Questions
Amensalism, Parasitism...
1
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13286
Choose the incorrect match regarding population interactions.
5
519
Recommended Questions
Amensalism: Species A (-), Species B (-), Parasitism: Species A (+), Species B (-)...
1
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13285
Select the false one: 1. The niche of a population is the set of conditions and resources it uses 2. Competitive exclusion principle was first described by Gause, for species of Paramecium 3. If a new predator is introduced to an area the prey species is likely to decrease and possibly become extinct 4. None of the above
5
519
Recommended Questions
The niche of a population is the set of conditions and resources it uses, Competitive exclusion principle was first described by Gause, for species of Paramecium...
2
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13284
Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense?
5
519
Recommended Questions
Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother, Head lice living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair...
2
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13283
The evolution of the animal immune system was probably driven by:
5
519
Recommended Questions
Herbivores pushing the animals toward extinction, The selective pressures of parasitic and disease organisms...
2
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13282
Which of the following will breed more than once in their life cycle?
5
519
Recommended Questions
Pacific salmon fish, Bamboo...
3
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13281
Which of the following is not an ectoparasite?
5
519
Recommended Questions
Lice on humans, Copepods on marine fishes...
4
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13280
Parasites evolved special adaptations in accordance with their life styles. Choose odd one out with respect to these adaptations.
5
519
Recommended Questions
High reproductive capacity, Simple life cycle and complex morphological, anatomical features...
2
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13279
In general, which of the following is not an adaptation seen in parasites in accordance with their life style?
5
519
Recommended Questions
Loss of unnecessary sense organs, Presence of adhesive organs...
3
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Delete
13278
By a particular interaction in a population, one species was harmed while other was benefited. Such interaction is called as
5
519
Recommended Questions
Competition, Predation...
4
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13277
If '+' sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, '-' sign to detrimental and '0' sign to neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by '+' '-' refers to
5
519
Recommended Questions
Mutualism, Amensalism...
4
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13276
No predator can become proficient at acquiring prey because:
5
519
Recommended Questions
Predators are not as intelligent as prey., Predators are too large to be fast enough....
4
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13275
If in a hypothetical case, you remove a predator from an ecosystem and as a result few prey species get extinct. What does it show
5
519
Recommended Questions
Interspecific competition, Intraspecific competition...
1
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13274
Biocontrol of crop pests is often based on which of the following interspecific interactions?
5
519
Recommended Questions
Competition, Amensalism...
3
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13273
In a tide pool, 15 species of invertebrates were reduced to 8 after one species was removed. The removed species may be a:
5
519
Recommended Questions
Parasite, Mutualist...
3
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13272
Resemblance of one organism with its surroundings for protection and hiding is
5
519
Recommended Questions
mimicry, predation...
4
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13271
In a broad ecological context, which of the following can be a predator?
5
519
Recommended Questions
Seed eating sparrow, Lion...
1
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13270
When certain exotic species are introduced into a geographical area, they become invasive mainly because:
5
519
Recommended Questions
The invaded land has unlimited resources for the introduced species, The invaded land does not have its natural predator...
2
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13269
Study the four statements (1-4) given below and select the two correct ones out of them. (1) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers (2) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebrates (3) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species (4) Production of chemicals such as nicotine, strychnine by the plants are metabolic disorders The two correct statements are
5
519
Recommended Questions
(2) and (3), (3) and (4)...
4
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13268
When the predator keeps on eating the prey, then in the end there should be no more prey to be eaten by the predator. But this situation is not observed in the case of predation in nature. Because
5
519
Recommended Questions
Predators are prudent enough, Prey has developed a defense mechanism not to allow predators to overexploit them...
4
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13267
Predation can be thought as
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Recommended Questions
Prey's way to control its the population, Nature's way of transferring energy to higher trophic levels....
2
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13266
Which of the following is not produced by plants as a product of defense mechanism?
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519
Recommended Questions
Nicotine, quinine, Caffeine...
4
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13265
Consider the following statements: I: When certain exotic species are introduced into a geographical area, they become invasive because the invaded land does not have its natural predators. II: Competition is best defined as a process in which the fitness of one species is significantly lower in the presence of another species. III: Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on the ability of the predator to regulate the prey population. Which of the above statements are true?
5
519
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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13264
How many insects are phytophagous? And such interaction is called as
5
519
Recommended Questions
30%, parasitism, 25% predation...
2
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13263
The prickly pear cactus introduced in Australia in the 1920s got famous because of the lack of which population interaction?
5
519
Recommended Questions
Competition, Predation...
2
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13262
Monarch butterfly escapes from predators by
5
519
Recommended Questions
foul smell, bitter taste...
2
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13261
Which of the following is not a function of predators?
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They act as conduits for energy transfer across trophic levels, They keep prey populations under control...
4
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13260
Calotropis doesn't allow any cows and goats to browse around by releasing
5
519
Recommended Questions
Cardiac glucosamine, Cardiac glucoside...
3
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13259
In a field experiment, when all Pisaster starfish were removed from an enclosed intertidal area, the result was:
5
519
Recommended Questions
Increase in diversity of invertebrates, Extinction of many invertebrate species...
2
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13258
The invasiveness of prickly pear cactus in Australia was controlled by introducing a predator from its natural habitat and this predator was
5
519
Recommended Questions
A ladybird, A moth...
2
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13257
As a mechanism of defense against herbivory, Calotropis:
5
519
Recommended Questions
Has large number of thorns, Secretes cardiac glycosides...
2
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13256
Acacia and Cactus show which kind of defenses?
5
519
Recommended Questions
Biochemical, Biomolecular...
3
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13255
Monarch Butterfly
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Recommended Questions
has biochemical defense mechanism, acquires biochemical defense mechanism during its caterpillar stage by feeding on poisonous weed...
4
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13254
Predators cannot perform
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Recommended Questions
conduit for energy transfer, control prey species...
4
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13253
Which of the following is not entirely true fact? 1. Competition occurs when closely related species compete for the same resources that are limiting 2. Totally unrelated species could compete for the same resource 3. Resources need not be limiting for competition to occur. In interference competition, the feeding efficiency of one species might be reduced due to the interference and inhibitory presence of the other species, even if resources are abundant. 4. A complex interplay of interspecific interactions and environmental variability characterizes community structure
5
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Recommended Questions
Competition occurs when closely related species compete for the same resources that are limiting, Totally unrelated species could compete for the same resource...
1
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13252
Competition occurs when closely related species compete for the same resources that are limiting. In this statement two concepts are emphasized, one is closely related species and the other the resources are limiting.
5
519
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first concept is entirely wrong while the second concept is entirely correct., First concept is right while the second is partially correct...
3
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13251
A species whose distribution is restricted to a small geographical area because of the presence of a competitively superior species is found to expand its distributional range dramatically when the competing species is experimentally removed. This is called:
5
519
Recommended Questions
Competitive Exclusion, Competitive Release...
2
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13250
The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by
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Recommended Questions
C Darwin, GF Gause...
2
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13249
According to Darwin, organic evolution is due to:
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Recommended Questions
Interspecific competition., Competition within closely related species....
1
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13248
Competition can be defined best as
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Recommended Questions
A process in which the fitness of one species i.e. r is significantly lower in the presence of another species., Competition occurs when closely related species compete for the same resources that are limiting....
1
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13247
The feeding efficiency of one species might be reduced due to the inhibitory presence of another species with abundant food and space. What does it imply?
5
519
Recommended Questions
For competition to occur, resources need not be limited, Interference competition...
4
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13246
Statement - 1: Herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely affected by competition than carnivores. Statement - 2: Competition is a process in which fitness of one species is significantly lower in the presence of another species.
5
519
Recommended Questions
Both statements are correct., Both statements are incorrect....
1
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13245
Gause's Competitive Exclusion Principle is challenged by
5
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Recommended Questions
Competitive release, Resource Partitioning...
2
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13244
Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that
5
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Recommended Questions
Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences, No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources...
2
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13243
Through resource partitioning:
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Recommended Questions
Two species can compete for the same prey, Slight variation in niche allow closely related species to co-exist in the same habitat...
2
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13242
Carnivorous animals - lions and leopards, occupy the same niche but lions predate mostly larger animals and leopards take smaller ones. This mechanism of competition is referred to as:
5
519
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Character displacement, Altruism...
3
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13241
Darwin was convinced enough for considering......... A potential force in organic evolution.
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Recommended Questions
Interspecific competition, Intraspecific competition...
1
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13240
In some shallow South American lakes visiting Flamingoes and Resident Fishes show which kind of interaction?
5
519
Recommended Questions
Competition, Predation...
1
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13239
A bird introduced from another country became a serious pest due to:
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Recommended Questions
Better adaptation to new area, More sexual reproduction...
4
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13238
The Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced on the island apparently due to
5
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Recommended Questions
Superiority of goats, Greater browsing efficiency of goats...
2
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13237
In which of the following interactions both partners are adversely affected?
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519
Recommended Questions
Competition, Predation...
1
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13236
Life History traits
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Recommended Questions
Evolved with the constraints imposed by mainly the Abiotic Factors of that habitat, An intense research area...
3
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13235
Under a particular set of selection pressures, organisms evolve towards the most efficient:
5
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Thermoregulation, Water conservation...
4
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13234
Darwinian fitness is represented by:
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Low r value, High r value...
2
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13233
Evolution of population
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Maximizing Reproductive fitness, Low r value...
1
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13232
The logistic population growth model, dN/dt = rN (K - N/K), describes a populations growth when an upper limit to growth is assumed. This upper limit to growth is known as the population's _______, and as N gets larger, dN/dt _______.
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Recommended Questions
Biotic potential, increases, Biotic potential, decreases...
4
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13231
Under normal circumstances which of the following affects population density most?
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Recommended Questions
Nt, B...
2
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13230
When the population density reaches the carrying capacity, the logistic growth curve is said to be in:
5
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Recommended Questions
Lag phase, A phase of acceleration...
4
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13229
Carrying capacity for a population is estimated at 500; the population size is currently 400; and rmax = 0.01. What is dN/dt?
5
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Recommended Questions
0.01, 0.8...
2
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13228
Which is correctly labelled with respect to the given diagram?
5
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Recommended Questions
B: Logistic curve, C: Carrying capacity...
4
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13227
What does K mean?
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Recommended Questions
Nature's Carrying Capacity, Number of individuals of a species supported by nature as per the resources available...
4
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13226
Study the population growth curves shown in the above diagram. Which option is the best for curve (i) and (ii)?
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Recommended Questions
Logistic curve, Exponential curve, Unlimited, Limited, Exponential curve, Logistic curve, Unlimited, Limited...
2
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13225
Verhulst-Pearl population growth is described by the equation
5
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Recommended Questions
dN/dt = rN, Nt = N0ert...
4
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13224
In nature, a given habitat has enough resources to support a maximum possible number, beyond which no further growth is possible. The limit is known as
5
519
Recommended Questions
Environmental resistance, Intrinsic rate of natural increase...
3
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13223
Which one of the following growth model considered as more realistic one?
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Recommended Questions
Exponential growth curve, Logistic growth curve...
2
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13222
The logistic growth curve of animal population growth is more realistic than J shaped curve because:
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Recommended Questions
Asexual mode of reproduction is rare in higher animals, Resources are finite and become limiting sooner or later....
2
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13221
When the value of 'r' is significantly low as compared to another species, it is better known by:
5
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Recommended Questions
Competition exclusion, Interference competition...
2
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13220
The equation of the exponential growth curve of the population has 'r' that means which of the following statements?
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Recommended Questions
Extrinsic rate of natural increase, An important parameter for assessing impacts of only biotic factors on population growth...
4
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13219
In a population growth rate curve the lag phase represents the period when a population is adjusting to a new environment. II. In a population growth rate curve the steepest part of growth phase represents the period when a population is growing exponentially. III. In the stationary phase of a population growth rate curve the population is in dynamic equilibrium IV. Human have changed the carrying capacity of the earth.
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All are correct, I, II, III...
1
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13218
The innate potential to grow in number does not follow which of the following statements?
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519
Recommended Questions
Each species has this ability, When resources are unlimited only then it is realized...
4
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13217
Exponential growth occurs when there is:
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519
Recommended Questions
Asexual reproduction only, Sexual reproduction only...
3
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13216
Find the correct mathematical expression for geometric growth resulting in a J-shaped population growth curve.
5
519
Recommended Questions
dN/dt = rN, K - N/K...
1
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13215
The formula for exponential population growth is:-
5
519
Recommended Questions
dt/dN = rN, dN/rN = dt...
4
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13214
The size of the population for any species is
5
519
Recommended Questions
Dynamic, Static...
1
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13213
What is true for individuals of same species?
5
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Recommended Questions
Live in same niche, Live in same habitat...
3
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13212
Which of the following factors increases population density more significantly if new habitat is colonized?
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Recommended Questions
Natality, Mortality...
3
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13211
In the V-PL growth curve, the asymptote is reached when
5
519
Recommended Questions
It's a lag phase, Just before the lag phase...
3
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13210
What four factors define population growth?
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519
Recommended Questions
Births; deaths, immigration, emigration, Survivorship, age-specific mortality, fecundity, death rate...
1
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13209
The country with the given population pyramid is likely to have:
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Recommended Questions
Low birth rate, High death rate...
2
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13208
A country with a high rate of population growth took measures to reduce it. The figure below shows age sex pyramids of populations. A and B twenty years apart. Select the correct interpretation about them.
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Recommended Questions
'A' is more recent and shows slight reduction in the growth rate, 'B' is earlier pyramid and shows stabilized growth rate...
1
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13207
The age distribution of a population is determined by:
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Recommended Questions
Timing of birth, Timing of death...
4
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13206
Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of:
5
519
Recommended Questions
Biotic community, Population...
2
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13205
A broad-based, pyramid shaped age structure is characteristic of a population that is:
5
519
Recommended Questions
Growing rapidly, At carrying capacity...
1
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13204
In a growing population of a country:
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519
Recommended Questions
pre-reproductive individuals are more than reproductive individuals., reproductive individuals are less than post-reproductive individuals....
1
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13203
What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid?
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Recommended Questions
Stable population, Declining population...
2
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13202
If the age distribution (percent individuals of a given age or age group) is plotted for population, the resulting structure is called:
5
519
Recommended Questions
Survivorship curve, Life table...
3
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13201
Calculate the birth rate of a population which has 20 individuals at time t, after one year 8 individuals have also counted along with those 20.
5
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Recommended Questions
.3, 0.2...
3
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13200
Natality refers to:
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Death rate, Birth rate...
2
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13199
Triangular age pyramid represents
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519
Recommended Questions
Expanding population., Declining population....
1
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13198
Which of the following is not a factor that would limit the growth of a population?
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519
Recommended Questions
Food shortage, Immigration...
2
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13197
The biological community can have
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Recommended Questions
An isolated population of plants which doesn't depend on animals and microbes, An isolated population of animals which doesn't depend on plants and microbes...
4
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13196
Population growth of a species is not related to which of the following parameters?
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Recommended Questions
Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) - (D + E)], Out of the four basic processes effecting population growth three leads to increase in population size...
2
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13195
A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is
5
519
Recommended Questions
10, 15...
4
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13194
Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched while remaining three are correct
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Recommended Questions
Allen's rule – Mammals with shorter ears and limbs in colder area, Expanding population – High number of individual at pre-reproductive stage...
3
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13193
Population density will increase if
5
519
Recommended Questions
Number of births and number of deaths increase., Number of births and number of immigrants is high....
2
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13192
The density of a population in a given habitat during a given period, fluctuates due to changes in four basic processes. On this basis fill up A and B boxes in the given diagram with correct options:
5
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Recommended Questions
A = Natality + Immigration, B = Mortality + Emigration, A = Natality + Mortality, B = Immigration + Emigration...
1
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13191
The four levels of biological organization to which Ecology is basically concerned are:
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Recommended Questions
Macromolecules-tissues-populations-biome, Macromolecules-organisms-population-biome...
4
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13190
An association of individuals of different species living in the same habitat and having functional interactions is.
5
519
Recommended Questions
ecological niche, biotic community...
2
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13189
How many of the above statements is/are wrong?
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519
Recommended Questions
Three, Two...
1
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13188
Identify the biome that is not correctly matched with the physical parameters given in corresponding Column II and Column III:
5
519
Recommended Questions
Tropical forest: Mean annual temperature 20-25°C, Mean annual precipitation 130-430 cm, Arctic and alpine tundra: Mean annual temperature -12-2°C, Mean annual precipitation 10-125 cm...
3
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13187
Physiological ecology
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Recommended Questions
works at the organismic level, Tries to understand the adaptation with respect to survival only...
1
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13186
Find the odd one out about levels of biological organization:-
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Recommended Questions
Biome, Community...
3
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13185
Niche is:
5
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Recommended Questions
All the biological factors in the organism environment, The physical space where an organism lives...
4
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13184
A wide variety of habitats within a biome can be a result of
5
519
Recommended Questions
Regional variation of temperature and precipitation., Local variation of temperature and precipitation...
3
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13183
In the given figure, identify Coniferous forest, Arctic and Alpine Tundra and tropical forest, respectively:
5
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Recommended Questions
I, VI and III, V, VI and III...
2
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13182
Birth rate = B Death Rate = D Emigration = E Immigration = I Column-I A. Population is stable B. Population is increasing C. Population is decreasing Column-II I. B + I > D + E II. B + I = D + E III. B + I < D + E IV. B + E > D + I
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A - II, B - I, C - III, A - II, B - IV, C - III...
1
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13181
Ecology explains us:-
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How organisms, while remaining as an individual interact with other organisms, How organisms, interact with physical habitats as a group...
4
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13180
Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if
5
514
Recommended Questions
pollen matures before maturity of ovule, ovules mature before maturity of pollen...
3
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13179
A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers, but never produces fruits and seeds. The most probable cause for the above situation is
5
514
Recommended Questions
plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate flowers, plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate and staminate flowers...
4
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13178
Which of the following statements is false?
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All, None...
3
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13177
Choose the correct option with respect to the function of the germ pore.
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It allows growth of pollen tube, It allows water absorption in seed...
1
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13176
Female flowers remain submerged in water and the pollen grains are released inside the water in:
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514
Recommended Questions
Sea grasses, Vallisneria...
1
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13175
Pollination by water is
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Recommended Questions
Limited to about 30 families of dicots, Very common in flowering plants...
3
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13174
Most of the aquatic and land plants are pollinated by
5
514
Recommended Questions
Insects or wind, Water and insects respectively...
1
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13173
Genetic self-incompatibility tends to increase
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514
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pollen dispersal, inbreeding...
4
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13172
Dioecy in plants prevents:
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514
Recommended Questions
Autogamy but not geitonogamy, Geitonogamy but not autogamy...
3
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13171
Male and female plants are not separate in case of
5
514
Recommended Questions
Papaya and date-palm, Mulberry and papaya...
4
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13170
Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of a young cob of maize are:
5
514
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anthers, styles...
2
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13169
Hydrophily is limited to 30 genera which are mostly
5
514
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Gymnosperms, Monocots...
2
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13168
What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria?
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Pollination occurs in submerged conditions by water., Flowers emerge above the surface of water and pollination occurs by insects....
4
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13167
Self-incompatibility: I. Is a device to prevent inbreeding II. Provides a biochemical block to self-fertilization. III. Ensures cross-fertilization. IV. Is governed by pollen-pistil interaction V. Is governed by series of multiple alleles. VI. Prevents self pollen (from the same flower or other flowers of the same plant) from fertilizing the ovules inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil.
5
514
Recommended Questions
All are correct, All are wrong...
1
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13166
In which one of the following pollination is autogamous?
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514
Recommended Questions
Xenogamy, Chasmogamy...
3
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13165
When both male and female flowers are present on the same plant, then plant is said to be:
5
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Bisexual, Monoecious...
2
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13164
Wind pollinated flowers are
5
514
Recommended Questions
small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains, small, producing large number of dry pollen grains...
2
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13163
If the female parent produces unisexual flower:
5
514
Recommended Questions
Emasculation must be done before maturity, Emasculation must be done after maturity...
4
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13162
Choose the correct statement from the following:
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Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit autogamy, Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit geitonogamy...
1
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13161
A plant breeder employ technique of emasculation
5
514
Recommended Questions
To cover the flower with a bag., To prevent self-pollination....
2
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13160
Wind pollination is common in
5
514
Recommended Questions
lilies, grasses...
2
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13159
Which of the following is the most common abiotic pollinating agent?
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Insects, Birds and bats...
3
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13158
Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in:
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Papaya, Cucumber...
1
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13157
Consider the following features seen in a plant: I. Male and female reproductive organs are generally found in separate flowers. II. The male flowers having a number of long filaments terminating in exposed stamens. III. The female flowers having long, feather-like stigmas. The flowers of this plant would most likely be pollinated by:
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Wind, Water...
1
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13156
Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of
5
514
Recommended Questions
water, insects or wind...
2
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13155
Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy?
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Geitonogamy, Xenogamy...
1
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13154
Which of the following is false about xenogamy? 1. It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of another plant of the same species. 2. It produces genetic variation 3. It is genetically and ecologically (= functionally) cross pollination. 4. It occurs in cleistogamous flowers
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It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of another plant of the same species., It produces genetic variation...
4
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13153
Pollen grains are shed at which stage?
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514
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2 celled, 3 celled...
3
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13152
The only type of pollination that brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma is:
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514
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Chasmogamy, Cleistogamy...
4
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13151
Genetically and functionally self-pollination is cent percent ensured with seed formation even in the absence of pollinators by
5
514
Recommended Questions
Bisexuality, Dicliny...
4
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13150
In which one of the following, both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented?
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Wheat, Papaya...
2
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13149
Which of the following are the important floral rewards to the animal pollinators?
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Colour and large size of flower, Nectar and pollen grains...
2
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13148
Go through the following statements: Flowers are bisexual and homogamous maturing anther and stigma of a flower at the same time. Mechanical devices bringing anthers and stigma close together in a bisexual chasmogamous flower. Cleistogamy (bisexual flowers remain closed) Anther and stigma of an intersexual flower mature in bud condition. The above contrivances favour:
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Allogamy, Autogamy...
2
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13147
Geitonogamy involves
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Pollination of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant, Pollination of a flower by the pollen from the same flower...
1
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13146
Advantage of cleistogamy is:
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More vigorous offspring, No dependence of pollinator...
2
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13145
For artificial hybridisation experiment in bisexual flower, which of the sequences is correct?
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Bagging → Emasculation → Cross pollination → Rebagging, Emasculation → Bagging → Cross pollination → Rebagging...
2
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13144
Find out the correct option: (1) Among animals, insects, particularly bees are the dominant biotic pollinating agents (2) Often flowers of animal-pollinated plants are specially adapted for particular species of animals (3) In some species floral rewards like edible nectar, pollen grains, shelter for egg laying are given to pollinating animals (4) All the above are correct
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Recommended Questions
Among animals, insects, particularly bees are the dominant biotic pollinating agents, Often flowers of animal-pollinated plants are specially adapted for particular species of animals...
4
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13143
Select the option in which both organisms cannot complete their life cycle without each other
5
514
Recommended Questions
Snake – Santalum, Ficus – Bats...
3
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13142
Which of the following plants produce(s) chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers?
5
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Recommended Questions
Viola (Commonpansy), Oxalis...
4
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13141
From the statements given below choose the option that is true for a typical female gametophyte.
5
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(i) and (iv), (ii) and (iii)...
3
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13140
In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell forms megaspores without undergoing meiosis and if one of the megaspores develops into an embryo sac, its nuclei would be
5
514
Recommended Questions
haploid, diploid...
2
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13139
The micropylar end of Polygonum type of embryosac has the following structural cells, except
5
514
Recommended Questions
Definitive nucleus, Synergid...
1
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13138
How many of the nuclei in the female gametophyte in angiosperms are surrounded by cell wall?
5
514
Recommended Questions
5, 6...
2
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13137
What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance into ovule?
5
514
Recommended Questions
It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid, It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac...
1
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Delete
13136
From the statements given below choose the option that are not true for a typical female gametophyte of a flowering plant: (i) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity (ii) It is cellular during the development (iii) It is situated inside the nucellus (iv) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end
5
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Recommended Questions
i and iv, ii and iii...
4
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13135
What is the correct sequence of the formation of female gametophyte in angiosperms?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Nucellus, megaspore tetrad, megaspore mother cell, megaspore, female gametophyte, Megaspore tetrad, nucellus, megaspore mother cell, megaspore, female gametophyte...
3
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13134
Egg apparatus consists of
5
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Recommended Questions
Central cell + egg cell, Synergids + polar nuclei + egg cell...
3
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13133
In the monosporic embryo sac of a flowering plant, the number of nuclei that get surrounded by cell walls and thus are organized into cells is:
5
514
Recommended Questions
5, 6...
2
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Delete
13132
The egg apparatus is made up of two _______ and one _______ at the _______ end of the embryo sac.
5
514
Recommended Questions
antipodals, egg cell, micropylar, synergids, egg cell, chalazal...
4
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13131
The number of mitotic generations required to form a mature embryo sac from megaspore in most of the flowering plants is
5
514
Recommended Questions
One, Two...
3
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13130
The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers of:
5
514
Recommended Questions
Aloe, Tomato...
4
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13129
In majority of angiosperms
5
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Recommended Questions
egg has a filiform apparatus, there are numerous antipodal cells...
3
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13128
Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into
5
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Recommended Questions
ovule, endosperm...
3
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13127
Which is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms?
5
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Recommended Questions
Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of division, Monosporic with three sequential mitotic divisions...
2
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13126
Megaspore mother cell differentiates from
5
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Recommended Questions
Nucellus in the micropylar region., Nucellus in the chalazal region....
1
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13125
Functional megaspore in Polygonum divides by free nuclear mitotic divisions and develops into 8 nucleated and 7 celled female gametophytes. The largest cell of this gametophyte is
5
514
Recommended Questions
Antipodal cell, Central cell...
2
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13124
Largest cell in embryo sac of angiosperm is
5
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Recommended Questions
Synergid cell, Egg...
4
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13123
Embryo sac is
5
514
Recommended Questions
megaspore, microgametophyte...
3
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13122
Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering plants is incorrect?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Ovules develop into an embryo sac, Ovary develops into fruit...
1
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13121
Match the following: 1 Male gametophyte I Embryo sac 2 Female gametophyte II Ovule 3 Megasporangium III Pollen grains 4 Microsporangium IV Pollen sacs
5
514
Recommended Questions
1-III; 2-I; 3-II; 4-IV, 1-I; 2-II; 3-III; 4-IV...
1
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Delete
13120
Which one of the following statements is not true?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Filiform apparatus present at the chalazal end of the synergies guides the entry of pollen tube, Pollen - pistil interaction is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed by promotion or inhibition of the pollen...
1
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Delete
13119
Choose the correct match with respect to angiosperm
5
514
Recommended Questions
Microsporanigum - ovule; Megasporangium - female gametophyte, Megasporangium - ovule; Embryo sac - female gametophyte...
2
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13118
In Polygonum type of embryo sac, polar nuclei
5
514
Recommended Questions
Are haploid, Can serve as a precursor of PEN...
4
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13117
Which among the following is not a feature of pistil?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Monocarpellary, Syncarpous...
3
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13116
In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis
5
514
Recommended Questions
occur in anther, form gametes without further divisions...
3
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13115
Formation of embryo sac from a single megaspore nuclei is termed as
5
514
Recommended Questions
Bishopric development, Monosporic development...
2
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13114
Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of
5
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Recommended Questions
generative cell, nucellar embryo...
4
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13113
The normal type of embryo sac is 8-nucleated and
5
514
Recommended Questions
8-celled, 7-celled...
2
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13112
Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of parts in an ovule is
5
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Recommended Questions
egg, nucellus, embryosac, integument, egg, embryosac, nucellus, integument...
2
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13111
From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the gynoecium:
5
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Recommended Questions
Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta, Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule...
1
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13110
Mark the wrong statement regarding egg apparatus
5
514
Recommended Questions
It is seven celled, It is found at the micropylar end of the ovule...
1
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13109
Gynoecium of Michelia and Papaver is similar in being
5
514
Recommended Questions
Apocarpous, Syncarpous...
4
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13108
Ovule generally differentiate a single ____ in the _____ region of the nucellus.
5
514
Recommended Questions
Megaspore mother cell, micropylar, Megaspore, micropylar...
1
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13107
The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to
5
514
Recommended Questions
megasporangium, megasporophyll...
1
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13106
Hilum represents the junction between
5
514
Recommended Questions
Funicle and nucellus, Ovule and funicle...
2
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13105
Find incorrect statement:
5
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Recommended Questions
A polycarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium is found in Michelia, Many ovules are present in an ovary of papaya and orchids...
4
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13104
The pistil of Papaver is:
5
514
Recommended Questions
Monocarpellary, Multicarpellary apocarpous...
3
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13103
Which one of the following statement is false in respect of flowering plants?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Parthenocarpy can be induced through the application of growth hormones, Integuments encircle the ovule except at the tip where a small opening called the germ pore is organized...
3
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13102
Recognise the diagram and choose the correct option:
5
514
Recommended Questions
Hibiscus, multicarpellary syncarpous pistil, Multicarpellary syncarpous pistil of papaver...
3
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13101
Identify A, B, C and D structures shown in above diagram of female gametophyte:
5
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Recommended Questions
Synergid, Polar nuclei, Central cell, Antipodal cells, Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Central cell, Synergids...
1
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13100
The stalk by which an ovule is attached to the placenta is called
5
514
Recommended Questions
Funicle, Hilum...
1
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13099
A, B, C, D in the following diagram respectively are:
5
514
Recommended Questions
Hilum, funicle, inner integument, micropyle, Hilum, funicle, outer integument, micropyle...
3
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13098
Match the Column-I with Column-II: Column-I A. Funicle B. Hilum C. Integument D. Chalaza E. Nucellus Column-II I. Mass of cells within ovule with more food II. Basal part of ovule III. One or 2 protective layers of ovule IV. Region where body of ovule fuses with funicle V. Stalk of ovule
5
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Recommended Questions
A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV, E - V, A - V, B - IV, C - III, D - II, E - I...
2
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13097
Which among the following is not a wall layer of microsporangium?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Endothecium, Nucellus...
2
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13096
A: Pollen grains carry the male gamete from microsporangium to micropyle of ovule in angiosperms. B: Pollen grain itself a male gamete further divides and form another one on stigma only.
5
514
Recommended Questions
Both A and B are correct, A is correct only...
4
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13095
Most abundant/common type of pollen tetrad is _______ and it is formed due to _______ cytokinesis.
5
514
Recommended Questions
Tetrahedral, successive, Tetrahedral, simultaneous...
2
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13094
Read the following statements carefully and select the correct a. Tapetum cells possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus b. Sporopollenin is absent in the areas called germ pore c. Generative cell is small, spindle shaped with a irregularly shaped nuclei d. Spindle of first mitosis in pollen is asymmetric
5
514
Recommended Questions
a,b,c & d, a,b & c...
4
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13093
How many statement(s) is/are correct for pollen grains? a. Parthenium is a cause of bronchial afflictions b. Intine exhibits fascinating array of patterns and designs c. Cytoplasm of pollen grain is surrounded by spermoderm d. Generative cell is present when pollens are shed in 40 percent plants.
5
514
Recommended Questions
One, Two...
1
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Delete
13092
Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of:
5
514
Recommended Questions
microspore, generative cell...
2
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Edit
Delete
13091
In what percent of angiosperms are the pollen grains shed at three cell stage?
5
514
Recommended Questions
20, 40...
2
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13090
The cell in the pollen grain which is responsible for giving rise to male gamete is
5
514
Recommended Questions
Rod shaped with dense cytoplasm, Of smaller size and float in the cytoplasm...
2
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Delete
13089
In the following figure identify the parts labeled as A and B and select the option stating true features of them.
5
514
Recommended Questions
Forms gametes, Smaller in size, Stores food reserve, Irregular shaped nucleus...
3
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13088
Arrange the following stages of microspore development into pollen grain, in correct sequence
5
514
Recommended Questions
b, c, d, and a, b, d, a and c...
2
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13087
Find the incorrect statements with respect to pollen grain in angiosperms plants a. Germ pores are areas in pollen wall where intine and sporopollenin are absent b. The vegetative cell is bigger, has abundant food reserves, and a large irregularly shaped nucleus c. The fascinating array of patterns and designs are exhibited by exine wall d. In over 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at 3-celled stage
5
514
Recommended Questions
c and d, a and d...
2
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13086
Following are four statements find out correct statements (i) Microsporangia has four layers, outer three are protective and inner one is nutritive (ii) Each cell of sporogenous tissue within microsporangia is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad. (iii) Dehydration of anther is important for separation of pollen grains in a tetrad. (iv) Generative cell in pollen grain is small with respect to vegetative cell and it floats in cytoplasm of vegetative cell.
5
514
Recommended Questions
All are correct, Only (i), (ii) and (iii) is correct...
1
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13085
Pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their release in the members of family
5
514
Recommended Questions
Rosaceae, Solanaceae...
3
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13084
The above diagram shows some stages in microgametogenesis. Identify A, B and C:
5
514
Recommended Questions
A: Symmetric spindle, B: Generative cell, C: Vegetative cell, A: Symmetric spindle, B: Vegetative cell, C: Generative cell...
3
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Delete
13083
The pollen grain represents
5
514
Recommended Questions
Male gamete, Male gametophyte...
2
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Edit
Delete
13082
Mark the wrongly matched pair
5
514
Recommended Questions
Amaranthus - Causes pollen allergy, Pollen banks - Store pollen at -196°C...
3
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Edit
Delete
13081
Which one of the following statements is not true?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and they are used in the form of tablets and syrups, Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people...
4
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Edit
Delete
13080
The inner wall of pollen grain:
5
514
Recommended Questions
Is thin, continuous and pecto-cellulosic and is called intine, Comes out in the form of pollen tube through germpore...
4
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Delete
13079
Which of the following statement is not correct for pollen grain? 1. It represents male gametophyte. 2. It is a spherical structure, about 25-50 micrometers in diameter. 3. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients. 4. In family rosaceae, leguminoseae and solanaceae pollen lose viability in 30 minute.
5
514
Recommended Questions
1 (2 %), 2 (5 %)...
4
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13078
What is the most common shape and size of pollen grain in angiosperms plants?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Spindle-shaped, 25-50 μm, Spherical, 2-5 μm...
3
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Delete
13077
Identify A, B and X: X contains two cells - A and B. B is bigger than A, it has abundant food reserve and large irregularly shaped nucleus. A is small and floats in the cytoplasm of B. It is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm and nucleus.
5
514
Recommended Questions
A: Vegetative cell, B: Generative cell, X: Pollen grain, A: Generative cell, B: Vegetative cell, X: Pollen grain...
2
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13076
The intine of the pollen grain is a:
5
514
Recommended Questions
Thick and discontinuous layer made of sporopollenin, Thick and continuous layer made of sporopollenin...
4
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Delete
13075
Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces
5
514
Recommended Questions
two sperms and a vegetative cell, single sperm and a vegetative cell...
1
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Delete
13074
Which is an incorrect statement? I. Each cell of sporogenous tissue in anther is capable of giving rise to microspore tetrad. II. The pollen grain represent male gametophyte III. Pollen grains are usually triangular and 10-15 um in diameter. IV. Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant organic materials which can be destroyed only by strong acids and alkali.
5
514
Recommended Questions
I, II are incorrect but III, IV are correct, III, IV are incorrect but I, II are correct...
2
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Delete
13073
The pollen grains are shed at two-celled stage in
5
514
Recommended Questions
80% angiosperms, 40% angiosperms...
4
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Delete
13072
Which one of the most common embryo sac in flowering plant?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Monosporic, 8 nucleated and 7 celled, Monosporic, 7 celled and 7 nucleated...
1
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Edit
Delete
13071
Pollen tablets are available in the market for
5
514
Recommended Questions
In vitro fertilisation, breeding programmes...
3
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Edit
Delete
13070
Which among the following is not true about pollen grain?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Rich in nutrients., Many species cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people often leading to chronic respiratory disorders– asthma, bronchitis, etc....
4
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Edit
Delete
13069
Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of:
5
514
Recommended Questions
-120 °C, -80 °C...
3
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Delete
13068
Which of the following has the least pollen viability?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Cereals like wheat and rice, Members of Rosaceae...
1
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Delete
13067
Fossilization of pollen grains is helped by
5
514
Recommended Questions
Compatible protein, Sporopollenin...
2
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Edit
Delete
13066
Which one of the following is resistant to enzyme action?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Cork, Wood fibre...
3
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Delete
13065
The viability of pollen grains depends upon:
5
514
Recommended Questions
Prevailing temperature, Prevailing humidity...
4
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13064
An organic substance that can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme is
5
514
Recommended Questions
cuticle, sporopollenin...
2
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Edit
Delete
13063
The pollen grains of rice and wheat lose their viability in ___ minutes of their release.
5
514
Recommended Questions
30, 10...
1
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Edit
Delete
13062
Pollen grains are able to withstand extremes of temperature and dessication because their exine is composed of
5
514
Recommended Questions
cutin, suberin...
3
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Edit
Delete
13061
The outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are respectively.
5
514
Recommended Questions
Endothecium and tapetum, Epidermis and endodermis...
4
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Delete
13060
During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in
5
514
Recommended Questions
endothecium, microspore mother cells...
2
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Edit
Delete
13059
What is the number of microsporangia in each lobe of an angiosperm anther?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Four, Two...
2
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Delete
13058
Complete the below given schematic representation by choosing the correct option.
5
514
Recommended Questions
Mitosis Microspore tetrad Meiosis, Mitosis Pollen grain Meiosis...
4
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13057
During microsporogenesis
5
514
Recommended Questions
Microspore tetrad is developed by meiosis in sporogenous tissue, Pollen grains are developed by mitosis in sporogenous tissue...
1
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Delete
13056
Read the statements and select option representing correct statements with respect to stamen. A. The distal end of filament is attached to thalamus. B. A typical anther is dithecous and bisporangiate. C. Connective is sterile vasculated tissue. D. Microsporangia develop further and become pollen sacs.
5
514
Recommended Questions
A & B, A & C...
4
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Delete
13055
Which among the following extend longitudinally to become pollen sac?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Microsporangia, Filament of anther...
1
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Delete
13054
The layers in the walls of the microsporangium that helps in the dehiscence of anther to release the pollen include:
5
514
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I, II, and III only...
2
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Delete
13053
All of the following statements are correct except:
5
514
Recommended Questions
The proximal end of the filament is attached to the thalamus or the petal of the flower., The anther is a four-sided structure consisting of four microsporangia, two in each lobe....
4
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Delete
13052
Which among the following is incorrect with respect to microsporogenesis?
5
514
Recommended Questions
The cells of the sporogenous tissue undergo mitotic divisions to form microspore tetrads., Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad. Each one is a potential pollen or microspore mother cell (PMC)....
1
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13051
Four statements are given below. How many of them are correct? (1) The anther is a tetragonal structure, with four microsporangia at corners, two in each lobe. (2) Microsporangia develops further and becomes a pollen sacs. (3) A typical microsporangia is surrounded by four layered wall, 3-protective and 1 nutritional. (4) The nutritive layer is densely cytoplasmic with more than one nucleus
5
514
Recommended Questions
3, 4...
2
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13050
Match the following: 1. Sporogenous tissue I Process of formation of microspores from PMC by meiosis 2. Microspore tetrad II Microspores arranged in cluster of four cells 3. Microsporogenesis III Formation of microspore tetrad by meiosis 4. Tapetum IV Nourishes pollen grains
5
514
Recommended Questions
1-III; 2-I; 3-II; 4-IV, 1-III; 2-II; 3-I; 4-IV...
2
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Delete
13049
Mark the incorrect statement
5
514
Recommended Questions
Outer three layers of anther wall are protective in function, Sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium...
3
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Delete
13048
Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts a, b, c and d. Correctly identify
5
514
Recommended Questions
Endothecium, Tapetum, Microspore mother cell, Middle layer, Tapetum, Endothecium, Microspore mother cell, Middle layer...
3
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Delete
13047
Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollens as fossils?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Pollen kit, Cellulosic intine...
4
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Delete
13046
The following is the diagram of T.S. of anther. Identify the parts labelled A, B and C.
5
514
Recommended Questions
A - Connective tissue, B - Pollen grains, C - Endothecium, A - Endothecium, B - Connective tissue, C - Pollen grains...
1
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Delete
13045
Microsporangium is generally surrounded by 4 wall layers. Which of the following 3 wall layers perform the function of protection and help in the dehiscence of anther to release the pollen?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Epidermis, tapetum, endothecium, Epidermis, aril, endothecium...
4
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Edit
Delete
13044
Which among the following statement is incorrect with respect to tapetum?
5
514
Recommended Questions
It nourishes developing pollen grains., It has dense cytoplasm....
4
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Edit
Delete
13043
When anther is young a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells are present in centre it is known as
5
514
Recommended Questions
Sporogenous tissue, Potential pollen mother cell...
3
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Edit
Delete
13042
What is the characteristic of tapetum?
5
514
Recommended Questions
It does not store food., It is multi-nucleated....
2
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Delete
13041
A typical anther shows a. Two lobes with two theca each b. Each lobe as dithecous c. All cells in a given microsporangium as potential PMC d. Thousands of microspores per microsporangium Out of these statements:
5
514
Recommended Questions
b is incorrect, a and b are correct...
4
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Delete
13040
A typical anther is (a) Tetrasporangiate (b) Tetragonal (c) Trilobed (d) Surrounded by four wall layers The correct ones are
5
514
Recommended Questions
Only (a), (b) and (d), Only (a) and (d)...
1
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13039
A typical angiosperm anther is dithecous which means that it is:
5
514
Recommended Questions
One lobed and the lobe has two theca, Two lobed and each lobe has two theca...
2
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Delete
13038
Match the column with respect to pollen grain: Column I a) Vegetative Cell Nucleus b) Germ Pore c) Exine Column II (i) Abundant Reserve Food & Irregular Nucleus (ii) Spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm (iii) Where the Sporopollenin is absent (iv) Variable Pattern & design (v) Continuous layer made up of Cellulose & pectin
5
514
Recommended Questions
a(iv), b(v), c(iii), a(i), b(iii), c(v)...
3
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Delete
13037
The cells of which of the following layers of the anther wall are multinucleated due to endomitosis?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Epidemis, Endothecium...
4
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Edit
Delete
13036
Which of the following statement is not associated with phenomenon of flowering?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Decision for flowering takes place much before actual flower appears., During flowering several structural and hormonal changes takes place...
4
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Edit
Delete
13035
A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed with each lobe having two theca i.e. dithecous. Theca is separated often by:
5
514
Recommended Questions
A longitudinal groove running lengthwise., A longitudinal groove running breadth wise....
1
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Edit
Delete
13034
In a stamen proximal end of filament is attached to
5
514
Recommended Questions
Anther., Thalamus or petals....
2
View
Edit
Delete
13033
The following figure represents:
5
514
Recommended Questions
Transverse section of young anther, 3-D cut section of mature anther...
1
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Edit
Delete
13032
Which one of the following statements is not true?
5
514
Recommended Questions
Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin, Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies...
4
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Edit
Delete
13031
The anther wall layer which is usually polyploid and has dense cytoplasm as well as high DNA content is
5
514
Recommended Questions
Endothelium, Tapetum...
2
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Edit
Delete
13030
122
5
513
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
13029
Most vital event of sexual reproduction is
5
513
Recommended Questions
Embryogenesis, Essential for the fusion of gametes...
2
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Delete
13028
Gametes are haploid. It signifies that
5
513
Recommended Questions
They cannot be formed without meiosis, They always have half the number of chromosomes than that of main plant body...
3
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Delete
13027
Gamete formation always occurs in (i) Sexual reproduction. (ii) Asexual reproduction. (iii) Parthenogenesis.
5
513
Recommended Questions
(i) only, (i), (ii), (iii)...
3
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13026
With respect to external fertilization, which of the following is not an advantage of internal fertilization?
5
513
Recommended Questions
A decreased risk of disease transmission, Minimal waste of gametes...
1
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Delete
13025
In angiosperms plants, embryogenesis
5
513
Recommended Questions
Refers to the process of development of zygote from embryo, Involves cell division and cell differentiation...
2
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Delete
13024
The most vital event of sexual reproduction is perhaps the fusion of gametes. This process called ________ results in the formation of a diploid ________.
5
513
Recommended Questions
Syngamy, Zygote, Fertilization, Zygote...
4
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13023
Statement A - In seed plants, both male and female gametes are non-motile. Statement B - In spermatophytes, pollen grains are the carrier of male gametes.
5
513
Recommended Questions
Only statement A is correct., Only statement B is correct....
4
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13022
Many mammals, especially in natural, wild conditions are:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Continuous breeders, Seasonal breeders...
2
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13021
Mark the odd one (with respect to zygote)
5
513
Recommended Questions
Formed in the water or inside the body of the organism, Develops a thick wall in all organisms...
2
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Delete
13020
The number of chromosomes in a meiocyte of the fruit fly is:
5
513
Recommended Questions
4, 8...
2
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Edit
Delete
13019
Read the following statements carefully a. Neelakuranji flowers once in 12 years b. In the majority of organisms, male and female gametes are motile c. During embryogenesis, the zygote undergoes mitosis and cell differentiation
5
513
Recommended Questions
All are correct, Only (b) is incorrect...
2
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13018
With respect to organisms exhibiting internal fertilization, organisms exhibiting external fertilization show:
5
513
Recommended Questions
More variations, Great synchrony between sexes...
2
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13017
Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of
5
513
Recommended Questions
antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant, stamen and carpel on the same plant...
4
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13016
In animals exhibiting internal fertilization:
5
513
Recommended Questions
There is high synchrony between the two sexes, The chances of desiccation of the embryo is high...
3
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Delete
13015
Which one of the following plant does not show dioecious condition:-
5
513
Recommended Questions
Marchantia, Papaya...
4
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13014
Male and female flowers are present on same plant in all of these, except
5
513
Recommended Questions
Cucurbits, Coconuts...
4
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13013
The most critical event in sexual reproduction is:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Gametogenesis, Gamete transfer...
3
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Delete
13012
Parthenogenesis is the development of an organism directly from:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Female gametes, Vegetative cells...
1
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13011
Algae and fungi resort to sexual reproduction because
5
513
Recommended Questions
It is more rapid form of propagation, Zygote as with its thick wall make them able to withstand unfavourable conditions...
2
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13010
If the gametes are similar in their appearance they are called as
5
513
Recommended Questions
Anisogametes, Isogametes...
4
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13009
Development of zygote into individuals of the new generation
5
513
Recommended Questions
Depends on the type of life cycle the organism has and the environment to which has and the environment it is exposed to, Is independent of the environment to which the organism is exposed...
1
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13008
Identify gametes (A, B and C) respectively:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Heterogametes, isogametes, Homogametes, Isogametes, homogametes, heterogametes...
4
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13007
Which of the following is false about internal fertilization? I. Male gamete is motile II. Male gametes are non-motile III. Male gametes are produced in large number IV. Male gametes are produced in small number V. There is a significant reduction in the number of eggs produce VI. In seeded plants non-motile male gametes are carried to female gamete by pollen tubes
5
513
Recommended Questions
I, III, V, VI, III, IV...
3
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13006
Rotifers:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Exhibit adult reproductive structures in juvenile phase, Are plants that can be both monoecious or dioecious...
4
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13005
Isogametes are seen in:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Cladophora, Fucus...
1
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Edit
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13004
Select the correct sequence of events.
5
513
Recommended Questions
Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell division (Cleavage) → Cell differentiation → Organogenesis, Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell division (Cleavage) → Organogenesis → Cell differentiation...
1
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13003
Development of zygote taking place outside the body is called?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Viviparous, Oviparous...
2
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13002
Small aquatic animals produce large number of gametes in surrounding water
5
513
Recommended Questions
to enhance the chances of syngamy, to produce large number of offspring...
4
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Delete
13001
Match Column I with column II and select the correct option using the codes given below:
5
513
Recommended Questions
A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1, A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3...
4
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13000
Examine the figure (A-D) given below and select the right option out of 1-4, in which all the four structures A, B, C, and D are identified correctly:
5
513
Recommended Questions
A: Runner, B: Archegoniophore, C: Synergid, D: Antheridium, A: Offset, B: Antheridiophore, C: Antipodals, D: Oogonium...
2
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12999
Identify A and B
5
513
Recommended Questions
A- Antheridium, B-Oogonium, A-Oogonium, B- Antheridium...
2
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12998
Identify A and B
5
513
Recommended Questions
A-Archegoniphore, B-Anthediophore, A-Anthediophore, B-Archegoniphore...
1
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Delete
12997
In most of the aquatic algae, syngamy occurs in the external medium. In this condition
5
513
Recommended Questions
Organism shows great synchrony between the sexes, The small number of gametes and produced...
1
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Edit
Delete
12996
Zoospore is
5
513
Recommended Questions
Formed by the fusion of two gametes, Flagellated and motile structure...
2
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Delete
12995
Which structure provides surface for the settlement of pollen grains in angiosperm plants?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Anther, Style...
3
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Delete
12994
Which are the various stages of sexual reproduction?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Growth, Development, Differentiation, Pre fertilization, Fertilization, Post fertilization...
2
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12993
Reptiles and birds are:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Oviparous, Viviparous...
1
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12992
Embryogenesis refers to the process of development of an embryo from the zygote. During embryogenesis in humans, zygote undergoes
5
513
Recommended Questions
Mitosis, Cell differentiation...
4
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Delete
12991
Development of a new individual from a single gamete without fusion with another gamete is called
5
513
Recommended Questions
Parthenocarpy, Sporophytic budding...
3
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Edit
Delete
12990
The most vital event of sexual reproduction is
5
513
Recommended Questions
Fusion of gametes, Gamete formation...
1
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Edit
Delete
12989
________ is formed just after fertilization.
5
513
Recommended Questions
Morula, Blastula...
3
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12988
Select the correct sequence from the following:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Gametogenesis → Syngamy → Zygote → Embryogenesis, Gametogenesis → Syngamy → Embryogenesis → Zygote...
1
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Delete
12987
Read the following statements Statement A: Reproduction enables continuity of the species, generation after generation Statement B: Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of species between organisms of one generation and the next. Choose the correct option.
5
513
Recommended Questions
Both the statements are incorrect, Only statement A is correct...
4
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12986
In which of the following, gametes are released in the surrounding medium
5
513
Recommended Questions
Fishes, Amphibians...
4
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12985
Which of the following structure represents vital link between two successive generations?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Spore mother cell, Zygote...
2
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12984
I: Zoospores are the most common asexual reproductive structures in algae. II: Algae and fungi always require water for fertilization always.
5
513
Recommended Questions
Both I & II are correct and II is the correct explanation of I, Both I & II are correct but the II is not the correct explanation of I...
3
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12983
Clear-cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent phase are not found in
5
513
Recommended Questions
Annual plants, Biennial plants...
3
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12982
Natural parthenogenesis occur in
5
513
Recommended Questions
Housefly, Drosophila...
3
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Edit
Delete
12981
Flowers are unisexual in?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Pea, Cucumber...
2
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Delete
12980
All organisms have to reach a certain stage of growth and maturity in their life, before they can reproduce sexually. That period of growth
5
513
Recommended Questions
Is called the juvenile phase, not vegetative phase, Is called the vegetative phase, not the juvenile phase...
3
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12979
When both male and female flowers are present on the same plant, then plant is said to be:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Bisexual, Monoecious...
2
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12978
Identify the correctly matched pair:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Asexual reproductive structure in Chlamydomonas - Zygospores, Vegetative propagule in Agave - Offset...
4
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Edit
Delete
12977
In the life span of which group of plants, vegetative, reproductive and senescent are clearly distinct?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Annual plants, Biennial plants...
4
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Delete
12976
Juvenile phase or vegetative phase is related with all, except
5
513
Recommended Questions
It is pre-reproductive phase in the life cycle of an individual, It is the period of growth...
4
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Delete
12975
In which set of organisms does external fertilization occur
5
513
Recommended Questions
Echinodermata and mosses, Hemichordata and ferns...
3
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12974
Sexual reproduction in different animals involves formation of gametes by
5
513
Recommended Questions
Same individual if hermaphrodite, By different individuals of the opposite sex...
4
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Delete
12973
"All organisms have to reach a certain stage of maturity and growth, before they can reproduce sexually". How many of the following is true for above statement? (I) It is known as juvenile phase. (II) It is known as vegetative phase in plants. (III) It is of different duration in different organisms. (IV) It is of same duration in different organisms.
5
513
Recommended Questions
4, 3...
2
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12972
Meiosis occurs in
5
513
Recommended Questions
Megaspore, Meiocyte...
2
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12971
A: All organisms have to reach a certain stage of growth and maturity in their life, before they can reproduce sexually. B: Male and female gametes must be physically brought together to facilitate syngamy.
5
513
Recommended Questions
A - correct B - incorrect, Both A and B are correct...
2
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12970
Select the odd one with respect to sexual reproduction.
5
513
Recommended Questions
Can be uniparental or biparental, Is slow...
4
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Edit
Delete
12969
Every sexually reproducing organism, including human beings begin life as a _______ called zygote.
5
513
Recommended Questions
Single cell, Double cell one from each parent...
1
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Delete
12968
Hermaphrodite animal is
5
513
Recommended Questions
Leech, Spider...
1
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Delete
12967
In which of the following mammal Oestrus cycle is absent:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Cow, Horse...
3
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12966
Which of the following statement is correct?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Strobilanthus Kunthinan flowers once in 12 years, Formation of the diploid embryo is universal in all sexually reproducing organisms...
1
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Delete
12965
The females of placental mammals exhibit cyclical changes in the activities of ovaries and accessory ducts as well as hormones during the reproductive phase. In non-primate mammals it is known as
5
513
Recommended Questions
Oestrus cycle, Menstrual cycle...
1
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Delete
12964
Birds like turkey undergo _______ to produce offspring.
5
513
Recommended Questions
Sexual reproduction, Asexual reproduction...
3
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Delete
12963
Vegetative phase in plants is same as _________ in animal.
5
513
Recommended Questions
Sexual phase, Juvenile phase...
2
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Edit
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12962
Sexual reproduction is
5
513
Recommended Questions
Fast and simple process, Slow and simple process...
4
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Edit
Delete
12961
Which one of the following generates new genetic combinations leading to variation?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Vegetative reproduction, Parthenogenesis...
3
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Edit
Delete
12960
Product of sexual reproduction generally generates
5
513
Recommended Questions
longer viability of seeds, prolonged dormancy...
3
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Edit
Delete
12959
Which of the following flowers only once in its lifetime?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Bamboo species, Jackfruit...
1
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Edit
Delete
12958
Select incorrect statement with respect to life span. a. It is the period from the reproductive phase to the senescent phase. b. Life spans of organisms are not necessarily correlated with their sizes. c. No individual is immortal, whether single-celled or multi-celled. d. The life span of banana tree is 25 years.
5
513
Recommended Questions
a & d, a & b...
3
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12957
These are two statements related to sexual reproduction: (I) In both plants and animals, hormones are responsible for the transitions between the three phases. (II) Interaction between hormones and certain environmental factors regulate the reproductive processes and the associated behavioural expressions of organisms.
5
513
Recommended Questions
Both (I) and (II) is correct, Only (I) is correct...
1
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Delete
12956
Life span of an organism
5
513
Recommended Questions
Does not include the phase of senescence, Is not necessarily correlated with body size of organism...
2
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Edit
Delete
12955
Mark the correct statement (with respect to reproduction)
5
513
Recommended Questions
A biological process to produce new offsprings, Enables the continuity of the species, generation after generation...
4
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Edit
Delete
12954
Life span of parrot is
5
513
Recommended Questions
140 years, 60 years...
1
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Edit
Delete
12953
Some organisms are considered to be immortal such as
5
513
Recommended Questions
Amoeba, Drosophila...
1
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Edit
Delete
12952
Which of the following is a false statement?
5
513
Recommended Questions
All organisms have evolved similar mechanism to multiply and produce offsprings, Asexual reproduction is uniparental...
1
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Edit
Delete
12951
There are various types of reproduction. The type of reproduction adopted by an organism depends on:
5
513
Recommended Questions
The habitat and morphology of the organism, Morphology of the organism...
4
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Delete
12950
In biological world each organism has evolved its own mechanism of reproduction, which depends upon? 1. Habitat 2. Internal physiology 3. Size of organism 4. Both 1 and 2
5
513
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
12949
Find out the incorrect option:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Bulbil-Agave, Rhizome-Ginger...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12948
The whole plant can be developed vegetatively in Agave form a propagule like
5
513
Recommended Questions
Rhizome, Corm...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12947
Eichhornia crassipes
5
513
Recommended Questions
Multiplies rapidly wherever there is running water, Propagates vegetatively with the help of suckers...
4
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Edit
Delete
12946
Common vegetative propagule, capable, of giving rise to new individuals in Agave is
5
513
Recommended Questions
Leaf bud, Bulbil...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12945
Water hyacinth is also known as 'terror of Bengal' because it
5
513
Recommended Questions
Releases saxitoxin, Drains O₂ from the running water...
3
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Edit
Delete
12944
Rhizomes are commonly used in vegetative propagation of
5
513
Recommended Questions
Water hyacinth, Bryophyllum...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12943
Select the incorrect match with respect to vegetative propagules
5
513
Recommended Questions
Eyes - potato, Rhizome - Ginger...
4
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Edit
Delete
12942
Match correctly with respect to mode of propagation 1. Adventitious bud - Potato tuber 2. Offset - Lotus 3. Seed - Cereal 4. Rhizome - Terror of Bengal
5
513
Recommended Questions
1 (48 %), 2 (11 %)...
3
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Delete
12941
Identify the correct match Column I 1. Grasses 2. potato 3. Crocus 4. Agave Column II - Runners - Rhizome - Tuber - Bulb
5
513
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12940
In vegetative propagation, when the _____ come in contact with damp soil or water, they produce roots and new plants.
5
513
Recommended Questions
Shoot, Node...
2
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Edit
Delete
12939
Water hyacinth is one of the most invasive weeds primarily because:
5
513
Recommended Questions
It gets adapted to any fresh water body easily, It produces secondary metabolites against herbivores...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12938
Which type of stem modification is seen in banana?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Stem tuber, Bulb...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12937
Identify the labels A, B and C in the given diagram
5
513
Recommended Questions
Tuber, Germinating eye bud, Eyes, Bulb, Node, Eyes...
1
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Edit
Delete
12936
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Offspring produced by asexual reproduction is called clone, Microscopic motile asexual reproductive structures are called zoospores...
3
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Edit
Delete
12935
Select the odd one with respect to asexual reproduction
5
513
Recommended Questions
Need of both male and female parents, Produces a number of individuals...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12934
Which among the following is immortal
5
513
Recommended Questions
Sea algae, Amoeba...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12933
Identify the structure
5
513
Recommended Questions
Conidia, Penicillium...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12932
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
5
513
Recommended Questions
a, b...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12931
Binary fission is a type of
5
513
Recommended Questions
Nuclear fragmentation, Vegetative propagation...
4
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Edit
Delete
12930
Term 'vegetative reproduction' is frequently used in
5
513
Recommended Questions
Plants, Monerans...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12929
Consider the following statements (a-d) about 'terror Bengal' a. An aquatic plant which can propagate vegetatively at a phenomenal rate b. One of the most invasive weeds growing in standing water c. It drains oxygen from water which leads to the death of fishes d. It was introduced in Bengal because of its beautiful flowers and shape of fruits Which of the above statements are correct?
5
513
Recommended Questions
b & d, a & d...
4
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Delete
12928
Identify X
5
513
Recommended Questions
Stem, Runner...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12927
Select the incorrect match
5
513
Recommended Questions
Penicillium - conidia, Chlamydomonas - Zoospore...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12926
The vegetative propagule of Bryophyllum is:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Bulbil, Leaf buds...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12925
Gemmule formation is a common mode of asexual reproduction in
5
513
Recommended Questions
Paramecium, Hydra...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12924
Non-flagellate spores are called conidia. In which organism they are seen?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Penicillium, Hydra...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12923
Clones cannot be obtained from
5
513
Recommended Questions
Rhizome, Tuber...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12922
No individual is immortal except:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Single celled organisms, Green plants...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12921
Asexually produced organism inheriting all the character of parent is
5
513
Recommended Questions
Offspring, Clone...
2
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Edit
Delete
12920
Leaves of which of the following plants are involved in vegetative reproduction?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Opuntia, Potato...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12919
Match column I with column II and select the correct option
5
513
Recommended Questions
a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii), a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)...
3
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Edit
Delete
12918
Individuals of a clone:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Are genetically similar but morphologically different, Are morphologically similar but genetically different...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12917
Asexual reproduction does not involve the formation of
5
513
Recommended Questions
Buds, Zygote...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12916
Select the incorrect match.
5
513
Recommended Questions
Bacteria - Binary fission, Yeast - Budding...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12915
Ginger is vegetatively propagated through:
5
513
Recommended Questions
Rhizome, Bulbil...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12914
In ginger vegetative propagation occurs through:
5
513
Recommended Questions
rhizome, offsets...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12913
Examine the figures A, B, C and D. in which one of the four options, all the labels for A, B, C and D are correct?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Chlamydospore, Corm, Phylloclade, Zoosporangia, Conidia of Aspergillus, Onion bulb, Sucker, Chlamydospore...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12912
An aquatic plant which is commonly known as 'Terror of Bengal', can propagate vegetative by ________ and its also called ________
5
513
Recommended Questions
Offsets, Water hyacinth, Offsets, Water lettuce...
1
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Edit
Delete
12911
Which of the following is not vegetative propagule?
5
513
Recommended Questions
Rhizome and sucker, Tuber and offset...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12910
Mark the mis-matched pair
5
513
Recommended Questions
Polycarpic plants - Recovery phase, Offset - Water hyacinth...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12909
What is true in the given figure?
5
513
Recommended Questions
The plant concerned is Chara and A is Oogonium and B is Antheridium, The plant concerned is Chara and B is Oogonium and A is Antheridium...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12908
Inhibitory substances in dormant seeds cannot be removed by subjecting seeds to:
5
512
Recommended Questions
Gibberellic acid, Nitrate...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12907
Plant growth promoters are not involved in
5
512
Recommended Questions
Cell division, cell enlargement, Pattern formation, seed formation...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12906
Which of the following is not a natural mean to remove seed coat?
5
512
Recommended Questions
Microbial action, Passage through Digestive tract...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12905
Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?
5
512
Recommended Questions
Abscisic acid, Phenolic acid...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12904
How many of the following can help in breaking seed dormancy? 1. Changing the environmental condition like light & temperature. 2. Application of GA₃ or nitrates. 3. Chilling condition. 4. All the above
5
512
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12903
Read following statements and answer in suitable term given in option: a. The promotion of flowering by a period of low temperature b. Hormonal substance migrates from leaves to shoot for inducing flowering c. The general metabolic activity of the embryo slow down or in inactive state d. Formation of separation layer between tissue
5
512
Recommended Questions
Photoperiodism, vernalisation, abscission layer, dormancy, Vernalisation, photoperiodism, dormancy, abscission layer...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12902
Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are formed due to
5
512
Recommended Questions
Cell division, Cell differentiation...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12901
The formation of interfascicular cambium in plants is due to:
5
512
Recommended Questions
Non-differentiation, Re-differentiation...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12900
Monocarpic plants are those which
5
512
Recommended Questions
bear flowers with one ovary, flower once and die...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12899
The spring varieties are normally planted in......and come to flower and produce grain......
5
512
Recommended Questions
Autumn season, after the end of growing season, Spring season, at the end of growing season...
3
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Edit
Delete
12898
What conditions are required for vernalisation in plants?
5
512
Recommended Questions
Low temperature, CO₂., Low temperature, O₂, leaf....
4
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12897
Vernalization is the process of
5
512
Recommended Questions
flower induction by high temperature treatment, inhabitation of flowering by low temperature treatment...
4
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12896
Winter varieties resume their growth in
5
512
Recommended Questions
Spring, Summer...
1
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Delete
12895
Which of the following does not has two kinds of varieties?
5
512
Recommended Questions
Wheat, Radish...
2
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12894
Vernalisation prevents
5
512
Recommended Questions
Precocious reproductive development late in growing season, Late reproductive development...
1
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12893
Winter varieties should be planted in
5
512
Recommended Questions
Winter, Autumn...
2
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12892
Vernalisation stimulates flowering in
5
512
Recommended Questions
Zamikand, Turmeric...
3
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Delete
12891
All the following plants are biennials except:-
5
512
Recommended Questions
Sugarbeet, Cabbages...
4
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12890
Flowering can be affected in certain plants
5
512
Recommended Questions
by quantitative exposure to low temperature, by qualitative exposure to low temperature...
3
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12889
The photoperiod in plants is perceived at
5
512
Recommended Questions
meristem, flower...
4
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12888
With respect to photoperiodism, the short day plant, the long day plant and day neutral plant are represented respectively by:
5
512
Recommended Questions
A, B and C, B, A and C...
2
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12887
Which of the following is the site for perception of light/dark in plants?
5
512
Recommended Questions
Root apex, Shoot apex...
3
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12886
For the induction of flowering, some plants require a
5
512
Recommended Questions
Periodic exposure to light, Continuous exposure to light...
1
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12885
Refer the given figures on photoperiodism and select the correct option.
5
512
Recommended Questions
no correlation between light period and flowering, long light-exposure period, short light-exposure period, long light-exposure period, no correlation between light period and flowering, short light-exposure period...
3
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12884
A physiological response of plants to the duration of light and darkness is a:
5
512
Recommended Questions
daily phase cycle, circadian rhythms...
4
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12883
Phototropism is firstly studied by
5
512
Recommended Questions
Charles Darwin and his son Francis Darwin, Charles Darwin and his friend Francis Darwin...
1
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12882
When there is no such relation between exposure to light duration and induction of flowering response such plants are called
5
512
Recommended Questions
Long day plants, Short day plants...
3
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12881
If a plant needs exposure of light more than a well defined critical period for flowering, it would be called as-
5
512
Recommended Questions
Long day plants, Short day plants...
1
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12880
If a plant needs exposure of light less than a defined period for flowering, such plant is called
5
512
Recommended Questions
Long day plants, Short day plants...
2
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Edit
Delete
12879
Match the Following: Column I A. IAA B. ABA C. Ethylene D. GA E. Cytokinin Column II 1. Herring sperm DNA. 2. Bolting 3. Stomatal closure 4. Weed-free lawns 5. Ripening of fruits. Codes
5
512
Recommended Questions
A-4, B-3, C-5, D-2, E-1, A-5, B-3, C-4, D-2, E-1...
1
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12878
The term synergistic action of hormones refers to
5
512
Recommended Questions
When two hormones act together but bring about opposite effects., When two Hormones act together and contribute to the same function....
2
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Delete
12877
ABA acts as antagonistic to
5
512
Recommended Questions
ethylene, cytokinin...
3
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Edit
Delete
12876
Bud dormancy is induced by:-
5
512
Recommended Questions
ABA, ethylene...
1
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Edit
Delete
12875
Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids?
5
512
Recommended Questions
Indole-butyric acid, Indole-3-acetic acid...
4
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Delete
12874
Identify the incorrect statement about ABA growth regulator.
5
512
Recommended Questions
It increases the tolerance of plants against different stresses., It acts as general plant growth inhibitor and inhibitor of metabolism....
4
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Delete
12873
Abscisic acid is known as the stress hormone because it
5
512
Recommended Questions
breaks seed dormancy, induces flowering...
4
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12872
In most situations, which of the following acts as an antagonist to GAs?
5
512
Recommended Questions
ABA, IAA...
1
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12871
Which of the following is not ABA?
5
512
Recommended Questions
Inhibitor-B, Abcission II...
4
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12870
Ethylene is used for
5
512
Recommended Questions
retarding ripening of tomatoes, the hastening of ripening of fruits...
2
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Delete
12869
The phytohormone which promotes rapid internode elongation in deep water rice plant is
5
512
Recommended Questions
Gibberellins, Ethylene...
2
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12868
A. ______ hormone is most widely used PGR in agriculture. B. ______ hormone is related with Richmond Lang effect.
5
512
Recommended Questions
A: Auxin, B: CK, A: Auxin, B: GA...
3
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12867
The PGR used to initiate flowering and for synchronizing fruit-set in pineapples is:
5
512
Recommended Questions
Abscisic acid, Cytokinin...
4
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Delete
12866
Plant growth regulator, which promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs, is also related to which of the following physiological effects?
5
512
Recommended Questions
Thinning of cotton, cherry, and walnut, Overcome apical dominance...
1
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Delete
12865
Thinning of cotton and promotion of femaleness in cucumber are physiological effects of PGR which
5
512
Recommended Questions
Helps of withstand desiccation conditions and is antagonistic to GAs, Increases the market period of fruits by delaying senescence...
3
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12864
Match the following: Column A: (i) Auxin, (ii) Gibbrelic Acid, (iii) Cytokinin, (iv) Ethylene; Column B: (a) Brewing industry, (b) Xylem differentiation, (c) Fruit ripening, (d) Overcome Apical dominance
5
512
Recommended Questions
(i) (b), (ii) (a), (iii) (d), (iv) (c), (i) (a), (ii) (b), (iii) (c), (iv) (d)...
1
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12863
Which of the following hormones is common in both the categories of plant promoter and plant inhibitor?
5
512
Recommended Questions
GA, ABA...
4
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12862
Which of the following is wrong?
5
512
Recommended Questions
ABA is Growth inhibiting regulator, Ethylene could fit either of the groups, inhibitors and activators....
4
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Delete
12861
Ethephon hastens the fruit ripening in tomatoes and apple and accelerates abscission in flowers and fruits. Above statement indicates that ethephon must release -
5
512
Recommended Questions
ABA, C₂H₄...
2
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12860
Cousins confirmed the release of a volatile substance from ripened oranges that
5
512
Recommended Questions
Hastened the ripening of already ripened bananas, Hastened the ripening of unripened banana...
2
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Edit
Delete
12859
C₂H₄ or Ethylene are...... or derivative of....
5
512
Recommended Questions
Indol compounds, Gases...
2
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Edit
Delete
12858
The effect of apical dominance can be overcome by which of the following hormone?
5
512
Recommended Questions
IAA, Ethylene...
4
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Edit
Delete
12857
Coconut water contains
5
512
Recommended Questions
ABA, auxin...
3
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Delete
12856
Find the incorrect statement. F. Skoog and his co-workers observed that
5
512
Recommended Questions
Callus proliferated only if Auxin is there, Callus proliferated only if Auxin + extracts of vascular tissue was there...
1
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12855
Kinetin (cytokinin) was first discovered as a breakdown product of
5
512
Recommended Questions
DNA, t-RNA...
1
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Edit
Delete
12854
Cytokinin does not help in:
5
512
Recommended Questions
Lateral shoot growth, Overcoming apical dominance...
4
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12853
Natural cytokinins are synthesized in tissue that are:-
5
512
Recommended Questions
senescent, dividing rapidly...
2
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Delete
12852
You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?
5
512
Recommended Questions
IAA and gibberellin, Auxin and cytokinin...
2
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12851
N6-furfurylamino purine and kinetin are derivative of ……
5
512
Recommended Questions
Indol compounds, Adenine...
2
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Edit
Delete
12850
Select the correct match
5
512
Recommended Questions
Auxin - Promote seed dormancy, Cytokinin - Overcoming apical dominance...
2
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12849
Cytokinesis promoting substance was crystallised by
5
512
Recommended Questions
Skoog and Darwin, Skoog and Miller...
2
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12848
Kinetin term was used for.....by...
5
512
Recommended Questions
Cytokinins, Darwin, Cytokinin, Skoog And Miller...
2
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12847
To increase sugar production in sugarcanes, they are sprayed with
5
512
Recommended Questions
IAA, cytokinin...
3
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Edit
Delete
12846
Gibberellic acid is a/an:-
5
512
Recommended Questions
Indole compound, Terpene...
2
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Edit
Delete
12845
Early seed production in... can be done by GAs
5
512
Recommended Questions
Pineapple, Grapes...
4
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12844
Which of the following statements is correct?
5
512
Recommended Questions
All GAs are basic, All GAs are Acidic...
2
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12843
Foolish Seedling- Find the odd one.
5
512
Recommended Questions
Bakane, Disease of Rice seedlings...
3
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Edit
Delete
12842
In order to increase the yield of sugarcane crops, which of the following plant growth regulators should be sprayed?
5
512
Recommended Questions
Ethylene, Auxins...
3
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12841
In which of the following options the PGR is correctly matched with its two functions?
5
512
Recommended Questions
Abscisic acid - (i) Induce immediate stomatal closure in leaves. (ii) Induce rooting is a twig., Gibberellins - (i) Bolting in rosette plant. (ii) Speed up the malting process in brewing industry....
2
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Delete
12840
Which of the following statements about plant hormones is false?
5
512
Recommended Questions
The growth of plants in nature is probably regulated by a combination of growth-stimulating and growth-inhibiting hormones., Abscisic acid generally promotes growth....
2
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12839
Find the wrong match.
5
512
Recommended Questions
F. W. Went - Oat seedlings, Charles Darwin - Canary Grass...
4
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12838
E. Kurosawa
5
512
Recommended Questions
Reported the appearance of symptoms of the disease in rice seedlings, In 1926...
4
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Delete
12837
In the process of apical dominance, lateral buds are unable to grow in the presence of apical bud. This is due to:
5
512
Recommended Questions
less amount of cytokinins in lateral buds, more amount of cytokinins in lateral buds...
3
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Delete
12836
In a flowering plant if auxins are not synthesizing, then effects which would most probably be seen in this plant are
5
512
Recommended Questions
i, ii and iv, i, iii and iv...
2
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Delete
12835
It takes a very long time for pineapple plants to produce flowers. Which combination of hormones can be applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple plants throughout the year to increase yield?
5
512
Recommended Questions
Cytokinin and Abscisic acid, Auxin and Ethylene...
2
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12834
For tea plantations, hedge-making, which of the following PGR is used?
5
512
Recommended Questions
Auxins, Cytokinins...
1
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Delete
12833
Auxins Find the odd one.
5
512
Recommended Questions
Initiate rooting in stem cuttings, Promote flowering e.g. Pineapples...
4
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Delete
12832
Removal of shoot tips is a very useful technique to boost the production of tea leaves. This is because:
5
512
Recommended Questions
Gibberellins prevent bolting and are inactivated., Auxins prevent leaf drop at early stages....
3
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Delete
12831
Which of the given hormones is used to produce parthenocarpic or seedless banana and tomatoes?
5
512
Recommended Questions
Auxin, Cytokinin...
1
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Delete
12830
21
5
512
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
12829
In most higher plants, the growing apical bud inhibits the growth of... or axillary buds, a phenomenon called...
5
512
Recommended Questions
Lateral, lateral Dominance, Lateral, Apical Dominance...
2
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12828
Plant Growth Regulators (PGRs) are not
5
512
Recommended Questions
Very less in number in plants, Small and simple molecules...
1
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Delete
12827
Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of
5
512
Recommended Questions
Cytokinins, ethylene...
3
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Edit
Delete
12826
Here arrows indicate
5
512
Recommended Questions
Source of Auxin, Direction of bending...
3
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Edit
Delete
12825
The Discovery of PGRs
5
512
Recommended Questions
Four discovery were accidental one was with a planned experiment, Three discovery were accidental Two were with a planned experiment...
4
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Delete
12824
.........is the site of transmittable influence that caused the bending of the entire.........
5
512
Recommended Questions
Coleorrhiza, Coleoptile...
2
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12823
In the living plant body, the PGRs can be broadly divided into two groups. This classification is actually based on
5
512
Recommended Questions
Function, Structure...
1
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12822
Internodal segments of tobacco stems, the callus is actually
5
512
Recommended Questions
An undifferentiated cell, A mass of differentiated cell...
3
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Delete
12821
One of the synthetic auxin is
5
512
Recommended Questions
NAA, IAA...
1
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Delete
12820
Auxin means
5
512
Recommended Questions
To escape, To slow...
3
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Delete
12819
The application of synthetic plant hormone like IAA, IBA and NAA are best described as:
5
512
Recommended Questions
prevent early fruit fall before harvesting and is used to produce parthenocarpic fruit, prevent early fruit fall only...
1
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Delete
12818
This picture suggests that
5
512
Recommended Questions
Tip of the coleorhiza is the source of Auxin, Tip of coleoptile is the source of Auxin...
2
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Delete
12817
Auxin was isolated by
5
512
Recommended Questions
F. W. Went, Charles Darwin...
1
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Edit
Delete
12816
Plasticity in plant growth means that
5
512
Recommended Questions
plant roots are extensible, plant development is dependent on the environment...
2
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Delete
12815
Heterophyllous development due to environment is an example of:-
5
512
Recommended Questions
Developmental noise, Norm of the reaction...
4
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12814
The typical growth curve in plants is:
5
512
Recommended Questions
sigmoid, linear...
1
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Delete
12813
Growth can be measured in various ways. Which of these can be used as parameters to measure growth?
5
512
Recommended Questions
increase in cell number, increase in cell size...
4
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Delete
12812
Consider the following statements regarding growth in plants - I: Cell enlargement requires water. II: Oxygen helps in releasing metabolic energy for growth activities. III: Nutrients are required for synthesis of protoplasm and act as source of energy. Which of the above statements are true?
5
512
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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12811
The growth of a root elongating at a constant rate will be represented by:
5
512
Recommended Questions
A only, B only...
1
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12810
At the root apex the cells of the meristematic region are not characterized by:-
5
512
Recommended Questions
Being rich in protoplasm, Abundant plasmodesmatal connections...
4
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Delete
12809
193
5
511
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
12808
The granular endoplasmic reticulum is not associated with which of the following functions?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Synthesis of secretory as well as non-secretory proteins, Synthesis of non-secretory proteins...
3
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Delete
12807
SER and RER can be distinguished with its presence in
5
511
Recommended Questions
protein synthesising cells, protein and fat synthesising cells...
4
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Delete
12806
A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzyme is:
5
511
Recommended Questions
lysosome, microsome...
1
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Delete
12805
Eukaryotic cells contain
5
511
Recommended Questions
70 'S' ribosomes, 70 'S' and 80 'S' ribosome...
2
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Edit
Delete
12804
Inclusion bodies of blue-green, purple, and green photosynthetic bacteria are:
5
511
Recommended Questions
Contractile vacuoles, Gas vacuoles...
2
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Delete
12803
Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in
5
511
Recommended Questions
mitochondria, chromoplast...
3
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Delete
12802
Which of the following are not membrane-bound?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Vacuoles, Ribosomes...
2
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Edit
Delete
12801
Choose the incorrectly matched pair.
5
511
Recommended Questions
Contractile vacuole - Excretion., SER - Steroidal hormones synthesis....
4
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Delete
12800
Cilia and flagella in a eukaryotic cell
5
511
Recommended Questions
Are motile at base, Are made of 20 microtubules...
2
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Delete
12799
Mark the incorrect statement
5
511
Recommended Questions
All the cell organelles perform different & specific function., Basal body of cilia & flagella in prokaryotes is formed by cytoskeleton....
2
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Delete
12798
Find the incorrect statement:
5
511
Recommended Questions
Plastids found in plant cells and in euglenoids., Golgi apparatus is site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids....
4
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Delete
12797
Select the correct statement with respect to axoneme of eukaryotic flagella. 1. It is composed of 9 peripheral triplet microfibrils of tubulin proteins. 2. It does not have covering of plasma membrane. 3. Central tubules are enclosed by a central sheath. 4. It gives rise to spindle apparatus during cell division.
5
511
Recommended Questions
It is composed of 9 peripheral triplet microfibrils of tubulin proteins., It does not have covering of plasma membrane....
3
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Delete
12796
Cilia and flagella resemble in the
5
511
Recommended Questions
Microtubular structure, Presence of basal granules...
4
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Delete
12795
The diagram below is a diagrammatic representation showing
5
511
Recommended Questions
Section of a centriole, A cartwheel 9 + 0 structure of microtubular organisation...
3
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Delete
12794
Both cilium and flagellum arise from the part which is structurally similar to
5
511
Recommended Questions
Centriole, Kinetochore...
1
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Delete
12793
Mark the correct statement about centriole.
5
511
Recommended Questions
Forms basal body, Found in higher plant cells...
1
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Delete
12792
Which of the following is true about centrioles?
5
511
Recommended Questions
It lacks microtubule in the centre, Hub is proteinaceous...
4
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Delete
12791
Which of the following is true about centrosome
5
511
Recommended Questions
membraneless organelle, contains two centrioles...
4
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Delete
12790
Which of the following is not a part of the cytoskeleton?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Microtubule, Microfilament...
4
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Delete
12789
Cytoskeleton is made up of
5
511
Recommended Questions
calcium carbonate granules, callose deposits...
4
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Delete
12788
Which of the following are the functions of cytoskeleton?
5
511
Recommended Questions
mechanical support, motility...
4
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Edit
Delete
12787
Select the wrong statement about eukaryotic cells.
5
511
Recommended Questions
They have well defined nucleus, Possess 70S ribosomes...
4
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Edit
Delete
12786
The contractile vacuole
5
511
Recommended Questions
is present in Amoeba, helps in osmoregulation...
4
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Edit
Delete
12785
Select the correct match
5
511
Recommended Questions
70 'S' ribosome - Bacterial mesosome, Cytoskeleton - Lipoproteins...
3
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Edit
Delete
12784
Chromatin contains
5
511
Recommended Questions
DNA, histone protein, basic non-histone protein, dsRNA, DNA, basic histone protein, non-histone protein, RNA...
2
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Edit
Delete
12783
A chromosome carrying the centromere at one of the ends is called
5
511
Recommended Questions
acentric, submetacentric...
3
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Edit
Delete
12782
Chromatin can be stained with
5
511
Recommended Questions
Basic dyes, neutral dyes...
1
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Edit
Delete
12781
Which of the following is true about chromosome
5
511
Recommended Questions
nucleoprotein, 23 pairs in single human diploid cell...
4
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Edit
Delete
12780
Disc-shaped proteinaceous structure associated with centromere is called
5
511
Recommended Questions
Kinetochore, Secondary constriction...
1
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Edit
Delete
12779
The spherical structures present in the nucleoplasm
5
511
Recommended Questions
Has contents continuous with the rest of the nucleoplasm., Is a membrane bound structure...
1
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Edit
Delete
12778
A nuclear pore allows
5
511
Recommended Questions
Unidirectional movement of DNA, RNA movement only...
3
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Delete
12777
The organelles formed by the process of packaging in the golgi apparatus is
5
511
Recommended Questions
Double membrane organelle., Possess single circular DNA molecule...
3
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Delete
12776
Lysosomal enzymes act at
5
511
Recommended Questions
Basic pH, Acidic pH...
2
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Edit
Delete
12775
Which of the following statement are correct:-
5
511
Recommended Questions
Lysosome contain a hydrolytic enzyme which acts in pH= 5, Glycosylation complete in the Golgi body....
4
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Edit
Delete
12774
Which of the following is true for lysosomes
5
511
Recommended Questions
membrane bound vesicles, formed by golgibody...
4
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Delete
12773
A number of proteins synthesized by ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum are modified in the _____ of the Golgi apparatus before they are released from its trans face
5
511
Recommended Questions
Tubules, Vesicles...
3
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Edit
Delete
12772
Find out the incorrect match
5
511
Recommended Questions
Lysosome - Intracellular scavenging, Golgi complex - Metabolism of xenobiotics...
2
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Edit
Delete
12771
Vesicles from ER fuse with
5
511
Recommended Questions
Maturing face of Golgi body, Forming face of Golgi body...
2
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Edit
Delete
12770
Choose incorrect match
5
511
Recommended Questions
Chloroplast - Thylakoid, Golgi bodies - Cristae...
2
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Edit
Delete
12769
Select the incorrect statement with respect to Golgi apparatus
5
511
Recommended Questions
The cis and trans faces of the organelle are similar but interconnected, The Golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged near the nucleus...
1
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Delete
12768
Which of the following is the correct sequence / route of the secretory product?
5
511
Recommended Questions
ER → Vesicles → Cis region of GB → Trans region of GB → Vesicle → Plasma membrane., RER → GB → Lysosome → Nuclear membrane → Plasma membrane....
1
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Delete
12767
Which cell organelle principally performs the function of packaging materials, to be delivered either to the intra-cellular targets or secreted outside the cell?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Rough endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus...
2
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Delete
12766
Which of the following statement is true for a secretory cell?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Golgi apparatus is absent, Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily observed in the cell....
2
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Edit
Delete
12765
Which of the following organelles is not correctly matched with its feature?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum - Synthesis of steroidal hormones in animals, Golgi apparatus - Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids...
3
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Delete
12764
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to endomembranous system?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Found only in eukaryotes., The organelle of this system function in coordinated manner....
4
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Delete
12763
ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles are included in endomembrane system because:-
5
511
Recommended Questions
Their function are similar, Their structure are same...
3
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Edit
Delete
12762
The endomembrane system of the cell includes
5
511
Recommended Questions
ER + Golgi body + Mitochondria, ER + Golgi body + Vacuole + Microtubules...
3
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Edit
Delete
12761
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs all the functions, except
5
511
Recommended Questions
Production of glycoprotein., Synthesis of lipid....
1
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Delete
12760
Plastid differs from mitochondria on the basis of one of the following features. Mark the right answer.
5
511
Recommended Questions
Presence of two layers of membrane, Presence of ribosome...
3
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Delete
12759
The stain used to visualise mitochondria is
5
511
Recommended Questions
fast green, safranin...
4
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12758
Both chloroplast and mitochondria show similarity in
5
511
Recommended Questions
Presence of DNA with more AT, Presence of 70s ribosome...
4
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12757
Chloroplast differs from mitochondria in
5
511
Recommended Questions
Having circular DNA and 70S ribosomes, Phase of division or duplication during cell cycle...
4
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12756
The outer as well as inner membrane of mitochondria
5
511
Recommended Questions
Form a number of infoldings towards the matrix, Both have a similar amount of cardiolipin...
4
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12755
Which of the following is true about mitochondria except
5
511
Recommended Questions
Semi-autonomous organelle, Compartmentalisation is present...
3
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12754
Choose the correct statements – I. Mitochondria and Chloroplast transfer energy. II. Mitochondrion is a power-house of cell as it produces most of the cellular ATP. III. Mitochondria and chloroplast are found in all eukaryotic cells. IV. Mitochondria are the sites of anaerobic respiration. V. The matrix of mitochondria posses a single linear DNA, many RNA molecules, 80S ribosomes.
5
511
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IV and V, I, II...
2
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12753
In the given diagram of chloroplast, enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins are located in:
5
511
Recommended Questions
A, B...
4
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12752
Fat soluble pigments like xanthophylls are present in:
5
511
Recommended Questions
Chromoplasts, Aleuroplasts...
1
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12751
Select the incorrect match
5
511
Recommended Questions
Elaioplast - Oil and fats storage, Amyloplast - Carbohydrate storage...
4
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12750
Integral or Peripheral proteins classification is based on
5
511
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protein size, ease of extraction...
2
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12749
In human beings, the membrane of erythrocyte has
5
511
Recommended Questions
Approximately 40% proteins and 52% lipids, Cephalin on the outer side and lecithin on the inner side...
3
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12748
Mark the incorrect statement related to cell wall (a) Non-living rigid structure (b) Present in fungi and plants (c) Provides barriers to undesirable macromolecules (d) Primary wall is capable of growth (e) Primary wall gradually diminishes as the cells matures
5
511
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a, b, d, d only...
4
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12747
Which of the following cell wall comes early and disappears gradually in the life of plant?
5
511
Recommended Questions
primary cell wall, secondary cell wall...
1
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12746
Thin, amorphous, and cementing layer between two adjacent cells, is
5
511
Recommended Questions
Primary wall, Middle lamella...
2
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12745
Select the incorrect match
5
511
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Palade particle – Ribosome, Flagella – Cell movement...
3
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12744
How many of the following kingdoms are eukaryotic (monera, protista, fungi, plante, Animalia)
5
511
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5, 4...
2
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12743
Prokaryotic mesosomes do not help in:
5
511
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Cell wall formation, DNA replication...
4
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12742
Which of the following is true
5
511
Recommended Questions
bacterial flagella is made up of flagellin protein, bacterial pili is made up of pilin protein...
4
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12741
Identify the accurate explanation of mesosome. It is
5
511
Recommended Questions
a specialised structure of prokaryotic cell formed by extension of plasma membrane into the cytoplasm, the middle layer of the prokaryotic cell wall...
1
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12740
Which of the following is true about Inclusion bodies
5
511
Recommended Questions
membraneless, present freely in cytoplasm...
4
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12739
In prokaryotes, ribosomal RNAs
5
511
Recommended Questions
As well as proteins are synthesized in cytoplasm, Are synthesized in the nucleolus while proteins in cytoplasm...
1
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12738
Which of the following is incorrect match
5
511
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bacillus- rod like, coccus-comma shaped...
2
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12737
Which of the following sequence is correct with respect to size?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Viruses > Bacteria, Eukaryotic cell > Bacteria > PPLO > Viruses...
2
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12736
Nerve cell is
5
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Recommended Questions
largest and branched, longest and branched...
2
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12735
Which one is incorrect
5
511
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Mycoplasmas are greater than bacteria, largest isolated cell is ostrich egg...
1
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12734
Cell theory formulated by Schleiden and Schwann does not explain which one of the following features?
5
511
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Organisms are composed of cells and their products, All cells are basically alike in their structure and metabolism...
3
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12733
Which one of the following is incorrect statement
5
511
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All organisms are composed of cells, Cell is the basic unit of life...
3
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12732
Cell theory was proposed by
5
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a botanist, a zoologist...
3
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12731
Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms because:
5
511
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Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living., The metabolic reactions can only occur inside a living cell....
1
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12730
Which of the following statements are correct? a. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is frequently observed in the cells actively involved in protein synthesis. b. Proteins that are to be used outside the cell are synthesized on free ribosomes. c. In the eukaryotic cell there is an extensive compartmentalization of cytoplasm through the presence of membrane-bound organelles d. ER is found prominently in human eggs and sperms.
5
511
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All are correct, b & d...
4
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12729
Choose the correct option with respect to function of the cell organelles
5
511
Recommended Questions
Protein synthesizes, mRNA synthesis...
4
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12728
Which of the following synthesizes proteins for export?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Free ribosomes, SER...
4
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12727
Examine the figure given below and select the part correctly matched with its function/structure
5
511
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Part (A): Ribosome-made up of 30S and 50S subunits, Part (C): RER - principally performs the function of packaging materials...
4
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12726
All the following are the part of a eukaryotic cell endomembranous system except:
5
511
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Vacuole, Lysosome...
4
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12725
Match the following columns and select the correct option: Column I: (a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, (b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, (c) Golgi complex, (d) Centriole. Column II: (i) Protein synthesis, (ii) Lipid synthesis, (iii) Glycosylation, (iv) Spindle formation.
5
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(b) (i), (c) (iii), (a) (ii), (d) (iv), (c) (iii), (i) (ii), (iv) (i)...
1
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12724
The endomembrane system of a eukaryotic cell does not include:
5
511
Recommended Questions
Endoplasmic reticulum, Lysosome...
4
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12723
Select the correct matching in the following pairs.
5
511
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Smooth ER—Oxidation of phospholipids, Smooth ER—Synthesis of lipids...
2
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12722
Cellular organelles with membranes are
5
511
Recommended Questions
nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria, chromosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum...
4
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12721
Select which one is not true for ribosome
5
511
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Made up of two sub-units, Form polysome...
4
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12720
What is true about ribosomes?
5
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The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80 S, where S stands for sedimentation coefficient, These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins...
2
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12719
Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes?
5
511
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Phosphate granule, Cyanophycean granule...
4
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12718
DNA is not present in:
5
511
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chloroplast, ribosomes...
2
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12717
Polysome is formed by
5
511
Recommended Questions
several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA, many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum...
1
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12716
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Polysome, Polyhedral bodies...
1
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12715
Identify the correct statement regarding the part of a cell, the structure of which is shown in the given diagram:
5
511
Recommended Questions
It is not found in the plant cells, It serves to provide an attachment with a surface for a bacterial cell...
4
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12714
A centriole-like structure, from which the cilium and the flagellum emerge, is the:
5
511
Recommended Questions
Centrosome, Basal body...
2
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12713
The arrangement of outer and central microtubules in a cilium is called the:
5
511
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9 + 1 pattern, 9 + 0 pattern...
4
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12712
The motile bacteria are able to move by
5
511
Recommended Questions
fimbriae, flagella...
2
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12711
Match the following and select the correct answer: Column I (a) Centriole (b) Chlorophyll (c) Cristae (d) Ribozymes Column II (i) Infoldings in mitochondria (ii) Thylakoids (iii) Nucleic acids (iv) Basal body of cilia or flagella
5
511
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A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii, A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii...
1
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12710
94
5
511
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
12709
A non-membrane bound organelle found exclusively in animal cells is:
5
511
Recommended Questions
Sphaerosome, Glyoxisome...
4
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12708
Which of the following is not a function of cytoskeleton in a cell?
5
511
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Intracellular transport, Maintenance of cell shape and structure...
1
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12707
Microtubules are the constituents of
5
511
Recommended Questions
spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia, centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin...
1
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12706
What is a tonoplast?
5
511
Recommended Questions
outer membrane of mitochondria, inner membrane of mitochondria...
3
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12705
Read the statements carefully and select the set of correct statements
5
511
Recommended Questions
All except b, a & c...
4
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12704
Which of the following is true for vacuole
5
511
Recommended Questions
It is present in both plants and animals, Central vacuole is present in plant...
4
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12703
In plant cell the concentration of ions is more in
5
511
Recommended Questions
cytoplasm, vacuoles...
2
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12702
Select the mismatch.
5
511
Recommended Questions
Gas vacuoles — Green bacteria Cells, Large central vacuoles — Animal cells...
2
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12701
Vacuole in a plant cell:
5
511
Recommended Questions
is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids, is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances...
2
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12700
Which of the following pair of organelles does not contain DNA?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria, Mitochondria and Lysosomes...
4
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12699
The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by
5
511
Recommended Questions
mitochondria, vacuoles...
2
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12698
The membrane of vacuole is called
5
511
Recommended Questions
plasma membrane, tonoplast...
2
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12697
Which of the following stain is not used for staining chromosomes?
5
511
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Basic fuchsin, Safranin...
2
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12696
Kinetochores are associated with
5
511
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Outer part of primary constriction, Centromere in its inner central part...
1
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12695
The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are
5
511
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metacentric, acrocentric...
2
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12694
Match the columns and identify the correct option.
5
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A → (iv), B → (iii), C → (i), D → (ii), A → (iii), B → (iv), C → (i), D → (ii)...
2
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12693
Few chromosome have non-staining secondary constrictions at a constant location, also known as:-
5
511
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Cristae, Satellite...
2
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12692
Which of the following organelles contain DNA? (i) Mitochondria (ii) Chloroplasts (iii) Golgi bodies (iv) Ribosomes
5
511
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(i) and (ii), (ii) and (iii)...
1
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12691
The content of the nucleolus is continuous with nucleoplasm
5
511
Recommended Questions
Through microtubules, Through nuclear pores...
3
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12690
Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in the nucleus, are the sites for active synthesis of:
5
511
Recommended Questions
protein, mRNA...
3
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12689
The given diagram represents the four different structures which one of these is correct containing material and function:
5
511
Recommended Questions
Nucleolus NOR Synthesis of rRNA for formation of 80 S Ribosome, Nuclear Pore Chromatin Exchange material between cytoplasm and nucleoplasm...
1
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12688
The outer membrane of the nucleus: I. is continuous with the Endoplasmic reticulum II. does not bear ribosomes.
5
511
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Only I is correct, Only II is correct...
1
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12687
Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in
5
511
Recommended Questions
lysosomes, nucleolus...
2
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12686
Which organelle is extensive and continuous with the outer membrane of the nucleus?
5
511
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Golgi complex, ER...
2
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12685
Consider the following statements: I: In animal cells, lipid like steroidal hormones are synthesized in SER. II: Golgi apparatus is the important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids. III: Lysosomes carry alkaline hydrolases. Which of the above statements are true?
5
511
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I and II only, I and III only...
1
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12684
Which of the following statements is not correct?
5
511
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Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum., Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes...
1
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12683
Lysosomes are membrane-bound vesicular structures and are very rich in
5
511
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DNAs, proteases, and lipases, Enzymes optimally active at the basic pH...
3
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12682
Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Chloroplasts, Lysosomes...
2
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12681
Select the features which are common for both ER and Golgi apparatus.
5
511
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Only (B), Only (B) and (C)...
2
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12680
Which of the following cell organelle is closely associated with ER & helps in formation of plasma membrane during cytokinesis?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Centrosome, Sphaerosomes...
3
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12679
The cis and trans faces of the Golgi Apparatus are:
5
511
Recommended Questions
Similar but not interconnected, Similar and interconnected...
3
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12678
The Golgi complex participates in?
5
511
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Fatty acid breakdown, Formation of secretory vesicles...
2
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12677
The Golgi complex plays a major role:
5
511
Recommended Questions
in trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy, in digesting proteins and carbohydrates...
4
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12676
Select the incorrect statement(s) with respect to functions of various cellular components a. Middle lamella works as glue to hold the adjacent cells together. b. Mitochondria, chloroplast and vacuoles are part of the endomembrane system as their functions are coordinated. c. Lipoidal steroid hormones are synthesized by ER component which is not associated to 80 S ribosomes.
5
511
Recommended Questions
Only b, Only a...
1
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12675
In the given diagram, what is true for both A and B?
5
511
Recommended Questions
They are involved in protein synthesis, They synthesize steroidal hormones in animal cells...
3
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12674
Which of the following statement is correct for the given diagram?
5
511
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'C' possesses DNA molecule, RNA molecule and 80 S ribosomes, 'A' and 'B' have their own specific enzymes...
2
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12673
Unless specifically stained by a vital stain like Janus Green, which of the following will not be visible under a microscope?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Rough endoplasmic reticulum, Smooth endoplasmic reticulum...
4
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12672
The two types of cellular organelles that transform energy are:
5
511
Recommended Questions
Chromoplasts and Leucoplasts, Mitochondria and Chloroplasts...
2
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12671
Select the wrong statement from the following:
5
511
Recommended Questions
both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane, both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane...
2
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12670
Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Nucleoid, Ribosomes...
4
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12669
The following are true about mitochondria except
5
511
Recommended Questions
easily visualised under microscope without staining, It's number in the cell depends on the physiological activity of the cell...
1
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12668
Which of the following is present in matrix of mitochondria
5
511
Recommended Questions
ribosomes, RNA...
4
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Delete
12667
Which one of the following has its own DNA?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Mitochondria, Dictyosome...
1
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12666
For the sectional view of chloroplast which is given below. Choose the correct statement
5
511
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Envelope possess fully permeable membranes, 'B' possess the enzymes required for protein and carbohydrates synthesis...
2
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12665
Carotenoid pigments are found in: I. Chloroplasts II. Chromoplasts III. Leucoplasts
5
511
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Only I, Only I and II...
2
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12664
Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane?
5
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Camillo Golgi, Schleiden and Schwann...
3
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12663
Read the following statements carefully A. Lipid component of the plasma membrane mainly consists of phosphoglycerides. B. Polar molecules can pass through the lipid bilayer of plasma membrane, therefore they do not require carrier proteins to facilitate their transport. C. Secondary wall is capable of growth and it is formed on the outer side of the cell D. Quasi fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall lipid bilayer of plasma membrane E. Middle lamella glues the different neighbouring cells together How many statements are incorrect?
5
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Three, Five...
4
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12662
The ability to move within the membrane is measured as its
5
511
Recommended Questions
liquidity, fluidity...
2
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12661
The fluid nature of the membrane is also important from the point of view of functions like
5
511
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cell growth, secretion...
4
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12660
Fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane was given by
5
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Robertson, Robert Hooke...
3
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12659
Which of the following statement is not true for plasma membrane?
5
511
Recommended Questions
It is present in both plant and animal cell., Lipid is present as a bilayer in it....
4
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12658
For the fluid mosaic model of membrane given by Singer and Nicolson, which of the following conditions are not associated?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Lipids enable the lateral movement of proteins in the membrane, Fluid nature of membrane helps in secretion...
4
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12657
Which of the following is the largest constituent of the membrane of the erythrocyte in human beings and is also responsible for performing most of the functions of the membrane?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Protein, Lipid...
1
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12656
The tail of the phospholipid molecule:
5
511
Recommended Questions
is hydrophilic and composed of phosphate, is hydrophilic and composed of saturated hydrocarbons...
3
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12655
Neutral solutes directly pass through the lipid bilayer of plasma membrane because
5
511
Recommended Questions
Plasma membrane has special carrier for them, They are lipid soluble...
2
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12654
According to fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane the quasifluid nature of
5
511
Recommended Questions
Protein enables lateral movement of lipids within in the overall bilayer, Lipid and protein enable the lateral movement of carbohydrates...
3
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12653
The ability of proteins to move laterally within the overall bilayer lipid molecules of plasma membrane is measured as its
5
511
Recommended Questions
Stability, Thickness...
4
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12652
The plasma membrane consists mainly of
5
511
Recommended Questions
phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer, proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer...
2
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12651
Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Cholesterol, Glycolipids...
3
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12650
Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane.
5
511
Recommended Questions
Na⁺ and K ions move across cell membrane by passive transport, Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane...
4
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12649
Which of the following is not true of a eukaryotic cell?
5
511
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Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycans, It has 80S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm...
1
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Delete
12648
Who concluded, based on his studies on plant tissues, that the presence of cell wall is a unique character of plant cells?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Mathias Schleiden, Theodor Schwann...
2
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12647
Algae have cell wall made up of
5
511
Recommended Questions
cellulose, galactans and mannans, hemicellulose, pectins and proteins...
1
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12646
Find out the incorrect statement
5
511
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Middle lamella is mainly made up of Ca-pectate, Cell wall is formed from inner side therefore secondary wall formed before primary wall...
2
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12645
Middle lamella is mainly composed of
5
511
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hemicellulose, muramic acid...
3
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12644
Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Plasmodesmata, Plastoquinones...
1
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12643
Which of the following features is common to prokaryotes and many eukaryotes?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Chromatin material present, Cell wall present...
2
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12642
A common characteristic feature of plant sieve tube cells and most mammalian erythrocytes is
5
511
Recommended Questions
absence of mitochondria, presence of cell wall...
4
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12641
Which of the followings are common to plant cell and animal cell? (Peroxisome, nucleolus, lysosome, plasmodesmata, microvilli, microtubule)
5
511
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6, 5...
3
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12640
Which one of the following structure is an organelle within an organelle?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Ribosome, Peroxysome...
1
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12639
Which of the following four cell structures is correctly matched with the accompanying description?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Plasma membrane - Outer layer of cellulose or chitin, or absent, Mitochondria - Bacteria like elements with inner membrane forming sacs containing chlorophyll, found in plant cells and algae...
4
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12638
Match column I with column II. Column I (a) Golgi apparatus (b) Lysosomes (c) Vacuoles (d) Ribosomes Column II (i) Synthesis of protein (ii) Trap waste and excretory products (iii) Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids (iv) Digesting biomolecules Choose the right match from the options given below:
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(a) (iii) (b) (iv) (c) (ii) (d) (i), (a) (iv) (b) (iii) (c) (i) (d) (ii)...
1
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12637
Which one of these is not a eukaryote?
5
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Recommended Questions
Euglena, Anabaena...
2
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12636
Eukaryotic cells considered as more efficient than prokaryotic cells, due to -
5
511
Recommended Questions
compartmentalisation of cytoplasm, Infolding of membrane...
1
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Delete
12635
Which of the following is not true about plasmid
5
511
Recommended Questions
extra chromosomal DNA, give unique genotypic characters to bacteria...
4
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12634
Chromatophores are:
5
511
Recommended Questions
present in liopolysaccharide layer of gram negative bacteria, colored pigments present in fluorescent bacteria...
4
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12633
Select the wrong statement.
5
511
Recommended Questions
Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan, Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells...
2
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Delete
12632
Which of the following cell organelle is absent in prokaryotic cell?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Ribosome, Lysosome...
4
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Delete
12631
Bacterial flagellum is composed of
5
511
Recommended Questions
Basal body, axoneme and centrosome, Basal body, hook and filament...
2
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12630
The size of Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organism (PPLO) is:
5
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Recommended Questions
0.02 μm, 1-2 μm...
4
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12629
Prokaryotic cells have something unique in the form of:
5
511
Recommended Questions
Inclusion bodies, Plasmids...
1
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Edit
Delete
12628
In 70S, S is
5
511
Recommended Questions
sedimentation coefficient, indirect measure of density and size...
4
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Delete
12627
Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are
5
511
Recommended Questions
heterocysts, basal bodies...
4
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Delete
12626
Which of the following structure is not found in a prokaryotic cell?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Nuclear envelope, Ribosome...
1
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Edit
Delete
12625
Cell envelope in bacteria consists of
5
511
Recommended Questions
Plasma membrane only, Plasma membrane and mesosome...
4
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Edit
Delete
12624
Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?
5
511
Recommended Questions
Bacillus, Pseudomonas...
3
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Delete
12623
Different cells have different sizes. Given are the following cells: I. Mycoplasma II. Ostrich eggs III. Human RBC IV. Bacteria The correct ascending order of their size of the cells given above will be:
5
511
Recommended Questions
I, IV, III, II, I, I, III, IV...
1
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Edit
Delete
12622
The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is
5
511
Recommended Questions
plasma membrane, mitochondrion...
3
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Delete
12621
The organelle common among prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell is
5
511
Recommended Questions
centrosome, ribosome...
2
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Delete
12620
Who first explained that new cells are formed from pre-existing cells
5
511
Recommended Questions
Theodor Schwann, Rudolf Virchow...
2
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12619
The concept of "Omnis cellula-e-cellula" regarding cell division was first proposed by:
5
511
Recommended Questions
Aristotle, Rudolf Virchow...
2
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Delete
12618
Identify the cell organelles labelled as A, B, C and D. Mark the correct option with respect to organelle and its function.
5
511
Recommended Questions
A - Major site for synthesis of lipid., B - Performs the function of packaging materials, to be delivered to only intracellular targets....
4
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Delete
12617
Choose incorrect statement
5
511
Recommended Questions
Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a living cell, Robert Brown discovered cell...
2
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Delete
12616
Choose incorrect statement regarding cells
5
510
Recommended Questions
Mycoplasma, the smallest cell, is only 0.3 μm in length while bacteria could be 3 to 5 μm, Hemoglobin associated human cells are about 7 μm in diameter...
3
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Edit
Delete
12615
When we peel the skin of a potato tuber, we remove
5
510
Recommended Questions
Periderm, Epidermis...
1
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Delete
12614
The periderm includes:
5
510
Recommended Questions
Secondary phloem, Cork...
4
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Edit
Delete
12613
In the given diagram, which is not related with (A) as indicated in the diagram?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Complimentary cells., Involved in the exchange of gases....
4
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Delete
12612
Bark refers to all the tissues
5
510
Recommended Questions
External to vascular cambium, External to cork cambium...
1
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Delete
12611
Which of the following characters is/are related to isobilateral leaf? (a) Stomata are present on both surfaces. (b) Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma. (c) Sub-stomatal cavity is present below the stoma of the abaxial epidermis.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Only (a), Only (c)...
1
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12610
The isobilateral leaf is characterized by all the given characteristics, except
5
510
Recommended Questions
Vascular bundles are always closed, Xylem is towards the adaxial surface of leaf...
4
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Edit
Delete
12609
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
5
510
Recommended Questions
Dicot root - Parenchymatous conjunctive tissue between xylem and phloem, Monocot root - Polyarch xylem bundles and well-developed pith...
3
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Delete
12608
Bulliform cells are associated with
5
510
Recommended Questions
The epidermis of dorsiventral leaves, The adaxial epidermis of isobilateral leaves...
2
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12607
The number of stomata are ______ on upper and ______ lower surface in monocot leaf
5
510
Recommended Questions
more, less, less, more...
3
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12606
In grasses leaves are exposed when bulliform cells becomes ________ and leaves curl inwards when they are ________
5
510
Recommended Questions
flaccid, turgid, plasmolysed, turgid...
3
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Delete
12605
Which is the correct set of options with respect to the following?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Dicot stem - Differentiated ground tissue. Monocot stem - Endarch xylem. Dicot leaf - Isobilateral leaf. Monocot leaf - Dorsiventral leaf., Dicot stem - Scattered vascular bundle. Monocot stem - Arranged vascular bundle. Dicot leaf - Amphistomatic. Monocot leaf - Hypostomatic....
3
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Edit
Delete
12604
The stomata are equally distributed on both the surfaces of the epidermis in
5
510
Recommended Questions
Dorsiventral leaf, Dicot stem...
3
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Edit
Delete
12603
Select incorrect statement with respect to the anatomy of monocot stem
5
510
Recommended Questions
Parenchymatous ground tissue is extended from hypodermis to center, Hypodermis is made of thick-walled living mechanical tissue...
2
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Delete
12602
Which type of cavity is present within the vascular bundles of monocot stem
5
510
Recommended Questions
air cavity, water cavity...
2
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Edit
Delete
12601
In monocotyledonous stem
5
510
Recommended Questions
Hypodermis is parenchymatous, Each vascular bundle is surrounded by collenchymatous bundle sheath...
4
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Delete
12600
Conjoint, collateral, closed vascular bundles without phloem parenchyma are found in plants which have
5
510
Recommended Questions
Differentiated ground tissue in the stem, Dedifferentiated pericyclic structure in the mature root...
3
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Delete
12599
The hypodermis of the monocot stem is made up of
5
510
Recommended Questions
collenchyma, sclerenchyma...
2
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Edit
Delete
12598
Monocot stems do not have
5
510
Recommended Questions
Protophloem, Phloem parenchyma...
2
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Delete
12597
Water containing cavities in the vascular bundle is a characteristic feature of
5
510
Recommended Questions
Dicot roots, Monocot stems...
2
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Edit
Delete
12596
Water containing cavities in the vascular bundle is a characteristic feature of
5
510
Recommended Questions
Dicot roots, Monocot stems...
2
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12595
A conjoint and open vascular bundle will be observed in the transverse section of
5
510
Recommended Questions
Monocot root, Monocot stem...
4
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12594
Read the following statements about dicot stem and choose the correct option. (a) Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring. (b) Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open type. (c) Endarch type of arrangement of secondary xylem.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Only (b) is correct, Only (c) is incorrect...
4
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12593
The endodermis is absent or indistinct in the:-
5
510
Recommended Questions
Roots of all plants, Leaves of pteridophytes...
2
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12592
Well developed pith is present in
5
510
Recommended Questions
Dicot stem, monocot root, Monocot stem, dicot root...
1
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12591
The cortex of dicot stem has been divided into
5
510
Recommended Questions
hypodermis, General cortex, Endodermis, hypodermis, General cortex, pericycle...
1
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Edit
Delete
12590
Hypodermis in dicot stem is composed of
5
510
Recommended Questions
Parenchyma, Collenchyma...
2
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12589
The type of vascular bundle in dicot stem is -
5
510
Recommended Questions
open, conjoint with endarch protoxylem, open, conjoint with exarch protoxylem...
1
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Delete
12588
Which of the following function is performed by pericycle of dicot root?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Lateral root formation., Lateral meristem formation....
4
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Delete
12587
Protoxylem lies towards periphery and metaxylem lies towards the centre. Such arrangement of _____ xylem is present in ______.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Secondary, root, Primary, stem...
4
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Delete
12586
Select incorrect statement with respect to anatomical features of monocot root.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Pericycle produces lateral roots and part of vascular cambium, Exodermis is present in older roots...
1
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Delete
12585
Which of the following is not possible in monocot root?
5
510
Recommended Questions
primary growth, secondary growth...
4
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12584
The conjunctive tissues lie between the
5
510
Recommended Questions
Xylem and phloem, Pericycle and Endodermis...
1
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12583
Monocot root differs from dicot root in
5
510
Recommended Questions
Having differentiated ground tissue, Presence of centripetal xylem...
4
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12582
The number of xylem bundles in monocot root is
5
510
Recommended Questions
2 to 6, less than 2...
3
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Edit
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12581
In monocot root the pith present is
5
510
Recommended Questions
small or inconspicuous, large and well developed...
2
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Delete
12580
In roots, the Protoxylem lies toward ________ and Metaxylem lies toward the ______ respectively.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Periphery, centre, Centre, periphery...
1
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12579
All tissue except __________ constitute the ground tissue.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Epidermis, Vascular bundles...
3
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12578
Some vascular bundles are described as open because these:
5
510
Recommended Questions
are not surrounded by pericycle, are surrounded by pericycle but no endodermis...
3
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Delete
12577
In dicot stem the vascular bundle is:-
5
510
Recommended Questions
Conjoint, open and with exarch protoxylem., Conjoint, open and with endarch protoxylem....
2
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Edit
Delete
12576
Closed vascular bundles lack:
5
510
Recommended Questions
Ground tissue, Conjuctive tissue...
3
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12575
In which of the following pairs of parts of a flowering plant is epidermis absent?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Root tip and shoot tip, Shoot bud and floral bud...
1
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Delete
12574
Read the following statements with respect to pericycle and choose the suitable option (a) It is the outermost portion of stele, that may be paranchymatous or sclerenchymatous. (b) It is absent in monocot stems. (c) It is always single layered.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Only (a) is correct, Only (b) is incorrect...
3
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12573
Which of the following statements is not true for stomatal apparatus?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Inner walls of guard cells are thick, Guard cells invariably possess chloroplasts and mitochondria...
3
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Delete
12572
Epidermal cells are parenchymatous with ________ amount of cytoplasm lining, the cell wall and ______ vacuole.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Small, large, Large, small...
1
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Edit
Delete
12571
Identify the incorrect statement:
5
510
Recommended Questions
The presence of vessels is a characteristic of angiosperms, In roots the primary xylem is exarch...
3
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Edit
Delete
12570
Phloem in gymnosperms lacks:
5
510
Recommended Questions
Both sieve tubes and companion cells, Albuminous cells and sieve cells...
1
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12569
Tracheids are
5
510
Recommended Questions
Elongated cells with tapering ends and unperforated end walls, Elongated cells with tapering ends and perforated end wall...
1
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Delete
12568
Choose the correct option with respect to sclereids
5
510
Recommended Questions
Physiologically active, Pits are present...
2
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Edit
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12567
Dead cell without protoplasm is __________.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Sclerenchyma, Tracheids...
4
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Edit
Delete
12566
Xylem parenchyma store food in the form of
5
510
Recommended Questions
Starch, Fat...
4
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Edit
Delete
12565
Which of the following is related to tracheids?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Deposition of suberin on cell wall, Found in gymnosperms only...
3
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Edit
Delete
12564
Select the incorrect statement with respect to vessel
5
510
Recommended Questions
Devoid of protoplasm., Lignified wall....
4
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Delete
12563
Which one is true regarding xylem?
5
510
Recommended Questions
vessels are absent in gymnosperms, cells of vessel are called vessel members...
4
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Edit
Delete
12562
The presence of _______ is characteristic feature of angiosperms.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Vessels, Tracheids...
1
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Edit
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12561
Which of the following function can be performed by both parenchyma and collenchyma?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Storage., Photosynthesis....
2
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Delete
12560
Lignin is a component of the secondary walls of:-
5
510
Recommended Questions
Epidermis, Collenchyma...
3
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Edit
Delete
12559
Mechanical support to the growing parts of the plant such as young stem and petiole of leaf is provided by a living tissue called
5
510
Recommended Questions
Collenchyma, Aerenchyma...
1
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Delete
12558
Living mechanical tissue with a thickening at the cells corners possess deposition of
5
510
Recommended Questions
Lignin, Cellulose and pectin only...
3
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Delete
12557
________ are commonly found in the fruit walls of nut.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Parenchyma, Collenchyma...
3
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Edit
Delete
12556
The most abundant and common tissue in plants
5
510
Recommended Questions
Has non-vacuolated cytoplasm, Is living and has cellulosic wall...
2
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Delete
12555
The most abundant and common tissue in plants
5
510
Recommended Questions
Has non-vacuolated cytoplasm, Is living and has cellulosic wall...
2
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Delete
12554
Which of the following is correct with respect to lenticels? a. Phellogen forms parenchymatous cells on the outer side b. It is a lens-shaped opening c. Helps in exchange of gases d. Present mostly in woody trees
5
510
Recommended Questions
a & b correct, c & d correct...
4
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12553
The tissue belonging to bark but not to periderm is
5
510
Recommended Questions
Vascular cambium, Secondary phloem...
2
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Edit
Delete
12552
A tree can be killed by removing its bark, as this also removes the ________.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Phelloderm only, Phellem only...
4
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Delete
12551
The term 'bark' includes:
5
510
Recommended Questions
I, II and III only, I, II and IV only...
4
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12550
Which of the following matching is correct?
5
510
Recommended Questions
A - II, IV, VII, VIII; B - I, III, V, VI, A - I, II, VIII, VIII; B - III, IV, V, VI...
3
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Edit
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12549
Lenticels are found in
5
510
Recommended Questions
young stems, old stems...
2
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Edit
Delete
12548
Match the Column I and II.
5
510
Recommended Questions
1 2 3 4, 3 1 2 4...
3
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Edit
Delete
12547
The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called:
5
510
Recommended Questions
phellogen, periderm...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12546
In which character an isobilateral leaf differs from the dorsiventral leaf?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Scattered vascular bundles, Undifferentiated mesophylls...
2
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Edit
Delete
12545
Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from the following:
5
510
Recommended Questions
Tyloses in vessels, Closure of stomata...
3
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Edit
Delete
12544
Bulliform cells:
5
510
Recommended Questions
Are found in dorsiventral leaves and help in photosynthesis., Are found in dorsiventral leaves and help in minimizing water loss....
3
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Edit
Delete
12543
Which is the correct set of options with respect to the following?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Dicot stem - Differentiated ground tissue. Monocot stem - Endarch xylem. Dicot leaf - Isobilateral leaf. Monocot leaf - Dorsiventral leaf., Dicot stem - Scattered vascular bundle. Monocot stem - Arranged vascular bundle. Dicot leaf - Amphistomatic. Monocot leaf - Hypostomatic....
3
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Edit
Delete
12542
Match the following A. Cuticle i. guard cells B. Bulliform cells ii. single layer C. Stomata iii. waxy layer D. Epidermis iv. empty colourless cell
5
510
Recommended Questions
A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii, A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv...
1
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Delete
12541
In monocot leaf 1. Stomata is present on both surface of epidermis 2. Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma 3. There is no parenchyma 4. Both 1 and 2
5
510
Recommended Questions
Stomata is present on both surface of epidermis, Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma...
4
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Edit
Delete
12540
The similar size of vascular bundle in monocot leaf is due to
5
510
Recommended Questions
Reticulate venation, Parallel venation...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12539
The tissues present between the adaxial and abaxial epidermis are
5
510
Recommended Questions
mesophyll, chlorophyll...
4
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Edit
Delete
12538
Dicotyledonous leaf is also known as
5
510
Recommended Questions
Dorsiventral leaf, Bi-facial leaf...
3
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Edit
Delete
12537
Mark the correct one with respect to bundle sheath in a dicot leaf
5
510
Recommended Questions
Sclerenchymatous, Collenchymatous...
3
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Edit
Delete
12536
In a leaf, oval cells with large intercellular spaces and radially arranged columnar cells without intercellular spaces are placed respectively towards
5
510
Recommended Questions
Adaxial and abaxial epidermis, Abaxial and adaxial epidermis...
2
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Edit
Delete
12535
Spongy tissue is generally situated towards which side in dorsiventral leaf?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Abaxial, Adaxial...
1
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Edit
Delete
12534
The main parts of the lamina of the dorsiventral leaf are
5
510
Recommended Questions
epidermis, mesophyll tissues...
4
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Edit
Delete
12533
The size of the vascular bundles are dependent on the size of the
5
510
Recommended Questions
veins, air cavities...
1
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Edit
Delete
12532
Consider the following statements about dicot leaf: I: The epidermis which covers both the upper surface (adaxial epidermis) and lower surface (abaxial epidermis) of the leaf has a conspicuous cuticle. II: More stomata present on upper surface. III: Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma. Which of the above statements are true?
5
510
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
2
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Edit
Delete
12531
Midrib and veins of the represent
5
510
Recommended Questions
vascular bundle, cortex...
1
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Edit
Delete
12530
Vascular bundles are surrounded by a layer of thick walled _______.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Bundle sheath cells, Cuticle...
1
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Edit
Delete
12529
Which one is true for dicot leaf
5
510
Recommended Questions
veins thickness vary, reticulate venation is present...
4
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Edit
Delete
12528
Which of the following is true for palisade parenchyma?
5
510
Recommended Questions
adaxially placed, elongated cells...
4
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Edit
Delete
12527
The tissue between the upper and lower epidermis is called
5
510
Recommended Questions
Chlorophyll, Mesophyll...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12526
Which one is true for spongy parenchyma
5
510
Recommended Questions
abaxially placed to palisade parenchyma, oval or round & loosely arranged cells...
4
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Edit
Delete
12525
Select incorrect statements from the given below: (i) Endodermis with Casparian strips are found in the dicot stem. (ii) The endodermis is a part of the stele. (iii) Open vascular bundles are found in some monocots. (iv) Bulliform cells are found in the upper epidermis in the isobilateral leaf.
5
510
Recommended Questions
(i) and (ii), (ii) and (iii)...
3
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Edit
Delete
12524
In monocot stem, ground tissue is made up of
5
510
Recommended Questions
collenchyma, sclerenchyma...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12523
Dicot stem share a common feature with monocot stem that is both have
5
510
Recommended Questions
Well developed large pith, Conjoint vascular bundles...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12522
Consider the following statements: In a monocot stem- I: Hypodermis is collenchymatous. II: Vascular bundle are collateral and closed. III: Trichomes are usually absent. Which of the above statements are true?
5
510
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
3
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Edit
Delete
12521
Vascular bundle are __________ and surrounded by __________ bundle sheath in monocot stem.
5
510
Recommended Questions
scattered, sclerenchymatous, arranged, sclerenchymatous...
1
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Edit
Delete
12520
Which type of cells are not present in Phloem of monocot stem
5
510
Recommended Questions
Companion cell, sieve tubes...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12519
The diagram given below belongs to -
5
510
Recommended Questions
Dicot stem having conjoint and collateral vascular bundles, Monocot stem having conjoint and collateral vascular bundles...
2
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Edit
Delete
12518
The hypodermis of the monocot stem is made up of
5
510
Recommended Questions
collenchyma, sclerenchyma...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12517
The given transverse section is of:
5
510
Recommended Questions
Monocot stem, Dicot stem...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12516
Read the different components from I to IV in the list given below and tell the correct order of the components with reference to their arrangement from the outer side to the inner side in a woody dicot stem.
5
510
Recommended Questions
III, IV, II, I, I, II, IV, III...
3
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Edit
Delete
12515
Cortex is the region found between?
5
510
Recommended Questions
epidermis and stele, pericycle and endodermis...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12514
Pith is made up of __________ cells and __________ spaces are present between them.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Parenchymatous, intracellular, Parenchymatous, intercellular...
2
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Edit
Delete
12513
Interfascicular cambium in a dicot stem is formed from
5
510
Recommended Questions
Pericycle cells, Cortex cells...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12512
Tissue which provides mechanical strength and flexibility to young dicot stem is present in
5
510
Recommended Questions
Pith, Endodermis...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12511
In dicot stem hypodermis is made up of __________ cells while general cortex is made up of __________.
5
510
Recommended Questions
collencyma, sclerenchyma, collencyma, parenchyma...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12510
The hypodermis of dicot stem and monocot stem is made up of
5
510
Recommended Questions
collenchyma and sclerenchyma respectively, collenchyma in both...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12509
In between the vascular bundles, radially placed parenchymatous cells constitute
5
510
Recommended Questions
medullary rays, cortex...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12508
Epiblema of roots is equivalent to
5
510
Recommended Questions
Pericycle, Endodermis...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12507
How many of the following are similar between monocot and dicot root? (Vascular bundles, pericycle, endodermis, pith, cortex, epidermis)
5
510
Recommended Questions
4, 3...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12506
Consider the following statements: With respect to secondary growth in dicot root- I: The vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin. II: The primary phloem bundles are gradually crushed and not seen in older roots. III: Phellogen gives rise to secondary tissue on the outside and forms the phellem. Which of the above statements are true?
5
510
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12505
Casparian strips are present in the endodermis of
5
510
Recommended Questions
Monocot stem, Dicot root...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12504
In the dicot root, the vascular cambium originates from:
5
510
Recommended Questions
Tissue located below the phloem bundles and a portion of pericycle tissue above protoxylem, Cortical region...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12503
Which of the following plays an important role in lateral root growth in dicot root?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Endodermis, Pericycle...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12502
How many of the following constitute the stele? Vascular bundles, pericycle, endodermis, pith, cortex, epidermis
5
510
Recommended Questions
4, 3...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12501
As compared to the monocot root, the dicot root has/shows
5
510
Recommended Questions
Large and well-developed pith, Primary growth only...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12500
Compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has:
5
510
Recommended Questions
Many xylem bundles, Inconspicuous annual rings...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12499
In dicot roots, the initiation of the lateral roots and the vascular cambium during the secondary growth takes place in:
5
510
Recommended Questions
Pericycle, Endodermis...
1
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Delete
12498
The cells which give rise to a part of vascular cambium in main root and lateral roots are
5
510
Recommended Questions
Parenchymatous cells of pericycle., Collenchymatous cells of endodermis....
1
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Edit
Delete
12497
Which of the given figure represents the internal structural details of a monocot root?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Option 1, Option 2...
2
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Delete
12496
Lateral roots originate from
5
510
Recommended Questions
Pericycle, Epidermis...
1
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Edit
Delete
12495
The innermost layer of the cortex is called
5
510
Recommended Questions
pericycle, endodermis...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12494
The parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and phloem are called
5
510
Recommended Questions
Complementry cells, Conjuctive cells...
2
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Edit
Delete
12493
All the tissues that lie inner to the endodermis are called as
5
510
Recommended Questions
vascular bundle, stele...
2
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Edit
Delete
12492
Casparian strips are present in
5
510
Recommended Questions
endodermis, epidermis...
1
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Edit
Delete
12491
The number of xylem bundles in dicot root is
5
510
Recommended Questions
2 to 4, less than 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
12490
Casparian strips are barrel shaped cells in which tangential and radial walls are impermeable to water because of
5
510
Recommended Questions
suberin deposition, cellulose deposition...
1
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Edit
Delete
12489
The outermost layer of the root is
5
510
Recommended Questions
epidermis, endodermis...
1
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Edit
Delete
12488
Which of the following is the largest tissue system
5
510
Recommended Questions
Epidermal tissue system, Vascular tissue system...
3
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Delete
12487
How many of the followings are the parts of Ground Tissue System Epidermis, Hypodermis, general cortex, endodermis, pericycle, medullary rays, vascular bundle, pith, leaf mesophyll
5
510
Recommended Questions
9, 7...
2
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Delete
12486
The ground tissue system is constituted by all of these, except
5
510
Recommended Questions
Medullary rays, Pericycle...
4
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Edit
Delete
12485
Hypodermis is the part of
5
510
Recommended Questions
Ground tissue system, Epidermal tissue system...
1
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Edit
Delete
12484
In Ground tissue system, parenchymatous cells are usually present in
5
510
Recommended Questions
cortex, pericycle...
4
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Edit
Delete
12483
In Ground tissue system, parenchymatous cells are usually present in
5
510
Recommended Questions
cortex, pericycle...
4
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Edit
Delete
12482
In leaves the ground tissue consist of thin walled chloroplast containing cells and is called____.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Mesophyll, Chlorophyll...
1
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12481
Ground tissue system is present in
5
510
Recommended Questions
root, stem...
4
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Delete
12480
Conjoint open vascular bundles are present in
5
510
Recommended Questions
stem of dicots only, stem of dicots and gymnosperms...
2
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Delete
12479
The vascular bundle shown in the diagram is most likely to be seen in:
5
510
Recommended Questions
Monocot stem, Dicot stem...
2
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Delete
12478
In radial vascular bundle xylem and phloem are present on ___________radii and in an ___________manner.
5
510
Recommended Questions
different and consecutive, same and alternate...
3
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Delete
12477
Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because:
5
510
Recommended Questions
a bundle sheath surrounds each bundle, cambium is absent...
2
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Delete
12476
Radial vascular bundle arrangement is most common in
5
510
Recommended Questions
roots, stem, and roots...
1
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Edit
Delete
12475
In Dicots, Secondary growth is possible because of
5
510
Recommended Questions
cambium, xylem and Phloem...
1
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Edit
Delete
12474
Match the following and choose the correct option from below A Cuticle i. Guard cells B Bulliform cells ii. Single layer C Stomata iii. Waxy layer D Epidermis iv. Empty colourless cell
5
510
Recommended Questions
A-iii B-iv C-i D-ii, A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv...
1
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Delete
12473
Epidermal hairs on stems known as trichomes
5
510
Recommended Questions
May sometimes be secretory in function, Have vascular supply...
1
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Delete
12472
Given below is the diagram of a stomatal apparatus. In which of the following, all the four parts labelled as A, B, C and D are correctly identified:
5
510
Recommended Questions
A: Guard cell, B: Stomatal aperture, C: Subsidiary Cell, D: Epidermal Cell, A: Epidermal Cell, B: Guard Cell, C: Stomatal aperture, D: Subsidiary cell...
3
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Edit
Delete
12471
Root hairs are __________ and formed from _________ zone of root.
5
510
Recommended Questions
unicellular, maturation, multicellular, elongation...
1
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Edit
Delete
12470
Mark the incorrect statement with respect to guard cells in stomata
5
510
Recommended Questions
In grasses these are dumb-bell shaped, They possess chloroplasts...
4
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Edit
Delete
12469
45
5
510
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
12468
Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called?
5
510
Recommended Questions
subsidiary cells, bulliform cells...
1
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Edit
Delete
12467
Cuticle is not found in
5
510
Recommended Questions
Stem, Branches...
4
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Delete
12466
Stomata in grass leaves are:
5
510
Recommended Questions
Dumb-bell shaped, Kidney shaped...
1
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Edit
Delete
12465
The most important function of the trichomes is:
5
510
Recommended Questions
They prevent water loss due to transpiration, They prevent herbivory...
1
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Edit
Delete
12464
Epidermis in plant is generally
5
510
Recommended Questions
Single layered, Double layered...
1
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Edit
Delete
12463
A waxy thick layer which prevent water loss is
5
510
Recommended Questions
Cuticle, Guard cell...
1
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Edit
Delete
12462
Fibres are likely to be absent in
5
510
Recommended Questions
Secondary phloem, Secondary xylem...
3
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Delete
12461
A vessel less piece of stem possessing prominent sieve tubes would belong to
5
510
Recommended Questions
Pines, Eucalyptus...
4
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Edit
Delete
12460
Sieve tube elements are long, tube-like structures, arranged longitudinally and associated with the companion cells. A mature sieve element
5
510
Recommended Questions
Has a small vacuole, Lacks nucleus and cytoplasm...
4
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Delete
12459
What is the number of correct statements amongst the following regarding the phloem tissue of plants? I: Gymnosperms lack albuminous cells and sieve cells. II: The companion cells are specialized parenchymatous cells. III: Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the monocotyledons. IV: Phloem fibers are generally absent in the primary phloem.
5
510
Recommended Questions
2, 3...
3
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Delete
12458
Select the incorrect statement with respect to bast fibres a. Generally absent in primary phloem b. Elongated, branched with blunt ends c. Parenchymatous in nature d. Becomes dead at maturity
5
510
Recommended Questions
a & d, b & d...
3
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Edit
Delete
12457
Which of the following is not the component of secondary phloem?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Protophloem, Bast fibers...
1
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Edit
Delete
12456
Match the column I with column II Column I a. Xylem parenchyma b. Sclereids c. Phloem parenchyma d. Vessel Column II i. Absent in most of the monocots ii. Long cylindrical tube-like structure iii. Food and tannins iv. Fruit walls of nuts
5
510
Recommended Questions
a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)...
3
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Edit
Delete
12455
What is incorrect for companion cell?
5
510
Recommended Questions
It is specialized parenchymatous cell., It helps in maintaining the pressure gradient in the sieve tubes....
3
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Edit
Delete
12454
Phloem fibres are made up of
5
510
Recommended Questions
Parenchymatous cells, Sclerenchymatous cells...
2
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Edit
Delete
12453
Phloem in angiosperm is composed of a. Sieve tube element b. Companion cell c. Phloem parenchyma d. Phloem fibres e. Tracheids f. Vessels
5
510
Recommended Questions
a,b,c,d, b,c,d,e...
1
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Edit
Delete
12452
Phloem of gymnosperm consist of
5
510
Recommended Questions
Albuminous cells and Sieve cells, Sieve tubes and companion cells...
1
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Edit
Delete
12451
Companion cells are closely associated with
5
510
Recommended Questions
sieve elements, vessel elements...
1
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Edit
Delete
12450
Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the
5
510
Recommended Questions
Dicotyledons, Monocotyledons...
2
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Edit
Delete
12449
Function of sieve tubes are controlled by
5
510
Recommended Questions
Nucleus of sieve tube, Nucleus of companion cell...
2
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Edit
Delete
12448
A piece of wood having no vessels (trachea) must belong to
5
510
Recommended Questions
Teak, Mango...
3
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Edit
Delete
12447
How many elements of the xylem are dead
5
510
Recommended Questions
four, three...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12446
In flowering plants which of the following are main water transporting element
5
510
Recommended Questions
Tracheids, Vessels...
3
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Edit
Delete
12445
Which among the following cannot be a feature of given diagram?
5
510
Recommended Questions
It is a long cylindrical tube like structure, Having lignified walls...
4
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Edit
Delete
12444
The type of primary xylem when protoxylem lies towards the pith is known as
5
510
Recommended Questions
endarch, exarch...
1
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Edit
Delete
12443
The type of primary xylem when protoxylem lies towards the pith is known as
5
510
Recommended Questions
endarch, exarch...
1
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Edit
Delete
12442
Primary xylem is of two types, they are-
5
510
Recommended Questions
Protoxylem and metaxylem, Xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres...
1
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Edit
Delete
12441
Tracheids, vessels, xylem fibres and xylem parenchyma are components of
5
510
Recommended Questions
Simple tissue, Xylem...
2
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Edit
Delete
12440
A plant tissue, when stained, showed the presence of hemicellulose and pectin in the cell walls of its cells. The tissue represents
5
510
Recommended Questions
collenchyma, sclerenchyma...
1
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Delete
12439
Cells of this tissue are living and show angular wall thickening. They also provide mechanical support. The tissue is
5
510
Recommended Questions
Xylem, Sclerenchyma...
3
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Edit
Delete
12438
Sclerenchymatous fibres are
5
510
Recommended Questions
thick walled, elongated and pointed cells, contains simple and bordered pits...
4
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Edit
Delete
12437
Choose odd with respect to collenchyma
5
510
Recommended Questions
Living mechanical tissue, Intercellular space is absent in angular type...
3
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Edit
Delete
12436
The main function of the plant tissue shown below is:
5
510
Recommended Questions
Storage of nutrients, Providing buoyancy to submerged plants...
3
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Edit
Delete
12435
Identify the correct statement regarding collenchyma in plants:
5
510
Recommended Questions
They occur in layers below the epidermis of monocotyledonous plants., Cells are much thickened at the corners due to the deposition of lignin....
4
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Edit
Delete
12434
Collenchyma is characterised by
5
510
Recommended Questions
Absence of protoplast at maturity, Supporting young stem and leaf petiole...
2
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Edit
Delete
12433
Which of the following has unevenly thick cell wall, has a primary wall (cellulose) and a secondary wall (hemicellulose or pectin), and is a simple, living, primarily mechanical tissue of the plant body?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Parenchyma, Collenchyma...
2
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Edit
Delete
12432
Lignified cell wall is characteristic feature of
5
510
Recommended Questions
Parenchyma, Collenchyma...
3
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Edit
Delete
12431
Identify the mismatched pair:
5
510
Recommended Questions
Thick walled, elongated and pointed cells present in hypodermis of dicot stem, Forms the major component within plant organs...
1
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Edit
Delete
12430
Cells having cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin deposits on the wall and shows its presence commonly in the petiole of leaf and growing green stems belong to
5
510
Recommended Questions
Sclerenchyma, Collenchyma...
2
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Edit
Delete
12429
Which of the following component of phloem is mainly responsible for the storage of food material and other substances like resins, latex and mucilage?
5
510
Recommended Questions
Sieve tube, Companion cell...
4
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Edit
Delete
12428
In parenchyma, all cells are isodiametric and
5
510
Recommended Questions
Thin-walled, Thick-walled...
1
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Edit
Delete
12427
Parenchymal cells have _______ walls and are made up of __________.
5
510
Recommended Questions
Thick, cellulose, Thin, cellulose...
2
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Edit
Delete
12426
All of the given characteristics are related to parenchyma tissue except
5
510
Recommended Questions
Composed of living cells, Generally isodiametric cells...
3
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Delete
12425
Which one is true of parenchyma
5
510
Recommended Questions
help in storage, secretion and photosynthesis, intercellular spaces are schizogenous in origin...
4
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Edit
Delete
12424
A. China rose is a member of the cotton family. B. Axile placentation is found in okra and lily. C. The staminal tube is a distinguishable feature of the mallow family. D. Polyadelphous stamens are found in peas. E. The members of the Mallow family have epipetalous stamens. Given above are five statements. How many of the above statements are true?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Five, Three...
3
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Edit
Delete
12423
Which of the following features does not belong to Hibiscus? 1. Actinomorphic flowers 2. Pentamerous calyx 3. Twisted Corolla 4. Exstipulated leaves
5
509
Recommended Questions
Actinomorphic flowers, Pentamerous calyx...
4
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Delete
12422
What is the common name of the Malvaceae family?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Mallow family, Makoi family...
1
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Edit
Delete
12421
Consider the following statements: I: Whorled phyllotaxy is seen in Alstonia. II: Flowers of mustard, datura and chilli are actinomorphic. III: The ovary in plum, peach and rose is epigynous. Which of the above statements are true?
5
509
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
1
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Edit
Delete
12420
Which of the following would not be a character of Asparagus?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Actinomorphic flower, Imbricate aestivation...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12419
155
5
509
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12418
Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is correctly shown in:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Option 1, Option 2...
3
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Edit
Delete
12417
The following diagram can represent the position of the ovary in:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Brinjal, Guava...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12416
An inferior ovary:
5
509
Recommended Questions
is situated on the receptacle above the perianth and androecium., is positioned below the sites of attachment for perianth and androecium....
2
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Edit
Delete
12415
Perigynous flowers are found in
5
509
Recommended Questions
Guava, Cucumber...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12414
Bilateral symmetry is found in the flower of
5
509
Recommended Questions
Cassia, Mustard...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12413
Select incorrectly matched pair. 1. Inferior ovary — Guava 2. Aestivation with unequal petals — Cotton sized petals 3. Polyadelphous condition — Citrus 4. Irregular flower — Canna
5
509
Recommended Questions
Inferior ovary — Guava, Aestivation with unequal petals — Cotton sized petals...
2
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Edit
Delete
12412
Which among the following plants has these characteristics - actinomorphic flower, hypogynous, syncarpous and parietal placentation?
5
509
Recommended Questions
China rose, Marigold...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12411
A flower is hypogynous and the ovary is said to be superior in
5
509
Recommended Questions
Mustard, Plum...
1
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Edit
Delete
12410
Which of the following combinations is false? 1. Apocarpous — Carpels free — Lotus, Rose. 2. Syncarpous — Carpels fused — Mustard, tomato. 3. Placentation — arrangement of ovules within ovary. 4. Arrangement of ovules within ovary — ovulation.
5
509
Recommended Questions
Apocarpous — Carpels free — Lotus, Rose., Syncarpous — Carpels fused — Mustard, tomato....
4
View
Edit
Delete
12409
Select the incorrect match with respect to placentation
5
509
Recommended Questions
Basal - Marigold, Free central - Primrose...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12408
Which among the following is a characteristic of pea and bean?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Monadelphous stamens, Marginal placentation...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12407
In which of the given plant's placenta develops at the base of the ovary and a single ovule is attached to it?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Tomato, Lemon, Mustard, Argemone...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12406
142
5
509
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12405
Select incorrect match
5
509
Recommended Questions
Polyadelphous stamens - Lemon, Diadelphous stamens - Pea...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12404
Select the correct match
5
509
Recommended Questions
Lily - Epiphyllous stamen, Argemone - Axile placentation...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12403
Androecium of Citrus and Bombax plants is
5
509
Recommended Questions
Synandrous, Monadelphous...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12402
Developing on position of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to the ovary on thalamus the flowers are divided into how many categories?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Two, Three...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12401
Select a correct match
5
509
Recommended Questions
Staminode - Solanaceae, Actinomorphic flower - Cassia, Bean, Gulmohur...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12400
If gynoecium is situated in the centre and other floral parts are located on the rim of the thalamus almost at the same level, then the flower is said to be
5
509
Recommended Questions
Perigynous, Epigynous...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12399
Match column I with column II and select the correct option. Column I a. A₂₊₄ b. Epiphyllous androecium c. Ovary inferior d. Gamosepalous Column II (i) Tomato (ii) Lily (iii) Mustard (iv) Epigynous flower
5
509
Recommended Questions
a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii), a (ii), b (iv), c (i), d (iii)...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12398
Half superior-half inferior ovary is found in the perigynous flower of
5
509
Recommended Questions
Peach, China rose...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12397
Valvate aestivation in corolla is found in
5
509
Recommended Questions
Cotton, Calotropis...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12396
132
5
509
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12395
In an inflorescence where flowers are borne laterally in acropetal succession, the position of the youngest floral bud shall be
5
509
Recommended Questions
proximal, distal...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12394
Cymose inflorescence is dissimilar to racemose inflorescence in
5
509
Recommended Questions
Having limited growth of the main inflorescence axis., Having young flowers at top....
1
View
Edit
Delete
12393
Cymose inflorescence is identified by: 1. Basipetal arrangement of flowers on the main axis (peduncle) 2. The limited growth of the main axis as main axis terminates in a flower 3. Both (1) and (2) 4. Presence of sessile flower
5
509
Recommended Questions
Basipetal arrangement of flowers on the main axis (peduncle), The limited growth of the main axis as main axis terminates in a flower...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12392
The pitcher in pitcher plant is a modification of
5
509
Recommended Questions
leaf base, Petiole...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12391
In Australian Acacia plant, the
5
509
Recommended Questions
Leaves are small and long-lived, Petioles carry out the functions of the lamina...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12390
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
5
509
Recommended Questions
In Calotropis, a pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite to each other, A bud is present in the axil of both simple and compound leaves...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12389
Select the incorrect match
5
509
Recommended Questions
Opposite phyllotaxy - Calotropis, Parallel venation - Banana...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12388
Which of the given feature is not related to mustard?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Superior ovary., Variable length of filaments of stamens....
4
View
Edit
Delete
12387
Bud is present in axil of petiole in
5
509
Recommended Questions
Compound leaf and leaflet, Simple and compound leaf...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12386
A phyllotaxy, where more than two leaves arise at a node, found in
5
509
Recommended Questions
Calotropis, Alstonia...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12385
A phyllotaxy, where more than two leaves arise at a node, found in
5
509
Recommended Questions
Calotropis, Alstonia...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12384
Which of the following shows whorled phyllotaxy?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Mustard, China rose...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12383
Scutellum is the first leaf of:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Monocot, Dicot...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12382
Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Alstonia, Calotropis...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12381
Consider the following statements: I: The roots hair are unicellular and arise from the region of maturation. II: Terminal buds of stems may get modified to thorns. III: Leaves originate from shoot apical meristem and are arranged in an acropetal order. Which of the above statements are true?
5
509
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12380
116
5
509
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12379
Which of the following statement is true?
5
509
Recommended Questions
In Alstonia the petioles expand, become green, and synthesize food., Leaves are modified into tendrils for climbing as in pumpkins....
4
View
Edit
Delete
12378
Select the odd one out with respect to veins
5
509
Recommended Questions
Provide rigidity to the leaf blade, Act as channels of transport for water and minerals...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12377
Photosynthetic organ originates from ______ meristem and arranged in ______ order.
5
509
Recommended Questions
Lateral, basipetal, Root apical, acropetal...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12376
Citrus differs from Opuntia in
5
509
Recommended Questions
Showing adventive embryony, Having zygotic embryos...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12375
In gourds and watermelon, the tendril is formed by the modification of
5
509
Recommended Questions
Extra axillary bud., Axillary bud and leaf respectively....
1
View
Edit
Delete
12374
Choose the incorrect statement.
5
509
Recommended Questions
Stilt roots are found in sugarcane, Pneumatophores are respiratory roots...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12373
Choose the incorrect statement.
5
509
Recommended Questions
Stilt roots are found in sugarcane, Pneumatophores are respiratory roots...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12372
Modified aerial stem with the branching of unlimited growth as the photosynthetic structure is
5
509
Recommended Questions
Flattened in Opuntia and Euphorbia, Fleshy and cylindrical in Euphorbia...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12371
A lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots is found in:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Chrysanthemum, Pistia...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12370
Which one of the following organisms is correctly matched with its three characteristics? 1. Pea: C₃ pathway, Endospermic seed, Vexillary aestivation 2. Tomato: Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry 3. Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation 4. Maize: C₃ pathway, Closed vascular bundles, Scutellum
5
509
Recommended Questions
Pea: C₃ pathway, Endospermic seed, Vexillary aestivation, Tomato: Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry...
3
View
Edit
Delete
12369
Identify the correct statement regarding the stem morphology from the following: I: Stems bear only axillary buds. II: Axillary buds may get modified into thorns as in Citrus III: Stem tendrils develop from axillary buds as in gourds.
5
509
Recommended Questions
Only I and II, Only I and III...
3
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Edit
Delete
12368
Thorns of Bougainvillea are the modification of
5
509
Recommended Questions
Apical buds, Vegetative buds...
4
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Edit
Delete
12367
Find out the wrongly matched pair :-
5
509
Recommended Questions
Tuber - Potato, Leaf buds - Banana...
2
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Edit
Delete
12366
Pneumatophores are a modification of
5
509
Recommended Questions
Prop root for exchange of gases, Taproot for retention of moisture...
4
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Edit
Delete
12365
101
5
509
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
12364
Which is incorrect with respect to pneumatophore?
5
509
Recommended Questions
They are found in all aquatic plants, They are also known as respiratory roots...
1
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Edit
Delete
12363
Which is incorrect with respect to pneumatophore?
5
509
Recommended Questions
They are found in all aquatic plants, They are also known as respiratory roots...
1
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Edit
Delete
12362
Taproots of the following plant are modified to store food.
5
509
Recommended Questions
Sweet potato, Turnip...
2
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Delete
12361
The edible part of the carrot is a modified:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Adventitious root, Underground stem...
4
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Edit
Delete
12360
In some plants, root modified their shape and structure to perform
5
509
Recommended Questions
Absorption, Conduction of water...
4
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12359
Pneumatophores are found in: 1. The vegetation is found in marshy and saline lake 2. The vegetation is found in saline soil 3. Xerophytes 4. Epiphytes
5
509
Recommended Questions
The vegetation is found in marshy and saline lake, The vegetation is found in saline soil...
1
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Delete
12358
In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from the tip upward, the four zones occur in the following order:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Root cap, cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement, Cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation, root cap...
4
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Edit
Delete
12357
In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from the tip upward, the four zones occur in the following order:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Root cap, cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement, Cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation, root cap...
4
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Edit
Delete
12356
The cells of which of the following regions of the root are responsible for growth of its length?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Root cap, Region of meristematic activity...
3
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Edit
Delete
12355
The region of part of root that increases the surface area for water absorption is
5
509
Recommended Questions
Root cap, Zone of elongation...
4
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Delete
12354
Consider the following statements: I: Whorled phyllotaxy is seen in Alstonia. II: Flowers of mustard, datura and chilli are actinomorphic. III: The ovary in plum, peach and rose is epigynous. Which of the above statements are true?
5
509
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
1
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Delete
12353
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below: Column I (Flower) - Column II (Position of the Ovary): I. Sunflower - 1. Epigynous, II. Mustard - 2. Hypogynous, III. Plum - 3. Perigynous. Codes: 1. I-1, II-2, III-3; 2. I-2, II-3, III-1; 3. I-2, II-1, III-3; 4. I-3, II-2, III-1
5
509
Recommended Questions
1 2 3, 2 3 1...
1
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Delete
12352
Among the terms listed below, those that are not technically correct names for a floral whorl are (i) androecium (ii) carpel (iii) corolla (iv) sepal
5
509
Recommended Questions
(i) and (iv), (iii) and (iv)...
3
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12351
Consider the following statements: I: Imbricate aestivation is seen in Cassia and gulmohar. II: In Dianthus and Primrose, placentation is free central. III: Seeds of pea, gram and bean are non-endospermous. Which of the above statements are true?
5
509
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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Delete
12350
In a typical complete, bisexual and hypogynous flower, the arrangement of floral whorls on the thalamus from the outermost to the innermost is
5
509
Recommended Questions
calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium, calyx, corolla, gynoecium and androecium...
1
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12349
The condition of the ovary shown in the given diagram can be described as:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Perigynous, Epigynous...
1
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Delete
12348
Among China rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, guava, cucumber, onion and tulip, how many plants have superior ovary?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Five, Six...
2
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12347
In the ray florets of sunflower, the condition of the flower is termed as:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Superior, Inferior...
3
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12346
In a unilocular ovary with a single ovule, the placentation is
5
509
Recommended Questions
marginal, basal...
2
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12345
Ovary is one-chambered but it becomes two chambered due to the formation of a false septum in:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Dianthus and Primrose, Mustard and Argemone...
2
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12344
Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of
5
509
Recommended Questions
tulip, Indigofera...
2
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12343
China rose is not characterized by:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Axile placentation, Valvate aestivation...
2
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Delete
12342
The following diagram can represent the position of the ovary in:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Brinjal, Guava...
3
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12341
In marginal placentation, the ovules are arranged:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Along the inner wall of the carpel in a syncarpous ovary, Along the margin of single carpel...
2
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Delete
12340
In vexillary aestivation:
5
509
Recommended Questions
The standard overlaps the wings, The standard overlaps the keel...
1
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12339
The type of placentation shown in the given figure is seen in:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Dianthus, Argemone...
1
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12338
The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of China rose (Hibiscus rosa sinensis) is
5
509
Recommended Questions
monadelphous, diadelphous...
1
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12337
Placentation, in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Free central, basal...
4
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12336
In marginal placentation, the placenta forms a ridge along the:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Ventral suture of the ovary, Dorsal suture of the ovary...
1
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12335
Perigynous flowers are found in
5
509
Recommended Questions
Guava, Cucumber...
4
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12334
When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as
5
509
Recommended Questions
vexillary, imbricate...
2
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12333
Zygomorphic flower is not found in:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Cassia, Canna...
2
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Delete
12332
Flowers are zygomorphic in
5
509
Recommended Questions
Gulmohar, tomato...
1
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Edit
Delete
12331
Axile placentation is present in
5
509
Recommended Questions
dianthus, lemon...
2
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12330
If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in particular direction, the aestivation is called
5
509
Recommended Questions
Imbricate, Valvate...
1
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12329
Trimerous flowers, superior ovary axile placentation is characteristic of:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Liliaceae, Papilionaceae...
1
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12328
What type of placentation is seen in sweet pea?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Basal, Axile...
4
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12327
The ovary is half inferior in flowers of
5
509
Recommended Questions
cucumber, cotton...
4
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12326
Which of the following is an incorrect match? (1) Perigynous flower - Plum, rose and peach (2) Monadelphous - Pea (3) Epigynous flower - Guava, cucumber, and ray florets of sunflower (4) Polyadelphous - Citrus
5
509
Recommended Questions
Perigynous flower - Plum, rose and peach, Monadelphous - Pea...
2
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12325
The term 'polyadelphous' is related to
5
509
Recommended Questions
gynoecium, androecium...
2
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12324
Match the Column-I with Column-II:
Column-I (Aestivation in Corolla)
A. Valvate
B. Twisted
C. Imbricate
D. Vexillary (papilionaceous)
Column-II (Examples)
I. China rose, Lady's finger, cotton
II. Calotropis
III. Cassia, Gulmohur
IV. Pea, Beans
5
509
Recommended Questions
A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV, A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III...
1
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12323
The placentation having only single ovule is
5
509
Recommended Questions
Marginal, Axile...
3
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12322
Find out the False statement from below ones:
I. Calyx and corolla are reproductive organs of a flower.
II. Zygomorphic flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial plane.
III. Flowers without bracts are termed as bracteate.
IV. Parthenocarpic fruit is formed after fertilization of the ovary.
V. In legumes seed is non-endospermic.
VI. Ovary is inferior in Fabaceae.
VII. A fertile stamen is called staminode.
VIII. Radical buds develop on roots.
5
509
Recommended Questions
I, II, III, IV, VI, VII, I, II, V, VIII...
1
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12321
Match the columns A and B:
Column I | Column II
(a) Marginal placentation | (i) Marigold
(b) Axile placentation | Dianthus
(c) Parietal placentation | Argemone
(d) Free central placentation | Chinarose
(e) Basal placentation | Pea
5
509
Recommended Questions
(v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i), (v) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)...
1
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12320
Placentation in tomato and lemon is
5
509
Recommended Questions
parietal, free central...
4
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Delete
12319
Flowers are zygomorphic in:
5
509
Recommended Questions
gulmohur, tomato...
1
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Edit
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12318
Match the Column-I and Column-II with Column-III:
Column-I | Column-II | Column-III
A. Marginal | I. | a. Sunflower, Marigold
B. Axile | II. | b. Dianthus, Primrose
C. Parietal | III. | c. Mustard, Argemone
D. Free Central | IV. | d. Chinarose, Tomato, Lemon
E. Basal | V. | e. Pea
5
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Recommended Questions
A - V, e; B - II, d; C - I, c; D - III, b; E - IV, a, A - I, e; B - II, d; C - III, c; D - IV, b; E - V, a...
1
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12317
Match the following figures with I, II and III:
I. Hypogynous flower
II. Perigynous flower
III. Epigynous flower
5
509
Recommended Questions
A - I, B - II, C - III, A - I, B - III, C - II...
1
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12316
An example of axile placentation is
5
509
Recommended Questions
Argemone, Dianthus...
3
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12315
A drupe develops in
5
509
Recommended Questions
wheat, pea...
4
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12314
In which type of placentation ovary is one chambered and the placenta bearing ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary and, the number of placenta corresponds to the number of carpels?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Marginal, Parietal...
2
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12313
Choose correct pair
Placentation - Example
1. Marginal - Dianthus, Silene
2. Axile - Pea, Acacia
3. Parietal - Lemon, Petunia
4. Basal - Triticum, Sunflower
5
509
Recommended Questions
1. Marginal - Dianthus, Silene, 2. Axile - Pea, Acacia...
4
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12312
A type of placentation in which placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of ovary and ovules are borne on this ridge forming two rows
5
509
Recommended Questions
Parietal, Marginal...
2
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12311
Which of the given figures represents the aestivation of corolla in Gulmohur and Cassia?
5
509
Recommended Questions
1., 2....
2
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Delete
12310
Correct position of floral parts over thalamus in the mustard plant is:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Gynoecium occupies the highest position, while the other parts are situated below it., Margin of the thalamus grows upward, enclosing the ovary completely, and other parts arise below the ovary....
1
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Delete
12309
In which plant, petals in a whorl just touch one another at the margin, without overlapping in the floral bud?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Cassia, Calotropis...
2
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Edit
Delete
12308
Position of ovary is superior in
5
509
Recommended Questions
Hypogynous flower, Perigynous flower...
1
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Delete
12307
In an inflorescence where flowers are borne laterally in acropetal succession, the position of the youngest floral bud shall be
5
509
Recommended Questions
proximal, distal...
2
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12306
Cymose inflorescence is present in
5
509
Recommended Questions
Solanum, Sesbania...
1
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Edit
Delete
12305
Select incorrect statement with respect to racemose inflorescence
5
509
Recommended Questions
The main axis continues to grow, Peduncle bears flowers in basipetal/centrifugal manner...
2
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Delete
12304
In racemose type of branching:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Branches continue to grow indefinitely and give off further branches laterally in a basipetal order, Branches continue to grow indefinitely and give off further branches laterally in an acropetal order...
2
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Delete
12303
39
5
509
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
12302
38
5
509
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
12301
The examples of modified leaves are
5
509
Recommended Questions
tendrils of pea, spines of cacti...
4
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Delete
12300
Which group contains insectivorous plants?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Bladderwort and Cuscuta, Cuscuta and Solanum...
3
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Delete
12299
Venation is a term used to describe the pattern of arrangement of
5
509
Recommended Questions
floral organs, flower in inflorescence...
3
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12298
Study the following statements and choose the correct option. I. Buds are present in the axil of leaflets of the compound leaf. II. Pulvinus leaf-base is present in some leguminous plants. III. In Alstonia, the petioles expand, become green and synthesize food. IV. Opposite phyllotaxy is seen in guava.
5
509
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II and IV are correct but I and III are wrong, I and III are correct but II and IV are wrong...
1
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Delete
12297
Pinnately compound leaves have all the following features except
5
509
Recommended Questions
leaflets are attached to rachis or its branches, Possess a bud in the leaf axil...
3
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Edit
Delete
12296
32
5
509
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
12295
Which of the following shows whorled phyllotaxy?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Mustard, China rose...
3
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Delete
12294
Identify A and B leaves:
5
509
Recommended Questions
A - Pinnately compound leaf, B - Palmately compound leaf, A - Palmately compound leaf, B - Pinnately compound leaf...
1
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12293
Leaf is
5
509
Recommended Questions
Exogenous in origin, Endogenous in origin...
1
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12292
Leaves originate from-
5
509
Recommended Questions
shoot apical meristems and arranged acropetal order, shoot apical meristem and arranged in a basipetal order...
1
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Delete
12291
Photosynthetic organ originates from ______ meristem and arranged in ______ order.
5
509
Recommended Questions
Lateral, basipetal, Root apical, acropetal...
3
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12290
Which of the following statements is false about a leaf? 1. A leaf is said to be simple, when its lamina is entire or when incised, the incisions do not touch the margin 2. A leaf is said to be compound when the incisions of lamina reach up to the midrib breaking into several leaflets 3. Leaf is the most important vegetative organ for photosynthesis 4. Leaf is not a transpiratory organ
5
509
Recommended Questions
A leaf is said to be simple, when its lamina is entire or when incised, the incisions do not touch the margin, A leaf is said to be compound when the incisions of lamina reach up to the midrib breaking into several leaflets...
4
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Delete
12289
Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified into a flat green and succulent structure:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Casuarina, Hydrilla...
4
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12288
Bougainvillea and Citrus plants are protected from browsing animals as
5
509
Recommended Questions
Adventitious buds get modified into thorns, Axillary buds get modified into spines...
3
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Edit
Delete
12287
An example of an edible underground stem is
5
509
Recommended Questions
carrot, groundnut...
4
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Edit
Delete
12286
In Bougainvillea, thorns are the modifications of
5
509
Recommended Questions
stipules, adventitious root...
3
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Edit
Delete
12285
21
5
509
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
12284
A lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots is found in:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Chrysanthemum, Pistia...
2
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Delete
12283
Which of the following is not a stem modification?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Thorns of citrus, Tendrils of cucumber...
4
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Edit
Delete
12282
Stem tendrils are not seen in:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Grapevine, Watermelon...
3
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Edit
Delete
12281
When a shoot tip transforms into a flower,
5
509
Recommended Questions
It is always solitary, The flower is always short-lived...
1
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Delete
12280
Leaves are modified into tendrils in:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Parkinsonia, Pea...
2
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Edit
Delete
12279
Offset is one internode-long runner and its each node bears rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots. It is found in aquatic plants like:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Hydrilla, Pistia...
4
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Edit
Delete
12278
Thorn of Citrus and Bougainvillea is modified:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Stem, Root...
1
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Edit
Delete
12277
Underground modification of stem occurs for following special functions, except
5
509
Recommended Questions
Storage of food, Vegetative propagation...
3
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Edit
Delete
12276
Sweet potato is a modified
5
509
Recommended Questions
Rhizoid, Stem...
3
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Edit
Delete
12275
Sweet potato is a modified:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Stem, Adventitious root...
2
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Edit
Delete
12274
Which of the following is incorrect about A, B, C and D: (1) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious root of sweet potato, get swollen and store food (2) Pneumatophores help to get oxygen for respiration (3) Pneumatophore is found in the plants that grow in sandy soil (4) A, B and C are underground roots but D grows vertically upwards
5
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(1) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious root of sweet potato, get swollen and store food, (2) Pneumatophores help to get oxygen for respiration...
3
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12273
Prop roots and stilt roots are found respectively in
5
509
Recommended Questions
Rhizophora and turnip, Banyan and maize...
2
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Edit
Delete
12272
Pneumatophores are seen in:
5
509
Recommended Questions
Rhizophora, Banyan tree...
1
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Edit
Delete
12271
Rearrange the following zones as seen in the root in the vertical section and choose the correct option: I: Root hair zone, II: Zone of meristems, III: Root cap zone, IV: Zone of maturation, V: Zone of elongation
5
509
Recommended Questions
III, II, V, I, IV, I, II, III, IV, V...
1
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Edit
Delete
12270
Roots developed from parts of the plant other than radicles are called
5
509
Recommended Questions
tap roots, fibrous roots...
3
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Edit
Delete
12269
The region responsible for growth in the length of the root is:
5
509
Recommended Questions
A, B...
2
View
Edit
Delete
12268
Which of the following zone of the root has thin cell wall, dense cytoplasm and large nucleus?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Region of maturation, Region of elongation...
4
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Edit
Delete
12267
Which of the following is not the lateral branches of the roots?
5
509
Recommended Questions
Tertiary roots, Secondary roots...
3
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Edit
Delete
12266
Root hairs develop from the region of
5
509
Recommended Questions
maturation, elongation...
1
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Edit
Delete
12265
The cells proximal to the merismatic zone in root tip represents
5
509
Recommended Questions
Zone of cell elongation, Zone of deacceleration...
1
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Delete
12264
Read the following statements. (a) Gymnosperms are heterosporous. (b) Bryophytes have well developed vessels and sieve tubes. (c) Strobilus is found in the main plant body of Equisetum. (d) Antheridia are absent but archegonia are present in female strobili of gymnosperms. Choose the correct option.
5
508
Recommended Questions
All of these, (a), (c) and (d)...
2
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12263
The features seen in the gymnosperm Cycas include: I. Coralloid roots II. Unbranched stems III. Pinnate persistent leaves for a few years IV. Male cones and megasporophylls borne on same plant
5
508
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and IV only...
3
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Edit
Delete
12262
Read the following and choose the incorrect statement 1. Majority of red algae are marine with greater concentrations found in the warmer areas. 2. Thallus of Marchantia is dorsiventral and closely appressed to the substrate. 3. In Sequoia, reduced male gametophyte is called pollen grain and its endosperm represents future sporophytes. 4. Wolffia is the smallest flowering plant.
5
508
Recommended Questions
Majority of red algae are marine with greater concentrations found in the warmer areas., Thallus of Marchantia is dorsiventral and closely appressed to the substrate....
3
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Delete
12261
Which of the following is/are correct for gymnosperms? (i) They are heterosporous. (ii) They are the first vascular plants. (iii) They possess fruits. (iv) They require water for fertilisation.
5
508
Recommended Questions
Only (i), (i) and (ii)...
1
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Edit
Delete
12260
Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of:
5
508
Recommended Questions
Cycas, Equisetum...
1
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Edit
Delete
12259
Select the mis-matched option.
5
508
Recommended Questions
Selaginella : Heterosporous, Volvox : Colonial alga...
3
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Edit
Delete
12258
In gymnosperms, the ovule is naked because
5
508
Recommended Questions
Ovary wall is absent, Integuments are absent...
1
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Edit
Delete
12257
Choose the incorrect match from following:
5
508
Recommended Questions
Cycas - branched stem., Salvinia - heterosporous sporophyte....
1
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Edit
Delete
12256
Read the following statements and select the option with correct statements (a) In Wolfia, the highly reduced female gametophyte present within ovule, is embryo sac. (b) The ploidy level of endosperm in Cycas and Eucalyptus is triploid. (c) Azolla is a water fern. (d) Majority of the red algae are marine with greater abundance in the warmer areas.
5
508
Recommended Questions
(a) and (b) only, (b) and (c) only...
4
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Delete
12255
Cycas is classified as a gymnosperms due to its
5
508
Recommended Questions
motile sperms, fruit formation...
3
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Edit
Delete
12254
Which of the following genera is associated with coralloid roots?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Cycas, Taxus...
1
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Edit
Delete
12253
Classification of organisms on the basis of gene sequencing is
5
508
Recommended Questions
Cytotaxonomy, Karyotaxonomy...
1
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Edit
Delete
12252
Under natural system of classification which of the following character is not considered?
5
508
Recommended Questions
External features, Phylogeny...
2
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Edit
Delete
12251
Artificial systems gave equal weightage to
5
508
Recommended Questions
Morphological and anatomical characters., Vegetative and sexual characters....
2
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Delete
12250
Given below are three statements each with one blank. Select the option which correctly fill up the blanks in two statements (i) ______ systems gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual characteristics. (ii) Number and codes are assigned to all the characters and the data are then processed in ______ taxonomy. (iii) ______ systems assume that organisms belonging to the same taxa have a common ancestor.
5
508
Recommended Questions
(i) - Artificial, (iii) - Natural, (ii) - Phenetics, (iii) - Artificial...
4
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12249
Earlier classification (Before Whittaker) has placed which of the following in the same kingdom Plantae and now they are no more considered under plants?
5
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Recommended Questions
Monera, Protista and Fungi, Monera and Protista...
1
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12248
The classification given by Linnaeus was depending on
5
508
Recommended Questions
Phytochemistry, Embryology...
3
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12247
According to phylogenetic classification organisms belonging to same taxa
5
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Recommended Questions
Are same in anatomy., Have same genetic constituent....
3
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12246
Which of the following kingdoms is not introduced in the Whittaker's classification?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Monera, Protista...
3
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12245
If we want to know evolutionary relationships between organisms then which classification will resolve it:
5
508
Recommended Questions
Artificial classification, Natural classification...
4
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12244
Cytotaxonomy
5
508
Recommended Questions
Based on cytological information like chromosome number, Based on cytological information like chromosome structure...
4
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12243
Numerical Taxonomy
5
508
Recommended Questions
Carried out using computers, Based on all observable characteristics...
4
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12242
Select incorrect option with respect to given diagram
5
508
Recommended Questions
Heterosporous., Aquatic fern....
4
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12241
177
5
508
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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12240
All the following pteridophytes belong to the Class Pteropsida except:
5
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Recommended Questions
Dryopteris, Pteris...
3
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12239
Select an incorrect match 1. Psilopsida - Psilotum 2. Sphenopsida - Selaginella 3. Lycopsida - Lycopodium 4. Pteropsida - Dryopteris
5
508
Recommended Questions
Psilopsida - Psilotum, Sphenopsida - Selaginella...
2
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12238
Identify the incorrect statement regarding green algae?
5
508
Recommended Questions
They contain chl a, chl b as well as carotenoids., The chloroplasts may be discoid, plate-like, reticulate, cup-shaped, spiral or ribbon-shaped in different species....
3
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12237
Pyrenoid is
5
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Storage bodies located in cytoplasm of chlorophyceae, Storage bodies located in cytoplasm of Phaeophyceae...
3
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12236
Examples of Green alga is not
5
508
Recommended Questions
Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Ulothrix, Spirogyra...
4
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12235
In chlorophyceae and phaeophyceae, the type of sexual reproduction is
5
508
Recommended Questions
Isogamous, Anisogamous...
4
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12234
Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers:
5
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Recommended Questions
Fern and Funaria, Funaria and Ficus...
1
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12233
Which of the following characteristics are common in both Selaginella and Pinus? (i) Spores are of two types. (ii) Vascular tissues are not present. (iii) Main plant body is sporophyte. (iv) Male and female gametophytes are retained on the sporophyte.
5
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(i), (ii) and (iv), (i), (iii) and (iv)...
3
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12232
Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Salvinia - Prothallus, Viroids - RNA...
1
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12231
In Pteridophytes reduction division occurs during
5
508
Recommended Questions
spore formation, gamete formation...
1
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12230
In which of the following plants, strobili are not formed?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Equisetum, Cycas...
3
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12229
Development of the zygotes into young embryo takes within the female gametophytes in
5
508
Recommended Questions
Adiantum., Selaginella....
2
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12228
A feature common in gametophyte of both mosses and maximum ferns is-
5
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Recommended Questions
Independent existence, Both are monoecious in nature...
1
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12227
The given diagram shows:
5
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Recommended Questions
An alga that lacks flagellated cells, A liverwort...
3
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12226
The spreading of living pteridophyte is limited and is restricted to narrow geographical region because of
5
508
Recommended Questions
Growth requirements of gametophyte (cool, damp and shady places)., Requirement of water for fertilisation....
4
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12225
Pick the correct group consisting of all genera exhibiting homospory.
5
508
Recommended Questions
Lycopodium, Psilotum, Selaginella, Equisetum, Equisetum, Pteris, Salvinia, Psilotum...
4
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12224
Which one is wrongly matched?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Red algae – Porphyra, Coralloid roots – Cycas...
4
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12223
In pteridophytes, gametophyte that develops in the homosporous species is usually
5
508
Recommended Questions
Monoecious and has events, precursor to the seed habit., Dioecious and does not lead to seed habit....
3
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12222
Heterosporous pteridophyte includes both:
5
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Recommended Questions
Lycopodium and Equisetum, Selaginella and Salvinia...
2
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12221
Which one is correct about heterosporous pteridophytes? 1. Microspore and megaspores develop into the male and the female gametophytes respectively. 2. The female gametophyte are retained on the parent sporophyte for a variable period. 3. The development of the zygote into the embryo takes place within the female gametophyte. 4. All
5
508
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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12220
Leafy stage develops from the secondary protonema as a
5
508
Recommended Questions
Apical bud, Axillary bud...
3
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12219
Identify the incorrect statement regarding mosses:
5
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Recommended Questions
Leaves are one cell thick except at the midrib and lack stomata, The first gametophyte stage is protonema, that is creeping and green...
4
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12218
In the following diagram A, B, C and D represent
5
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Recommended Questions
A - Seta, B - Leaves, C- Rhizoids, D - Capsule, A - Leaf, B - Rhizoids, C- Scales, D - Root hair...
3
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12217
Archegoniophore is present in:
5
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Recommended Questions
Chara, Adiantum...
4
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12216
Gemmae are the specialized structures produced in liverworts. These are
5
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Recommended Questions
Non-green, multi-cellular, asexual buds which develop in gemma cups., Green, multi-cellular, asexual buds which develop in gemma cups....
2
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12215
Which of the following statement is true for bryophyta:
5
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Recommended Questions
Along with water absorption roots also provide anchorage to plants, Sporophyte is dominant...
3
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12214
Water is essential for Bryophyta:
5
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Recommended Questions
For fertilization and homosporous nature, Water should be filled in the archegonium for fertilization...
3
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12213
Moss sporophyte does not possess
5
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Recommended Questions
Elaters, Seta...
1
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12212
Gametophyte and sporophyte are independent of each other in which of the following groups?
5
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Recommended Questions
Pteridophytes, Angiosperms...
1
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12211
Archegoniophore is present in
5
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Recommended Questions
Chara, Adiantum...
4
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12210
Leafy stage develops from the secondary protonema as a
5
508
Recommended Questions
Apical bud, Axillary bud...
3
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12209
145
5
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Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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12208
Sporophyte in bryophytes is
5
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Recommended Questions
Parasitic on gametophyte, Formed by germination of meiospore...
1
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12207
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding bryophytes?
5
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Recommended Questions
They are dependent on water for sexual reproduction., The main plant body is diploid...
2
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12206
Members of red algae are mostly marine, occurring both at surface water and at great depths in oceans except for a few fresh water species. These algae usually
5
508
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Reproduce asexually by motile spores, Show oogamous reproduction by motile gametes...
4
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12205
Find out the incorrect statement about the Rhodophyceae. 1. Majority are marine with greater concentrations found in the warmer areas. 2. They are also found at great depths of oceans where relatively little light penetrates. 3. Usually reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation. 4. They reproduce asexually by biflagellate zoospores.
5
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Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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12204
140
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Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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12203
Which of the following is not true about red algae?
5
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Recommended Questions
Predominance of r-phycoerythrin in their body, Majority of them are found in colder areas...
2
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12202
Phycocyanin is the major pigment in:
5
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Recommended Questions
Red algae, Blue-green algae...
1
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12201
Study the following diagram carefully and select the correct statement given below for this plant
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Recommended Questions
It is a source of carrageenan, It shows the haplontic life cycle...
4
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12200
The members of phaeophyceae are characterized by all, except
5
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Recommended Questions
Presence of chlorophyll a, c and fucoxanthin pigments., Production of pear-shaped and biflagellated asexual spores....
4
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12199
In Phaeophyceae, the spores (zoospores) are
5
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Pyriform and bear 2 flagella (one longitudinal and other transverse)., Pear-shaped and bear 2 flagella that are laterally attached....
2
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12198
Choose the incorrectly matched pair:
5
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Ulothrix - Zygote is single celled diploid generation, Spirogyra - Zygote is a resistant structure...
4
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12197
Asexual reproduction by pear shaped biflagellate zoospores is seen in most:
5
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Recommended Questions
Green algae, Brown algae...
2
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12196
Leaf like photosynthetic organ is associated with algal group
5
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Showing only oogamous reproduction, Having predominance of r-phycoerythrin...
3
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12195
Mannitol is a sugar alcohol. It is as stored food in:
5
508
Recommended Questions
Fucus, Gracillaria...
1
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12194
Stipe, hold fast and frond are the terms associated with
5
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Recommended Questions
Gracilaria, Polysiphonia...
3
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12193
Asexual spores in brown algae are
5
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Recommended Questions
Non-motile sporangiospore., Biflagellated zoospores with two equal flagella....
4
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12192
Find the incorrect match
5
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Recommended Questions
Isogametes - Cladophora, Isogametes - Rhizopus...
3
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12191
Green algae do not store food in the form of
5
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Protein, Starch...
4
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12190
In oogamy, fertilization involves:
5
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A large non-motile female gamete and a small motile male gamete, A large non-motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete...
1
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12189
Identify the following statements as true (T) or false (F) and select the option accordingly (A) Members of Rhodophyceae asexually reproduce by motile spores (B) Members of Phaeophyceae do not show isogamous type of sexual reproduction (C) In some green algae, food is stored in the form of oil droplets
5
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T F T, F F F...
3
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12188
Which of the following has flagellated male and female gametes?
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Recommended Questions
Ulothrix, Volvox...
1
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12187
Which of the following is an example of anisogamous reproduction in Algae?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Eudorina, Volvox...
1
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12186
Which of the following is not correct with respect to Algae?
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Recommended Questions
Algae is in highly variable forms, Colonial form of algae - Volvox...
4
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12185
Algae is not
5
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Recommended Questions
Chlorophyll-bearing, Simple Thalloid...
3
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12184
Read the following statement and find out the incorrect statement. 1. Algae usually reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation, asexually by formation of different types of spores and sexually by formation of gametes. 2. Algae are classified into three classes, pteridophytes into four classes and angiosperms into two classes. 3. Algae are chlorophyll bearing simple, thalloid, autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms. 4. The plant body of algae is more differentiated than that of bryophytes.
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1. Algae usually reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation, asexually by formation of different types of spores and sexually by formation of gametes., 2. Algae are classified into three classes, pteridophytes into four classes and angiosperms into two classes....
4
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12183
Which of the following Algae shows anisogamy?
5
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Recommended Questions
Volvox., Eudorina....
2
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12182
Cell wall of green algae is made up of
5
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Recommended Questions
Inner layer of chitin and outer layer of pectose., Inner layer of cutin and outer layer of pectin....
4
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12181
Isogamous means
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Recommended Questions
Both the gametes are equally motile, Both the gametes are unequal in terms of motility...
3
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12180
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
5
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Recommended Questions
Chlamydomonas: Microscopic unicellular algae, Volvox: Colonial algae...
4
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12179
Algin
5
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Water holding substance, Obtained from brown algae...
4
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12178
Anisogamous
5
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Gametes dissimilar in size, Gametes are similar in size but not in motility...
1
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12177
Choose the correct statement.
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Recommended Questions
Many species of Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum are among 70 species of marine algae used as food., Agar is used to grow microbes and in preparations of ice creams and jellies....
4
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12176
Chlorella is not
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Recommended Questions
An unicellular alga, Rich in proteins...
4
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12175
Blue Green algae comes under
5
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Monera, Brown Algae...
1
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12174
Algae are useful because they
5
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Recommended Questions
are large in number, are used in alcoholic fermentation...
3
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12173
Agar is not used in
5
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Recommended Questions
To grow microbes, To prepare ice-creams...
4
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12172
Agar is not obtained from
5
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Recommended Questions
Gelidium, Gracilaria...
3
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12171
Which of the marine algae is not used as food?
5
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Recommended Questions
Laminaria, Sargassum...
4
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12170
The incorrect match for chlorophyll type is
5
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Recommended Questions
Chlorophyll 'a' .... Green algae, Chlorophyll 'd' ... Diatoms...
2
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12169
The members of Chlorophyceae-
5
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Recommended Questions
are not Green algae, are not unicellular, colonial, or filamentous plant body...
4
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12168
Oogamous
5
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Recommended Questions
Non-motile male gamete, Large male gamete...
3
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12167
Hydrocolloid is
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Water soluble substance, Water holding substance...
2
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12166
Algae may occur
5
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Moist Stones, Moist Soils and moist wood...
4
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12165
Algae can be found on
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Sloth bear, Dog...
1
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12164
Consider the following statements: Gymnosperms- I. Are plants in which the ovules remain exposed, both before and after fertilization. II. Have male and female gametophytes that have independent free-living existence. III. Are heterosporous. Which of the above statements are true?
5
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I and II only, I and III only...
2
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12163
Which of the following statements regarding gymnosperms are correct? I. Ovules are naked - not enclosed by any ovary wall before fertilisation but seeds that develop after fertilisation are covered. II. In all living Gymnosperms, sporophyte is dominant over the gametophyte. III. They are heterosporous. IV. The male and female gametophytes do not have an independent existence.
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Recommended Questions
I, II and III, I, III and IV...
3
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12162
Read the following statements: (a) More than one Archegonia (b) Show symbiotic association with Nitrogen fixing Cyanobacteria and fungus (c) Show heterosporous nature (d) Reduced male gametophyte is called a pollen grain. The above statement is related to which option?
5
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Recommended Questions
Bryophytes, Gymnosperms...
2
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12161
Read the following statements: A. The male or female cones or strobili may be borne on same tree in Pinus. B. In Cycas male cones and megasporophylls are borne on different trees. C. Stem of Cycas is branched and of Pinus and Cedrus is unbranched. D. In gymnosperms generally tap roots are found. Select the correct statements.
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Recommended Questions
A, B, A, B, D...
2
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12160
In which one of the following, the male and female gametophytes don't have free-living independent existence?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Pteris, Funaria...
4
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12159
The gametophyte is not an independent, free living generation in
5
508
Recommended Questions
Adiantum, Marchantia...
3
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12158
94
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Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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12157
Read the statement (a - d): a. The male and female gametophytes do not have independent existence. b. The multicellular female gametophyte is also retained within megasporangium. c. The gametophytic generation is reduced. d. Sporophylls are aggregate to form cone like structures. The above statements belong to which group of plant kingdom?
5
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Recommended Questions
Bryophytes, Pteridophytes...
3
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12156
The leaf of Pinus is
5
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Needle shaped, Compound leaf...
1
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12155
Which of the following statement is correct?
5
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Recommended Questions
Ovules are not enclosed by the ovary wall in gymnosperms., Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous....
1
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12154
Select the correct statement.
5
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Recommended Questions
Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms, Sequoia is one of the tallest trees...
2
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12153
Coralloid roots of gymnosperms are/have
5
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Recommended Questions
Irregular and possess large number of roots hairs., Symbiotic association with Rhizobium....
3
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12152
88
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Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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12151
The unbranched stem is character of which gymnosperm:
5
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Pinus, Cycas...
2
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12150
Pinus seeds cannot germinate and establish without fungal association. This is because:
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its seeds contain inhibitors that prevent germination., its embryo is immature....
3
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12149
Match the following selected the correct option. Column - I: Column - II: A. Pteris (i) Gymnosperm, B. Cycas (ii) Bryophyte, C. Sphagnum (iii) Algae, D. Sargassum (iv) Pteridophyta
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A - (iv), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iii), A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)...
2
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12148
Phylogenetic system of classification includes
5
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Recommended Questions
evolutionary trends only, genetic trends only...
1
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12147
Identify the incorrect statement: 1. The earliest systems of classification used only gross superficial morphological characters. 2. Linnaeus classification of plants was a natural classification as it was based on the androecium structure. 3. Artificial systems gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual characteristics. 4. Natural classification systems are based on natural affinities among the organisms
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Recommended Questions
The earliest systems of classification used only gross superficial morphological characters., Linnaeus classification of plants was a natural classification as it was based on the androecium structure....
2
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12146
Why are reproductive characters given more weightage during advanced classification?
5
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Recommended Questions
Vegetative characters are more or less constant over the generation, Reproductive characters are less constant over the generation...
3
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12145
The main reason of failure of artificial classification was
5
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Recommended Questions
It considered only vegetative characters, It gave more weightage to vegetative characters...
4
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12144
80
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Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
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12143
Identify the incorrect statement:
5
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Numerical Taxonomy is based on all observable characteristics., More weightage is given to reproductive characters and all other characters are given equal importance in numerical taxonomy....
2
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12142
78
5
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Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
12141
Chemotaxonomy
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Chemical constituents of the plant, Cell structure...
1
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12140
Who proposed a five-kingdom classification and named kingdoms as Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia?
5
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Recommended Questions
Herbert Copeland, RH Whittaker...
2
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12139
Which one of the following is a correct statement?
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Recommended Questions
Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage, In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free-living...
4
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12138
Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Volvox, Ulothrix, Fucus, Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Gelidium, Acetabularia, Laminaria. Out of these 10 organisms, how many organisms belong to the class chlorophyceae, phaeophyceae and rhodophyceae respectively?
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4, 3, 3, 4, 4, 2...
3
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12137
Vegetative reproduction in chlorophyceae takes place by
5
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Recommended Questions
Fragmentation + spore formation, Only spore formation...
1
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12136
Asexual reproduction in chlorophyceae is by
5
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Recommended Questions
Zoospore formation in Antheriodiophore, Fragmentation...
3
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12135
In the given diagrams, some of the algae have been labelled as A, B, C, D and E. Choose the correct option to identify these algae.
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Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Fucus, Laminaria, Porphyra, Dictyota, Laminaria, Fucus, Polysiphonia...
3
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12134
Which pair(s) is/are incorrectly matched? I. Phaeophyceae - Algin in cell wall II. Chlorophyceae - Laminarin is stored food III. Rhodophyceae - 2, unequal, lateral flagella
5
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Only II, Only III...
4
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12133
This picture is associated with an organism that belongs to a class. Which of the following features is not correct about that class?
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Recommended Questions
Three types of sexual reproduction, A variety of chloroplast in different species...
3
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12132
Chloroplasts can be discoid, plate-like, reticulate, cup-shaped, spiral or ribbon-shaped in different species. Such variety can be found in
5
508
Recommended Questions
Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae...
1
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12131
Zoospore formed during asexual reproduction in chlorophyceae are
5
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Recommended Questions
Flagellated, Non-flagellated...
1
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12130
66
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Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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12129
Colonial algae is
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Volvox, Ulothrix...
1
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12128
Consider the following statements: I: Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular bundles. II: Main plant body in pteridophytes is sporophyte which is differentiated into true stem and leaves. III: Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous. Which of the above statements are true?
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Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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12127
Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step towards the evolution of seed habit because:
5
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Recommended Questions
Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte., Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds....
1
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12126
In ferns, Meiosis takes place at the time of:
5
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Recommended Questions
Spore formation, Spore germination...
1
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12125
In pteridophytes, antheridium are present in:
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Recommended Questions
Leafy gametophyte, Prothallus...
2
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12124
Gametophyte in the pteridophytes is: (i) Small, inconspicuous. (ii) Long-lived, unicellular. (iii) Mostly photosynthetic thalloid or saprophytic. (iv) Short lived, haploid. How many statements are correct with respect to gametophyte?
5
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Two, Three...
2
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12123
From an evolutionary point of view, retention of the female gametophyte with developing young embryo on the parent sporophyte for some time, is first observed in:
5
508
Recommended Questions
Gymnosperms, Liverworts...
4
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12122
A Prothallus is
5
508
Recommended Questions
A structure in pteridophytes formed before the thallus develops, A sporophytic free living structure formed in pteridophytes...
3
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12121
In Pinus: I. The stem is branched II. Roots have fungal association in the form of mycorrhiza III. The male and female strobili are borne on different trees. Of the above statements:
5
508
Recommended Questions
Only I is correct, Only II is correct...
3
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12120
Mark the incorrect statement (with respect to gymnosperms)
5
508
Recommended Questions
Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species, Dimorphic roots, stem and leaves in pinus...
4
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12119
Ovules present on loose megasporophylls, unbranched stem and dicotyledonous condition are features related to
5
508
Recommended Questions
Cycas, Pinus...
1
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12118
A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont is found in
5
508
Recommended Questions
Cycas, Cicer...
1
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12117
Select the correct statement:
5
508
Recommended Questions
Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms, Sequoia is one of the tallest trees...
2
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12116
Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of
5
508
Recommended Questions
broad hardy leaves, superficial stomata...
3
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12115
Which of the following statements is incorrect about gymnosperms?
5
508
Recommended Questions
They are heterosporous, Male and female gametophytes are free-living...
2
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12114
50
5
508
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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12113
The leaves of gymnosperms
5
508
Recommended Questions
Are not adapted to withstand extremes of temperature, May be simple or compound...
2
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12112
Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Dependent sporophyte, Heterospory...
2
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12111
In heterosporous members of the pteridophyta: 1. Development of embryo takes place within the female gametophyte 2. Zygote produces a multicellular and undifferentiated sporophyte 3. Gametophyte is monoecious 4. Spore germination is exosporic
5
508
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Development of embryo takes place within the female gametophyte, Zygote produces a multicellular and undifferentiated sporophyte...
1
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12110
In ferns, fertilization does not involve:
5
508
Recommended Questions
Archegonia, Water...
3
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12109
Which one of the following is heterosporous?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Dryopteris, Salvinia...
2
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12108
In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires
5
508
Recommended Questions
insects, birds...
3
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12107
The given diagram shows:
5
508
Recommended Questions
An alga that lacks flagellated cells, A liverwort...
3
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12106
In mosses, the sex organs are seen in:
5
508
Recommended Questions
Protonema stage, Leafy stage...
2
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12105
Secondary protonema of moss
5
508
Recommended Questions
Helps in propagation by fragmentation, Helps in propagation by budding...
4
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12104
The plant body of moss (funaria) is
5
508
Recommended Questions
completely sporophyte, predominantly sporophyte with gametophyte...
4
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12103
Read the following statements and select the incorrect ones: (a) Mosses have an elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal. (b) In liverworts, the haploid free living sporophyte is formed by spore germination. (c) Vegetative reproduction in Polythrichum occurs by budding in the secondary protonema. (d) Marchantia is a heterosporous bryophyte. (e) Growth of bog moss ultimately fills ponds and lakes with soil
5
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(a), (b) and (c), (d) and (e) only...
3
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12102
38
5
508
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1, 2...
1
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12101
The gemmae produced by some liverworts function as:
5
508
Recommended Questions
A water gathering structure, A light capturing structure...
4
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12100
Consider the following statements regarding bryophytes: I. Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom because they are dependent on water for sexual reproduction. II. They play an important role in plant succession on bare rocks. III. They lack true roots, stem or leaves. IV. The sex organs in bryophytes are multicellular. V. They produce biflagellate zoospores. VI. Archegonium is flask-shaped and produces a single egg. The number of corrected statements is
5
508
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3, 4...
3
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12099
In a moss, the sporophyte:
5
508
Recommended Questions
is partially parasitic on the gametophyte, produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte...
1
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12098
The most primitive among the living vascular plants are the
5
508
Recommended Questions
ferns, brown algae...
1
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12097
Male and female gametophytes are independent and free-living in
5
508
Recommended Questions
mustard, castor...
4
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12096
Read the following statements regarding bryophytes and choose the incorrect option.
5
508
Recommended Questions
Gametophytic phase is dominant in life cycle, Fertilisation takes place in presence of water...
3
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12095
Gametophyte of Bryophyte is
5
508
Recommended Questions
Green and vascular., Independent, multicellular....
2
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12094
Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (A, B, C and D) correctly identified:
5
508
Recommended Questions
Antheridiophore, Male thallus, Globule, Roots, Archegoniophore, Female thallus, Gemma cup, Rhizoids...
2
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12093
Which of the following is responsible for peat formation?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Marchantia, Riccia...
4
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12092
Mosses and ferns are found in moist and shady places because both
5
508
Recommended Questions
require presence of water for fertilization, do not need sunlight for photosynthesis...
1
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12091
Consider the following statements: I: The stored food in Rhodophyceae is floridean starch. II: Cellulose and algin are present in the cell wall of Phaeophyceae. III: Chlorophyceae members have 2 laterally placed unequal flagella. Which of the above statements are true?
5
508
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I and II only, I and III only...
1
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12090
What is not true for red algae?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Lack centriole and flagella, Accessory pigments include phycocyanin, phycoerythrin and allophycocyanin...
4
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12089
Consider the following features: I. Chlorophyll a and Chlorophyll c II. Fucoxanthin III. Floridean starch IV. Flagella 2 in number, unequal and lateral Which of these are seen in Phaeophyceae?
5
508
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I, II, III, I, II, IV...
2
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12088
Which one of the following statements is wrong? 1. Algin and carrageenan are products of algae 2. Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria 3. Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food 4. Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae
5
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Algin and carrageenan are products of algae, Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria...
4
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12087
Which one is wrongly matched? 1. Uniflagellate gametes - Polysiphonia 2. Biflagellate zoospores - Brown algae 3. Gemma cups - Marchantia 4. Unicellular organism - Chlorella
5
508
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Uniflagellate gametes - Polysiphonia, Biflagellate zoospores - Brown algae...
1
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12086
Which of the following algae is likely to be found in the deepest waters?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Green, Brown...
3
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12085
Chlorophyll present in red algae is
5
508
Recommended Questions
a, d, a, b...
1
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12084
An alga which can be employed as food for human beings:
5
508
Recommended Questions
Ulothrix, Chlorella...
2
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12083
Consider the following statements regarding brown algae: I. The pigments are chl a, c and xanthophylls, fucoxanthin II. Storage food is laminarin and mannitol III. The cellulosic cell wall is covered with algin IV. They have a centrally located vacuole V. Their photosynthetic organs are called as fronds - leaf like structures VI. They have pear shaped biflagellate zoospores VII. They have two unequal laterally attached flagella. The number of correct statements is
5
508
Recommended Questions
5, 6...
3
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12082
Which of the following groups of algae produces algin?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Phaeophyceae and Chlorophyceae, Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae...
4
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12081
Mannitol is the stored food in:
5
508
Recommended Questions
Chara, Porphyra...
3
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12080
A student observed algae with chlorophyll 'a', 'd', and phycoerythrin. It should belong to:
5
508
Recommended Questions
Phaeophyta, Rhodophyta...
2
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12079
The pyrenoids are made up of
5
508
Recommended Questions
Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath, Core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath...
1
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12078
Male gametes are flagellated in
5
508
Recommended Questions
Polysiphonia, Anabaena...
3
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12077
Study the figure and find out incorrect statement.
5
508
Recommended Questions
Contains laminarin or mannitol as reserve food., Life-cycle is diplontic....
4
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12076
What is a, b, c, and d in the given table for algae?
5
508
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a : Starch; b : Phaeophyceae; c : 2, Lateral equal; d : Floridean starch, a : Glycogen; b : Phaeophyceae; c : 2 Lateral unequal; d : Floridean starch...
4
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12075
Sexual reproduction by non-flagellated but similar in size gametes is seen in:
5
508
Recommended Questions
Chlamydomonas, Volvox...
3
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12074
If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Types of pigments present in the cell, Nature of stored food materials in the cell...
1
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12073
Identify the incorrect statement regarding algae:
5
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Recommended Questions
At least a half of the total carbon dioxide fixation on earth is carried out by algae through photosynthesis., Around 70 species of freshwater algae can be used as food....
2
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12072
Match Column - I with Column - II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column - I Column - II A. Chlorophyta (i) Equisetum B. Lycopsida (ii) Chara C. Phaeophyta (iii) Selaginella D. Sphenopsida (iv) Ectocarpus Codes:
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A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (i), A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)...
1
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12071
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Algae increases the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment, Algin is obtained from red algae and carrageen from brown algae...
2
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12070
Select the wrong statement.
5
508
Recommended Questions
Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour, Anisogametes differ either in structure, function and behaviour...
3
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12069
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
5
508
Recommended Questions
Algin and carrageenan are products of algae, Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria...
4
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12068
An example of colonial alga is
5
508
Recommended Questions
Chlorella, Volvox...
2
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12067
Algae are useful
5
508
Recommended Questions
Because at least half of the total carbon dioxide fixation on Earth is carried out by algae through photosynthesis., Algae being photosynthetic can increase the level of dissolved oxygen in their immediate environment...
4
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12066
Asexual reproduction is by the production of different types of spores. Out of that most common is
5
508
Recommended Questions
Carpospore, Zoospores...
2
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12065
The reproduction in Algae occurs by
5
508
Recommended Questions
Vegetative, Asexual...
4
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12064
If the potential difference across ends of a metallic wire is doubled, the drift velocity of charge carriers will become:
1
1011
Recommended Questions
double, half...
1
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12063
The current in a wire varies with time according to the relation i = (3 + 2t) A. The amount of charge passing a cross section of the wire in the time interval t = 0 to t = 4.0 s would be: (where t is time in seconds)
1
1011
Recommended Questions
28 C, 30.5 C...
1
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12062
The current in a wire varies with time according to the equation I = (4 + 2t), where I is in ampere and t is in seconds. The quantity of charge which has passed through a cross-section of the wire during the time t = 2 s to t = 6 s will be:
1
1011
Recommended Questions
60 C, 24 C...
3
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12061
A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 × 10⁻⁴ ms⁻¹ in an electric field of 3 × 10⁻¹⁰ Vm⁻¹, has mobility of:
1
1011
Recommended Questions
2.5 × 10⁶ m²V⁻¹s⁻¹, 2.5 × 10⁻⁶ m²V⁻¹s⁻¹...
1
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12060
In a vernier callipers, one main scale division is x cm and n division of the vernier scale coincide with (n-1) divisions of the main scale. The least count (in cm) of the callipers is
1
1011
Recommended Questions
$(\frac{n-1}{n})x$, $\frac{nx}{(n-1)}$...
3
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12059
A body travels uniformly a distance of $(13.8\pm0.2)\text{ m}$ in a time $(4.0\pm0.3)\text{ s}$. The velocity of the body within error limits is
1
1011
Recommended Questions
$(3.45\pm0.2)ms^{-1}$, $(3.45\pm0.3)ms^{-1}$...
2
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12058
A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given time. He uses this data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in measurement of the distance and the time are $e_1$ and $e_2$ respectively, the percentage error in the estimation of g is
1
1011
Recommended Questions
$e_2-e_1$, $e_1+2e_2$...
2
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12057
A physical parameter a can be determined by measuring the parameters b, c, d and e using the relation $a=b^\alpha c^\beta /d^\gamma e^\delta$. If the maximum errors in the measurement of b, c, d and e are $b_1\%$, $c_1\%$, $d_1\%$, and $e_1\%$ respectively, then the maximum error in the value of a determined by the experiment is
1
1011
Recommended Questions
$(b_1+c_1+d_1+e_1)\%$, $(\alpha b_1+\beta c_1+\gamma d_1+\delta e_1)\%$...
4
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12056
In the relation $x=cos(\omega t+kx)$, the dimensions of $\omega$ are
1
1011
Recommended Questions
$[M^0LT]$, $[M^0L^{-1}T^0]$...
3
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12055
One femtometer is equivalent to
1
1011
Recommended Questions
$10^{15}\text{ m}$, $10^{-15}\text{ m}$...
2
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12054
The dimensions of gravitational constant G and the moment of inertia are respectively
1
1011
Recommended Questions
$ML^3T^{-2};ML^2T^0$, $M^{-1}L^3T^{-2};ML^2T^0$...
2
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12053
The maximum static friction on a body is $F=\mu N$. Here, $N=\text{normal reaction force on the body}$, $\mu=\text{coefficient of static friction}$. The dimensions of $\mu$ are
1
1011
Recommended Questions
$[MLT^{-2}]$, $[M^0L^0T^0\theta^{-1}]$...
3
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12052
$1~Wb/m^2$ is equal to
1
1011
Recommended Questions
$10^4$ gauss, $4\pi\times10^{-3}$ gauss...
1
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Delete
12051
200
5
502
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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12050
The fruiting bodies of Agaricus are also known as
5
502
Recommended Questions
cleistothecium, fairy rings...
3
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12049
Morels and Agaricus have edible fruiting bodies and belong to their respective class as.
5
502
Recommended Questions
Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes., Basidiomycetes and Ascomycetes....
1
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12048
197
5
502
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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12047
The sex organs are ______, but ________ is brought about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells of ________ strains or genotypes. The resultant structure is dikaryotic which ultimately gives rise to ______.
5
502
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Present, gametic contact, different, ascus., Absent, plasmogamy, different, basidium....
2
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12046
How many basidiospores are formed on the basidium?
5
502
Recommended Questions
2, 3...
3
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12045
The asexual spores are generally not found in –
5
502
Recommended Questions
Phycomycetes, Ascomycetes...
3
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12044
Which of the following does not belong to the class basidiomycetes?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Agaricus, Ustilago...
3
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12043
The dikaryotic condition is represented as
5
502
Recommended Questions
2n, 3n...
4
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12042
Which of the following does not belong to class ascomycetes?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Aspergillus, Neurospora...
4
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12041
Parasitic fungi of mustard is-
5
502
Recommended Questions
Mucor, Albugo...
2
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12040
Which of the following statement is correct for Deuteromycetes?
5
502
Recommended Questions
A large number of them are decomposers of litter, but do not help in mineral cycling, Mycelium is septate and branched...
2
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12039
The imperfect fungi such as Trichoderma
5
502
Recommended Questions
Reproduce sexually by spore formation, Have aseptate mycelium...
3
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12038
Deuteromycetes are known as 'imperfect fungi' because –
5
502
Recommended Questions
Only the sexual phases of these fungi are known., Because they do not have true cell wall...
3
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12037
Which of the following is correct about class Deuteromycetes? 1. Some members are saprophytes or parasites. 2. A large number of members are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling. 3. Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma are deuteromycetes. 4. All
5
502
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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12036
With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose the correct sequence of events.
5
502
Recommended Questions
Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis, Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy...
3
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12035
The basis for the division of the kingdom fungi into various classes is/are – (i). The morphology of the mycelium (ii). Mode of spore formation (iii). Fruiting bodies (iv). Type of pigment (v). Type of cell wall.
5
502
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a. i, iv and v, b. i, ii and iii...
2
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12034
Which of the following fungus lacks dikaryophase?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Claviceps, Puccinia...
4
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12033
Coenocytic hyphae are-
5
502
Recommended Questions
Continuous tubes filled with uninucleated cytoplasm, Continuous tubes filled with multinucleated cytoplasm...
2
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12032
181
5
502
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
12031
Which of the following with respect to habitat is cosmopolitan?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Protistan, Plants...
4
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12030
Fungi prefer to grow in-
5
502
Recommended Questions
Warm and dry places, Warm and moist places...
2
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12029
An intervening dikaryotic stage occurs in-
5
502
Recommended Questions
Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes, Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes...
2
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12028
We usually observe some colourful growth on moist bread and rotten fruits, what does it belong to?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Bacteria, Fungi...
2
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12027
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
5
502
Recommended Questions
Diatoms: Chief producers in oceans, Dinoflagellates: Red tides...
3
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12026
Euglenoids can be/have
5
502
Recommended Questions
Predator, With cell wall...
1
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12025
.......of dinoflagellates have .....flagella .....lie in a furrow between wall plates
5
502
Recommended Questions
All, 2, both, Many, 3, transverse flagella...
3
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12024
Which of the following statements regarding Euglenoids is not true?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Instead of a cell wall, they have a lipid rich pellicle, They have two flagella, a short and a long one...
1
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12023
Which of the following have pigment similar to higher plants?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Group which causes red tide., Group which is chief producer of ocean....
3
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Delete
12022
171
5
502
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
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12021
Pellicle is found in
5
502
Recommended Questions
Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates...
1
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12020
Which of the following property belongs to Dinoflagellates?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Loose cellulose plates in cell wall, The outer surface has more loosening of cell wall than inner...
3
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12019
Organisms responsible for causing 'red tide' are also characterized by 1. Presence of stiff cellulosic plates. 2. Obligate saprophyte. 3. Presence of two longitudinal flagella. 4. Filamentous body made up of trichomes.
5
502
Recommended Questions
Presence of stiff cellulosic plates., Obligate saprophyte....
1
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Delete
12018
Dinoflagellates- do not possess which feature?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Marine and photosynthetic, Variety in colors...
3
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12017
Members of the chrysophytes
5
502
Recommended Questions
Are macroscopic planktons, Are present in freshwater as well as in marine water...
2
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12016
Diatoms do not possess this character- (1) Two thick overlapping shell (2) Soap box type arrangement of cell walls (3) Indestructible cell walls (4) Leave cell wall deposits
5
502
Recommended Questions
Two thick overlapping shell, Soap box type arrangement of cell walls...
1
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12015
Diatomaceous earth is a result of accumulation of cell wall deposits of diatoms over
5
502
Recommended Questions
Billions of years, Millions of years...
1
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12014
Assertion (A): Diatomaceous earth is used in polishing, filtration of oil and syrups. Reason (R): Diatomaceous earth is gritty due to presence of silica.
5
502
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Both (A) and (R) are True, and (R) correctly explains (A), Both (A) and (R) are True, but (R) does not correctly explain (A)...
1
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12013
The cell wall is impregnated with silica to form transparent siliceous shell in
5
502
Recommended Questions
Dinoflagellates, Euglenoids...
3
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12012
Group of organisms in which cell wall forms two thin overlapping shells are
5
502
Recommended Questions
Responsible for bioluminescence., Chief producers of ocean....
2
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12011
Which of the following was not a feature of kingdom Monera but that of protista?
5
502
Recommended Questions
True genetic recombination, Cell wall...
1
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12010
The organism with nuclear membrane, cellular level of body plan and autotrophic mode of nutrition can be-
5
502
Recommended Questions
Protista, Fungi...
1
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12009
If an organism is made up of eukaryotic cell with cellular level of body organization, where should it be kept?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Animals, Plantae...
4
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12008
Which is incorrect regarding protista?
5
502
Recommended Questions
The boundaries of this kingdom is not clear, Forms a link with other organisms...
4
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12007
The kingdom protista does not include
5
502
Recommended Questions
photosynthetic organisms, flagellate organisms...
4
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Delete
12006
Cyanobacteria do not possess which feature?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Unicellular, Colonial or filamentous...
4
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Edit
Delete
12005
Heterocyst in blue-green algae
5
502
Recommended Questions
Lacks photosystem-I, Are specialised cells for photosynthesis...
4
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Edit
Delete
12004
The specialised cells to fix atmospheric nitrogen is called as
5
502
Recommended Questions
Heterocyst, Heterocyte...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12003
------- mycoplasma are pathogenic in ........
5
502
Recommended Questions
Many, animals and plants, All, animals and plants...
1
View
Edit
Delete
12002
The characteristic feature of eubacteria is -
5
502
Recommended Questions
Rigid cell wall, Flagellum in motile ones...
4
View
Edit
Delete
12001
Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria on the basis of 1. Cell membrane structure. 2. Cell wall structure. 3. Presence of vacuole. 4. Flagella structure.
5
502
Recommended Questions
Cell membrane structure., Cell wall structure....
2
View
Edit
Delete
12000
Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Archaebacteria, Eubacteria...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11999
Hot spring hosts which kind of archaebacteria?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Thermoacidophiles, Thermoalkalophiles...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11998
Bacterial structure and behaviour are respectively:
5
502
Recommended Questions
Simple, Simple, Complex, Simple...
3
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Edit
Delete
11997
Which of the following is not archaebacteria?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Halophile, Thermoalkalophiles...
2
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Edit
Delete
11996
Bacillus, Coccus, Vibrio, and Spirillum are four basic shapes of:
5
502
Recommended Questions
Bacteria, PPLO...
1
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Edit
Delete
11995
Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria does not help in recycling of
5
502
Recommended Questions
Nitrogen, Iron...
4
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Edit
Delete
11994
Which of the following is incorrect about bacteria?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Simple structure, Not so extensive metabolic activity...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11993
The organism in which cell wall is found and made up of polysaccharides and amino acid will be grouped under
5
502
Recommended Questions
Monera, Protista...
1
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Edit
Delete
11992
Which is not correct with respect to bacteria?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Sole members of kingdom monera, Most abundant organisms...
3
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Edit
Delete
11991
The biological classification was attempted instinctively
5
502
Recommended Questions
to make scientific studies easy, to use organisms for our own use...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11990
If only the mode of nutrition were to be considered then how many Kingdoms has to be together under saprophytic mode of nutrition
5
502
Recommended Questions
Except plantae and Animalia all three, Except monera and plantae all three...
3
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Edit
Delete
11989
Domain Eukarya includes how many kingdoms (with respect to six kingdom system)?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Two, Three...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11988
Identify the group that is not matched correctly to all the characters shown:
Group | Cell Type | Cell Wall | Nuclear Membrane | Body Organization
1. Monera | Prokaryotic | Absent | Absent | Cellular
2. Protista | Eukaryotic | Present in some | Present | Cellular
3. Fungi | Eukaryotic | Present | Present | Multicellular/loose tissue
4. Plantae | Eukaryotic | Present | Present | Tissue/organ
5
502
Recommended Questions
1 (69%), 2 (14%)...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11987
The first attempt for Biological classification was because of the need to use organisms for our own use. Here which kind of uses are considered?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Food and shelter, Food and Hunting...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11986
Animals differ from plants in
5
502
Recommended Questions
Being multicellular, Having cell wall...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11985
Which of the following is not true for three domain system?
1. Divides kingdom monera into two domains.
2. Third domain includes all eukaryotic organisms.
3. It resulted in six kingdom classifications.
4. It is not phylogenetic.
5
502
Recommended Questions
Divides kingdom monera into two domains., Third domain includes all eukaryotic organisms....
4
View
Edit
Delete
11984
Which of the following was not the limitation of two Kingdom classification?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Could not distinguish between eukaryotes and prokaryotes, Couldn't distinguish between unicellular and multicellular...
4
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Edit
Delete
11983
The presence of RBC to classify animals was used as a unique criterion by
5
502
Recommended Questions
Aristotle, Theopharastus...
1
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Edit
Delete
11982
First time the scientific basis for classification was attempted by -
5
502
Recommended Questions
Theopharastus, Aristotle...
2
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Edit
Delete
11981
The common characteristic shown by mushroom, smut and rust
5
502
Recommended Questions
is characterised by presence of basidiocarps, is characterised by presence of ascocarps...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11980
Identify the exogenous spore?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Zoospore, Basidiospore...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11979
128
5
502
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11978
Dikaryon phase appears during sexual reproduction of
5
502
Recommended Questions
Mushroom, Alternaria...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11977
Rusts and smuts belong to —
5
502
Recommended Questions
Phycomycetes, Ascomycetes...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11976
Which of the following does not belong to the class Deuteromycetes?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Alternaria, Colletotrichum...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11975
Smut is caused by-
5
502
Recommended Questions
Aspergillus, Claviceps...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11974
What causes rust of wheat?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Puccinia, Penicillium...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11973
122
5
502
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11972
Identify the following pictures (b) and (c).
5
502
Recommended Questions
b- Aspergillus; c- Mucor, b- Aspergillus; c- Agaricus...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11971
Which type of asexual spores are found in class Ascomycetes?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Conidia, Zoospore...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11970
119
5
502
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11969
Identify the group of fungi that is not correctly matched with all the characters given below:
1. Phycomycetes: Mycelium — aseptate and coenocytic / Asexual reproduction by motile zoospores or by nonmotile aplanospores / spores — endogenously produced in the sporangium
2. Ascomycetes: Mycelium — unbranched and septate / Asexual spores are conidia / Conidia produced endogenously on conidiophores.
3. Basidiomycetes: Mycelium — branched and septate / Asexual spores are generally not found.
4. Deuteromycetes: Only the asexual or vegetative phase of these fungi are known.
5
502
Recommended Questions
Phycomycetes, Ascomycetes...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11968
Select the incorrect statement with respect to fungi
5
502
Recommended Questions
Mycelium is consist of long slender thread like structures called hyphae, Aseptate and multinucleate hyphae is called coenocytic hyphae...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11967
Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its or their named taxonomic group?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Paramecium and _Plasmodium_ belong to the same kingdom as that of _Penicillium_, Lichen is a composite organism formed from the symbiotic association of an algae and a protozoan...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11966
Yeast belongs to the class —
5
502
Recommended Questions
Phycomycetes, Ascomycetes...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11965
Choose the wrong statement.
5
502
Recommended Questions
1. Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics., 2. Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics....
3
View
Edit
Delete
11964
Which of the following is known as Sac-fungi?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Phycomycetes, Ascomycetes...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11963
Which of the following is not a member of class phycomycetes?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Mucor, Rhizopus...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11962
Which of the following is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Aspergillus, Neurospora...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11961
Fungus known by the name of 'Bread mould' is —
5
502
Recommended Questions
Mucor, Albugo...
4
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Edit
Delete
11960
Which one of the following matches is correct?
5
502
Recommended Questions
(a) Phytophthora Aseptate Mycelium Basidiomycetes, (b) Alternaria Sexual reproduction Absent Deuteromycetes...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11959
Which class of fungi shows zygospore formation?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Phycomycetes, Ascomycetes...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11958
Which of the following is a non-motile spore in phycomycetes?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Zoospore, Oospore...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11957
Which class of Fungi has coenocytic and aseptate mycelium?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Phycomycetes, Ascomycetes...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11956
Which type of spores are found in the members of deuteromycetes?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Zoospore, Aplanospore...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11955
On the discovery of sexual phase in a fungus the mycologist moved it from class 'A' to ascomycetes. Identify the class 'A'?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Phycomycetes, Basidiomycetes...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11954
Fungi imperfecti constitute a group that
5
502
Recommended Questions
are obligatory parasites, reproduce only asexually...
2
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Edit
Delete
11953
102
5
502
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11952
The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to
5
502
Recommended Questions
Deuteromycetes, Basidiomycetes...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11951
Find the odd one with respect to the fungi imperfecti
5
502
Recommended Questions
Alternaria, Colletotrichum...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11950
Which of the following is the sexual spore?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Conidia, Sporangiospore...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11949
Which of the following is not involved in the sexual cycle of fungi?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Plasmogamy, Meiosis...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11948
How many of the following statements regarding fungi are true?
I. Asexual reproduction is common by the formation of spores.
II. Their bodies consist of hyphae that may be interconnected to form mycelium.
III. They secrete digestive enzymes onto organic matter and then absorb the products of the digestion.
IV. Fungi can break down almost any carbon containing product.
V. Fungi do not enter symbiotic relationships.
5
502
Recommended Questions
2, 3...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11947
Consider the following characters:
I. Heterotroph organisms
II. A dikaryon stage
III. Cell wall made of chitin
IV. Undergo nuclear mitosis
Which of the above relate to fungi?
5
502
Recommended Questions
I, II and III, I, III and IV...
4
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Edit
Delete
11946
Dikaryophase of fungus is-
5
502
Recommended Questions
Two nuclei per cell, Diploid nucleus...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11945
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like hyphae., Morels and truffles are edible delicacies....
1
View
Edit
Delete
11944
According to the five-kingdom classification system, which of the following kingdom has multicellular/loose tissue level body organization?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Protista, Plantae...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11943
In fungi, asexual reproduction takes place by
5
502
Recommended Questions
Fission, conidia and ascospores, Conidia, hypnospores and zoospores...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11942
Which of the following kingdoms primarily use the Saprotrophic mode of nutrition?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Protista, Monera...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11941
Fungi has symbiotic association with-
5
502
Recommended Questions
Algae, Roots of higher plants...
4
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Edit
Delete
11940
Which of the following is the asexual spore?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Basidiospores, Zoospores...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11939
Fungal bodies consist of long, slender thread-like structures called as-
5
502
Recommended Questions
Mycelium, Hyphae...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11938
Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?
5
502
Recommended Questions
They are eukaryotic, All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall...
2
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Edit
Delete
11937
Plant decomposers are
5
502
Recommended Questions
Monera and Fungi, Fungi and Plantae...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11936
Characteristic features of yeast are –
5
502
Recommended Questions
Unicellular, Reproduce by budding...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11935
84
5
502
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11934
One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is
5
502
Recommended Questions
peptidoglycan, cellulose...
4
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Edit
Delete
11933
Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called as-
5
502
Recommended Questions
Karyogamy, Plasmogamy...
2
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Edit
Delete
11932
The various spores produced in distinct structures are called as-
5
502
Recommended Questions
Sorii, Fruiting bodies...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11931
Select incorrect statement with respect to the following group of organisms and their characteristics
5
502
Recommended Questions
Chrysophyte - Includes diatoms and desmids, Planktonic organism., Dinoflagellate - Mostly marine and photosynthetic, cell wall has stiff cellulosic plate on outer surface....
4
View
Edit
Delete
11930
The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is known as:
5
502
Recommended Questions
protonema, Plasmodium...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11929
Choose the odd one out with respect to slime moulds
5
502
Recommended Questions
Spores possess true cellulosic walls, The body moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing organic material...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11928
Slime moulds aren't/haven't
5
502
Recommended Questions
Extremely resistant, Having spores which are dispersed by air currents...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11927
76
5
502
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11926
Saprophytic protists are:
5
502
Recommended Questions
Slime moulds, Dinoflagellates...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11925
Euglenoids are not
5
502
Recommended Questions
Mostly marine, Have pellicle...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11924
Euglenoids do not possess this feature-
5
502
Recommended Questions
Always photosynthetic, Pigments like higher plants...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11923
Which of the following is not associated with red tides
5
502
Recommended Questions
Harmful for marine organisms, Gonyaulax...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11922
$\text{Dinoflagellates can not appear}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\text{Black}$, $\text{White}$...
$\text{More than one option is correct}$
View
Edit
Delete
11921
$\text{'Red tide' is caused by}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\textit{Gonyaulax}$, $\textit{Ceratium}$...
$\textit{Gonyaulax}$
View
Edit
Delete
11920
$\text{Red tides in the sea are because of}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\text{Red dinoflagellates}$, $\text{Geladium}$...
$\text{Red dinoflagellates}$
View
Edit
Delete
11919
Red tides are due to the rapid multiplication of
5
502
Recommended Questions
Cyanobacteria, Chlamydomonas...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11918
Identify the organism that shows the following characteristics. (a) Zygotic meiosis (b) Causes red tide of the sea (c) Mesokaryon organisation (d) Whirling whips
5
502
Recommended Questions
Noctiluca, Gonyaulax...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11917
Which of the following feature does not hold true for chrysophytes?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Golden algae, Fresh water and aquatic both habitat...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11916
Which of the following feature is not associated with diatoms?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Chief producers of Earth, Form diatomaceous earth which has gritty soil...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11915
In which group of organisms the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells which fit together?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Chrysophytes, Euglenoids...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11914
Which of the following features does not go with characteristics of chrysophytes
5
502
Recommended Questions
Diatoms + Desmids, Rarely photosynthetic...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11913
Select the wrong statement.
5
502
Recommended Questions
The walls of diatoms are easily destructible, 'Diatomaceous earth' is formed by the cell walls of diatoms...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11912
$\text{Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\text{Dinoflagellates}$, $\text{Diatoms}$...
$\text{Diatoms}$
View
Edit
Delete
11911
Diatoms have left behind large amounts of cell wall deposits in their habitat because:
5
502
Recommended Questions
They are most abundant in that habitat, Their life span is long...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11910
Diatoms do not decay easily because
5
502
Recommended Questions
they have siliceous walls, their body is impervious to water...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11909
In case of protists sexual reproduction can be by
5
502
Recommended Questions
Cell fusion, Zygote formation...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11908
Protista differs from monera in having
5
502
Recommended Questions
cell wall, autotrophic nutrition...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11907
Select the correct statement:
5
502
Recommended Questions
Cholera, typhoid, tetanus are well-known diseases caused by viruses., Dinoflagellates, euglenoids and slime moulds are placed under kingdom Monera...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11906
Single-celled eukaryotes are included in
5
502
Recommended Questions
Protista, Fungi...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11905
Chrysophytes, euglenoids, dinoflagellates and slime moulds are included in the kingdom
5
502
Recommended Questions
Protista, Fungi...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11904
Protists obtain their food as
5
502
Recommended Questions
photosynthesizers only, chemosynthesizers...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11903
Find the incorrect match.
5
502
Recommended Questions
Heterocyst-Archaebacteria, Gelatinous sheath- BGA...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11902
Which of the following does not belong to the kingdom Protista?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Euglena, Dinoflagellates...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11901
Identify the labelled part in the given figure and select the correct option.
5
502
Recommended Questions
A: Heterocyst, B: Mucilaginous sheath, A: Mucilaginous sheath, B: Heterocyst...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11900
The cyanobacteria are also referred to as
5
502
Recommended Questions
protists, golden algae...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11899
$\text{Cells in some filamentous cyanobacteria that are specialized for nitrogen fixation are called:}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\text{Phycobilisomes}$, $\text{Chromatophores}$...
$\text{Heterocysts}$
View
Edit
Delete
11898
$\text{The outermost limiting layer of mycoplasma is made up of}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\text{cell wall}$, $\text{cell membrane}$...
$\text{cell membrane}$
View
Edit
Delete
11897
$\text{Cell wall is absent in}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\textit{Aspergillus}$, $\textit{Funaria}$...
$\textit{Mycoplasma}$
View
Edit
Delete
11896
$\text{Which one of the following statements is wrong?}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\text{Golden algae are also called desmids}$, $\text{Eubacteria are also called false bacteria}$...
$\text{Eubacteria are also called false bacteria}$
View
Edit
Delete
11895
Which, among the following, are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Pseudomonas, Mycoplasma...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11894
Choose the correct option for the given below figures.
5
502
Recommended Questions
Peritrichous bacteria, They do not contain both RNA and DNA...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11893
Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
5
502
Recommended Questions
Play a great role in recycling nutrients, Oxidises various organic substance...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11892
Which of the following is incorrect about Cyanobacteria?
5
502
Recommended Questions
They are photoautotrophs, They lack heterocysts...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11891
Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Archaebacteria, Eubacteria...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11890
Members of Kingdom Protista
1. are primarily aquatic
2. do not have membrane bound organelles
3. are all ciliated or flagellated
4. reproduce exclusively by asexual means
5
502
Recommended Questions
are primarily aquatic, do not have membrane bound organelles...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11889
Methanogens belong to
5
502
Recommended Questions
eubacteria, archaebacteria...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11888
Organisms called Methanogens are most abundant in a
5
502
Recommended Questions
cattle yard, polluted stream...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11887
Match the organisms in Column I with habitats in Column II.
| Column I | Column II |
|----------|----------|
| (a) Halophiles | (i) Hot springs |
| (b) Thermoacidophiles | (ii) Aquatic environment |
| (c) Methanogens | (iii) Guts of ruminants |
| (d) Cyanobacteria | (iv) Salty areas |
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
5
502
Recommended Questions
(a) (iv) (b) (i) (c) (iii) (d) (ii), (a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv)...
1
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Edit
Delete
11886
The guts of a cow and a buffalo possess:
5
502
Recommended Questions
Fucus sp, Chlorella sp...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11885
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the
5
502
Recommended Questions
thermoacidophiles, methanogens...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11884
The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to human in making curd from milk and in production of antibiotics are the ones categorized as
5
502
Recommended Questions
cyanobacteria, archaebacteria...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11883
Chemosynthetic autotrophs derive energy by
5
502
Recommended Questions
By sunlight, By oxidation of inorganic substances...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11882
Leguminous plants have bacteria with which kind of mode of nutrition-
5
502
Recommended Questions
Heterotrophs, Autotrophs...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11881
Chemosynthetic bacteria does not use which inorganic substrate?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Nitrites, Nitrates...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11880
Lactobacillus comes under which category
5
502
Recommended Questions
Autotrophs, Lithotrophs...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11879
The majority of heterotrophic bacteria are
5
502
Recommended Questions
Decomposers, Autotrophs...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11878
Which of the following is not a mode of bacterial reproduction?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Fission, Spore formation...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11877
Identify the incorrect statement regarding true bacteria?
5
502
Recommended Questions
As a group, they exhibit maximum metabolic diversity, Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play a great role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, iron and sulphur....
4
View
Edit
Delete
11876
The motile bacteria are able to move by:
5
502
Recommended Questions
fimbriae, flagella...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11875
$\text{If any organism has non cellulosic cell wall where can it be placed according to whittaker's system of classification?}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\text{Monera}$, $\text{Protista}$...
$\text{Both (1) and (3)}$
View
Edit
Delete
11874
$\text{Identify the blanks in the following figures -}$ $\text{The figure shows two diagrams: one of a dividing bacteria and another of Nostoc. Both diagrams have labeled parts A, B, C, D, and E that need to be identified.}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\text{A - Cell wall, B - Cell membrane, C - Heterocyst, D - DNA, E - mucilaginous sheath.}$, $\text{A - Cell wall, B - Cell membrane, C - DNA, D - Heterocyst, E - Mucilaginous sheath.}$...
$\text{A - Cell wall, B - Cell membrane, C - DNA, D - Heterocyst, E - Mucilaginous sheath.}$
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11873
$\text{Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\text{Fungi}$, $\text{Animalia}$...
$\text{Monera}$
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11872
$\text{Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells?}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\text{Escherichia coli}$, $\text{Euglena viridis}$...
$\text{Escherichia coli}$
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11871
Identify the incorrect statement regarding bacteria:
5
502
Recommended Questions
Bacteria are the most abundant microorganisms., Bacteria live in extreme habitats where very few other life forms can survive....
4
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11870
Pick up the wrong statement.
5
502
Recommended Questions
Cell wall is absent in Animalia., Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition....
4
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11869
Comma shaped bacteria are
5
502
Recommended Questions
coccus, Vibrio...
2
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11868
Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on:
5
502
Recommended Questions
Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus, Mode of reproduction...
2
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11867
Which of the following statement is not correct regarding biological classification?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Gross morphology was not considered in two Kingdom classification, Classification system has undergone many changes over the time...
1
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11866
The organism in which organ system level of body organization is found are
5
502
Recommended Questions
Plantae and Animalia, Plantae...
3
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11865
Which of the following statement is not incorrect with respect to biological classification attempted by Aristotle?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Based on complex morphological characters, Plants were classified into trees, shrubs and herbs...
2
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11864
$\text{According to R.H. Whittaker } \textit{Chlamydomonas} \text{ and } \textit{Chlorella} \text{ will be kept under}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\text{Monera}$, $\text{Protista}$...
$\text{Protista}$
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11863
Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to two Kingdom classification?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Developed at the time of Linnaeus, Used till very recently...
3
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11862
$\text{In five-kingdom classification, unicellular green algae are included in the kingdom}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\text{Metaphyta}$, $\text{Protista}$...
$\text{Protista}$
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11861
What kind of similarities are not targeted for evolving better classification system?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Morphological, Physiological...
4
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11860
Which out of the following was not the basis of the five kingdom classification?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Cell structure, Thallus organization...
4
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11859
Kingdom Animalia is characterised by
5
502
Recommended Questions
direct dependence on autotrophs, indirect dependence on autotrophs...
4
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11858
The five kingdom classification system was given by
5
502
Recommended Questions
1968, 1969...
2
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11857
In two Kingdom classification plantae had all bacteria, algae and fungi with them on the basis of
5
502
Recommended Questions
Presence of cell walls, Presence of nuclear membrane...
1
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11856
Evolutionary history of an organism is known as:
5
502
Recommended Questions
Phylogeny, Ancestry...
1
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11855
$\text{In five kingdom classification, which single kingdom contains blue-green algae, nitrogen-fixing bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria}$
5
502
Recommended Questions
$\text{Monera}$, $\text{Protista}$...
$\text{Monera}$
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11854
Heterotrophic, eukaryotic, multicellular organisms lacking a cell wall are included in the kingdom.
5
502
Recommended Questions
Protista, Fungi...
4
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11853
Which is wrongly matched?
5
502
Recommended Questions
Fungi - Heterotrophic group, Prokaryotes- Protista...
2
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11852
Consider the following regarding the reasons for the fact that now Cyanobacteria are kept in Monera and not in Plantae: I. They are prokaryotes. II. The cell wall of cyanobacteria has peptidoglycan. III. They can fix atmospheric nitrogen. The Correct explanations would be:
5
502
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
4
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11851
85
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
11850
84
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11849
83
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11848
82
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11847
81
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11846
80
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11845
79
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11844
78
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11843
77
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11842
76
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11841
75
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11840
74
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11839
73
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11838
72
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11837
71
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11836
70
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11835
69
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11834
68
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11833
67
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11832
The term 'systematics' refers to
5
501
Recommended Questions
identification and study of organ systems, identification and preservation of plants and animals...
3
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11831
First step of taxonomy is
5
501
Recommended Questions
Classification, Nomenclature...
4
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11830
Animals, dogs and mammals represent
5
501
Recommended Questions
Taxa at different levels, Taxonomic hierarchy...
1
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11829
Which of the following taxonomic category is less general in characters as compared to the taxonomic category 'Genus'?
5
501
Recommended Questions
Species, Division...
1
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11828
Order and higher taxon are identified on the basis of-
5
501
Recommended Questions
Similarities in characters, Dissimilarities in characters...
4
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11827
What is incorrect for taxonomic hierarchy?
5
501
Recommended Questions
There are 7 obligate and more than 21 intermediate categories, Higher the category, fewer the number of organism...
2
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11826
Higher the category....... is the ......of determining the relationship to other taxa at the same level.
5
501
Recommended Questions
Lesser, difficulty, Greater, difficulty...
2
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11825
Families are characterised a. On the basis of vegetative features b. On the basis of reproductive features c. Both a and b d. On the basis of morphological features.
5
501
Recommended Questions
On the basis of vegetative features, On the basis of reproductive features...
3
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11824
The family of Mangifera indica is
5
501
Recommended Questions
Anacardiaceae, Sapindales...
1
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11823
Select the correct sequence of taxonomic categories of Mango in ascending order
5
501
Recommended Questions
Mangifera → Anacardiaceae → Dicotyledonae → Sapindales → Angiospermae., Mangifera → Anacardiaceae → Sapindales → Dicotyledonae → Angiospermae....
2
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11822
Choose the correct from the followings: 1. Mangifera, is a name of species 2. Polymoniales, is a name of family 3. Dicotyledonae, is a name of division 4. Triticum, is a name of genus
5
501
Recommended Questions
Mangifera, is a name of species, Polymoniales, is a name of family...
4
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11821
Felidae does not have
5
501
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Dogs, Cats...
1
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11820
Order........ and primate comes under class........
5
501
Recommended Questions
Carnivora, mammalia, Diptera, Reptilia...
1
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11819
Taxa with least number of common characteristics are
5
501
Recommended Questions
Felis and Panthera, Potato, Brinjal and Makoi...
4
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11818
Polymoniales have families like Solanaceae and convolvulaceae mainly based on the -------------.
5
501
Recommended Questions
Floral characters, Aestivation...
1
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11817
Genus represents aggregate of closely related species. Which of the following group of species does not belong to same genus?
5
501
Recommended Questions
Potato, Brinjal, Brinjal, makoi...
4
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11816
Which statements is incorrect with respect to genus?
5
501
Recommended Questions
Each genus may have one or more than one specific epithets, It comprises a group of related species...
4
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11815
Cats come under Felis. Which taxon are we talking about?
5
501
Recommended Questions
Class, Order...
3
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11814
Kingdom- Phylum- Class- Order- Family- Genus- Species
5
501
Recommended Questions
Categories of plants, Categories of animals...
2
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11813
Which of the following set is not correct?
5
501
Recommended Questions
Potato and Brinjal, Lion, leopard and cat...
2
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11812
What does not hold true with Species?
5
501
Recommended Questions
Group of individual organisms, Having Fundamental similarities...
4
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11811
Step of classification does not represent-
5
501
Recommended Questions
Rank, Taxon...
3
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11810
As we go from species to kingdom-
5
501
Recommended Questions
a. The number of similarities gets reduced than previous taxon., b. The number of similarities gets increased than previous taxon....
1
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11809
All living organisms are linked to one another because
5
501
Recommended Questions
they have common genetic material of the same type, they share common genetic material but to varying degrees...
2
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Delete
11808
42
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
11807
The earliest classifications were based on the ____ of various organisms.
5
501
Recommended Questions
Morphology, Anatomy...
3
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11806
40
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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11805
Name of the author is not written in which of the following way?
5
501
Recommended Questions
After the specific epithet, In abbreviated form...
4
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11804
Binomial Nomenclature is the system
p. Given by Carolus Linnaeus
q. Practiced by scientists of Botany only
r. Provides a name with two components
s. Inconvenient than earlier naming systems
How many of the statements are correct?
5
501
Recommended Questions
2, 3...
1
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11803
The scientific term for biological classification categories is the:
5
501
Recommended Questions
Species, Taxon...
2
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11802
The processes which are not basic to taxonomy include?
5
501
Recommended Questions
Characterization, Identification...
3
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11801
Select the incorrect match with respect to the given taxonomic categories of wheat.
5
501
Recommended Questions
Genus - Triticum, Family - aestivum...
2
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11800
Which of the following is the correct scientific name of wheat derived by binomial nomenclature?
5
501
Recommended Questions
Triticum Vulgare, Triticum aestivum...
2
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11799
Biosystematics aims at:
5
501
Recommended Questions
The classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters, Delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships...
3
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11798
Practical purpose of taxonomy or classification is to:
5
501
Recommended Questions
facilitate the identification of unknown species, explain the origin of organisms...
1
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11797
Study of diversity of organisms and evolutionary relationship amongst them on the basis of all possible characters is called as
5
501
Recommended Questions
Taxonomy, Systematics...
2
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11796
Which arrangement is in correct ascending order?
5
501
Recommended Questions
Species < genus < order < family, Genus < species < family < order...
4
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Delete
11795
Which of the following 'suffixes' used for units of classification in plants indicates a taxonomic category of 'family'?
5
501
Recommended Questions
- ales, - onae...
3
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11794
Which of the following taxonomic categories are correctly matched to their standard termination of names with respect to biological classification of plants?
I Division: - phyta
II Class: - opsida
III Order: - ales
IV Family: - idae
5
501
Recommended Questions
I, II, IV, I, II, III...
2
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11793
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II regarding taxonomic categories of humans and choose your answer from the codes given below:
Column I | Column II
I. Family | 1. Primata
II. Order | 2. Hominidae
III. Class | 3. Chordata
IV. Phylum | 4. Mammalia
Codes:
| I | II | III | IV
1.| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4
2.| 2 | 1 | 4 | 3
3.| 2 | 1 | 3 | 4
4.| 1 | 2 | 4 | 3
5
501
Recommended Questions
1, 2, 3, 4, 2, 1, 4, 3...
2
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11792
Identify the correct match:
a. Felis: Canidae
b. Datura: Solanaceae
c. Petunia: Leguminaceae
d. Dogs: Felidae
5
501
Recommended Questions
a. Felis: Canidae, b. Datura: Solanaceae...
2
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11791
Which of the following taxonomic categories contains organisms least similar to one another?
5
501
Recommended Questions
Class, Genus...
1
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Delete
11790
Which of the following statements about classification is not true? I. Members of a family are less similar than members of an included genus. II. An order has more members than the number of members in an included genus. III. Families have more members than phyla. IV. The number of species in a taxon depends on their relative degree of similarity.
5
501
Recommended Questions
Only III, Only IV...
1
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11789
Match column I with column II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below: Column I A. Family B. Order C. Class D. Phylum Column II 1. Diptera 2. Arthropoda 3. Muscidae 4. Insecta Codes: A B C D
5
501
Recommended Questions
3 1 4 2, 2 4 1 3...
1
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Delete
11788
Felidae and canidae are included in the order-
5
501
Recommended Questions
Carnivora, Primata...
1
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Edit
Delete
11787
The highest category in the taxonomic hierarchy is
5
501
Recommended Questions
Kingdom, Phylum...
1
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Delete
11786
Species are considered:
5
501
Recommended Questions
Real basic units of classification, The lowest units of classification...
1
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Delete
11785
Genus has
5
501
Recommended Questions
More common character possessing group of one species than other species, More common character possessing group of species than species of other genera...
2
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Delete
11784
Genera are
5
501
Recommended Questions
An aggregate of different species, An aggregate of closely related species...
2
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Delete
11783
Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category?
5
501
Recommended Questions
Cuttlefish – Mollusca, a class, Humans – Primate, the family...
4
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Delete
11782
The taxon which includes related species is
5
501
Recommended Questions
class, order...
4
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Edit
Delete
11781
Taxonomic categories together makes-
5
501
Recommended Questions
Criteria for Nomenclature, Taxonomic Hierarchy...
2
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Delete
11780
Which of the following is matched incorrectly: a. Mangifera: indica b. Panthera: tuberosum c. Solanum: melongena d. Solanum: nigrum
5
501
Recommended Questions
Mangifera: indica, Panthera: tuberosum...
2
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11779
Taxonomic hierarchy refers to
5
501
Recommended Questions
step-wise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animals, a group of senior taxonomists, who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals...
1
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Delete
11778
Both the words in a biological name when handwritten are underlined or printed in italics to indicate :-
5
501
Recommended Questions
They are endangered, They are living...
3
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11777
What is the basic requirement to place organism in various categories?
5
501
Recommended Questions
Knowledge of characters of an individual or group of organisms, Knowledge of all identified species...
1
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Delete
11776
Identify the incorrect statement:
5
501
Recommended Questions
Biological names are generally in Latin and written in italics. They are Latinised or derived from Latin irrespective of their origin., The first word in a biological name represents the genus while the second component denotes the specific epithet....
3
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11775
Which of the following is wrong with respect to taxonomy? a. Process of classification b. External and internal structure, structure of cell development process and ecological information is the basis of modern taxonomic studies. c. Characterisation, identification are the only basic processes to taxonomy. d. Taxonomy is not something new.
5
501
Recommended Questions
Process of classification, External and internal structure, structure of cell development process and ecological information is the basis of modern taxonomic studies....
3
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Delete
11774
What is incorrect with respect to taxa?
5
501
Recommended Questions
Represents a category at different levels., Human and Homo sapiens represents different taxa....
2
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Delete
11773
Classification is not associated with
5
501
Recommended Questions
Grouping into convenient categories, Based on easily observable characters...
4
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Delete
11772
What is not true with respect to Systematics
5
501
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Systematic arrangement of organisms, Derived from latin word systema...
4
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11771
Systema Naturae is
5
501
Recommended Questions
Publication of Linnaeus, Institute for classification studies...
1
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11770
Which of the following is against the rules of ICBN?
5
501
Recommended Questions
Hand written scientific names should be underlined., Every species should have a generic name and a specific epithet....
4
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Delete
11769
ICBN stands for:
5
501
Recommended Questions
Indian Congress of Biological Names, International Code for Botanical Nomenclature...
2
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Delete
11768
The total number and types of organisms on earth represents the
5
501
Recommended Questions
Taxonomy, Biodiversity...
2
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Delete
11767
The system of the naming of organisms was developed by
5
501
Recommended Questions
Robert Hooke, Carolus Linnaeus...
2
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Delete
11596
Electron Transport System (ETS) is located in mitochondrial
5
506
Recommended Questions
outer membrane, inter membrane space...
3
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Edit
Delete
11595
In ETS the number of ATP molecules synthesized depends on
5
506
Recommended Questions
O₂, Substrate...
3
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Edit
Delete
11594
The order of electron transport is
5
506
Recommended Questions
Complex I- Complex III- Complex IV- Complex V, Complex II- Complex III- Complex IV- Complex V...
1
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Edit
Delete
11593
Ubiquinone carries electron from
5
506
Recommended Questions
Complex III to complex IV, Complex I to complex II...
4
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Delete
11592
The process by which ATP is produced in the inner membrane of a mitochondrion. The electron transport system transfers protons from the inner compartment of the outer; as the protons flow back to the inner compartment, the energy of their movement is used to add phosphate to ADP, forming ATP.
5
506
Recommended Questions
Chemiosmosis, Phosphorylation...
1
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Edit
Delete
11591
What is the complex which oxidizes NADH during ETS
5
506
Recommended Questions
Complex 1, NADH dehydrogenase...
4
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Edit
Delete
11590
Which of the following processes makes direct use of oxygen?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Glycolysis, Fermentation...
4
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Edit
Delete
11589
Select the mobile electron carrier in inner mitochondrial membrane
5
506
Recommended Questions
NADH dehydrogenase, Cytochrome C...
2
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Edit
Delete
11588
The mitochondrial electron transport chain is located in:
5
506
Recommended Questions
Outer membrane, Inner membrane...
2
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Delete
11587
Which of the following complex has got one Domain present in matrix and other domain in the inner membrane?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Complex I, Complex II...
4
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Delete
11586
The reduced ubiquinone is
5
506
Recommended Questions
Ubiquinol, It is oxidized with the transfer of electrons to cytochrome C via cytochrome bc₁ complex...
4
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Edit
Delete
11585
121
5
506
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11584
Cytochrome c includes except
5
506
Recommended Questions
Mobile carrier, Present on outer surface of inner membrane...
4
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Delete
11583
Cytochrome c-oxidase complex contains
5
506
Recommended Questions
Cytochromes a and a₃ with two copper centres, Cytochromes a and a₃ with single copper centre...
1
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Delete
11582
Find the wrong statement about the Electron Transport system:
5
506
Recommended Questions
Release and utilize the energy stored in NADH and FADH₂, Oxidizes NADH and reduces FADH₂...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11581
Complex three is
5
506
Recommended Questions
NADH dehydrogenase, Succinate dehydrogenase...
4
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Edit
Delete
11580
FADH₂ is oxidized by
5
506
Recommended Questions
Complex I, Complex II...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11579
In ETS, complex V is
5
506
Recommended Questions
ATP synthase, NADH dehydrogenase...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11578
Oxidation of two molecules of NADH gives
5
506
Recommended Questions
6 ATPs, 3 ATPs...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11577
The electrons which are coming from oxidation of NADH are transferred from complex I to
5
506
Recommended Questions
Ubiquinol, Ubiquinone...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11576
During which stage in the complete oxidation of glucose are the greatest number of ATP molecules formed from ADP:
5
506
Recommended Questions
Glycolysis, Krebs cycle...
3
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Edit
Delete
11575
Tripalmitin Which of the following is wrong? 1. A fatty acid 2. C₅₁H₉₈O₆ 3. C₄₈H₉₆O₅ 4. Both 1 and 3
5
506
Recommended Questions
A fatty acid, C₅₁H₉₈O₆...
3
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Delete
11574
Which of the following is not correct?
5
506
Recommended Questions
In living organisms, respiratory substrates are often more than one, Pure proteins and fats can also be used as respiratory substrate...
2
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Edit
Delete
11573
If RQ is 0.6 in a respiratory metabolism, it would mean that
5
506
Recommended Questions
Carbohydrates are used as respiratory material, Organic acids are used as respiratory substrate...
3
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Edit
Delete
11572
Select the correct statement
5
506
Recommended Questions
ATP formation occurs both in chloroplast and mitochondria, RQ of protein is 1.5...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11571
When tripalmitin is used as substrate in respiration, the value of RQ is found to be less than one because
5
506
Recommended Questions
It contains less number of carbon atoms than oxygen atoms., The amount of CO₂ evolved is more than the amount of O₂ consumed....
3
View
Edit
Delete
11570
When proteins are used as respiratory substrates, the respiratory quotient would be about:
5
506
Recommended Questions
1.2, 1.0...
3
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Edit
Delete
11569
For the substrate Glucose, how many Oxygen are used and how many Carbon-dioxide are evolved?
5
506
Recommended Questions
3,3, 6,3...
4
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Edit
Delete
11568
Respiratory Quotient
5
506
Recommended Questions
Some Ratio, Some amount of oxygen...
1
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Delete
11567
When (i) are used in respiration the RQ is (ii). Select the correct option for (i) and (ii) that make the sentence a correct sense.
5
506
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(i) Carbohydrates, (ii) > 1, (i) Proteins, (ii) > 1...
3
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Delete
11566
RQ (Respiratory Quotient) is defined as
5
506
Recommended Questions
Volume of CO₂ evolved = Volume of O₂ consumed, Volume of O₂ consumed...
3
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Delete
11565
RQ of tripalmitin is
5
506
Recommended Questions
6CO₂/6O₂, 102CO₂/145O₂...
2
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11564
The RQ of a substrate is found to be 0.9 what would be that substrate?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Carbohydrate, Fatty Acid...
4
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11563
The value of respiratory Quotient actually depends upon
5
506
Recommended Questions
The type of respiratory substrate used, The place in which respiration is occurring...
1
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11562
The ultimate electron acceptor of respiration in an aerobic organism is
5
506
Recommended Questions
cytochrome, oxygen...
2
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11561
The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is
5
506
Recommended Questions
NADH, oxygen...
4
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11560
Match the following columns. Column I A. Molecular oxygen B. Electron acceptor C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase D. Decarboxylation Column II 1. α-ketoglutaric acid 2. Hydrogen acceptor 3. Cytochrome-c 4. Acetyl Co - A Codes
5
506
Recommended Questions
2 3 4 1, 3 4 2 1...
1
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11559
Read the following statements: (a) F₀ part of ATPase is associated with breakdown of proton gradient (b) A H-carrier contributes in creation of proton gradient (c) Movement of electrons in ETS is coupled to pumping of protons into the lumen (d) Formation of NADPH + H⁺ is related with the creation of proton gradient How many of the above statements are correct?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Two, One...
4
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11558
In the given diagrammatic representation of ATP synthesis in mitochondria, A, B and C are respectively:
5
506
Recommended Questions
2H⁺, F₀ and F₁, 2H⁺, F₁ and F₀...
1
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11557
Oxidative phosphorylation is
5
506
Recommended Questions
formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from a substrate to ADP, oxidation of phosphate group in ATP...
4
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11556
The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is formed because
5
506
Recommended Questions
high energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins, ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space...
3
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11555
For each ATP produced, how many H⁺ passes through F₀ from the intermembrane space to the matrix down the electrochemical proton gradient?
5
506
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
11554
The individual amino acid enter the respiratory pathway at
5
506
Recommended Questions
Within Krebs' cycle, As Pyruvate or Acetyl CoA...
4
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Edit
Delete
11553
89
5
506
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11552
The individual amino acid enter the respiratory pathway at
5
506
Recommended Questions
Within Krebs' cycle, As Pyruvate or Acetyl CoA...
4
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Delete
11551
Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Glucose-6-phosphate, Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate...
4
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11550
86
5
506
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11549
Which of the following statements is incorrect? (1) Glucose is the favoured substrate for respiration (2) All carbohydrates are usually first converted into glucose before they are used for respiration (3) Other respiratory substrates are also respired but they do not enter the respiratory pathway at very first step (4) Fats directly enter the respiratory pathway
5
506
Recommended Questions
Glucose is the favoured substrate for respiration, All carbohydrates are usually first converted into glucose before they are used for respiration...
4
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11548
For the synthesis of Fatty acids, which of the following substrates will be used?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Acetyl CoA, PGAL...
1
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Delete
11547
83
5
506
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
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11546
In which one of the following do the two names refer to one and the same thing: 1. Kreb's cycle and Calvin cycle 2. Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle 3. Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle 4. Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle
5
506
Recommended Questions
Kreb's cycle and Calvin cycle, Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle...
2
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11545
Read the following statements and choose the option which is true for them. Statement-I: During conversion of succinic acid to fumaric acid in Krebs cycle, one molecule of FAD is synthesized. Statement-II: There are three steps in the Krebs cycle where CO₂ is released.
5
506
Recommended Questions
Only statement I is correct., Only statement II is correct....
4
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11544
In a coupled reaction, ....... is converted to ......with the simultaneous synthesis of ..........from ...... (The reaction of Krebs' Cycle of cellular respiration)
5
506
Recommended Questions
GDP, GTP, ADP, ATP, GTP, GDP, ATP, ADP...
2
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11543
Which statement is not correct for Krebs' cycle
5
506
Recommended Questions
Krebs' cycle occurs in mitochondrial matrix, Pyruvic acid condense with OAA to form citric acid...
2
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11542
The number of substrate level of phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is:
5
506
Recommended Questions
One, Two...
1
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11541
The very first step of TCA cycle involves except
5
506
Recommended Questions
Citrate synthase, A molecule of coenzyme A is released...
3
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11540
In which of the following conversion steps occurring in the mitochondrial matrix, substrate-level phosphorylation occurs?
5
506
Recommended Questions
1, 3-bisphosphoglyceric acid → 3-phosphoglyceric acid, Glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate...
4
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11539
75
5
506
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
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11538
Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle? 1. There are three points in the cycle where NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH + H⁺ 2. There is one point in the cycle where FAD⁺ is reduced to FADH₂ 3. During conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised 4. The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl Co-A) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid
5
506
Recommended Questions
There are three points in the cycle where NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH + H⁺, There is one point in the cycle where FAD⁺ is reduced to FADH₂...
4
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11537
From citrate to alpha-ketoglutarate in TCA cycle all the following reactions happen except
5
506
Recommended Questions
Isomerization, Decarboxylation...
4
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11536
Which of the following is the connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Acetyl Co-A, Oxalosuccinic acid...
1
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Edit
Delete
11535
71
5
506
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11534
At how many points, does the FADH₂ is produced during complete breakdown of Glucose?
5
506
Recommended Questions
One, Three...
1
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Delete
11533
From alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA in TCA cycle which of the following occurs
5
506
Recommended Questions
4C compound is formed, 5C compound is Formed...
1
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11532
68
5
506
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
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11531
At how many points during Krebs' cycle NADH is produced?
5
506
Recommended Questions
three, Four...
1
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11530
Complete the given reaction of the cycle present in the mitochondrial matrix: A + Acetyl CoA + H₂O → Citric acid (enzyme B)
5
506
Recommended Questions
A—Succinic acid; B—Pyruvate dehydrogenase., A—Malic acid; B—Transacetylase....
3
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11529
In Krebs's cycle, a molecule of GTP is produced during the conversion of:
5
506
Recommended Questions
Citrate into Ketoglutarate, Succinyl-CoA into succinate...
2
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11528
In cellular respiration, where is FADH₂ produced?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Conversion of BPGA to PGA, Conversion of succinate to Malate...
2
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11527
The synthesis of GTP in Krebs' cycle is
5
506
Recommended Questions
Oxidative Phosphorylation, Substrate Level Phosphorylation...
2
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11526
Which of the following is not used for the cyclic process of cellular respiration of carbohydrates?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Krebs' cycle, Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle...
4
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11525
Pyruvic acid, the key product of glycolysis, can have many metabolic fates. Under aerobic condition, it forms
5
506
Recommended Questions
lactic acid, CO₂ + H₂O...
2
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11524
Which of the following yield maximum energy?
5
506
Recommended Questions
By glycolysis in a sprinter, Aerobic respiration in germinating seeds...
2
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11523
How many molecules of NADH are produced during oxidation of one molecule of Glucose to Acetyl CoA?
5
506
Recommended Questions
2 NADH, 4 NADH...
2
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11522
When two molecules of glucose are completely oxidized in aerobic respiration, how many ATPs are generated through FADH₂?
5
506
Recommended Questions
6, 15...
3
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Edit
Delete
11521
57
5
506
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
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11520
Presence of oxygen is vital in aerobic respiration because:
5
506
Recommended Questions
It drives the whole process by removing hydrogen from ETS., Oxygen causes phosphorylation which is light stimulated....
1
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11519
Mark the incorrect match: Aerobic vs Anaerobic - Complete breakdown of glucose vs Partial breakdown; Net gain 38 ATP vs Net gain 2 ATP; Vigorously vs NADH oxidised slowly; CO₂ released vs No CO₂ released.
5
506
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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11518
Pyruvate is a result of ...... of carbohydrates.
5
506
Recommended Questions
Glycolytic fermentation, Glycolytic aerobic respiration...
3
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11517
The co-factor required for the activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase is:
5
506
Recommended Questions
Zinc, Magnesium...
2
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11516
If fatty acids were to be respired, they would first be degraded to:
5
506
Recommended Questions
Glucose-6 phosphate, Pyruvate...
3
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11515
The reaction which is catalyzed by Pyruvate dehydrogenase includes except
5
506
Recommended Questions
Several coenzymes, NAD⁺...
4
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11514
The oxidative decarboxylation of Pyruvate occurs in
5
506
Recommended Questions
Mitochondrial membranes, Cytoplasm...
4
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11513
During Aerobic respiration, one molecule of Glucose gives
5
506
Recommended Questions
A net gain of 38 ATPs, Production of 38 ATPs...
1
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11512
NADH synthesized in glycolysis of aerobic respiration is transferred into
5
506
Recommended Questions
Cytoplasm for oxidative phosphorylation., Mitochondria for oxidative phosphorylation....
2
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11511
The enzyme Pyruvate dehydrogenase acts in
5
506
Recommended Questions
Mitochondrial membranes, Cytoplasm...
4
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11510
The process used in conversion of Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA is
5
506
Recommended Questions
Oxidative dehydration, Oxidative decarboxylation...
2
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11509
The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to:
5
506
Recommended Questions
yield energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the respiratory chain., act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water...
2
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11508
The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of:
5
506
Recommended Questions
ATP in small stepwise units, ATP in one large oxidation reaction...
1
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11507
The substrate which enters in Krebs' cycle during oxidation of Glucose is
5
506
Recommended Questions
Pyruvate, Acetyl CoA...
2
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11506
The first step of decarboxylation in cellular respiration is
5
506
Recommended Questions
Conversion of PGAL to DHAP, Conversion of PGAL to PGA...
3
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11505
Cell respiration is carried out by
5
506
Recommended Questions
ribosome, mitochondria...
2
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11504
Who elucidated Krebs' cycle for the very first time?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Frederick Kreb, Hans Kreb...
2
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11503
What is the correct order of the stages of cellular respiration?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Krebs' cycle electron- transport- chain glycolysis, Electron transport chain- Krebs' cycle - glycolysis...
3
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11502
Aerobic Respiration:
5
506
Recommended Questions
More common in higher organisms, Leads to complete oxidation of Organic substance in the presence of oxygen and release of Carbon-dioxide...
4
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11501
The enzymes involved in Alcoholic Fermentation is not
5
506
Recommended Questions
Pyruvate decarboxylase, Alcohol dehydrogenase...
3
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11500
The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidised without an external electron acceptor is called
5
506
Recommended Questions
glycolysis, fermentation...
2
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11499
Fermentation can take place in
5
506
Recommended Questions
Anaerobic conditions in many prokaryotes and unicellular Eukaryotes, Humans...
4
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11498
Which of the following is not the assumption considered to finalize the balance sheet of respiration?
5
506
Recommended Questions
There is sequential, orderly pathway functioning with one substrate forming the next and with glycolysis following TCA and Then ETS pathway, The NADH synthesized in Glycolysis is transferred into the mitochondria and undergoes Oxidative Phosphorylation...
4
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11497
In the absence of oxygen, the primary purpose of fermentation is to:
5
506
Recommended Questions
produce amino acids for protein synthesis, generate a proton gradient for ATP synthesis...
4
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11496
Which of the following acts as a reducing agent in Fermentation?
5
506
Recommended Questions
NADH + H⁺, NAD⁺...
1
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11495
In Fermentation (1) The amount of energy trapped in the form of ATP is 7 per cent of the energy in Glucose (2) The amount of energy trapped in the form of ATP is more than 7 per cent of the energy in Glucose (3) The amount of energy released is less than 7 per cent of the energy stored in Glucose (4) The amount of energy released is more than 7 per cent of the energy stored in Glucose
5
506
Recommended Questions
The amount of energy trapped in the form of ATP is 7 per cent of the energy in Glucose, The amount of energy trapped in the form of ATP is more than 7 per cent of the energy in Glucose...
3
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11494
Alcoholic Fermentation is observed in case of
5
506
Recommended Questions
Muscles undergoing vigorous exercise, Anaerobic Bacteria...
3
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11493
If a yeast performs Fermentation such that the concentration of the Alcohol reaches to ........, then it poisons itself to ........
5
506
Recommended Questions
7 per cent, the stage of no budding, 5 per cent, the stage of no budding...
3
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11492
Fermentation- Which of the following is true?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Only partial breakdown of glucose, Net gain of only two molecules of ATP for each molecule of Glucose...
4
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11491
After glycolysis, fate of glucose in mitochondrial matrix is
5
506
Recommended Questions
oxidation, reduction...
3
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11490
Glycolysis is:
5
506
Recommended Questions
Oxidation of glucose to glutamate, Conversion of pyruvate to citrate...
3
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11489
Phosphorylation of glucose during glycolysis is catalysed by
5
506
Recommended Questions
phosphoglucomutase, phosphoglucoisomerase...
3
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11488
What is the total amount of ATP produced in Glycolysis?
5
506
Recommended Questions
4, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11487
23
5
506
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
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11486
During the process of respiration redox equivalents are removed:
5
506
Recommended Questions
In form of hydrogen atom., In form of an electron....
1
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11485
At which step, glycolysis reaches the break-even point: 2 molecules of ATP consumed, and 2 new molecules synthesized?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Splitting of fructose-6-phosphate into two trioses, Conversion of 1,3 bi-phosphoglycerate to 3 phosphoglycerate...
2
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11484
The metabolic fate of pyruvate depends on
5
506
Recommended Questions
Cellular Need, Pace of enzyme activity...
1
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11483
In which of the following reactions of glycolysis, a molecule of water is removed from the substrate? 1. Glucose → Glucose-6-phosphate 2. Fructose-6-phosphate → Fructose-1,6 bisphosphate 3. 2-phosphoglycerate → Phosphoenol pyruvate 4. Phosphoenol pyruvate → Pyruvate
5
506
Recommended Questions
Glucose → Glucose-6-phosphate, Fructose-6-phosphate → Fructose-1,6 bisphosphate...
3
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11482
The step of Glycolysis where NADH is produced actually results in P. Oxidation of PGAL Q. Reduction of NAD+ R. Production of BPGA S. Use of Inorganic phosphate T. Production of NADH+ H+
5
506
Recommended Questions
PQRST, QRS...
1
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11481
The energy yielding steps of glycolysis are
5
506
Recommended Questions
Conversion of PGA to BPGA and Conversion of PGAL to DHAP, Conversion of PGAL to PGA and Conversion of BPGA to PGA...
3
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Edit
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11480
Sucrose is converted into glucose and fructose by the enzyme:
5
506
Recommended Questions
Maltase, Zymase...
4
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11479
Phosphorylation of glucose during glycolysis is catalysed by
5
506
Recommended Questions
Phosphoglucomutase, Phosphoglucoisomerase...
3
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11478
Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalyzed by:
5
506
Recommended Questions
Phosphofructokinase, Aldolase...
3
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11477
The major ways through which different cells handle Pyruvate of Glycolysis are except
5
506
Recommended Questions
Lactic Acid Fermentation, Alcoholic Fermentation...
4
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11476
Choose the correct names of A, B, C and D
5
506
Recommended Questions
1,3 di PGA, 3 PGAld, Fr,1,6 di P, Fr. 6P, 3 PGAld, 1,3 Di PGA, Fr.1,6 di P, Fr. 6P...
4
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11475
In which compounds does sucrose is broken by Enzyme Invertase?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Glucose and galactose, Galactose and Fructose...
4
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11474
Fate of pyruvate produced by glycolysis depends on cellular needs, it can enter
5
506
Recommended Questions
Lactic acid fermentation, Alcoholic fermentation...
4
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Delete
11473
Glycolysis is found in cytoplasm of virtually all types of aerobic/anaerobic cells. In this process, glucose is converted into:
5
506
Recommended Questions
PEP, acetyl CoA...
3
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11472
Plants can get along without respiratory organs because of the following except:
5
506
Recommended Questions
Each plant part takes care of its own gas exchange needs, Plants do not present great demands for gas exchange....
3
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11471
Carbon skeletons produced during respiration is
5
506
Recommended Questions
Used as energy source, Used as precursors for biosynthesis of other molecules in the cell...
2
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11470
The plants do not breathe can be justified except
5
506
Recommended Questions
Plants do not have sophisticated organs for gaseous exchange, Each plant part takes care of its own gas-exchange needs...
3
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Delete
11469
Which of the following statement is correct?
5
506
Recommended Questions
Glycolysis is present in facultative anaerobes, not in obligate anaerobes, Usually carbohydrates are oxidised to release energy in cellular respiration...
2
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11468
The following statements are true except
5
506
Recommended Questions
All the food that is respired for the life processes comes from photosynthesis, Carnivores depend indirectly on plants for their food...
4
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Edit
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11467
The energy which is required for life processes is obtained by
5
506
Recommended Questions
Hydrolysis of Macromolecules, Hydrolysis of food...
3
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11466
Respiration is
5
506
Recommended Questions
Breaking of a type of bonds like ionic or non ionic of complex compounds through oxidation within the cell by utilizing bulk of energy, Breaking of C-C bonds of simple molecules through hydrolysis within the cell by releasing energy...
3
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11465
Respiratory substrates are the compounds (1) Which gets oxidized during Respiration (2) Which gets hydrolysed during Respiration (3) Which gets reduced during Respiration (4) Which catalyzes process of Respiration
5
506
Recommended Questions
Which gets oxidized during Respiration, Which gets hydrolysed during Respiration...
1
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11464
Which C4 compound is transported in Bundle Sheath cell?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Malate, Aspartate...
4
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11463
Column - I i. Jan Ingenhousz ii. Joseph Priestley iii. T.W Engelmann iv. Julius von Sachs Column - II a. discovery of O₂ b. Plants restore to the air whatever breathing animals and burning candles remove c. showed that only the green part of the plants could release oxygen d. discovery of production of glucose in plants e. first action spectrum of photosynthesis Using a prism he split light into its spectral components and then illuminated Cladophora, placed in a suspension of aerobic bacteria. Which of the following shows the correct match?
5
505
Recommended Questions
i-c; ii-b; iii-a, e, f; iv-d, i-a, b; ii-c; iii-d; iv- e, f....
4
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11462
In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary CO₂ acceptor is -
5
505
Recommended Questions
Oxaloacetic acid, Phosphoglyceric acid...
3
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Edit
Delete
11461
Hatch and Slack Pathway comes under which category?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Cascade, Linear...
3
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Edit
Delete
11460
160
5
505
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11459
What is incorrect about bundle sheath cells-
5
505
Recommended Questions
Multilayered, large number of chloroplasts...
3
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11458
Select the incorrect match from the following
5
505
Recommended Questions
One Calvin cycle — Requires 3 ATP and 2 NADPH, C₄ plant — Shows slower process of carbon fixation...
2
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11457
The first carbon dioxide fixation product of C₄ plant is
5
505
Recommended Questions
Oxaloacetic acid, ribulose biphosphate...
1
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Delete
11456
With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Light saturation for CO₂-fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight., Increasing atmospheric CO₂ concentration upto 0.05% can enhance the CO₂-fixation rate...
3
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11455
The step of decarboxylation during C4 cycle occurs in:
5
505
Recommended Questions
Only Mesophyll cells, Bundle Sheath cells...
2
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11454
Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO₂ acceptor in
5
505
Recommended Questions
C₃-plants, C₄-plants...
2
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11453
In the diagrammatic representation of the Hatch and Slack pathway, A and B respectively represent:
5
505
Recommended Questions
Mesophyll cells and Bundle sheath cells, Bundle sheath cells and Mesophyll cells...
1
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11452
Sunlight is essential for photosynthesis is established by
5
505
Recommended Questions
Jan Ingenhousz, Robert Hill...
1
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11451
Where exactly is, the PEP case found?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Only Mesophyll cells, Bundle Sheath cells...
1
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Delete
11450
The process which makes a major difference between C₃ and C₄ plants is:
5
505
Recommended Questions
glycolysis, Calvin cycle...
3
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11449
''Kranz anatomy'' is present in
5
505
Recommended Questions
All photosynthetic plants, Only C₃ plants...
4
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Delete
11448
For the synthesis of one glucose molecule, the Calvin cycle operates for:
5
505
Recommended Questions
2 times, 4 times...
3
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11447
C₄ and CAM plants have many similarities, like
5
505
Recommended Questions
Secondary CO₂ fixation by Rubisco, Scotoactive stomata...
1
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11446
Calvin cycle (C₃ cycle)
5
505
Recommended Questions
Is a feature of all chloroplast containing cells in plants, Is the main sugar-producing cycle in C₃, C₄, and CAM plants...
2
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11445
What is the primary acceptor of CO₂ in dark reaction?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Ketose sugar, Aldose sugar...
1
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11444
For assimilation of one CO₂ molecule via photosynthesis, the energy required in form of ATP and NADPH₂ are:
5
505
Recommended Questions
2 ATP and 2 NADPH₂, 5 ATP and 3 NADPH₂...
3
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Delete
11443
Which stage of the Calvin Cycle utilizes ATP?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Carboxylation, Reduction...
4
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Edit
Delete
11442
How many ATPs are required for regeneration of one molecule of RuBP?
5
505
Recommended Questions
2, 3...
2
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Edit
Delete
11441
Choose the incorrect statement regarding early experiments on photosynthesis
5
505
Recommended Questions
Priestley experiment revealed the essential role of air in the growth of a green plant, Ingenhousz showed that sunlight is essential to the plant processes...
4
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11440
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I | Column-II
---------|----------
a. Photolysis of water | (i) C₄ plants
b. Carboxylation of RuBP | (ii) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
c. Synthesis of ATP only | (iii) Cyclic photophosphorylation
d. Consumption of 5 ATP per CO₂ fixed | (iv) Calvin cycle
5
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Recommended Questions
a (ii), b (iv), c (iii), d (i), a (iii), b (iv), c (ii), d (i)...
1
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11439
If there are 12 molecules of CO₂ to be fixed in photosynthesis, then how many turns of the Calvin cycle and how many molecules of glucose will be synthesized respectively?
5
505
Recommended Questions
9 turns, 2 molecules., 12 turns, 1 molecule....
4
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11438
How many molecules of 3-PGA are produced during a single run of carboxylation?
5
505
Recommended Questions
3, 1...
3
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Delete
11437
The synthesis of one molecule of glucose during the Calvin cycle requires.
5
505
Recommended Questions
12 molecules of ATP and 18 molecules of NADPH₂, 6 molecules of ATP and 12 molecules of NADPH₂...
3
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11436
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
5
505
Recommended Questions
RuBisCO is a bifunctional enzyme, In C₄ plants, the site of RuBisCO activity is mesophyll cell...
2
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Delete
11435
The first dark reaction or CO₂ fixation product is-
5
505
Recommended Questions
3C – Organic Acid, 6C – Organic Acid...
1
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11434
Dark reaction depends upon-
5
505
Recommended Questions
Presence of darkness, Presence of light...
3
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Delete
11433
Melvin-Calvin used ------- radioactive in-----studies for the discovery of first CO₂ fixation product.
5
505
Recommended Questions
14C, Fungal photosynthesis, 14C, Algal photosynthesis...
2
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11432
For the formation of one molecule of Glucose, how many turns of fixation are required?
5
505
Recommended Questions
3, 2...
3
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Delete
11431
The order of the three steps of Calvin cycle is-
5
505
Recommended Questions
Carboxylation- Reduction-Regeneration, Reduction-Regeneration- Carboxylation...
1
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Delete
11430
One scientist cultured Cladophora in a suspension of Azotobacter and illuminated the culture by splitting light through a prism. He observed that bacteria accumulated mainly in the region of:
5
505
Recommended Questions
Violet and green light, Indigo and green light...
4
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11429
What is the primary acceptor of CO₂ in dark reaction?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Ketose sugar, Aldose sugar...
1
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11428
The following processes occur during photosynthesis
(i) Reduction of carbon dioxide
(ii) The splitting of water
(iii) The synthesis of glucose
(iv) Release of oxygen
(v) Formation of ATP
Which one of the following combinations is correct for the light phase?
5
505
Recommended Questions
i, ii and iii, iii, iv and v...
4
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11427
PS II is not found involved in
5
505
Recommended Questions
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation, Cyclic photophosphorylation...
2
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11426
Dark reactions of photosynthesis are actually not totally independent of light as:
5
505
Recommended Questions
The initial reactions occur in the presence of light., The reaction will be inhibited by the presence of light....
4
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11425
ATP and NADPH produced during photosynthesis, are used in which of the following reactions?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Catabolic, Biosynthetic phase...
2
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11424
In photosynthesis, energy from light reaction to dark reaction is transferred in the form of:
5
505
Recommended Questions
ADP, ATP...
2
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Delete
11423
Melvin Calvin used ------- radioactive in-----studies for the discovery of the first CO₂ fixation product.
5
505
Recommended Questions
¹⁴C, Fungal photosynthesis, ¹⁴C, Algal photosynthesis...
2
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11422
Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplasts and mitochondria is based on:
5
505
Recommended Questions
Membrane potential, Accumulation of K ions...
3
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11421
PGA as the first CO₂ fixation was discovered in the photosynthesis of
5
505
Recommended Questions
bryophyte, gymnosperm...
4
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11420
Select the Incorrect statement from the following.
5
505
Recommended Questions
Nostoc performs oxygenic photosynthesis., During photorespiration, O₂ is first utilized in chloroplast, and CO₂ is released in mitochondria....
3
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11419
Which of the following statement is correct?
5
505
Recommended Questions
H₂S is the hydrogen donor for purple and green sulphur bacteria., H₂O is the hydrogen donor for purple and green sulphur bacteria....
1
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11418
Proton gradient develops across the thylakoid membrane due to all, except
5
505
Recommended Questions
Splitting of water towards lumen side, NADP⁺ reduction towards stroma side...
3
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11417
Chemiosmosis (related with respiration, photosynthesis ETS) does not require
5
505
Recommended Questions
Membrane, a proton pump., ATP....
2
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11416
In plant cells, synthesis of ATP by the chemiosmotic mechanism occurs during
5
505
Recommended Questions
Photosynthesis only., Respiration only....
3
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11415
Identify 'A' with respect to ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis.
5
505
Recommended Questions
Cytochromes b and f, Cytochrome a and a₃...
1
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Delete
11414
Cyclic photophosphorylation is different from non-cyclic photophosphorylation as the former
5
505
Recommended Questions
Is performed by a collaboration of both PS-II and PS-I, Does not require any external source of electrons...
2
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11413
Study the pathway ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis given below – In which of the following options correct words for all the three blanks A, B, C and D are indicated –
5
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Recommended Questions
A – F₁, B – Thylakoid membrane, C – Photosystem (I), D – Photosystem (II), A – F₀, B – Thylakoid membrane, C – Photosystem (I), D – Photosystem (II)...
4
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11412
According to the chemiosmotic hypothesis, there is a basic difference between respiration and photosynthesis. This is _____
5
505
Recommended Questions
In chloroplast, H⁺ accumulation takes place in the lumen of thylakoid but in mitochondria, this takes place in perimitochondrial space., Accumulation of H⁺ in chloroplast takes place in matrix i.e., stroma and in mitochondria, this takes place in cristae....
1
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11411
Stroma lamella in plastid lacks
5
505
Recommended Questions
PS II and PS I., PS II and NADP reductase....
2
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Delete
11410
Where does oxygen come from during photosynthesis?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Oxidation of water, Oxidation of glucose...
1
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Delete
11409
The first step for initiation of photosynthesis will be:
5
505
Recommended Questions
Photolysis of water, Excitement of chlorophyll molecule due to absorption of light...
2
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Edit
Delete
11408
Blackman's law is related to
5
505
Recommended Questions
respiration, transpiration...
4
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Delete
11407
Which is not true regarding cyclic electron transfer system (ETS) in thylakoid membrane of higher plants?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Operates at low light intensity, Only PS I is involved...
4
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Delete
11406
Select the incorrect statement.
5
505
Recommended Questions
Carotenoids protect the plant from excessive heat and prevent photo-oxidation of chlorophyll pigments, All pigments other than chlorophyll a are called accessory pigments...
3
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Edit
Delete
11405
The thylakoid membrane bears several F₀ - F₁ particle ATPase/ATP synthase. Which of the following is incorrect for these particles?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Once of its part (F₀) is embedded in the membrane and forms a transmembrane channel that carries out facilitated diffusion of protons across the membrane, Its other part (F₁) protrudes out facing towards the stroma...
4
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Edit
Delete
11404
In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in
5
505
Recommended Questions
lumen of thylakoids, inter membrane space...
1
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Edit
Delete
11403
Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because
5
505
Recommended Questions
It can occur in dark also, It does not depend directly on light energy...
2
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Delete
11402
All the following regarding the role of xanthophylls and carotenoids in photosynthesis are correct except:
5
505
Recommended Questions
They act as accessory pigments, Their peak absorption is in blue and red regions of VIBGYOR...
2
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11401
Identify i, ii, iii and iv labellings in the following diagram:
5
505
Recommended Questions
i: stroma lamella, ii: thylakoid, iii: stroma, iv: genetic material, i: stroma lamella, ii: grana, iii: stroma, iv: starch granule...
2
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11400
The ________ in the leaves have a large number of ________, which align themselves along the walls of the ________, such that they get the ________ quantity of the incident light.
5
505
Recommended Questions
chloroplasts, chlorophyll, chloroplasts, optimum., mesophyll cells, chlorophyll, mesophyll cells, optimum....
3
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11399
Match the following: Column I - Column II i. grana - a. dark reaction ii. Stroma - b. light reaction - c. synthesis of ATP and NADPH⁺H⁺ - d. synthesis of sugar
5
505
Recommended Questions
i-b, c; ii-a, d., i-a, d; ii-b, c....
1
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Delete
11398
The correct equation, representing the overall process of photosynthesis is –
5
505
Recommended Questions
6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6H₂O + 6O₂, 6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂...
3
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Delete
11397
Photosynthesis is a-
5
505
Recommended Questions
Biochemical process, Physical process...
4
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11396
Which of the following is present in membrane of stroma lamellae?
5
505
Recommended Questions
NADP reductase, PS-I...
2
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11395
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Oxygen is released from water., Photosynthesis is a single step reaction....
2
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Delete
11394
Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) represents the following range of wavelengths:
5
505
Recommended Questions
450-950 nm, 340-450 nm...
3
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11393
Consider the following statements: I: Accessory pigments enable a wider range of light to be utilized for photosynthesis. II: The reaction center of PSI is P680 and that of PSII is P 700. III: The stroma lamellae membranes lack both PSII and NADP reductase. Which of the above statements are true?
5
505
Recommended Questions
I and II only, I and III only...
2
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11392
In the given diagram, X, Y, and Z respectively represent the absorption spectrum of:
5
505
Recommended Questions
Chlorophyll a, Chlorophyll b, and Carotenoids, Chlorophyll b, Chlorophyll a, and Carotenoids...
3
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11391
In the given graph what does A, B represent?
5
505
Recommended Questions
A - Absorption spectrum; B - Action spectrum (Chl. a)., A - Action spectrum; B - Absorption spectrum (carotenoids)....
4
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11390
Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll- 'a' is shown by-
5
505
Recommended Questions
I, II...
3
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Delete
11389
How many pigments are responsible for the color of a plant leaf?
5
505
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
11388
Which regions of the visible spectrum are responsible for most of the photosynthesis?
5
505
Recommended Questions
blue and yellow, blue and red...
2
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Delete
11387
Which pigment acts directly to convert light energy to chemical energy?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Chlorophyll a., Chlorophyll b....
1
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Delete
11386
Which of the following statements does not justify the importance of photosynthesis?
5
505
Recommended Questions
it is the primary source of all food on earth., it is responsible for the release of oxygen into the atmosphere....
3
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Delete
11385
The chloroplast stroma lamella membrane:
5
505
Recommended Questions
lacks PS II as well as NADP reductase enzyme., lacks PS II but has NADP reductase enzyme....
1
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Delete
11384
The ________ in the leaves, have a large number of ________, which align themselves along the walls of the ________, such that they get the ________ quantity of the incident light.
5
505
Recommended Questions
chloroplasts, chlorophyll, chloroplasts, optimum, mesophyll cells, chlorophyll, mesophyll cells, optimum....
3
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Delete
11383
The energy required for ATP synthesis in PS II comes from
5
505
Recommended Questions
Proton gradient, Electron gradient...
1
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Edit
Delete
11382
82
5
505
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11381
The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is formed because:
5
505
Recommended Questions
high energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins, ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the inter-membrane space...
3
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Delete
11380
Read the following four statements A, B, C and D and select the right option having both correct statements: STATEMENTS: (A) Z-scheme of light reaction takes place in the presence of PSI only (B) Only PSI functional in cyclic photophosphorylation (C) Cyclic photophosphorylation results in a synthesis of ATP and NADPH₂ (D) Stroma lamellae lack PSII as well as NADP
5
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Recommended Questions
A and B, B and C...
4
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11379
Identify a, b, c and d labellings in the following diagram.
5
505
Recommended Questions
i - stroma lamella; ii- thylakoid; iii-stroma; iv-genetic material, i- stroma lamella; ii- grana; iii-stroma; iv-starch granule...
2
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11378
How many of the following statements are correct? i. Products of dark reaction are substrates of light reaction. ii. Products of light reaction are substrates of dark reaction. iii. In the stroma, enzymatic reactions incorporate CO₂ into the plant leading to the synthesis of sugar. iv. Dark reactions are directly light-driven. v. Chloroplast is a single membranous organelle.
5
505
Recommended Questions
2, 3...
1
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11377
Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction of ATP formation during chemiosmosis?
5
505
Recommended Questions
ATP hydrolase, ATP synthase...
2
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Delete
11376
In chloroplast the movement of electrons from PS-II to electron transport system is-
5
505
Recommended Questions
uphill in terms of redox potential scale., downhill in terms of redox potential scale....
2
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11375
Examine the figure given below and select the wrong option
5
505
Recommended Questions
A - Present in only grana lamellae., B - involves downhill movement of electrons in terms of oxidation-reduction potential....
1
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11374
In photosynthesis, the light-independent reactions take place at
5
505
Recommended Questions
thylakoid lumen, photosystem I...
4
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Delete
11373
What does chemiosmosis require?
5
505
Recommended Questions
membrane, cytosol, proton pump, ATPase, and proton gradient, membrane, cytosol, proton pump, and H-ions...
3
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Edit
Delete
11372
Final acceptor in the Z-scheme of light reaction-
5
505
Recommended Questions
oxygen, NADPH...
3
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Delete
11371
In plant cells ATP is synthesised in-
5
505
Recommended Questions
mitochondria, chloroplast...
3
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Edit
Delete
11370
Cyclic-photophosphorylation results in the formation of
5
505
Recommended Questions
NADPH, ATP and NADPH...
4
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Edit
Delete
11369
Light harvesting complexes are made up of-
5
505
Recommended Questions
proteins, pigments...
3
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Edit
Delete
11368
There is a clear division of labour within the chloroplast. The membrane system is responsible for
5
505
Recommended Questions
Trapping of light energy, Conversion of CO₂ into glucose...
1
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Delete
11367
Which one is the correct sequence of electron transport from PS-II to PS-I?
5
505
Recommended Questions
P680—PQ—Cytochrome f—Plastocyanin—P700, P680—Cytochrome f—PQ—Plastocyanin—P700...
1
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Delete
11366
What does not cause the proton gradient across the membrane?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Splitting of water, Moving electrons through photosystems...
4
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Delete
11365
Where does cyclic photo-phosphorylation take place?
5
505
Recommended Questions
membranous system of chloroplast, stroma lamellae...
2
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Edit
Delete
11364
Which of the following is incorrect about the light reactions of photosynthesis?
5
505
Recommended Questions
P₆₈₀ and P₇₀₀ are the reaction centres of PS-I and PS-II respectively, Light energy provides energy for the photolysis of water through excitation of the reaction centre of PS-II...
1
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Delete
11363
The C₄ plants differ from C₃ plants with reference to the:
5
505
Recommended Questions
substrate that accepts CO₂ in carbon assimilation, type of end product...
1
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Delete
11362
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Electrons to PS-I are provided by PS-II, Electrons to PS-II are provided by the splitting of water...
3
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Edit
Delete
11361
In photosystem-I, P700 refers to-
5
505
Recommended Questions
chl-b, chl-a...
4
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Delete
11360
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation involves –
5
505
Recommended Questions
PS-I, PS-II...
3
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Edit
Delete
11359
59
5
505
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11358
The reaction centre with respect to cyclic photophosphorylation is
5
505
Recommended Questions
P₇₀₀, P₆₈₀...
1
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Edit
Delete
11357
Where does photosynthesis take place?
5
505
Recommended Questions
in green leaves, in green parts of plant...
2
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Delete
11356
Synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate in the presence of light is known as-
5
505
Recommended Questions
phosphorylation, photo-phosphorylation...
2
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Delete
11355
Production of NADPH in a chloroplast takes place during
5
505
Recommended Questions
cyclic photophosphorylation, non-cyclic photophosphorylation...
2
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Edit
Delete
11354
ATP synthesis is linked to-
5
505
Recommended Questions
Development of electron gradient, Development of atomic gradient...
3
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Edit
Delete
11353
Range of wavelength at which chlorophyll-a shows the maximum absorption:
5
505
Recommended Questions
400-450 nm, 450-500 nm...
3
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Edit
Delete
11352
How many pigments are responsible for the color of a plant leaf?
5
505
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
11351
Which of the following is the chief pigment associated with photosynthesis?
5
505
Recommended Questions
chl-a, chl-b...
1
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Edit
Delete
11350
50
5
505
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
11349
During light reaction in photosynthesis, the following are formed
5
505
Recommended Questions
ATP and sugar, hydrogen, O₂ and sugar...
3
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Edit
Delete
11348
During chemiosmosis, the transport of proton across the membrane occurs through-
5
505
Recommended Questions
Active Transport, Facilitated Diffusion...
2
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Delete
11347
The protons for the reduction of NADP⁺ are taken from-
5
505
Recommended Questions
Stroma, Lumen of Thylakoid...
1
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Delete
11346
Cornelius van Niel, who, based on his studies demonstrated that photosynthesis is essentially a light-dependent reaction performed his experiments on-
5
505
Recommended Questions
Cladophora, purple and green bacteria...
2
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Edit
Delete
11345
Where does exactly the NADP reductase enzyme located?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Thylakoid lumen, Thylakoid luminal side of membrane...
3
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Edit
Delete
11344
The difference in development of proton gradient in photosynthesis and respiration is-
5
505
Recommended Questions
Photosynthesis has thylakoid membrane across which proton gradient is generated, Proton accumulation is inside the membrane of thylakoid....
3
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Edit
Delete
11343
Where does the splitting of water take place?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Stroma, Cytoplasm...
3
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Edit
Delete
11342
Which of the following acts as a transmembrane channel?
5
505
Recommended Questions
F₀ of ATPase, F₁ of ATPase...
1
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Edit
Delete
11341
At low light conditions, which plant responds to high CO₂ conditions?
5
505
Recommended Questions
C3, C4...
3
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Edit
Delete
11340
The first step for initiation of photosynthesis will be:
5
505
Recommended Questions
Photolysis of water, Excitement of chlorophyll molecule due to absorption of light...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11339
Which is not true regarding cyclic electron transfer system (ETS) in thylakoid membrane of higher plants?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Operates at low light intensity, Only PS I is involved...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11338
Select the incorrect statement.
5
505
Recommended Questions
Carotenoids protect the plant from excessive heat and prevent photo-oxidation of chlorophyll pigments, All pigments other than chlorophyll a are called accessory pigments...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11337
The thylakoid membrane bears several F₀ - F₁ particle ATPase/ATP synthase. Which of the following is incorrect for these particles?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Once of its part (F₀) is embedded in the membrane and forms a transmembrane channel that carries out facilitated diffusion of protons across the membrane, Its other part (F₁) protrudes out facing towards the stroma...
4
View
Edit
Delete
11336
In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in
5
505
Recommended Questions
lumen of thylakoids, inter membrane space...
1
View
Edit
Delete
11335
Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because
5
505
Recommended Questions
It can occur in dark also, It does not depend directly on light energy...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11334
All the following regarding the role of xanthophylls and carotenoids in photosynthesis are correct except:
5
505
Recommended Questions
They act as accessory pigments, Their peak absorption is in blue and red regions of VIBGYOR...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11333
Identify i, ii, iii and iv labellings in the following diagram:
5
505
Recommended Questions
i. stroma lamella, ii. thylakoid, iii. stroma, iv. genetic material, i. stroma lamella, ii. grana, iii. stroma, iv. starch granule...
2
View
Edit
Delete
11332
The __________ in the leaves have a large number of ________, which align themselves along the walls of the __________, such that they get the ________ quantity of the incident light.
5
505
Recommended Questions
chloroplasts, chlorophyll, chloroplasts, optimum., mesophyll cells, chlorophyll, mesophyll cells, optimum....
3
View
Edit
Delete
11331
Match the following: Column I: i. grana, ii. Stroma; Column II: a. dark reaction, b. light reaction, c. synthesis of ATP and NADPH⁺H⁺, d. synthesis of sugar
5
505
Recommended Questions
i-b, c; ii-a, d., i-a, d; ii-b, c....
1
View
Edit
Delete
11330
The correct equation, representing the overall process of photosynthesis is -
5
505
Recommended Questions
6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6H₂O + 6O₂, 6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11329
C3 plants show saturation at----- ul/L.
5
505
Recommended Questions
450, 360...
1
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Edit
Delete
11328
Who gave the law of limiting factors and when?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Lieman-1906, Blackman-1905...
2
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Edit
Delete
11327
Water stress may cause which of the following?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Closure of stomata, Wilting of leaf...
4
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Edit
Delete
11326
Which of the following plants are grown in green house by exploiting a fact that higher CO₂ leads more productivity?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Tomatoes, Papaya...
1
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Edit
Delete
11325
Which of the following statements is correct?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Photorespiration is useful process., C4 plants are more efficient than C3 plants....
2
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Edit
Delete
11324
An action spectrum of photosynthesis was first described by:
5
505
Recommended Questions
Jan Ingenhousz, Julius von Sachs...
3
View
Edit
Delete
11323
The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of:
5
505
Recommended Questions
1 molecule of the 3-C compound, 1 molecule of the 6-C compound...
1
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Edit
Delete
11322
How many of them are wrong? p. RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme in plants only. q. RuBisCO has active site for O₂ only s. C3 cycle in C4 plants occur in Bundle sheath cells.
5
505
Recommended Questions
2, 3...
1
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Edit
Delete
11321
In photorespiration (C₂ cycle)
5
505
Recommended Questions
Glycolate is oxidised in mitochondria, CO₂ is released in peroxisome...
3
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Edit
Delete
11320
The evolution of C₄ photosynthetic system is probably one of the strategies for
5
505
Recommended Questions
Maximising the availability of CO₂ and minimising the loss of H₂O, Minimising the loss of O₂ and maximising the availability of H₂O...
1
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Edit
Delete
11319
The product of photorespiration-
5
505
Recommended Questions
Phosphoglycerate, Phosphoglycolate...
3
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Edit
Delete
11318
The __________ in the leaves, have a large number of__________, which align themselves along the walls of the __________, such that they get the __________ quantity of the incident light.
5
505
Recommended Questions
chloroplasts, chlorophyll, chloroplasts, optimum, mesophyll cells, chlorophyll, mesophyll cells, optimum....
3
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11317
Which of the following is wrong regarding photorespiration?
5
505
Recommended Questions
utilization of ATP, Production of little sugar...
2
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11316
Why photorespiration does not take place in C₄ plants?
5
505
Recommended Questions
Do not contain RuBisCo., Have a mechanism that increases the concentration of CO₂ at the enzyme site....
2
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11315
The Bundle sheath cells are rich in ------- while lacks----.
5
505
Recommended Questions
RuBisCo, PEPCase, PEPCase, RuBisCo...
1
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11314
The binding of RuBisCO for O₂ and CO₂ is -
5
505
Recommended Questions
Non-competitive, Competitive...
2
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11313
Carbon dioxide is necessary for photosynthesis. The chemical used to remove this gas most effectively from entering a control apparatus is
5
505
Recommended Questions
calcium oxide, distilled water...
3
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11312
The first product of C3 and C4 cycle are:
5
505
Recommended Questions
PGA, PGAL, PGA, OAA...
2
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11311
The C₄ plants grow very efficiently in warm climates because they
5
505
Recommended Questions
consume fewer ATP molecules for glucose synthesis, minimize photorespiratory losses...
2
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11310
$ ext{In the C4 pathway, which of the following molecules combines with carbon dioxide?}$
5
505
Recommended Questions
$ ext{glyceraldehyde phosphate}$, $ ext{ribulose biphosphate}$...
$ ext{phosphoenol pyruvic acid}$
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11309
Which of the following shows the correct match?
5
505
Recommended Questions
i-c; ii-b; iii-a, e, f; iv-d, i-a, b; ii-c; iii-d; iv- e, f...
4
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11308
Sunlight is essential for photosynthesis is established by
5
505
Recommended Questions
Jan Ingenhousz, Robert Hill...
1
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11307
Choose the incorrect statement regarding early experiments on photosynthesis
5
505
Recommended Questions
Priestley experiment revealed the essential role of air in the growth of a green plant, Ingenhousz showed that sunlight is essential to the plant processes...
4
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11306
One scientist cultured Cladophora in a suspension of Azotobacter and illuminated the culture by splitting light through a prism. He observed that bacteria accumulated mainly in the region of:
5
505
Recommended Questions
Violet and green light, Indigo and green light...
4
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11305
Which of the following statement is correct?
5
505
Recommended Questions
H₂S is the hydrogen donor for purple and green sulphur bacteria., H₂O is the hydrogen donor for purple and green sulphur bacteria....
1
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11304
Blackman's law is related to
5
505
Recommended Questions
respiration, transpiration...
4
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11303
Photosynthesis is a-
5
505
Recommended Questions
Biochemical process, Physical process...
4
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11302
Which of the following statements does not justify the importance of photosynthesis?
5
505
Recommended Questions
it is the primary source of all food on earth., it is responsible for the release of oxygen into the atmosphere....
3
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11301
Which of the following is not required in photosynthesis?
5
505
Recommended Questions
chlorophyll, Light...
4
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11300
$\text{Which of the following relationships between the acceleration } a \text{ and the displacement } x \text{ of a particle involves simple harmonic motion?}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$a = 0.7x$, $a = -200x^2$...
$a = -10x$
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11299
$\text{The velocity-time diagram of a harmonic oscillator is shown in the figure given below. The frequency of oscillation will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$25 \text{ Hz}$, $50 \text{ Hz}$...
$25 \text{ Hz}$
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11298
$\text{The displacement } x \text{ of a particle varies with time } t \text{ as } x = A\sin\left(\frac{2\pi t}{T} + \frac{\pi}{3}\right)$ $\text{. The time taken by the particle to reach from } x = \frac{A}{2} \text{ to } x = -\frac{A}{2} \text{ will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\frac{T}{2}$, $\frac{T}{3}$...
$\frac{T}{6}$
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11297
$\text{The figure shows the circular motion of a particle. The radius of the circle, the period, the sense of revolution, and the initial position are indicated in the figure. The simple harmonic motion of the } x \text{-projection of the radius vector of the rotating particle } P \text{ will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$x(t) = B\text{sin}\left(\frac{2\pi t}{30}\right)$, $x(t) = B\text{cos}\left(\frac{\pi t}{15}\right)$...
$x(t) = B\text{sin}\left(\frac{2\pi t}{30}\right)$
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11296
$\text{The radius of the circle, the period of revolution, initial position and direction of revolution are indicated in the figure. The } y \text{-projection of the radius vector of rotating particle } P \text{ will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$y(t) = 3 \text{cos}\left(\frac{\pi t}{2}\right), \text{ where } y \text{ in m}$, $y(t) = -3 \text{cos} \text{ } 2\pi t, \text{ where } y \text{ in m}$...
$y(t) = 3 \text{cos}\left(\frac{\pi t}{2}\right), \text{ where } y \text{ in m}$
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11295
$\text{A spring has a spring constant } k \text{. It is cut into two parts } A \text{ and } B \text{ whose lengths are in the ratio of } m : 1 \text{. The spring constant of the part } A \text{ will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\frac{k}{m}$, $\frac{k}{m+1}$...
$\frac{k(m+1)}{m}$
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11294
$\text{A spring-block system oscillates with a time period } T \text{ on the earth's surface. When the system is brought into a deep mine, the time period of oscillation becomes } T'. \text{ Then, one can conclude that:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$T' > T$, $T' < T$...
$T' = T$
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11293
$\text{A mass of } 30 \text{ g is attached with two springs having spring constant } 100 \text{ N/m and } 200 \text{ N/m and other ends of springs are attached to rigid walls as shown in the given figure. The angular frequency of oscillation will be}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\frac{100}{2\pi} \text{ rad/s}$, $\frac{100}{\pi} \text{ rad/s}$...
$100 \text{ rad/s}$
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11292
$\text{All the surfaces are smooth and the system, given below, is oscillating with an amplitude } A. \text{ What is the extension of spring having spring constant } k_1, \text{ when the block is at the extreme position?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{k_1}{k_1 + k_2} A$, $\frac{k_2 A}{k_1 + k_2}$...
$\frac{k_2 A}{k_1 + k_2}$
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11291
$\text{When a mass is suspended separately by two different springs, in successive order, then the time period of oscillations is } t_1 \text{ and } t_2 \text{ respectively. If it is connected by both springs as shown in the figure below, then the time period of oscillation becomes } t_0. \text{ The correct relation between } t_0, t_1 \text{ and } t_2 \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$t_0^2 = t_1^2 + t_2^2$, $t_0^{-2} = t_1^{-2} + t_2^{-2}$...
$t_0^{-2} = t_1^{-2} + t_2^{-2}$
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11290
$\text{Two springs, of force constants } \text{k}_1 \text{ and } \text{k}_2 \text{ are connected to a mass } \text{m} \text{ as shown in the figure. The frequency of oscillation of the mass is } \text{f}. \text{If both } \text{k}_1 \text{ and } \text{k}_2 \text{ are made four times their original values, the frequency of oscillation will become:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$2\text{f}$, $\text{f}/2$...
$2\text{f}$
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11289
$\text{A mass m is suspended from two springs of spring constant } \text{k}_1 \text{ and } \text{k}_2 \text{ as shown in the figure below. The time period of vertical oscillations of the mass will be}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$2\pi \sqrt{\frac{\text{k}_1+\text{k}_2}{\text{m}}}$, $2\pi \sqrt{\frac{\text{m}}{\text{k}_1+\text{k}_2}}$...
$2\pi \sqrt{\frac{\text{m}(\text{k}_1+\text{k}_2)}{\text{k}_1\text{k}_2}}$
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11288
$\text{On a smooth inclined plane, a body of mass } \text{M} \text{ is attached between two springs. The other ends of the springs are fixed to firm supports. If each spring has force constant } \text{K}, \text{ the period of oscillation of the body (assuming the springs as massless) will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2\pi \left(\frac{\text{M}}{2\text{K}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$, $2\pi \left(\frac{2\text{M}}{\text{K}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$...
$2\pi \left(\frac{\text{M}}{2\text{K}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$
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11287
$\text{In a spring pendulum, in place of mass, a liquid is used. If liquid leaks out continuously, then the time period of the spring pendulum:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\text{decreases continuously}$, $\text{increases continuously}$...
$\text{decreases continuously}$
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11286
$\text{A block } \text{P} \text{ of mass } m \text{ is placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. Another block } \text{Q} \text{ of same mass is kept on } \text{P} \text{ and connected to the wall with the help of a spring of spring constant } k \text{ as shown in the figure. } \mu_{s} \text{ is the coefficient of friction between } \text{P} \text{ and } \text{Q}. \text{ The blocks move together performing } \text{SHM} \text{ of amplitude } \text{A}. \text{ The maximum value of the friction force between } \text{P} \text{ and } \text{Q} \text{ will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$k\text{A}$, $\frac{k\text{A}}{2}$...
$\frac{k\text{A}}{2}$
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11285
$\text{The time period of a spring mass system at the surface of the earth is } 2 \text{ s.} \\ \text{What will be the time period of this system on the moon where the acceleration due to gravity is } \frac{1}{16}^{\text{th}} \text{ of the value of } g \text{ on the earth's surface?}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{6}}\text{ s}$, $2\sqrt{6}\text{ s}$...
$2\text{ s}$
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11284
$\text{All the surfaces are smooth and springs are ideal. If a block of mass } m \text{ is given the velocity } v_0 \text{ in the right direction, then the time period of the block shown in the figure will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\frac{12l}{v_0}$, $\frac{2l}{v_0} + \frac{3\pi}{2} \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}$...
$\frac{4l}{v_0} + \frac{3\pi}{2} \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}$
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11283
$\text{All the surfaces are smooth and springs are ideal. If a block of mass } m \text{ is given the velocity } v_0 \text{ in the right direction, then the time period of the block shown in the figure will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\frac{12l}{v_0}$, $\frac{2l}{v_0} + \frac{3\pi}{2} \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}$...
$\frac{4l}{v_0} + \frac{3\pi}{2} \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}$
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11282
$\text{A block is connected to a relaxed spring and kept on a smooth floor. The block is given a velocity towards the right. Just after this:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{the speed of block starts decreasing but acceleration starts increasing.}$, $\text{the speed of the block as well as its acceleration starts decreasing.}$...
$\text{the speed of block starts decreasing but acceleration starts increasing.}$
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11281
$\text{An ideal spring with spring-constant } K \text{ is hung from the ceiling and a block of mass } M \text{ is attached to its lower end. The mass is released with the spring initially un-stretched. Then the maximum extension in the spring will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$4Mg/K$, $2Mg/K$...
$2Mg/K$
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11280
$\text{A spring elongates by a length 'L' when a mass 'M' is suspended to it. Now a tiny mass 'm' is attached to the mass 'M' and then released. The new time period of oscillation will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2\pi \sqrt{\frac{(M+m)l}{Mg}}$, $2\pi \sqrt{\frac{ml}{Mg}}$...
$2\pi \sqrt{\frac{(M+m)l}{Mg}}$
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11279
$\text{The time period of a mass suspended from a spring is } T. \text{ If the spring is cut into four equal parts and the same mass is suspended from one of the parts, then the new time period will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\frac{T}{4}$, $T$...
$\frac{T}{2}$
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11278
$\text{A spring having a spring constant of 1200 N/m is mounted on a horizontal table as shown in the figure. A mass of 3 kg is attached to the free end of the spring. The mass is then pulled sideways to a distance of 2.0 cm and released. The frequency of oscillations will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$3.0 \text{ s}^{-1}$, $2.7 \text{ s}^{-1}$...
$3.2 \text{ s}^{-1}$
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11277
$\text{One end of a spring of force constant } k \text{ is fixed to a vertical wall and the other to a block of mass } m \text{ resting on a smooth horizontal surface. There is another wall at a distance } x_0 \text{ from the block. The spring is then compressed by } 2x_0 \text{ and then released. The time taken to strike the wall will be?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{6} \pi \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}$...
$\frac{2\pi}{3} \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}$
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11276
$\text{The period of oscillation of a mass } M \text{ suspended from a spring of negligible mass is } T. \text{ If along with it, another mass } M \text{ is also suspended, the period of oscillation will now be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$T$, $\frac{T}{\sqrt{2}}$...
$\sqrt{2}T$
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11275
$\text{The frequency of a spring is } n \text{ after suspending mass } M. \text{ Now, after mass } 4M \text{ mass is suspended from the spring, the frequency will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$2n$, $\frac{n}{2}$...
$\frac{n}{2}$
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11274
$\text{The time periods for figures (a) and (b) are } T_1 \text{ and } T_2 \text{ respectively. If all surfaces shown below are smooth, then the ratio } \frac{T_1}{T_2} \text{ will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$1 : \sqrt{3}$, $1 : 1$...
$1 : 1$
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11273
$\text{The time period of the spring-mass system depends upon:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\text{the gravity of the earth}$, $\text{the mass of the block}$...
both (2) & (3)
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11272
$\text{A particle is attached to a vertical spring and pulled down a distance of 0.01 m below its mean position and released. If its initial acceleration is } 0.16 \text{ m/s}^2\text{, then its time period in seconds will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\pi$, $\frac{\pi}{2}$...
$\frac{\pi}{2}$
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11271
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): If the bob of a simple pendulum is kept in a horizontal electric field, its period of oscillation will remain the same.}$ $\text{Reason (R): If bob is charged and kept in a horizontal electric field, then the time period will be decreased.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{(A) is False but (R) is True.}$
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11270
$\text{A simple pendulum is oscillating without damping. When the displacement of the bob is less than maximum, its acceleration vector } \vec{a} \text{ is correctly shown in:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\text{Option 1: Acceleration vector pointing up and to the left}$, $\text{Option 2: Acceleration vector pointing down and to the right}$...
$\text{Option 3: Acceleration vector pointing down and to the left}$
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11269
$\text{A simple pendulum of mass } m \text{ swings about point } B \text{ between extreme positions } A \text{ and } C\text{. Net force acting on the bob at these three points is correctly shown by:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Option 1: Forces at A and C point toward B, force at B points downward}$, $\text{Option 2: Forces at A and C point toward B, force at B points upward}$...
$\text{Option 2: Forces at A and C point toward B, force at B points upward}$
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11268
$\text{Two simple pendulums of length 1 m and 16 m are in the same phase at the mean position at any instant. If } T \text{ is the time period of the smaller pendulum, then the minimum time after which they will again be in the same phase will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3T}{2}$, $\frac{3T}{4}$...
$\frac{4T}{3}$
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11267
$\text{A simple pendulum hanging from the ceiling of a stationary lift has a time period } T_1. \text{ When the lift moves downward with constant velocity, then the time period becomes } T_2. \text{ It can be concluded that:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$T_2 \text{ is infinity}$, $T_2 > T_1$...
$T_2 = T_1$
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11266
$\text{The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of length } L \text{ suspended from the roof of a vehicle which moves without friction down an inclined plane of inclination } \theta, \text{ is given by:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g \cos \theta}}$, $2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g \sin \theta}}$...
$2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g \cos \theta}}$
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11265
$\text{A simple pendulum is pushed slightly from its equilibrium towards the left and then set free to execute the simple harmonic motion. Select the correct graph between its velocity } (v) \text{ and displacement } (x).$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\text{Hyperbolic curve opening towards upper and lower right}$, $\text{S-shaped curve}$...
$\text{Elliptical curve}$
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11264
$\text{The frequency of a simple pendulum in a free-falling lift will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $\text{infinite}$...
$\text{zero}$
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11263
$\text{A spring pendulum is placed on a rotating table. The initial angular velocity of the table is } \omega_0 \text{ and the time period of the pendulum is } T_0\text{. If the angular velocity of the table becomes } 2\omega_0\text{, then the new time period of the pendulum will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$2T_0$, $T_0\sqrt{2}$...
$\text{the same}$
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11262
$\text{A spring pendulum is placed on a rotating table. The initial angular velocity of the table is } \omega_0 \text{ and the time period of the pendulum is } T_0\text{. If the angular velocity of the table becomes } 2\omega_0\text{, then the new time period of the pendulum will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$2T_0$, $T_0\sqrt{2}$...
$\text{the same}$
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11261
$\text{A pendulum has time period } T\text{. If it is taken on to another planet having acceleration due to gravity half and mass 9 times that of the earth, then its time period on the other planet will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{T}$, $T$...
$\sqrt{2T}$
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11260
$\text{In a simple pendulum, the period of oscillation } T \text{ is related to the length of the pendulum } L \text{ as:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\frac{L}{T} = \text{constant}$, $\frac{L^2}{T} = \text{constant}$...
$\frac{L}{T^2} = \text{constant}$
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11259
$\text{If the length of a pendulum is made 9 times and the mass of the bob is made 4 times, then the value of time period will become:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$3T$, $\frac{3}{2}T$...
$3T$
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11258
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: If the acceleration of a particle is directed towards a fixed point, and proportional to the distance from that point – the motion is SHM.}$ $\text{Statement II: During SHM, the kinetic energy of the particle oscillates at twice the frequency of the SHM.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$...
$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$
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11257
$\text{A particle is executing SHM with time period } T. \text{ If the time period of its total mechanical energy is } T', \text{ then } \frac{T'}{T} \text{ will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$2$, $\frac{1}{2}$...
$\text{Infinite}$
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11256
$\text{For a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the kinetic energy is given by } K = K_0 \cos^2 \omega t. \text{ The maximum value of potential energy for the given particle:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\text{maybe } K_0$, $\text{must be } K_0$...
$\text{both (1) and (3)}$
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11255
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ is released from rest and follows a parabolic path as shown. Assuming that the displacement of the mass from the origin is small, which graph correctly depicts the position of the particle as a function of time?}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$x(t) \text{ shows a curve that increases to a peak and then decreases back toward zero}$, $x(t) \text{ shows oscillatory motion with positive and negative values}$...
$x(t) \text{ shows cosine-like oscillation starting from maximum amplitude}$
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11254
$\text{A body is executing simple harmonic motion. At a displacement } x\text{, its potential energy is } E_1 \text{ and at a displacement } y\text{, its potential energy is } E_2\text{. The potential energy } E \text{ at displacement } x + y \text{ will be?}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$E = \sqrt{E_1} + \sqrt{E_2}$, $\sqrt{E} = \sqrt{E_1} + \sqrt{E_2}$...
$\sqrt{E} = \sqrt{E_1} + \sqrt{E_2}$
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11253
$\text{A particle is executing SHM according to } y = a \cos \omega t\text{. Then, which of the following graphs represent variations of potential energy?}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\text{I and III}$, $\text{II and IV}$...
$\text{II and III}$
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11252
$\text{Two simple harmonic motions, } y_1 = a \sin \omega t \text{ and } y_2 = 2a \sin \left(\omega t + \frac{2\pi}{3}\right) \text{ are superimposed on a particle of mass } m\text{. The maximum kinetic energy of the particle will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2}m\omega^2 a^2$, $\frac{5}{4}m\omega^2 a^2$...
$\frac{3}{2}m\omega^2 a^2$
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11251
$\text{A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency } f. \text{ The frequency at which its kinetic energy changes into potential energy, will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\frac{f}{2}$, $f$...
$2f$
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11250
$\text{A particle executing simple harmonic motion has a kinetic energy of } K_0 \cos^2(\omega t). \text{ The values of the maximum potential energy and the total energy are, respectively:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$0 \text{ and } 2K_0$, $\frac{K_0}{2} \text{ and } K_0$...
$K_0 \text{ and } K_0$
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11249
$\text{The potential energy of a particle oscillating along the } x\text{-axis is given as } U = 20 + (x - 2)^2 \text{ where } U \text{ is in joules and } x \text{ in metres. The total mechanical energy of the particle is 36 J. The maximum kinetic energy of the particle will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$24 \text{ J}$, $36 \text{ J}$...
$16 \text{ J}$
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11248
$\text{The kinetic energy of a particle executing SHM is 16 J when it is in its mean position. If the amplitude of oscillations is 25 cm and the mass of the particle is 5.12 kg, the time period of its oscillation will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\pi}{5} \text{ s}$, $2\pi \text{ s}$...
$\frac{\pi}{5} \text{ s}$
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11247
$\text{The displacement between the maximum potential energy position and maximum kinetic energy position for a particle executing simple harmonic motion is:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\pm \frac{a}{2}$, $+a$...
$\pm a$
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11246
$\text{If the potential energy } U \text{ (in J) of a body executing SHM is given by } U = 20 + 10(\sin^2 100\pi t), \text{ then the minimum potential energy of the body will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\text{Zero}$, $30 \text{ J}$...
$20 \text{ J}$
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11245
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ oscillates in simple harmonic motion between points } X_1 \text{ and } X_2, \text{ the equilibrium position being } O. \text{ Its kinetic energy is correctly represented by which of the following graphs?}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Shows a parabola opening downward with maximum at equilibrium position } O \text{ and minimum at extreme positions } X_1 \text{ and } X_2$, $\text{Graph 2: Shows a sinusoidal wave with minimum at equilibrium position } O \text{ and maximum at extreme positions } X_1 \text{ and } X_2$...
$\text{Graph 1: Shows a parabola opening downward with maximum at equilibrium position } O \text{ and minimum at extreme positions } X_1 \text{ and } X_2$
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11244
$\text{A particle executes SHM with a frequency of 20 Hz. The frequency with which its potential energy oscillates is:}$
1
113
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$5 \text{ Hz}$, $20 \text{ Hz}$...
$40 \text{ Hz}$
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11243
$\text{The total energy of a particle, executing simple harmonic motion is:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\propto x$, $\propto x^2$...
$\text{Independent of } x$
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11242
$\text{Kinetic energy of a particle executing simple harmonic motion in straight line is } pv^2 \text{ and potential energy is } qx^2, \text{ where } v \text{ is speed at distance } x \text{ from the mean position. The time period of the SHM is given by the expression:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$2\pi\sqrt{\frac{q}{p}}$, $2\pi\sqrt{\frac{p}{q}}$...
$2\pi\sqrt{\frac{p}{q}}$
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11241
$\text{A block of mass 4 kg hangs from a spring of spring constant } k = 400 \text{ N/m. The block is pulled down through 15 cm below the equilibrium position and released. What is its kinetic energy when the block is 10 cm below the equilibrium position? [Ignore gravity]}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$5 \text{ J}$, $2.5 \text{ J}$...
$2.5 \text{ J}$
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11240
$\text{The kinetic energy (K) of a simple harmonic oscillator varies with displacement (x) as shown. The period of the oscillation will be: (mass of oscillator is 1 kg)}$
1
113
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$\frac{\pi}{2} \text{ s}$, $\frac{1}{2} \text{ s}$...
$\frac{\pi}{2} \text{ s}$
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11239
$\text{The potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator, when the particle is halfway to its endpoint, will be:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2E}{3}$, $\frac{E}{8}$...
$\frac{E}{4}$
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11238
$\text{When the displacement is half the amplitude in an SHM, the ratio of potential energy to the total energy is:}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2}$, $\frac{1}{4}$...
$\frac{1}{4}$
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11237
$\text{Equation of a simple harmonic motion is given by } x = a \sin \omega t. \text{ For which value of } x, \text{ kinetic energy is equal to the potential energy?}$
1
113
Recommended Questions
$x = \pm a$, $x = \pm \frac{a}{2}$...
$x = \pm \frac{a}{\sqrt{2}}$
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11236
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ oscillates with simple harmonic motion between points } x_1 \text{ and } x_2, \text{ the equilibrium position being } O. \text{ Its potential energy is plotted. It will be as given below in the graph:}$
1
113
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$\text{Parabolic curve with minimum at equilibrium position } O$, $\text{Inverted parabolic curve with maximum at equilibrium position } O$...
$\text{Parabolic curve with minimum at equilibrium position } O$
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11235
51
1
113
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1, 2...
4
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11234
50
1
113
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1, 2...
3
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11233
49
1
113
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1, 2...
1
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11232
48
1
113
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1, 2...
3
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11231
47
1
113
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1, 2...
4
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11230
46
1
113
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1, 2...
3
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11229
45
1
113
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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11228
44
1
113
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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11227
43
1
113
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1, 2...
3
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11226
42
1
113
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1, 2...
3
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11225
41
1
113
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1, 2...
4
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11224
40
1
113
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1, 2...
2
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11223
39
1
113
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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11222
38
1
113
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1, 2...
3
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11221
37
1
113
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1, 2...
3
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11220
36
1
113
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1, 2...
4
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11219
35
1
113
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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11218
34
1
113
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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11217
33
1
113
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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11216
32
1
113
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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11215
31
1
113
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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11214
30
1
113
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1, 2...
2
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11213
29
1
113
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1, 2...
2
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11212
28
1
113
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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11211
27
1
113
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1, 2...
4
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11210
26
1
113
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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11209
25
1
113
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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11208
24
1
113
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1, 2...
1
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11207
23
1
113
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1, 2...
4
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11206
22
1
113
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1, 2...
4
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11205
21
1
113
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1, 2...
2
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11204
20
1
113
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1, 2...
2
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11203
19
1
113
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1, 2...
2
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11202
18
1
113
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1, 2...
2
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11201
17
1
113
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1, 2...
4
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11200
16
1
113
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1, 2...
2
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11199
15
1
113
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1, 2...
3
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11198
14
1
113
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1, 2...
2
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11197
13
1
113
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1, 2...
3
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11196
12
1
113
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1, 2...
3
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11195
11
1
113
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1, 2...
3
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11194
10
1
113
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1, 2...
3
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11193
9
1
113
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1, 2...
4
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11192
8
1
113
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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11191
7
1
113
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1, 2...
1
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11190
6
1
113
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1, 2...
3
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11189
5
1
113
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1, 2...
4
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11188
4
1
113
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1, 2...
4
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11187
3
1
113
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1, 2...
1
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11186
2
1
113
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1, 2...
3
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11185
1
1
113
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1, 2...
4
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11184
$\text{According to the kinetic theory of gases,}$ $\text{Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:}$
1
112
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$\text{(A) and (C) only}$, $\text{(B) and (C) only}$...
$\text{(B) and (C) only}$
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11183
$\text{When the gas in an open container is heated, the mean free path:}$
1
112
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$\text{Increases}$, $\text{Decreases}$...
$\text{Increases}$
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11182
$\text{If the pressure in a closed vessel is reduced by drawing out some gas, the mean free path of the molecules:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{decreases}$, $\text{increases}$...
$\text{increases}$
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11181
$\text{If the mean free path of atoms is doubled, then the pressure of the gas will become:}$
1
112
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$\frac{P}{4}$, $\frac{P}{2}$...
$\frac{P}{2}$
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11180
$\text{The mean free path for a gas, with molecular diameter } d \text{ and number density } n, \text{ can be expressed as:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi nd^2}}$, $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2n^2\pi d^2}}$...
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi nd^2}}$
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11179
$\text{The mean free path for a gas, with molecular diameter }d\text{ and number density }n\text{, can be expressed as:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2n\pi d^2}}$, $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2n^2\pi d^2}}$...
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2n\pi d^2}}$
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11178
$\text{The mean free path } l \text{ for a gas molecule depends upon the diameter, } d \text{ of the molecule as:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$l \propto \frac{1}{d^2}$, $l \propto d$...
$l \propto \frac{1}{d^2}$
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11177
$\text{A cylinder of fixed capacity 44.8 litres contains helium gas at standard temperature and pressure. What is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of the gas in the cylinder by }15.0^\circ\text{C}? (R = 8.31\text{ J mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1})$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$379\text{ J}$, $357\text{ J}$...
$374\text{ J}$
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11176
$\text{The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of Helium at NTP, from } T_1 \text{ K to } T_2 \text{ K is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3}{2} N_a k_B (T_2 - T_1)$, $\frac{5}{2} N_a k_B (T_2 - T_1)$...
$\frac{3}{8} N_a k_B (T_2 - T_1)$
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11175
$\text{The value of } C_P - C_v = 1.00R \text{ for a gas in state A and } C_P - C_v = 1.06R \text{ in another state B. If } P_A \text{ and } P_B \text{ denote the pressure and } T_A \text{ and } T_B \text{ denote the temperatures in the two states, then:}$
1
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$P_A = P_B; T_A > T_B$, $P_A > P_B; T_A = T_B$...
$P_A < P_B; T_A > T_B$
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11174
$\text{The specific heat of a gas:}$
1
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$\text{has only two values } C_p \text{ and } C_v.$, $\text{has a unique value at a given temperature.}$...
$\text{can have any value between 0 and } \infty.$
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11173
$\text{For hydrogen gas, the difference between molar specific heats is given by: } C_P - C_V = a \text{, and for oxygen gas, } C_P - C_V = b \text{. Here, } C_P \text{ and } C_V \text{ are molar specific heats expressed in } \text{J mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1} \text{. What is the relationship between } a \text{ and } b\text{?}$
1
112
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$a = 16b$, $b = 16a$...
$a = b$
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11172
$\text{If } C_P \text{ and } C_V \text{ denote the specific heats (per unit mass) of an ideal gas of molecular weight } M \text{ (where } R \text{ is the molar gas constant), the correct relation is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$C_P - C_V = R$, $C_P - C_V = \frac{R}{M}$...
$C_P - C_V = \frac{R}{M}$
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11171
$\text{The specific heat of an ideal gas is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{proportional to } T\text{.}$, $\text{proportional to } T^2\text{.}$...
$\text{independent of } T\text{.}$
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11170
$\text{The figure shows a process for a gas in which pressure (P) and volume (V) of the gas change. If } C_1 \text{ and } C_2 \text{ are the molar heat capacities of the gas during the processes AB and BC respectively, then:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$C_1 = C_2$, $C_1 > C_2$...
$C_1 < C_2$
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11169
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The ratio } \frac{C_p}{C_v} \text{ is more for helium gas than for hydrogen gas.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Atomic mass of helium is more than that of hydrogen.}$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{(A) is True but (R) is False.}$
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11168
$\text{The ratio of the specific heats } \frac{C_P}{C_V} = \gamma \text{ in terms of degrees of freedom } (n) \text{ is given by:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$1 + \frac{1}{n}$, $1 + \frac{n}{3}$...
$1 + \frac{2}{n}$
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11167
$\text{The relation between two specific heats (in cal/mol) of a gas is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$C_P - C_V = \frac{R}{J}$, $C_V - C_P = \frac{R}{J}$...
$C_P - C_V = \frac{R}{J}$
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11166
$\text{Which one of the following gases possesses the largest internal energy?}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ moles of helium occupying } 1 \text{ m}^3 \text{ at } 300 \text{ K}$, $56 \text{ kg of nitrogen at } 10^5 \text{ Nm}^{-2} \text{ and } 300 \text{ K}$...
$56 \text{ kg of nitrogen at } 10^5 \text{ Nm}^{-2} \text{ and } 300 \text{ K}$
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11165
$\text{Mean kinetic energy per degree of freedom of gas molecules is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3}{2}kT$, $kT$...
$\frac{1}{2}kT$
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11164
$\text{Which of the following statements about degrees of freedom are correct?}$ $\text{(A) A molecule with } n \text{ degrees of freedom has } n^2 \text{ different ways of storing energy.}$ $\text{(B) Each degree of freedom is associated with an average energy of } \frac{1}{2}RT \text{ per mole.}$ $\text{(C) A monoatomic gas molecule has 1 rotational degree of freedom whereas a diatomic molecule has 2 rotational degrees of freedom.}$ $\text{(D) } \text{CH}_4 \text{ has a total of 6 degrees of freedom.}$ $\text{Choose the correct option from the options given below:}$
1
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$\text{(B) and (C) only}$, $\text{(B) and (D) only}$...
$\text{(B) and (D) only}$
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11163
$\text{Mean kinetic energy per degree of freedom of gas molecules is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3}{2}kT$, $kT$...
$\frac{1}{2}kT$
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11162
$\text{The pressure in a diatomic gas increases from } P_0 \text{ to } 3P_0\text{, when its volume is increased from } V_0 \text{ to } 2V_0\text{. The increase in internal energy will be:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$6P_0 V_0$, $8.5P_0 V_0$...
$12.5P_0 V_0$
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11161
$\text{Mean kinetic energy per degree of freedom of gas molecules is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3}{2}kT$, $kT$...
$\frac{1}{2}kT$
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11160
$\text{One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from } A \text{ to } B \text{ along a path } AB \text{ as shown in the figure.}$ $\text{The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$20 \text{ kJ}$, $-20 \text{ kJ}$...
$-20 \text{ kJ}$
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11159
$\text{A vessel contains a mixture of one mole of oxygen and two moles of nitrogen at 300 K. The ratio of the average rotational kinetic energy per } \text{O}_2 \text{ molecule to that per } \text{N}_2 \text{ molecule is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$1 : 1$, $1 : 2$...
$1 : 1$
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11158
$\text{The change in the internal energy of an ideal gas does not depend on?}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{Number of moles}$, $\text{Change in temperature}$...
$\text{Specific heat at constant pressure } C_p \text{ of the gas}$
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11157
$\text{A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of } \text{O}_2 \text{ and 4 moles of Ar at temperature } T. \text{ Neglecting all the vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$15RT$, $9RT$...
$11RT$
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11156
$\text{In the PV graph shown below for an ideal diatomic gas, the change in the internal energy is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3}{2}P(V_2 - V_1)$, $\frac{5}{2}P(V_2 - V_1)$...
$\frac{5}{2}P(V_2 - V_1)$
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11155
$\text{At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the earth's atmosphere?}$ $\text{(Given: Mass of oxygen molecule } (m) = 2.76 \times 10^{-26} \text{ kg, Boltzmann's constant } k_B = 1.38 \times 10^{-23} \text{ J K}^{-1})$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$2.508 \times 10^4 \text{ K}$, $8.360 \times 10^4 \text{ K}$...
$8.360 \times 10^4 \text{ K}$
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11154
$\text{At what temperature is the root mean square speed of molecules of hydrogen twice as that at STP?}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$273 \text{ K}$, $546 \text{ K}$...
$1092 \text{ K}$
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11153
$\text{The root mean square speed of the molecules of a diatomic gas is } v. \text{ When the temperature is doubled, the molecules dissociate into two atoms. The new root mean square speed of the atom is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{2}v$, $v$...
$2v$
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11152
$\text{The rms speed of oxygen atoms is } v. \text{ If the temperature is halved and the oxygen atoms combine to form oxygen molecules, then the rms speed will be:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{v}{\sqrt{2}}$, $v\sqrt{2}$...
$\frac{v}{2}$
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11151
$\text{The curve between absolute temperature and } v_{\text{rms}}^2 \text{ is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{Curved line starting from origin, increasing at decreasing rate}$, $\text{Straight line passing through origin}$...
$\text{Straight line passing through origin}$
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11150
$\text{Uranium has two isotopes of masses 235 and 238 units. If both are present in Uranium hexafluoride gas, which would have the larger average speed?}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$^{235}\text{UF}_6$, $^{238}\text{UF}_6$...
$^{235}\text{UF}_6$
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11149
$\text{The Earth's atmosphere contains both oxygen and nitrogen. The mass of an oxygen molecule is greater than that of a nitrogen molecule. On a certain day, the temperature of air in a room is 300 K.}$ $\text{Consider the following statements regarding the motion of oxygen and nitrogen molecules:}$ $\text{(A) Both gases have the same mean square velocity } (v^2).$ $\text{(B) Nitrogen molecules have a greater mean square velocity } (v^2) \text{ than oxygen molecules.}$ $\text{(C) Nitrogen molecules have a greater mean kinetic energy than oxygen molecules.}$ $\text{(D) Oxygen molecules have a greater mean kinetic energy than nitrogen molecules.}$ $\text{Choose the correct option from the options given below:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{(A) only}$, $\text{(A) and (C) only}$...
$\text{(B) only}$
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11148
$\text{The rms speed of the molecules of an enclosed gas is } v. \text{ What will be the rms speed if the pressure is doubled, keeping the temperature constant?}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{v}{2}$, $v$...
$v$
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11147
$\text{At which temperature the velocity of } \text{O}_2 \text{ molecules will be equal to the velocity of } \text{N}_2 \text{ molecules at } 0°\text{C}?$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$40°\text{C}$, $93°\text{C}$...
$39°\text{C}$
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11146
$\text{If the ratio of vapour density for hydrogen and oxygen is } \frac{1}{16}, \text{ then under constant pressure, the ratio of their RMS velocities will be:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{4}{1}$, $\frac{1}{4}$...
$\frac{4}{1}$
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11145
$\text{The molecules of a given mass of gas have rms velocity of 200 ms}^{-1} \text{ at 27°C and 1.0 × 10}^5 \text{ Nm}^{-2} \text{ pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are increased to, respectively, 127°C and 0.05 × 10}^5 \text{ Nm}^{-2}\text{, rms velocity of its molecules in ms}^{-1} \text{ will become:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{400}{\sqrt{3}}$, $\frac{100\sqrt{2}}{3}$...
$\frac{400}{\sqrt{3}}$
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11144
$\text{The root mean square velocity of the molecules of a gas is 300 m/s. What will be the root mean square speed of the molecules if the atomic weight is doubled and the absolute temperature is halved?}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$300 \text{ m/s}$, $150 \text{ m/s}$...
$150 \text{ m/s}$
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11143
$\text{The molecular weight of two gases is } M_1 \text{ and } M_2. \text{ At any temperature, the ratio of root mean square velocities } v_1 \text{ and } v_2 \text{ will be:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{\frac{M_1}{M_2}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{M_2}{M_1}}$...
$\sqrt{\frac{M_2}{M_1}}$
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11142
$\text{If } \text{V}_{\text{H}}, \text{V}_{\text{N}} \text{ and } \text{V}_{\text{O}} \text{ denote the root-mean square velocities of molecules of hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen respectively at a given temperature, then:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{V}_{\text{N}} > \text{V}_{\text{O}} > \text{V}_{\text{H}}$, $\text{V}_{\text{H}} > \text{V}_{\text{N}} > \text{V}_{\text{O}}$...
$\text{V}_{\text{H}} > \text{V}_{\text{N}} > \text{V}_{\text{O}}$
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11141
$\text{1 mole of an ideal gas is contained in a cubical volume V, ABCDEFGH at 300 K (figure). One face of the cube (EFGH) is made up of a material which totally absorbs any gas molecule incident on it. At any given time:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{the pressure on EFGH would be zero.}$, $\text{the pressure on all the faces will be equal.}$...
$\text{the pressure on EFGH would be half that on ABCD.}$
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11140
$\text{When an ideal gas is compressed adiabatically, its temperature rises: the molecules on an average have more kinetic energy than before. The kinetic energy increases:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{because of collisions with moving parts of the wall only.}$, $\text{because of collisions with the entire wall.}$...
$\text{because of collisions with moving parts of the wall only.}$
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11139
$\text{Diatomic molecules like hydrogen have energies due to both translational as well as rotational motion. The equation in kinetic theory } \text{PV} = \frac{2}{3} \text{E}, \text{E is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{the total energy per unit volume.}$, $\text{only the translational part of energy because rotational energy is very small compared to translational energy.}$...
$\text{only the translational part of the energy because during collisions with the wall, pressure relates to change in linear momentum.}$
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11138
$\text{Without change in temperature, a gas is forced in a smaller volume. Its pressure increases because its molecules:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{strike the unit area of the container wall more often.}$, $\text{strike the unit area of the container wall at a higher speed.}$...
$\text{strike the unit area of the container wall more often.}$
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11137
$\text{Heat is associated with:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{kinetic energy of random motion of molecules.}$, $\text{kinetic energy of orderly motion of molecules.}$...
$\text{kinetic energy of random motion of molecules.}$
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11136
$\text{If at a pressure of } 10^{6} \ \text{dyne/cm}^{2}\text{, one gram of nitrogen occupies } 2 \times 10^{4} \ \text{c.c. volume, then the average energy of a nitrogen molecule in erg is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{14} \times 10^{-13}$, $\text{10} \times 10^{-12}$...
$\text{14} \times 10^{-13}$
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11135
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ \\ \\ $\text{Assertion (A): If a gas container in motion is suddenly stopped, the temperature of the gas rises.}$ \\ $\text{Reason (R): The kinetic energy of ordered mechanical motion is converted into the kinetic energy of random motion of gas molecules.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$
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11134
$\text{The translatory kinetic energy of a gas per g is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3}{2}\frac{RT}{N}$, $\frac{3}{2}\frac{RT}{M}$...
$\frac{3}{2}\frac{RT}{M}$
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11133
$\text{The translational kinetic energy of } n \text{ moles of a diatomic gas at absolute temperature } T \text{ is given by:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{5}{2}nRT$, $\frac{3}{2}nRT$...
$\frac{3}{2}nRT$
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11132
$\text{An increase in the temperature of a gas-filled in a container would lead to:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{decrease in the intermolecular distance.}$, $\text{increase in its mass.}$...
$\text{increase in its kinetic energy.}$
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11131
$\text{A thermally insulated piston divides a container into two compartments. Volume, temperature, and pressure in the right compartment are } 2\text{V, T and } 2\text{P, while in the left compartment the respective values are V, T and P. If the piston can slide freely, then in the final equilibrium position, the volume of the right-hand compartment will be:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{V}$, $\frac{3\text{V}}{5}$...
$\frac{12\text{V}}{5}$
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11130
$\text{At constant temperature, on increasing the pressure of a gas by 5\%, its volume will decrease by:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{5\%}$, $\text{5.26 \%}$...
$\text{4.76 \%}$
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11129
$\text{Two chambers of different volumes, one containing }\text{m}_1\text{g of a gas at pressure }\text{P}_1\text{ and other containing }\text{m}_2\text{g of the same gas at pressure }\text{P}_2\text{ are joined to each other. If the temperature of the gas remains constant, the common pressure reached is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\text{m}_1\text{P}_1 + \text{m}_2\text{P}_2}{\text{m}_1 + \text{m}_2}$, $\frac{\text{m}_1\text{P}_2 + \text{m}_2\text{P}_1}{\text{m}_1 + \text{m}_2}$...
$\frac{(\text{m}_1+\text{m}_2)\text{P}_1\text{P}_2}{\text{m}_1\text{P}_2 + \text{m}_2\text{P}_1}$
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11128
$\text{Two containers of equal volumes contain the same gas at pressures }\text{P}_1\text{ and }\text{P}_2\text{ and absolute temperatures }\text{T}_1\text{ and }\text{T}_2\text{, respectively. On joining the vessels, the gas reaches a common pressure }\text{P}\text{ and common temperature }\text{T}.\text{ The ratio }\frac{\text{P}}{\text{T}}\text{ is equal to:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\text{P}_1}{\text{T}_1} + \frac{\text{P}_2}{\text{T}_2}$, $\frac{\text{P}_1\text{T}_1 + \text{P}_2\text{T}_2}{(\text{T}_1 + \text{T}_2)^{2}}$...
$\frac{\text{P}_1}{2\text{T}_1} + \frac{\text{P}_2}{2\text{T}_2}$
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11127
$\text{How does the pressure of an ideal gas change during the process shown in the diagram?}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{pressure increases continuously.}$, $\text{pressure decreases continuously.}$...
$\text{pressure increases continuously.}$
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11126
$\text{An ideal gas is initially at temperature } T \text{ and volume } V. \text{ Its volume increases by } \Delta V \text{ due to an increase in temperature } \Delta T, \text{ pressure remaining constant. The quantity } \delta = \frac{\Delta V}{(V \Delta T)} \text{ varies with temperature as:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
$\text{Graph 3}$
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11125
$\text{Two closed containers of equal volume are filled with air at pressure } P_0 \text{ and temperature } T_0. \text{ Both are connected by a narrow tube. If one of the containers is maintained at temperature } T_0 \text{ and the other at temperature } T, \text{ then new pressure in the container will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2P_0 T}{T+T_0}$, $\frac{P_0 T}{T+T_0}$...
$\frac{2P_0 T}{T+T_0}$
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11124
$\text{An experiment is carried out on a fixed amount of gas at different temperatures and at high pressure such that it deviates from the ideal gas behaviour. The variation of } \frac{PV}{RT} \text{ with } P \text{ is shown in the diagram. The correct variation will correspond to: (Assuming that the gas in consideration is nitrogen)}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{Curve A}$, $\text{Curve B}$...
$\text{Curve B}$
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11123
$\text{Which one of the following graph is correct at constant pressure?}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1}$, $\text{Graph 2}$...
$\text{Graph 1}$
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11122
$\text{PV versus T graphs of equal masses of } \text{H}_2, \text{He} \text{ and } \text{O}_2 \text{ are shown in the figure. Choose the correct alternative:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{A corresponds to } \text{H}_2, \text{ B to } \text{He} \text{ and C to } \text{O}_2$, $\text{A corresponds to } \text{He}, \text{ B to } \text{H}_2, \text{ and C to } \text{O}_2$...
$\text{A corresponds to } \text{O}_2, \text{ B to } \text{He} \text{ and C to } \text{H}_2$
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11121
$\text{We have two vessels of equal volume, one filled with hydrogen and the other with equal mass of helium. The common temperature is } 27^{\circ} \text{C. What is the relative number of molecules in the two vessels?}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{n_{H}}{n_{He}} = \frac{1}{1}$, $\frac{n_{H}}{n_{He}} = \frac{5}{1}$...
$\frac{n_{H}}{n_{He}} = \frac{2}{1}$
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11120
$\text{When a large bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to the surface, its radius doubles. The atmospheric pressure is equal to that of a column of water of height } H \text{. The depth of the lake is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$H$, $2H$...
$7H$
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11119
$\text{The volume and temperature graph is given in the figure below. If pressures for the two processes are different, then which one, of the following, is true?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$P_1 = P_2 \text{ and } P_3 = P_4 \text{ and } P_3 > P_2$, $P_1 = P_2 \text{ and } P_3 = P_4 \text{ and } P_3 < P_2$...
$P_1 = P_2 \text{ and } P_3 = P_4 \text{ and } P_3 < P_2$
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11118
$\text{At } 10^{\circ} \text{C the value of the density of a fixed mass of an ideal gas divided by its pressure is } x \text{. At } 110^{\circ} \text{C this ratio is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$x$, $\frac{383}{283}x$...
$\frac{283}{383}x$
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11117
$\text{Two thermally insulated vessels } 1 \text{ and } 2 \text{ are filled with air at temperatures } T_1, T_2 \text{, volume } V_1, V_2 \text{ and pressure } P_1, P_2 \text{ respectively. If the valve joining the two vessels is opened, the temperature inside the vessel at equilibrium will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$T_1 + T_2$, $\frac{T_1 + T_2}{2}$...
$\frac{T_1 T_2 (P_1 V_1 + P_2 V_2)}{P_1 V_1 T_2 + P_2 V_2 T_1}$
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11116
$\text{How does the temperature change when the state of an ideal gas is changed according to the process shown in the figure?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{temperature increases continuously.}$, $\text{temperature decreases continuously.}$...
$\text{temperature first increases and then decreases.}$
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11115
$\text{Which one, of the following, graphs represents the behaviour of an ideal gas at constant temperature?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph representing a linear increase of } \text{PV} \text{ with } \text{V}.$ , $\text{Graph representing a constant value of } \text{PV} \text{ with } \text{V}.$ ...
$\text{Graph representing a constant value of } \text{PV} \text{ with } \text{V}.$
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11114
$\text{Volume, pressure, and temperature of an ideal gas are } V, P, \text{ and } T \text{ respectively. If the mass of its molecule is } m, \text{ then its density is: } [k = \text{Boltzmann's constant}]$
1
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Recommended Questions
$mkT$, $\frac{P}{kT}$...
$\frac{Pm}{kT}$
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11113
$\text{During an experiment, an ideal gas is found to obey an additional law } \text{VP}^2 = \text{constant. The gas is initially at temperature } \text{T} \text{ and volume } \text{V} \text{. What will be the temperature of the gas when it expands to a volume } 2\text{V}?$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{T}' = \sqrt{4}\text{T}$, $\text{T}' = \sqrt{2}\text{T}$...
$\text{T}' = \sqrt{2}\text{T}$
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11112
$\text{The equation of state for } 5\text{g of oxygen at a pressure } \text{P} \text{ and temperature } \text{T}, \text{ when occupying a volume } \text{V}, \text{ will be: (where } \text{R} \text{ is the gas constant)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{PV} = 5\text{RT}$, $\text{PV} = \frac{5}{2}\text{RT}$...
$\text{PV} = \frac{5}{32}\text{RT}$
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11111
$\text{The volume } V \text{ versus temperature } T \text{ graph for a certain amount of a perfect gas at two pressures } P_1 \text{ and } P_2 \text{ are shown in the figure. Here:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$P_1 < P_2$, $P_1 > P_2$...
$P_1 > P_2$
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11110
$\text{The figure below shows the graph of pressure and volume of a gas at two temperatures } T_1 \text{ and } T_2 \text{. Which one, of the following, inferences is correct?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$T_1 > T_2$, $T_1 = T_2$...
$T_1 < T_2$
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11109
$\text{An isolated system-}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{is a specified region where transfer of energy and mass takes place}$, $\text{is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed through the closed boundaries}$...
$\text{cannot transfer neither energy nor mass to or from the surroundings.}$
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11108
$\text{Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases } A \text{ and } B \text{ at the same temperature, the pressure of } A \text{ being twice that of } B \text{. Under such conditions, the density of } A \text{ is found to be 1.5 times the density of } B \text{. The ratio of molecular weight of } A \text{ and } B \text{ is:}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2}{3}$, $\frac{3}{4}$...
$\frac{3}{4}$
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11107
$\text{What is the graph between volume and temperature in Charle's law?}$
1
112
Recommended Questions
$\text{An ellipse}$, $\text{A circle}$...
$\text{A straight line}$
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11106
120
1
111
Recommended Questions
N/A
N/A
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11105
$\text{A heat engine is working between 200 K and 400 K. The efficiency of the heat engine may be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$20\%$, $40\%$...
$\text{All of these}$
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11104
The efficiency of a Carnot engine is 40% when it receives energy at 500 K. At what temperature it should receive energy to increase its efficiency by 25%?
1
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Recommended Questions
$600 \text{ K}$, $700 \text{ K}$...
$600 \text{ K}$
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11103
$\text{If the temperature of the source and the sink in the heat engine is at 1000 K \& 500 K respectively, then the efficiency can be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$20\%$, $30\%$...
$\text{All of these}$
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11102
$\text{Two Carnot engines x and y are working between the same source temperature } T_1 \text{ and the same sink temperature } T_2\text{. If the temperature of the source in Carnot engine x is increased by } \Delta T\text{, and in the Carnot engine y, the temperature of the sink is increased by } \Delta T\text{, then the efficiency of x and y becomes } \eta_x \text{ and } \eta_y\text{. Then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\eta_x = \eta_y$, $\eta_x < \eta_y$...
$\eta_x > \eta_y$
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11101
$\text{A reversible engine converts one-sixth of the heat input into work. When the temperature of the sink is reduced by 62°C, the efficiency of the engine is doubled. The temperatures of the source and sink are:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$80°\text{C}, 37°\text{C}$, $95°\text{C}, 28°\text{C}$...
$99°\text{C}, 37°\text{C}$
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11100
When the sink temperature is kept at 400 K, the efficiency of a Carnot engine is 50%. While keeping the source temperature constant, by how much should we reduce the sink temperature to increase the efficiency to 60%?
1
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Recommended Questions
$80 \text{ K}$, $70 \text{ K}$...
$80 \text{ K}$
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11099
$\text{A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40\%. By how much should the temperature of the source be increased to increase its efficiency by 50\% of its original efficiency?}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$275 \text{ K}$, $325 \text{ K}$...
$250 \text{ K}$
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11098
$\text{An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs } 6 \times 10^4 \text{ cals of heat at higher temperatures. The amount of heat converted to work will be?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$4.8 \times 10^4 \text{ cals}$, $2.4 \times 10^4 \text{ cals}$...
$1.2 \times 10^4 \text{ cals}$
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11097
$\text{Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in succession. The first one, A receives heat from a source at } T_1 = 800 \text{ K and rejects to sink at } T_2 \text{ K. The second engine, B, receives heat rejected by the first engine and rejects to another sink at } T_3 = 300 \text{ K. If the work outputs of the two engines are equal, then the value of } T_2 \text{ will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$100 \text{ K}$, $300 \text{ K}$...
$550 \text{ K}$
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11096
$\text{In a Carnot engine, when } T_2 = 0°\text{C and } T_1 = 200°\text{C, its efficiency is } \eta_1 \text{ and when } T_1 = 0°\text{C and } T_2 = -200°\text{C, its efficiency is } \eta_2\text{. What is the value of } \frac{\eta_1}{\eta_2}\text{?}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$0.577$, $0.733$...
$0.577$
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11095
$\text{The efficiency of an ideal heat engine (Carnot heat engine) working between the freezing point and boiling point of water is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$26.8\%$, $20\%$...
$26.8\%$
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11094
$\text{The efficiency of a Carnot heat engine working between the temperatures } 27°\text{C and } 227°\text{C is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$0.1$, $0.6$...
$0.4$
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11093
$\text{A heat engine operates between the temperatures of 300 K and 500 K. If it extracts 1200 J of heat energy from the source, then the maximum amount of work that can be done by the engine is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$720 \text{ J}$, $520 \text{ J}$...
$480 \text{ J}$
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11092
The efficiency of an ideal heat engine is less than 100% because of:
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{the presence of friction.}$, $\text{the leakage of heat energy.}$...
$\text{all of these.}$
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11091
$\text{An ideal heat engine (Carnot engine) works between temperatures } T_1 \text{ and } T_2 \text{ has an efficiency } \eta\text{. The new efficiency if both the source and sink temperatures are doubled will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\eta}{2}$, $\eta$...
$\eta$
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11090
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$Statement I: The efficiency of any thermodynamic engine can approach 100% if friction and all dissipative processes are reduced.}Statement II: The first law of thermodynamics is applicable only to non-living systems.
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$...
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$
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11089
$\text{Consider a cycle followed by an engine (figure).}$ $\text{1 to 2 is isothermal,}$ $\text{2 to 3 is adiabatic,}$ $\text{3 to 1 is adiabatic.}$ $\text{Such a process does not exist, because:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{(a), (b)}$, $\text{(a), (c)}$...
$\text{(a), (c)}$
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11088
$\text{A sink, that is, the system where heat is rejected, is essential for the conversion of heat into work. From which law does the above inference follow?}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Zeroth}$, $\text{First}$...
$\text{Second}$
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11087
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Reversible systems are difficult to find in the real world.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Most processes are dissipative in nature.}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$
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11086
$\text{The cyclic process of 2 moles of diatomic gas is shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is correct?}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{The process } BC \text{ is an isothermal compression.}$, $\text{The work done in the process } CA \text{ is } 4RT_0$...
$\text{The work done in the process } AB \text{ is zero.}$
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11085
$\text{The Carnot cycle (reversible) of gas is represented by a pressure-volume curve}$ $\text{as shown in the figure. Consider the following statements:}$ $\text{I. The area } ABCD = \text{The work done on the gas}$ $\text{II. The area } ABCD = \text{The net heat absorbed}$ $\text{III. The change in the internal energy in the cycle } = 0$ $\text{Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{I only}$, $\text{II only}$...
$\text{II and III}$
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11084
$\text{A cyclic process for 1 mole of an ideal gas is shown in the } V-T \text{ diagram. The work done in } AB, BC \text{ and } CA \text{ respectively is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$0, RT_2 \ln \left(\frac{V_1}{V_2}\right), R(T_1 - T_2)$, $R(T_1 - T_2), 0, RT_1 \ln \frac{V_1}{V_2}$...
$0, RT_2 \ln \left(\frac{V_2}{V_1}\right), R(T_1 - T_2)$
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11083
$\text{If in the thermodynamic process shown in the figure, the work done by the}$ $\text{system along } A \rightarrow B \rightarrow C \text{ is 50 J and the change in internal energy during } C$ $\rightarrow A \text{ is 30 J, then the heat supplied during } A \rightarrow B \rightarrow C \text{ is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$50 \text{ J}$, $20 \text{ J}$...
$20 \text{ J}$
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11082
$\text{In a cyclic process, the internal energy of the gas:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{increases}$, $\text{decreases}$...
$\text{remains constant}$
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11081
$\text{In the } (P-V) \text{ diagram shown, the gas does 5 J of work in the isothermal process } ab \text{ and 4 J in the adiabatic process } bc\text{. What will be the change in internal energy of the gas in the straight path from } c \text{ to } a\text{?}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$9 \text{ J}$, $1 \text{ J}$...
$4 \text{ J}$
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11080
$\text{For the indicator diagram given below, which of the following is not correct?}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cycle II is a heat engine cycle.}$, $\text{Net work is done on the gas in cycle I.}$...
$\text{Work done is positive for cycle I.}$
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11079
$\text{An ideal gas is taken through the cycle } A \rightarrow B \rightarrow C \rightarrow A \text{ as shown in the figure below. If the net heat supplied to the gas is 10 J, then the work done by the gas in the process } B \rightarrow C \text{ is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$-10 \text{ J}$, $-30 \text{ J}$...
$-10 \text{ J}$
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11078
$\text{Which one of the following is correct for one complete cycle of a thermodynamic process on a gas as shown in the } (P - V) \text{ diagram?}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\Delta E_{\text{int}} = 0, Q < 0$, $\Delta E_{\text{int}} = 0, Q > 0$...
$\Delta E_{\text{int}} = 0, Q < 0$
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11077
91
1
111
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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11076
$ABCA \text{ is a cyclic process. Its } P\text{-}V \text{ graph would be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{P-V diagram showing triangular cycle with horizontal line from B to A, curved line from A to C, and dotted line from C to B}$, $\text{P-V diagram showing triangular cycle with diagonal line from B to A, vertical line from A to C, and horizontal line from C to B}$...
$\text{P-V diagram showing cycle with horizontal line from B to A, curved line from A to C, and hyperbolic curve from C to B}$
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11075
$\text{A gas is taken through the cycle } A \rightarrow B \rightarrow C \rightarrow A\text{, as shown in the figure. What is the total amount of work done by the gas?}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$1000 \text{ J}$, $\text{zero}$...
$1000 \text{ J}$
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11074
$\text{A thermodynamic system undergoes a cyclic process } ABCDA \text{ as shown in Fig. The work done by the system in the cycle is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$P_0V_0$, $2P_0V_0$...
$\text{zero}$
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11073
$\text{An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process ABCA as shown. The heat exchange between the system and the surrounding during the process will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ J}$, $5 \text{ J}$...
$5 \text{ J}$
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11072
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): It is possible that the temperature of a gas may fall even as it is being heated.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The specific heat capacity of a gas changes from process to process.}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$
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11071
$\text{An insulator container contains 4 moles of an ideal diatomic gas at a temperature T. If heat Q is supplied to this gas, due to which 2 moles of the gas are dissociated into atoms, but the temperature of the gas remains constant, then:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$Q = 2RT$, $Q = RT$...
$Q = RT$
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11070
$\text{An ideal gas is taken through the process as shown in the figure. Then:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{In the process AB, the work done by the system is positive.}$, $\text{In process AB, heat is rejected out of the system.}$...
$\text{In process AB, heat is rejected out of the system.}$
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11069
$\text{A horizontal cylinder has two sections of unequal cross-sections in which two pistons, A and B, can move freely. The pistons are joined by a string. Some gas is trapped between the pistons. If this gas is heated, the pistons will:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{move to the left.}$, $\text{move to the right.}$...
$\text{move to the right.}$
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11068
$\text{In a given process, } dW = 0, dQ < 0, \text{ then for the gas:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Temperature increases}$, $\text{Volume decreases}$...
$\text{Pressure decreases}$
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11067
$\text{The internal energy of an ideal gas increases in:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Adiabatic expansion}$, $\text{Adiabatic compression}$...
$\text{Adiabatic compression}$
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11066
$\text{An ideal gas is enclosed in an insulated cylinder. The piston is frictionless and attached to an ideal spring. When the gas is heated, then:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{the work is done against the spring only.}$, $\text{the work is done against the atmospheric pressure only.}$...
$\text{the internal energy of gas increases.}$
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11065
$\text{In the case of free expansion, when a sample of gas expands suddenly, the change in internal energy of the gas will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Positive}$, $\text{Negative}$...
$\text{Zero}$
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11064
$\text{The degree of freedom per molecule for a gas on average is 8. If the gas performs 100 J of work when it expands under constant pressure, then the amount of heat absorbed by the gas is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{500 J}$, $\text{600 J}$...
$\text{500 J}$
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11063
$\text{If } \Delta Q \text{ and } \Delta W \text{ represent the heat supplied to the system and the work done on the system, respectively, then the first law of thermodynamics can be written as: (where } \Delta U \text{ is the internal energy)}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\Delta Q = \Delta U + \Delta W$, $\Delta Q = \Delta U - \Delta W$...
$\Delta Q = \Delta U - \Delta W$
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11062
$\text{A unit mass of a liquid with volume } V_1 \text{ is completely changed into a gas of volume } V_2 \text{ at a constant external pressure } P \text{ and temperature } T\text{. If the latent heat of evaporation for the given mass is } L\text{, then the increase in the internal energy of the system is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Zero}$, $P(V_2 - V_1)$...
$L - P(V_2 - V_1)$
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11061
$\text{Find out the total heat given to diatomic gas in the process } A \rightarrow B \rightarrow C\text{:}$ $(B \rightarrow C \text{ is isothermal})$ $\text{Given the P-V diagram with points: A}(V_0, P_0)\text{, B}(V_0, 2P_0)\text{, C}(2V_0, P_0)$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$P_0 V_0 + 2P_0 V_0 \ln 2$, $\frac{1}{2} P_0 V_0 + 2P_0 V_0 \ln 2$...
$\frac{5}{2} P_0 V_0 + 2P_0 V_0 \ln 2$
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11060
$\text{The figure below shows two paths that may be taken by a gas to go from state A to state C. In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the system and in process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the system. The heat absorbed by the system in the process AC will be:}$ $\text{Given P-V diagram with coordinates: A}(2 \times 10^{-3} \text{ m}^3, 2 \times 10^4 \text{ Pa})\text{, B}(2 \times 10^{-3} \text{ m}^3, 6 \times 10^4 \text{ Pa})\text{, C}(4 \times 10^{-3} \text{ m}^3, 6 \times 10^4 \text{ Pa})$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$380 \text{ J}$, $500 \text{ J}$...
$460 \text{ J}$
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11059
$\text{In an adiabatic expansion of a gas, if the initial and final temperatures are } T_1 \text{ and } T_2\text{, respectively, then the change in internal energy of the gas is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\frac{nR}{\gamma-1} (T_2 - T_1)$, $\frac{nR}{\gamma-1} (T_1 - T_2)$...
$\frac{nR}{\gamma-1} (T_2 - T_1)$
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11058
$\text{A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal pressure (1.013} \times 10^5 \text{ N m}^{-2}\text{) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert it into steam at 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, then the change in internal energy of the sample will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$104.3 \text{ J}$, $208.7 \text{ J}$...
$208.7 \text{ J}$
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11057
$\text{Heat is supplied to a diatomic gas in an isochoric process. The ratio } \Delta Q : \Delta U \text{ is: (symbols have usual meanings)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$5 : 3$, $5 : 2$...
$1 : 1$
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11056
$\text{If a gas undergoes the change in its thermodynamic state from A to B via two different paths, as shown in the given pressure (P) versus volume (V) graph, then:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{the temperature of the gas decreases in path 1 from A to B.}$, $\text{the heat absorbed by the gas in path 1 is greater than in path 2.}$...
$\text{the heat absorbed by the gas in path 1 is greater than in path 2.}$
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11055
$\text{The work done by an ideal diatomic gas in its sudden expansion is 20 J. The change in the internal energy of the gas will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$20 \text{ J}$, $0 \text{ J}$...
$-20 \text{ J}$
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11054
$\text{1 kg of gas does 20 kJ of work and receives 16 kJ of heat when it is expanded between two states. The second kind of expansion can be found between the same initial and final states, which requires a heat input of 9 kJ. The work done by the gas in the second expansion will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$32 \text{ kJ}$, $5 \text{ kJ}$...
$13 \text{ kJ}$
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11053
$\text{An ideal monoatomic gas } \left(\gamma = \frac{5}{3}\right) \text{ absorbs 50 cal in an isochoric process. The increase in internal energy of the gas is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$20 \text{ cal}$, $\text{Zero}$...
$50 \text{ cal}$
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11052
$\text{An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different processes, as indicated in the } P\text{-}V \text{ diagram. If } Q_1, Q_2, Q_3 \text{ indicates the heat absorbed by the gas along the three processes and } \Delta U_1, \Delta U_2, \Delta U_3 \text{ indicates the change in internal energy along the three processes respectively, then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$Q_1 > Q_2 > Q_3 \text{ and } \Delta U_1 = \Delta U_2 = \Delta U_3$, $Q_3 > Q_2 > Q_1 \text{ and } \Delta U_1 = \Delta U_2 = \Delta U_3$...
$Q_1 > Q_2 > Q_3 \text{ and } \Delta U_1 = \Delta U_2 = \Delta U_3$
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11051
$\text{A system is taken from state } A \text{ to state } B \text{ along two different paths, 1 and 2. If the heat absorbed and work done by the system along these two paths are } Q_1, Q_2 \text{ and } W_1, W_2 \text{ respectively, then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$Q_1 = Q_2$, $W_1 = W_2$...
$Q_1 - W_1 = Q_2 - W_2$
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11050
$\text{We consider a thermodynamic system. If } \Delta U \text{ represents the increase in its internal energy and } W \text{ the work done by the system, which of the following statements is true?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\Delta U = -W \text{ in an isothermal process.}$, $\Delta U = W \text{ in an isothermal process.}$...
$\Delta U = -W \text{ in an adiabatic process.}$
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11049
$\text{When a system is moved from state } a \text{ to state } b \text{ along the path } acb, \text{ it is discovered that the system absorbs 200 J of heat and performs 80 J of work. Along the path } adb, \text{ heat absorbed } Q = 144 \text{ J. The work done along the path } adb \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$6 \text{ J}$, $12 \text{ J}$...
$24 \text{ J}$
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11048
$\text{The latent heat of vaporisation of water is 2240 J/gm. If the work done in the process of expansion of 1 g is 168 J, then the increase in internal energy is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2408 \text{ J}$, $2240 \text{ J}$...
$2072 \text{ J}$
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11047
$\text{Two cylinders, } A \text{ and } B\text{, of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stopcock. } A \text{ contains gas at a standard temperature and pressure } B \text{ is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. If the stopcock is suddenly opened, then the change in internal energy of the gas is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0$, $5 \text{ J}$...
$0$
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11046
$\text{The first law of thermodynamics is based on:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{the concept of temperature.}$, $\text{the concept of conservation of energy.}$...
$\text{the concept of conservation of energy.}$
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11045
$\text{Under isothermal conditions, the volumes of ideal gas } A \text{ and actual gas } B \text{ grow from } V \text{ to } 2V\text{. The increase in internal energy:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{will be the same in both } A \text{ and } B\text{.}$, $\text{will be zero in both the gases.}$...
$\text{of } B \text{ will be more than that of } A\text{.}$
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11044
$\text{Which of the following is true for the molar heat capacity of an ideal gas?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{It cannot be negative.}$, $\text{It has only two values } (C_P \text{ and } C_V)\text{.}$...
$\text{It can have any value.}$
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11043
$\text{The molar heat capacity in the case of a diatomic gas if it does work of } \frac{Q}{4} \text{ when heat } Q \text{ is supplied to it is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2}{5}R$, $\frac{5}{2}R$...
$\frac{10}{3}R$
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11042
$\text{The variation of molar heat capacity at constant volume } C_V \text{ with temperature T for a monatomic gas is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph showing } C_V \text{ increasing with T in a curved upward manner}$, $\text{Graph showing } C_V \text{ increasing with T in a curved upward manner (steeper)}$...
$\text{Graph showing } C_V \text{ constant with respect to T (horizontal line)}$
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11041
$\text{Two cylinders contain the same amount of an ideal monatomic gas. The same amount of heat is given to two cylinders. If the temperature rise in cylinder A is } T_0\text{, then the temperature rise in cylinder B will be:}$ $\text{(Cylinder A has a free piston, Cylinder B has a fixed piston)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{4}{3}T_0$, $2T_0$...
$\frac{5}{3}T_0$
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11040
$\text{A monatomic gas is supplied with the heat } Q \text{ very slowly, keeping the pressure constant. The work done by the gas will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2}{3}Q$, $\frac{3}{5}Q$...
$\frac{2}{5}Q$
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11039
$\text{During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature. The ratio of } C_P/C_V \text{ for the gas is equal to:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\frac{4}{3}$, $2$...
$\frac{3}{2}$
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11038
$\text{The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas to the heat absorbed by it when it undergoes a change from state A to state B will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2}{5}$, $\frac{2}{3}$...
$\frac{2}{5}$
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11037
$\text{The specific heat of a gas in an isothermal process is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Infinite}$, $\text{Zero}$...
$\text{Infinite}$
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11036
$\text{If 32 gm of } \text{O}_2 \text{ at } 27°\text{C is mixed with 64 gm of } \text{O}_2 \text{ at } 327°\text{C in an adiabatic vessel, then the final temperature of the mixture will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$200°\text{C}$, $227°\text{C}$...
$227°\text{C}$
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11035
$\text{The pressure in a monoatomic gas increases linearly from 4 atm to 8 atm when its volume increases from 0.2 m}^3 \text{ to 0.5 m}^3\text{. The increase in internal energy will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$480 \text{ kJ}$, $550 \text{ kJ}$...
$480 \text{ kJ}$
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11034
$\text{When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, the fraction of the heat energy supplied which increases the internal energy of the gas is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2}{5}$, $\frac{3}{5}$...
$\frac{5}{7}$
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11033
$\text{If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure to that at constant volume is } \gamma\text{, the change in internal energy of a mass of gas, when the volume changes from V to 2V at constant pressure, P is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\frac{R}{(\gamma - 1)}$, $PV$...
$\frac{PV}{(\gamma - 1)}$
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11032
$\text{If 3 moles of a monoatomic gas do 150 J of work when it expands isobarically, then a change in its internal energy will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$100 \text{ J}$, $225 \text{ J}$...
$225 \text{ J}$
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11031
$\text{In the } P-V \text{ graph shown for an ideal diatomic gas, the change in the internal energy is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3}{2} P(V_2 - V_1)$, $\frac{5}{2} P(V_2 - V_1)$...
$\frac{5}{2} P(V_2 - V_1)$
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11030
$\text{If } n \text{ moles of an ideal gas is heated at a constant pressure from } 50°\text{C to } 100°\text{C, the increase in the internal energy of the gas will be:}$ $\left(\frac{C_p}{C_v} = \gamma \text{ and } R = \text{gas constant}\right)$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{50nR}{\gamma - 1}$, $\frac{100nR}{\gamma - 1}$...
$\frac{50nR}{\gamma - 1}$
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11029
$\text{The incorrect relation is:}$ $\text{(where symbols have their usual meanings)}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$C_P = \frac{\gamma R}{\gamma - 1}$, $C_P - C_V = R$...
$\Delta U = \frac{P_f V_f - P_i V_i}{1 - \gamma}$
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11028
$\text{If a gas changes volume from 2 litres to 10 litres at a constant temperature of 300 K, then the change in its internal energy will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$12 \text{ J}$, $24 \text{ J}$...
$0 \text{ J}$
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11027
$\text{The ratio of molar specific heat capacity at constant pressure } (C_p) \text{ to that at constant volume } (C_v) \text{ varies with temperature } (T) \text{ as: (assume temperature is low)}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$T^0$, $T^{\frac{1}{2}}$...
$T^0$
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11026
$\text{An ideal gas goes from } A \text{ to } B \text{ via two processes, I and II, as shown. If } \Delta U_1 \text{ and } \Delta U_2 \text{ are the changes in internal energies in processes I and II, respectively, } (P : \text{pressure}, V : \text{volume}) \text{ then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\Delta U_1 > \Delta U_2$, $\Delta U_1 < \Delta U_2$...
$\Delta U_1 = \Delta U_2$
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11025
$\text{The work done for the given process } AB \text{ is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$6P_0V_0$, $5P_0V_0$...
$6P_0V_0$
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11024
$\text{The PV diagram of an ideal gas is shown in the figure. The work done by the gas in the process } 1 \rightarrow 2 \rightarrow 3 \rightarrow 4 \text{ is given by:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\frac{9}{2} P_0V_0$, $\frac{15}{2} P_0V_0$...
$\frac{9}{2} P_0V_0$
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11023
$\text{An ideal gas is taken from point A to point B, as shown in the } P\text{-}V \text{ diagram. The work done in the process is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$(P_A - P_B)(V_B - V_A)$, $\frac{1}{2}(P_B - P_A)(V_B + V_A)$...
$\frac{1}{2}(P_B + P_A)(V_B - V_A)$
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11022
$\text{One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of } T K \text{ does } 6R \text{ joules of work adiabatically. If the ratio of specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is } \frac{5}{3}, \text{ the final temperature of the gas will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$(T + 2.4)K$, $(T - 2.4)K$...
$(T - 4)K$
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11021
$\text{In an adiabatic process, the graph for work done versus change of temperature } \Delta T \text{ will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{A hyperbolic curve with } W \text{ decreasing as } \Delta T \text{ increases}$, $\text{A horizontal line showing } W \text{ is independent of } \Delta T$...
$\text{A straight line passing through origin with positive slope}$
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11020
$\text{The pressure of a monoatomic gas increases linearly from } 4 \times 10^5 \text{ N/m}^2 \text{ to } 8 \times 10^5 \text{ N/m}^2 \text{ when its volume increases from } 0.2 \text{ m}^3 \text{ to } 0.5 \text{ m}^3. \text{ The work done by the gas is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$2.8 \times 10^5 \text{ J}$, $1.8 \times 10^6 \text{ J}$...
$1.8 \times 10^5 \text{ J}$
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11019
$\text{In an adiabatic process, the graph for work done versus change of temperature } \Delta T \text{ will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{A hyperbolic curve with } W \text{ decreasing as } \Delta T \text{ increases}$, $\text{A horizontal line showing } W \text{ is independent of } \Delta T$...
$\text{A straight line passing through origin with positive slope}$
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11018
$\text{Two identical samples of a gas are allowed to expand, (i) isothermally and (ii) adiabatically. The work done will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{more in the isothermal process.}$, $\text{more in the adiabatic process.}$...
$\text{more in the isothermal process.}$
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11017
$\text{An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume by means of several processes. Which of the following processes results in the maximum work being done on the gas?}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Adiabatic}$, $\text{Isobaric}$...
$\text{Adiabatic}$
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11016
$\text{One mole of an ideal gas expands at a constant temperature of 300 K from an initial volume of 10 litres to a final volume of 20 litres. The work done in expanding the gas is equal to:}$ $(R = 8.31 \text{ J/mol-K})$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$750 \text{ J}$, $1728 \text{ J}$...
$1728 \text{ J}$
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11015
$\text{The pressure-temperature } (P-T) \text{ graph for two processes, } A \text{ and } B\text{, in a system is shown in the figure. If } W_1 \text{ and } W_2 \text{ are work done by the gas in process } A \text{ and } B \text{ respectively, then:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$W_1 = W_2$, $W_1 < W_2$...
$W_1 > W_2$
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11014
$\text{A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{compressing the gas through an adiabatic process will require more work to be done.}$, $\text{compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work to be done.}$...
$\text{compressing the gas through an adiabatic process will require more work to be done.}$
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11013
$\text{A given mass of gas expands from state } A \text{ to state } B \text{ by three paths 1, 2 and 3, as shown in the figure. If } W_1, W_2 \text{ and } W_3 \text{ respectively be the work done by the gas along the three paths, then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$W_1 > W_2 > W_3$, $W_1 < W_2 < W_3$...
$W_1 < W_2 < W_3$
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11012
$\text{Work done during the given cycle is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$4P_0V_0$, $2P_0V_0$...
$P_0V_0$
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11011
$\text{The figure shows the } (P-V) \text{ diagram of an ideal gas undergoing a change of state from } A \text{ to } B\text{. Four different paths I, II, III and IV, as shown in the figure, may lead to the same change of state.}$ $\text{Which of the following options contains only correct statements?}$ $\text{(a) The change in internal energy is the same in cases IV and III but not in cases I and II.}$ $\text{(b) The change in internal energy is the same in all four cases.}$ $\text{(c) The work done is maximum in case I.}$ $\text{(d) The work done is minimum in case II.}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{(b), (c) and (d) only}$, $\text{(a) and (d) only}$...
$\text{(b) and (c) only}$
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11010
$\text{A closed hollow insulated cylinder is filled with gas at } 0^{\circ}\text{C and also contains an insulated piston of negligible weight and negligible thickness at the middle point. The gas on one side of the piston is heated to } 100^{\circ}\text{C. If the piston moves } 5\text{ cm, the length of the hollow cylinder will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$13.65 \text{ cm}$, $27.3 \text{ cm}$...
$64.6 \text{ cm}$
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11009
$\text{A pressure } (P) \text{ versus volume } (V) \text{ graph is obtained for an ideal gas from state } A \text{ to state } B \text{ (as shown in the figure below). Which of the following is the correct statement?}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{The temperature of gas increases continuously.}$, $\text{The temperature of gas decreases continuously.}$...
$\text{The temperature first increases, then decreases.}$
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11008
$\text{The volume of air (diatomic) increases by } 5\% \text{ in its adiabatical expansion. The percentage decrease in its pressure will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$5\%$, $6\%$...
$7\%$
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11007
$\text{In isothermal expansion, the pressure is determined by:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Temperature only}$, $\text{Compressibility only}$...
$\text{Compressibility only}$
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11006
$\text{At a pressure of 2 atmospheres, a mass of diatomic gas (}\gamma = 1.4\text{), is compressed adiabatically, causing its temperature to rise from } 27^{\circ}\text{C to } 927^{\circ}\text{C. The pressure of the gas in the final state is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$8\text{ atm}$, $28\text{ atm}$...
$256\text{ atm}$
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11005
$\text{The pressure and density of a diatomic gas (}\gamma = 7/5\text{) changes adiabatically from (P, d) to (P', d'). If } \frac{\text{d'}}{\text{d}} = 32\text{, then } \frac{\text{P'}}{\text{P}} \text{ should be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{128}$, $32$...
$128$
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11004
$\text{The pressure and volume of a gas are changed as shown in the P-V diagram. The temperature of the gas will:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{increase as it goes from A to B.}$, $\text{increase as it goes from B to C.}$...
$\text{increase as it goes from A to B.}$
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11003
$\text{When a bicycle tyre suddenly bursts, the air inside the tyre expands. This process is:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{isothermal}$, $\text{adiabatic}$...
$\text{adiabatic}$
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11002
$\text{A gas performs the minimum work when it expands:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Isochorically}$, $\text{Isobarically}$...
$\text{Isochorically}$
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11001
$\text{A gas performs the minimum work when it expands:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Isochorically}$, $\text{Isobarically}$...
$\text{Isochorically}$
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11000
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): In an isothermal process, whole of the heat energy supplied to the body is converted into internal energy.}$ $\text{Reason (R): According to the first law of thermodynamics, } \Delta Q = \Delta U + \Delta W.$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{(A) is False but (R) is True.}$
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10999
$\text{The heat taken by a gas (shown in the graph below) in the process } a \text{ to } b \text{ is } 6P_0V_0\text{. Match Column I with Column II.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R}$, $\text{A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P}$...
$\text{A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P}$
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10998
$\text{A monoatomic gas at a pressure } P, \text{ having a volume } V, \text{ expands isothermally to a volume } 2V \text{ and then adiabatically to a volume } 16V. \text{ The final pressure of the gas is:}$ $\left(\text{Take: } \gamma = \frac{5}{3}\right)$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$64P$, $32P$...
$\frac{P}{64}$
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10997
$\text{The initial pressure and volume of a gas are } P \text{ and } V\text{, respectively. First, it is expanded isothermally to volume } 4V \text{ and then compressed adiabatically to volume } V\text{. The final pressure of the gas will be: [Given: } \gamma = 1.5\text{]}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$P$, $2P$...
$2P$
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10996
$\text{Can two isothermal curves cut each other?}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Never}$, $\text{Yes}$...
$\text{Never}$
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10995
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement I: When } \mu \text{ amount of an ideal gas undergoes adiabatic change from state } (P_1, V_1, T_1) \text{ to state } (P_2, V_2, T_2)\text{, the work done is } W = \frac{\mu R(T_2 - T_1)}{1 - \gamma}\text{, where } \gamma = \frac{C_P}{C_V} \text{ and } R = \text{universal gas constant.}$ $\text{Statement II: In the above case, when work is done on the gas, the temperature of the gas would rise.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$, $\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.}$...
$\text{Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.}$
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10994
$\text{Which one of the following processes is reversible?}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Transfer of heat by radiation}$, $\text{Transfer of heat by conduction}$...
$\text{Isothermal compression}$
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10993
$\text{An ideal gas at } 27^\circ\text{C is compressed adiabatically to } \frac{8}{27} \text{ of its original volume. If } \gamma = \frac{5}{3}\text{, then the rise in temperature will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$450 \text{ K}$, $375 \text{ K}$...
$375 \text{ K}$
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10992
$\text{If an ideal gas undergoes two processes at constant volumes } V_1 \text{ and } V_2 \text{ as shown in the pressure-temperature } (P-T) \text{ diagram, then:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$V_1 = V_2$, $V_1 > V_2$...
$V_1 < V_2$
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10991
$\text{Which of the following graph shows the variation of pressure P with volume V for an ideal gas at a constant temperature?}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{Linear decreasing graph (straight line with negative slope)}$, $\text{Exponential saturation curve (increasing and leveling off)}$...
$\text{Hyperbolic curve (inverse relationship)}$
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10990
$\text{A polyatomic gas } (\gamma = \frac{4}{3}) \text{ is compressed to } \frac{1}{8} \text{ of its volume adiabatically. If its initial pressure is } P_0\text{, its new pressure will be:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$8P_0$, $16P_0$...
$16P_0$
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10989
$\text{Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following diagram. Match the following:}$ $\text{Column I: P. Process-I, Q. Process-II, R. Process-III, S. Process-IV}$ $\text{Column II: a. Adiabatic, b. Isobaric, c. Isochoric, d. Isothermal}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$P \rightarrow a, Q \rightarrow c, R \rightarrow d, S \rightarrow b$, $P \rightarrow c, Q \rightarrow a, R \rightarrow d, S \rightarrow b$...
$P \rightarrow c, Q \rightarrow a, R \rightarrow d, S \rightarrow b$
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10988
$\text{In thermodynamic processes, which of the following statements is not true?}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$\text{In an adiabatic process, the system is insulated from the surroundings.}$, $\text{In an isochoric process, the pressure remains constant.}$...
$\text{In an isochoric process, the pressure remains constant.}$
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10987
$\text{If an ideal gas undergoes two processes at constant volumes } V_1 \text{ and } V_2 \text{ as shown in the pressure-temperature } (P-T) \text{ diagram, then:}$
1
111
Recommended Questions
$V_1 = V_2$, $V_1 > V_2$...
$V_1 < V_2$
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10986
$\text{The colour of the solution that gets formed by mixing sodium nitroprusside to an alkaline solution of sulfide ions, is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Red}$, $\text{Blue}$...
$\text{Purple}$
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10985
$\text{A compound that does not give a positive test in Lassaigne's test for nitrogen is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Urea}$, $\text{Hydrazine}$...
$\text{Hydrazine}$
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10984
$\text{In Dumas method of estimation of nitrogen, 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 ml of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be:}$ $\text{(Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$16.45$, $27.45$...
$16.45$
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10983
$0.1688 \text{ g organic compound when analyzed by the Dumas method yields } 31.7 \text{ mL of moist nitrogen measured at } 14°\text{C, and } 758 \text{ mm mercury pressure. The \% of nitrogen in the organic compound (Aqueous tension at } 14°\text{C} = 12 \text{ mm) is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$30.9\%$, $10\%$...
$21.9\%$
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10982
$\text{In the Carius method, 0.468 grams of an organic sulphur compound gives 0.668 grams of barium sulphate. The percentage of sulphur in the given compound is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$19.59\%$, $25.40\%$...
$19.59\%$
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10981
$\text{0.24 g of an organic compound containing phosphorous gave 0.66 g of }\text{Mg}_2\text{P}_2\text{O}_7\text{ by the usual analysis. The percentage of phosphorous in the compound is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$77\%$, $72\%$...
$77\%$
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10980
$\text{In Kjeldahl's method, the nitrogen present is estimated as-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{N}_2$, $\text{NH}_3$...
$\text{NH}_3$
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10979
$\text{Any type of chromatography shares which of the following characteristic?}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Use of molecules that are soluble in water.}$, $\text{Use of inert carrier gas.}$...
$\text{Use of a mobile and a stationary phase.}$
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10978
$\text{Metallic sodium is fused with organic compounds for testing nitrogen, sulphur, and halogens. The correct reason behind this is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{To convert all compounds to their ionic form.}$, $\text{Sodium reduces the compounds.}$...
$\text{To convert all compounds to their ionic form.}$
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10977
$\text{An organic compound contains 69% carbon, and 4.8% hydrogen, the remainder being oxygen. The masses of carbon dioxide, and water produced when 0.20 g of this substance is subjected to complete combustion would be respectively -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$0.506 \text{ g}, 0.0864 \text{ g}$, $0.906 \text{ g}, 0.0864 \text{ g}$...
$0.506 \text{ g}, 0.0864 \text{ g}$
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10976
$\text{During estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound, the ammonia evolved from 0.5 g of the compound in Kjeldahl's estimation of nitrogen, neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$46.0\%$, $51.0\%$...
$56.0\%$
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10975
$\text{The fragrance of flowers is due to the presence of some steam volatile organic compounds called essential oils. These are generally insoluble in water at room temperature but are miscible with water vapor in the vapor phase. A suitable method for the extraction of these oils from the flowers is}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Distillation}$, $\text{Crystallisation}$...
$\text{Steam distillation}$
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10974
$\text{Match Column I with Column II.}$ $\text{Column I}$ $\text{A. Dumas method}$ $\text{B. Kjeldahl's method}$ $\text{C. Carius method}$ $\text{D. Chromatography}$ $\text{Column II}$ $\text{1. AgNO}_3$ $\text{2. Silica gel}$ $\text{3. Nitrogen gel}$ $\text{4. Ammonium sulphate}$ $\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2}$, $\text{A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4}$...
$\text{A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2}$
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10973
$\text{The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with conc. HNO}_3 \text{ while testing for halogens, because it:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Helps in the precipitation of AgCl}$, $\text{Increases the solubility product of AgCl}$...
$\text{Decomposes Na}_2\text{S and NaCN, if formed}$
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10972
$\text{0.3780 grams of an organic chloro compound gave 0.5740 grams of silver chloride in Carius estimation. % of chlorine present in the compound is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$25\%$, $37.59\%$...
$37.59\%$
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10971
$\text{Ether and benzene can be separated by-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Filtration}$, $\text{Distillation}$...
$\text{Distillation}$
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10970
$\text{0.26 g of an organic compound gave 0.039 g of water and 0.245 g of carbon dioxide on combustion. The percentage of C in the organic compound is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$35\%$, $25\%$...
$25\%$
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10969
$\text{0.284 g of an organic substance gave 0.287 g AgCl in a carius method for the estimation of halogen. The percentage of Cl in the compound is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$5\%$, $18\%$...
$25\%$
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10968
$\text{In an estimation of sulphur by the carius method, 0.2175 g of the substance gave 0.5825 g of BaSO}_4\text{. The percentage composition of S in the compound is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$66\%$, $20\%$...
$37\%$
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10967
$\text{In Kjeldahl's method of estimation of nitrogen, } \text{K}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ acts as:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{An oxidizing agent}$, $\text{A catalytic agent}$...
$\text{A boiling point elevator}$
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10966
$\text{Soda extract is prepared by-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Fusing soda and mixture of hydrocarbons, and then extracted with water}$, $\text{Dissolving NaHCO}_3 \text{ and mixture of hydrocarbons in dil. HCl}$...
$\text{Boiling Na}_2\text{CO}_3 \text{ and mixture of hydrocarbons in distilled water}$
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10965
$\text{Silver sulphate solution is used to separate:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Nitrate and bromide}$, $\text{Nitrate and chlorate}$...
$\text{Nitrate and bromide}$
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10964
$\text{The acid used for the acidification of sodium extract for testing sulphur is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Sulphuric acid}$, $\text{Acetic acid}$...
$\text{Acetic acid}$
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10963
$\text{In sulphur estimation, 0.157 g of an organic compound gave 0.4813 g of barium sulphate. The percentage of sulphur in the compound is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$39.10\%$, $48.13\%$...
$42.10\%$
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10962
$\text{Lassaigne's test can detect:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Nitrogen, Sulphur, Halogens}$, $\text{Nitrogen, Cyanides, Sulphur}$...
$\text{Nitrogen, Sulphur, Halogens, Phosphorus}$
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10961
$0.2 \text{ g of an organic compound on complete combustion produces } 0.44 \text{ g of } \text{CO}_2\text{. The percentage of carbon is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$50\%$, $60\%$...
$60\%$
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10960
$\text{The Prussian blue colour obtained during the test of nitrogen by Lassaigne's test is due to the formation of-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe}_4[\text{Fe}(\text{CN})_6]_3$, $\text{Na}_3[\text{Fe}(\text{CN})_6]$...
$\text{Fe}_4[\text{Fe}(\text{CN})_6]_3$
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10959
$\text{Assertion (A): CCl}_4 \text{ doesn't give precipitate of AgCl on heating with } \text{AgNO}_3.$ $\text{Reason (R): CCl}_4 \text{ is a non-polar molecule.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{(A) is True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{(A) is True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{(A) is True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$
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10958
$\text{In Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen present in the soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75g of sample neutralized 10ml. of 1M H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$37.33$, $45.85$...
$37.33$
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10957
$\text{Nitric acid is added to sodium extract before adding silver nitrate for testing halogens because:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Nitric acid reduces sulphide}$, $\text{Nitric acid decomposes NaCN and Na}_2\text{S}$...
$\text{Nitric acid decomposes NaCN and Na}_2\text{S}$
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10956
$\text{The most suitable method used for the separation of 1:1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Chromatography}$, $\text{Crystallization}$...
$\text{Steam distillation}$
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10955
$\text{A gas among the following that can be absorbed by potassium hydroxide is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Carbon dioxide}$, $\text{Silicon dioxide}$...
$\text{Carbon dioxide}$
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10954
$\text{A mixture of calcium sulphate and camphor can be separated by-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Filtration}$, $\text{Evaporation}$...
$\text{Sublimation}$
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10953
$\text{Paper chromatography operates based on which of the following principles?}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Adsorption}$, $\text{Partition}$...
$\text{Partition}$
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10952
$\text{In the steam distillation of toluene, the pressure of toluene in the vapour is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Equal to the pressure of the barometer}$, $\text{Less than the pressure of the barometer}$...
$\text{Less than the pressure of the barometer}$
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10951
$\text{The best method used for the separation of naphthalene and benzoic acid from their mixture is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Sublimation}$, $\text{Chromatography}$...
$\text{Sublimation}$
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10950
$\text{The purification method based on the difference in solubilities of the compound and the impurities in a solvent is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Crystallisation}$, $\text{Distillation}$...
$\text{Crystallisation}$
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10949
$\text{During the hearing of a court case, the judge suspected that some changes in the documents had been carried out. He asked the forensic department to check the ink used at two different places. The technique that can give the best results is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Column chromatography}$, $\text{Solvent extraction}$...
$\text{Thin layer chromatography}$
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10948
$\text{The method that can be used to separate two compounds with different solubilities in a solvent is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Distillation}$, $\text{Isolation}$...
$\text{Fractional crystallization}$
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10947
$\text{The latest technique for isolation, purification and separation of organic compounds is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Crystallisation}$, $\text{Distillation}$...
$\text{Chromatography}$
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10946
$\text{Halogen in an organic compound that can be detected by -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Duma's method}$, $\text{Carius method}$...
$\text{Carius method}$
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10945
$\text{Paper chromatography is an example of-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Partition chromatography}$, $\text{Thin layer chromatography}$...
$\text{Partition chromatography}$
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10944
$\text{If a liquid compound decomposes at or below its boiling point, then the best method for purification is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Distillation under reduced pressure}$, $\text{Azeotropic distillation}$...
$\text{Distillation under reduced pressure}$
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10943
$\text{Match the type of mixture of compounds in Column I with the technique of separation/purification given in Column II.}$ $\text{Column I:}$ $\text{A. Two solids which have different solubilities in a solvent and which do not undergo a reaction when dissolved in it}$ $\text{B. Liquid that decomposes at its boiling point}$ $\text{C. Steam volatile liquid}$ $\text{D. Two liquids that have boiling points close to each other}$ $\text{Column II:}$ $\text{1. Steam distillation}$ $\text{2. Fractional distillation}$ $\text{3. Crystallisation}$ $\text{4. Distillation under reduced pressure}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2}$, $\text{A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4}$...
$\text{A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2}$
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10942
$\text{A liquid compound (X) can be purified by steam distillation only if it is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Steam volatile, immiscible with water.}$, $\text{Not steam volatile, miscible with water.}$...
$\text{Steam volatile, immiscible with water.}$
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10941
$\text{CH}_2\text{H} - \text{CH}_2\text{Cl} \xrightarrow{\text{NaOH/alk.}} \text{CH}_2 = \text{CH}_2$ $\text{Most probable mechanism for this reaction is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{E1}$, $\text{E2}$...
$\text{E2}$
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10940
$\text{The double bond in the above-mentioned compound that accepts proton (H}^+\text{) fastest is:}$ $\text{The compound shows a bicyclic structure with methyl groups at specific positions, with double bonds labeled A, B, C, and D.}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{A}$, $\text{B}$...
$\text{A}$
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10939
$\text{The compound that gives the most stable carbonium ion after C-Cl bond ionisation among the following is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_3\text{C}-\text{C}(\text{H})-\text{Cl}$ $|$ $\text{H}_3\text{C}$, $\text{H}_3\text{C}-\text{C}(\text{CH}_3)-\text{Cl}$ $|$ $\text{H}_3\text{C}$ $|$ $\text{CH}_3$...
$\text{H}_3\text{C}-\text{C}(\text{CH}_3)-\text{Cl}$ $|$ $\text{H}_3\text{C}$ $|$ $\text{CH}_3$
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10938
$\text{The decreasing order of the stability of the given ions is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{I}>\text{II}>\text{III}$, $\text{II}>\text{III}>\text{I}$...
$\text{II}>\text{I}>\text{III}$
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10937
$\text{Which of the following species exhibits paramagnetism?}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{A carbocation}$, $\text{A free radical}$...
$\text{A free radical}$
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10936
$\text{The species that contains only three pairs of electrons among the following is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Carbocation}$, $\text{Carbanion}$...
$\text{Carbocation}$
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10935
$\text{The decreasing order of the stability of the given ions is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{I}>\text{II}>\text{III}$, $\text{II}>\text{III}>\text{I}$...
$\text{II}>\text{I}>\text{III}$
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10934
$\text{A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$+\text{R effect of } \text{CH}_3 \text{ groups}$, $-\text{R effect of } -\text{CH}_3 \text{ groups}$...
$\text{Hyperconjugation}$
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10933
$\text{The most stable carbocation among the following is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Triphenyl carbocation (three benzene rings attached to C}^+\text{)}$, $\text{Diphenylmethyl carbocation (two benzene rings and one CH}_3 \text{ attached to C}^+\text{)}$...
$\text{Triphenyl carbocation (three benzene rings attached to C}^+\text{)}$
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10932
$\text{The decreasing order of the stability of the given ions is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{I}>\text{II}>\text{III}$, $\text{II}>\text{III}>\text{I}$...
$\text{II}>\text{I}>\text{III}$
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10931
$\text{The decreasing order of the stability of the given ions is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{I}>\text{II}>\text{III}$, $\text{II}>\text{III}>\text{I}$...
$\text{II}>\text{I}>\text{III}$
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10930
$\text{Free radical formation will take place in:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_3\text{CO}-\text{OCH}_3 \longrightarrow \text{CH}_3\text{O}^\bullet + \text{CH}_3\text{O}^\bullet$, $\text{H}_3\text{C}\text{COCH}_3 + \text{OH}^- \longrightarrow \text{H}_3\text{C}\text{COCH}_2^- + \text{H}_2\text{O}$...
$\text{H}_3\text{CO}-\text{OCH}_3 \longrightarrow \text{CH}_3\text{O}^\bullet + \text{CH}_3\text{O}^\bullet$
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10929
$\text{The Huckel's rule-based aromaticity is shown by:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{A, B, D only}$, $\text{B, D only}$...
$\text{B, D, E and F only}$
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10928
$\text{The hydrocarbons having the lowest dipole moment among the following is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_3\text{C}\text{CH}=\text{CHCH}_3$ (2-butene), $\text{CH}_3-\text{C}\equiv\text{C}-\text{CH}_3$ (2-butyne)...
$\text{CH}_3-\text{C}\equiv\text{C}-\text{CH}_3$ (2-butyne)
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10927
$\text{The aromatic compound among the following is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cyclohexadienyl anion (6-membered ring with negative charge)}$, $\text{Cyclobutadiene (4-membered ring)}$...
$\text{Cyclopentadienyl anion (5-membered ring with negative charge)}$
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10926
$\text{The aromatic structure(s) out of given structures is/are:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
{A, C, D, F & G only}, {A & D only}...
$\text{A, C, E, F only}$
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10925
$\text{The compound that is most difficult to protonate is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ph-O-H (Phenol)}$, $\text{H-O-H (Water)}$...
$\text{Ph-O-H (Phenol)}$
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10924
$\text{The correct order of acidity among the following is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_2=\text{CH}_2 > \text{CH}\equiv\text{CH} > \text{CH}_3\text{C}\equiv\text{CH} > \text{CH}_3-\text{CH}_3$, $\text{CH}\equiv\text{CH} > \text{CH}_3-\text{C}\equiv\text{CH} > \text{CH}_2=\text{CH}_2 > \text{CH}_3-\text{CH}_3$...
$\text{CH}\equiv\text{CH} > \text{CH}_3-\text{C}\equiv\text{CH} > \text{CH}_2=\text{CH}_2 > \text{CH}_3-\text{CH}_3$
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10923
$\text{Which one of the following has the most acidic nature?}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Benzyl alcohol (C}_6\text{H}_5\text{CH}_2\text{OH)}$, $\text{Phenol (C}_6\text{H}_5\text{OH)}$...
$\text{Phenol (C}_6\text{H}_5\text{OH)}$
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10922
$\text{What is the correct sequence of acidity for the following compounds?}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3\text{COOH} > \text{BrCH}_2\text{COOH} > \text{ClCH}_2\text{COOH} > \text{FCH}_2\text{COOH}$, $\text{FCH}_2\text{COOH} > \text{CH}_3\text{COOH} > \text{BrCH}_2\text{COOH} > \text{ClCH}_2\text{COOH}$...
$\text{FCH}_2\text{COOH} > \text{ClCH}_2\text{COOH} > \text{BrCH}_2\text{COOH} > \text{CH}_3\text{COOH}$
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10921
$\text{The correct order with respect to -I effect of the substituents is:}$ $\text{(R = alkyl)}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$-\text{NH}_2 > -\text{OR} < -\text{F}$, $-\text{NR}_2 < -\text{OR} < -\text{F}$...
$-\text{NR}_2 < -\text{OR} < -\text{F}$
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10920
$\text{Alkyl groups act as electron donors when attached to a } \pi \text{ system due to:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Inductive effect}$, $\text{Mesomeric effect}$...
$\text{Hyperconjugation}$
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10919
$\text{The most stable canonical structure among the given structures is/are:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{I}$, $\text{II}$...
$\text{III}$
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10918
$\text{The total number of resonating structures (excluded the given structure) formed by the given molecule are:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$2$, $3$...
$3$
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10917
$\text{The major contributor to the resonance hybrid among the following resonance structures is-}$ $\text{(CH)}_3 - \text{(CH)}_2 - \text{CH} - \text{O}::(\text{CH})_3 \leftrightarrow$ $\text{(I)}$ $\text{(CH)}_3 - \text{(CH)}_2 - \text{CH} = \text{O}^\oplus(\text{CH})_3$ $\text{(II)}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{I}$, $\text{II}$...
$\text{II}$
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10916
$\text{Consider the following resonating structures of HCOOH}$ $\text{I. H-C-O-H (with double bond between C and first O, lone pairs shown)}$ $\text{II. H-C=O-H (with positive charge on C, negative charge on first O)}$ $\text{III. H-C-O-H (with negative charge on first O, positive charge on C)}$ $\text{IV. H-C-O-H (with positive charge on first O, negative charge on second O)}$ $\text{The order of stability is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{I>II>III>IV}$, $\text{IV>I>II>III}$...
$\text{I>II>III>IV}$
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10915
$\text{The correct order of decreasing stability of the following carbocations is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$$\text{II} > \text{I} > \text{III}$$, $$\text{I} > \text{II} > \text{III}$$...
$$\text{II} > \text{I} > \text{III}$$
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10914
$\text{The resonance hybrid structure will not exist for-}\n\text{a. } \text{CH}_3\text{OH}\n\text{b. } \text{R - CONH}_2\n\text{c. } \text{CH}_3\text{CH} = \text{CHCH}_2\text{NH}_2$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{a, and c}$, $\text{a, and b only}$...
$\text{a, and c}$
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10913
$\text{The correct reactivity order towards hydrolysis is:}$ $\text{(P) } \text{Cl-benzene with NO}_2 \text{ at meta position}$ $\text{(Q) } \text{CH}_2\text{Cl-benzene with OCH}_3 \text{ at para position}$ $\text{(R) } \text{Cl-benzene with NO}_2 \text{ at para position}$ $\text{(S) } \text{CH}_2\text{Cl-benzene with OCH}_3 \text{ at meta position}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Q}>\text{R}>\text{S}>\text{P}$, $\text{Q}>\text{P}>\text{R}>\text{S}$...
$\text{Q}>\text{S}>\text{R}>\text{P}$
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10912
$\text{Which of the following carbon marked with asterisk is expected to have greatest positive charge?}\n\text{1. } {*}\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{Cl}\n\text{2. } {*}\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{Mg}^{+}\text{Cl}^{-}\n\text{3. } {*}\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{Br}\n\text{4. } {*}\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_3$
2
212
Recommended Questions
${*}\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{Cl}$, ${*}\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{Mg}^{+}\text{Cl}^{-}$...
${*}\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{Cl}$
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10911
$\text{The correct order of -I effect is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$-\text{NR}_3^+ > -\text{OR} > -\text{F}$, $-\text{F} > -\text{NR}_3^+ > -\text{OR}$...
$-\text{NR}_3^+ > -\text{F} > -\text{OR}$
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10910
$\text{Arrange the following groups in order of decreasing -I (inductive) effect:}$ $\text{NO}_2, \text{C}(\text{CH}_3)_3, \text{CH}_3, \text{OCH}_3, \text{Br}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{NO}_2 > \text{Br} > \text{OCH}_3 > \text{C}(\text{CH}_3)_3 > \text{CH}_3$, $\text{NO}_2 > \text{Br} > \text{OCH}_3 > \text{CH}_3 > \text{C}(\text{CH}_3)_3$...
$\text{NO}_2 > \text{Br} > \text{OCH}_3 > \text{CH}_3 > \text{C}(\text{CH}_3)_3$
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10909
$\text{The carbocation among the following that doesn't get stabilized by resonance is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cyclohexyl ring with a double bond and a positive charge at the allylic position}$, $\text{Allylic carbocation with a double bond adjacent to the positive charge}$...
$\text{Carbocation with a double bond not adjacent to the positive charge}$
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10908
$\text{Compare the stability of the two resonating structures given below and mark the correct option:}$ $\text{H}_3\text{C}=\text{C}-\text{C}=\text{O} \leftrightarrow \text{H}_3\text{C}^+-\text{C}=\text{C}-\text{O}^-$ $\text{(I)} \hspace{50pt} \text{(II)}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{(I) is more stable than (II)}$, $\text{(II) is more stable than (I)}$...
$\text{(I) is more stable than (II)}$
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10907
$\text{The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$sp > sp^2 < sp^3$, $sp > sp^2 > sp^3$...
$sp > sp^2 > sp^3$
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10906
$\text{Which carboxylate ion among the following is the most stable?}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3 - \text{C} - \text{O}^-$ with $\text{O}$ double bonded above $\text{C}$, $\text{Cl} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{C} - \text{O}^-$ with $\text{O}$ double bonded above $\text{C}$...
$\text{F}_2\text{CH} - \text{C} - \text{O}^-$ with $\text{O}$ double bonded above $\text{C}$
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10905
$\text{The most stable carbocation among the following is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$(CH_3)_3C^+CHCH_3$, $CH_3CH_2CH^+CH_2CH_3$...
$(CH_3)_2CCH_2CH_2CH_3^+$
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10904
$\text{The most stable carbocation among the following is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$(\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C}^+\text{CH}_2$, $(\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C}^+$...
$(\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C}^+$
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10903
$\text{Among the following groups maximum -I effect is exerted by:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$-\text{C}_6\text{H}_5$, $-(\text{OCH})_3$...
$-\text{NO}_2$
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10902
$\text{The effect that makes 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene more stable than 2-butene is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Resonance}$, $\text{Hyperconjugation}$...
$\text{Hyperconjugation}$
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10901
$\text{O}_2\text{NCH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{O}^- \text{ is more stable than } \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{O}^- \text{ because:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{NO}_2 \text{ shows +I effect}$, $\text{NO}_2 \text{ shows -I effect}$...
$\text{NO}_2 \text{ shows -I effect}$
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10900
$\text{The effect that can explain the given order of acidity of the carboxylic acids is-}$ $\text{Cl}_3\text{CCOOH} > \text{Cl}_2\text{CHCOOH} > \text{ClCH}_2\text{COOH}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$+\text{I effect}$, $-\text{I effect}$...
$-\text{I effect}$
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10899
$\text{The addition of HCl to an alkene proceeds in two steps. The first step is the attack of H}^+ \text{ ion on the double bond portion. The same can be shown as-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}^+ \text{ attacking one carbon of the double bond with arrow pointing from H}^+ \text{ to the carbon}$, $\text{H}^+ \text{ attacking one carbon of the double bond with arrow pointing from the double bond to H}^+$...
$\text{H}^+ \text{ attacking one carbon of the double bond with arrow pointing from the double bond to H}^+$
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10898
$\text{Chlorine atom can be classified as:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Carbocation}$, $\text{Nucleophile}$...
$\text{Electrophile}$
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10897
$\text{The species among the following that is not an electrophile is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{BH}_3$, $\text{H}_3\text{O}^+$...
$\text{H}_3\text{O}^+$
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10896
$\text{The correct order of the leaving group ability is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{OCOC}_2\text{H}_5 > \text{OC}_2\text{H}_5 > \text{OSO}_2\text{Me} > \text{OSO}_2\text{CF}_3$, $\text{OC}_2\text{H}_5 > \text{OCOC}_2\text{H}_5 > \text{OSO}_2\text{CF}_3 > \text{OSO}_2\text{Me}$...
$\text{OSO}_2\text{CF}_3 > \text{OSO}_2\text{Me} > \text{OCOC}_2\text{H}_5 > \text{OC}_2\text{H}_5$
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10895
$\text{Electrophilic addition reactions proceed in two steps. The first step involves the addition of an electrophile. The major intermediate formed in the first step is -}$ $\text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{HC} = \text{CH}_2 + \text{H}^+ \rightarrow ?$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$2^\circ \text{ carbanion}$, $1^\circ \text{ carbocation}$...
$2^\circ \text{ carbocation}$
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10894
$\text{An electrophile among the following is :}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{OH}^-$, $\text{NC}^-$...
$\text{Carbonyl group}$
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10893
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following for a nucleophile is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Nucleophile is a Lewis acid}$, $\text{Ammonia is a nucleophile}$...
$\text{Nucleophile is a Lewis acid}$
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10892
$\text{The most stable carbanion species among the following is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$CCl_3^-$, $CH_3^-$...
$CCl_3^-$
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10891
$\text{The correct statement regarding electrophile is :}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile}$, $\text{Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile}$...
$\text{Electrophiles can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile}$
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10890
$\text{The pair of structures given below represent-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Enantiomers}$, $\text{Position isomers}$...
$\text{Position isomers}$
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10889
$\text{The most stable conformation of n-butane among the following is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Newman projection showing two CH}_3 \text{ groups in gauche position}$, $\text{Newman projection showing two CH}_3 \text{ groups in anti position}$...
$\text{Newman projection showing two CH}_3 \text{ groups in anti position}$
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10888
$\text{The R and S enantiomers of an optically active compound differ in:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Their optical rotation of plane-polarized light.}$, $\text{Their reactivity with chiral reagents.}$...
$\text{Their optical rotation of plane-polarized light.}$
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10887
$\text{A total number of structural isomeric aldehydes and ketones that can exist with the molecular formula C}_5\text{H}_{10}\text{O are :}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$5$, $8$...
$7$
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10886
$\text{Fischer projection indicates:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Horizontal substituents above the plane.}$, $\text{Vertical substituents above the plane.}$...
$\text{Horizontal substituents above the plane.}$
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10885
$\text{The optically active compound among the following is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Isobutyric acid}$, $\text{beta-Chloropropionic acid}$...
$\text{alpha-Chloropropionic acid}$
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10884
$\text{The optically active compound among the following is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Glycerine}$, $\text{Acetaldehyde}$...
$\text{Glyceraldehyde}$
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10883
$\text{Glucose and fructose are-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Chain isomers}$, $\text{Position isomers}$...
$\text{Functional isomers}$
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10882
$\text{The maximum number of stereoisomers possible for 3-hydroxy-2-methyl butanoic acid is/are :}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$1$, $2$...
$4$
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10881
$\text{The optically active compound among the following is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Butane}$, $\text{2-Methyl pentane}$...
$\text{3-Methyl hexane}$
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10880
$\text{The structure of diphenylmethane is given below:}$ $\text{(Structure shows two benzene rings connected by a CH}_2 \text{ group)}$ $\text{The number of structural isomers possible when one of the hydrogen atom is replaced by a chlorine atom are :}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$6$, $4$...
$4$
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10879
$\text{But-2-ene exhibits cis-trans isomerism due to-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Rotation around } \text{C}_3 - \text{C}_4 \text{ sigma bond}$, $\text{Rotation around } \text{C}_1 - \text{C}_2 \text{ bond}$...
$\text{Restricted rotation around C=C bond}$
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10878
$\text{The chiral compound among the following is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{2-Methylpentanoic acid}$, $\text{Pentanoic acid}$...
$\text{2-Methylpentanoic acid}$
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10877
$\text{The compounds that show geometrical isomerism among the following are:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{a, b}$, $\text{c, d}$...
$\text{a, c}$
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10876
$\text{Geometrical isomerism is caused by-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Restricted rotation around C=C bond.}$, $\text{The presence of one asymmetric carbon atom.}$...
$\text{Restricted rotation around C=C bond.}$
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10875
$\text{Geometrical isomerism can be shown by:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ketone compounds with different positions of functional groups}$, $\text{Alkenes with deuterium and hydrogen substituents}$...
$\text{Alkenes with deuterium and hydrogen substituents}$
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10874
$\text{Total isomers for } \text{C}_4\text{H}_{10}\text{O} \text{ are-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$4$, $5$...
$8$
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10873
$\text{The number of chain isomers for } \text{C}_5\text{H}_{12} \text{ and } \text{C}_6\text{H}_{14} \text{ are, respectively:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$3, 3$, $3, 5$...
$3, 3$
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10872
$\text{The total number of isomers of } \text{C}_4\text{H}_8 \text{ are-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$8$, $7$...
$6$
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10871
$\text{Number of monochlorinated products (excluding stereo-isomers) obtained from the given reaction are:}$ $\text{Given compound: 1,3-dimethylcyclohexane undergoes free radical substitution with } \text{Cl}_2/h\nu$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$4$, $5$...
$5$
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10870
$\text{The number of primary amines of the formula } \text{C}_4\text{H}_{11}\text{N} \text{ are:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$1$, $3$...
$4$
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Edit
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10869
$\text{The number of possible isomers of the aromatic compound with molecular formula } \text{C}_7\text{H}_8\text{O} \text{ are:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$3$, $5$...
$5$
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10868
$\text{The pair among the following that does not contain position isomers is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3-\text{CH}-\text{Cl}$ $\text{and}$ $\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{Cl}$ $\text{with OH groups above the CH carbon atoms}$, $\text{CH}_3-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{NH}_2$ $\text{and}$ $\text{CH}_3-\text{CH}-\text{CH}_3$ $\text{with NH}_2 \text{ group above the middle CH carbon}$...
$\text{CH}_3-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{CN}$ $\text{and}$ $\text{CH}_3-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}-\text{CH}_3$ $\text{with CN group above the CH carbon}$
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10867
$\text{The pair that represents chain isomers is:-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3-\text{CH}(\text{CH}_3)-\text{C}(=\text{O})-\text{OH} \text{ and } \text{CH}_3-\text{CH}_2-\text{C}(=\text{O})-\text{OCH}_3$, $\text{CH}_3-\text{CH}(\text{CH}_3)-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_3 \text{ and } \text{CH}_3-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}(\text{CH}_3)-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_3$...
$\text{CH}_3-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}(\text{CN})-\text{CH}_3 \text{ and } \text{CH}_3-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{CN}$
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10866
$\text{The pair that represents chain isomers is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3\text{CHCl}_2$ $\text{and}$ $\text{ClCH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{Cl}$, $\text{Propyl alcohol and Isopropyl alcohol}$...
$\text{2-Methylbutane and Neopentane}$
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10865
$\text{Which of the following organic compounds exhibit tautomerism?}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{I and II}$, $\text{I, III and IV}$...
$\text{I, II and IV}$
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Delete
10864
$\text{The number of isomeric structures for C}_2\text{H}_7\text{N would be:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$4$, $3$...
$2$
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10863
$\text{The pair of structures that does not represent isomers is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Six-membered ring with oxygen at position 1 and six-membered ring with oxygen at position 1}$, $\text{Five-membered ring with OH group and six-membered ring with oxygen}$...
$\text{Six-membered ring with oxygen at different positions}$
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10862
$\text{The type of structural isomerism shown by given compounds is-}$ $\text{CH}_3-\text{S}-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_3$ $\text{and}$ $\text{CH}_3-\text{S}-\text{CH}(\text{CH}_3)_2$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Tautomerism}$, $\text{Positional isomerism}$...
$\text{Positional isomerism}$
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10861
$\text{Which of the following is an isomer of ethanol?}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Methanol}$, $\text{Diethyl ether}$...
$\text{Dimethyl ether}$
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Delete
10860
$\text{Alkyl cyanide } R - C \equiv N \text{ and alkyl isocyanides } R - \overline{N} \equiv C^- \text{ are:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Tautomers}$, $\text{Metamers}$...
$\text{Functional isomers}$
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10859
$\text{Functional isomer is not possible for:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Alcohols}$, $\text{Aldehydes}$...
$\text{Alkyl halides}$
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Delete
10858
$\text{Which types of isomerism can be exhibited by compounds with the molecular formula } \text{C}_4\text{H}_{11}\text{N}\text{?}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Position isomerism}$, $\text{Metamerism}$...
$\text{All of the above}$
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10857
$\text{Isomerism exhibited by acetic acid and methyl formate is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Functional}$, $\text{Chain}$...
$\text{Functional}$
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Delete
10856
$\text{In an } S_N1 \text{ reaction on chiral center, there is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
100% racemization, $\text{Inversion is more than retention leading to partial racemization.}$...
$\text{Inversion is more than retention leading to partial racemization.}$
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10855
$\text{The correct representation involving heterolytic fission of } \text{CH}_3 - \text{Br} \text{ among the following is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{Br} \rightarrow \text{CH}_3^+ + \text{Br}^-$, $\text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{Br} \rightarrow \text{CH}_3^+ + \text{Br}^-$...
$\text{H}_3\text{C} - \text{Br} \rightarrow \text{CH}_3^+ + \text{Br}^-$
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10854
$\text{The IUPAC name of the above mentioned compound is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{p-Phenyl diphenyl}$, $\text{p-1-biphenyl benzene}$...
$\text{Terphenyl}$
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Delete
10853
$\text{The IUPAC name of the above-mentioned compound is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{(N-Bromo)-3-methyl-2-oxobutanamide}$, $\text{(N-Bromo)-2-oxo-4-methylbutanamide}$...
$\text{(N-Bromo)-3-methyl-2-oxobutanamide}$
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10852
$\text{Incorrectly matched common name with IUPAC name is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Benzalacetophenone - (E)-1,3-Diphenylprop-2-en-1-one}$, $\text{Glutaric acid - Pentenedioic acid}$...
$\text{Glutaric acid - Pentenedioic acid}$
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Delete
10851
$\text{The IUPAC name of the above mentioned compound is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{3-Ket-2-methylhex-4-enal}$, $\text{5-Formylhex-2-en-3-one}$...
$\text{3-Keto-2-methylhex-4-enal}$
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Delete
10850
$\text{The IUPAC name of the above-mentioned compound is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Pent-1-en-3-yne}$, $\text{Pent-1-ene-4-yne}$...
$\text{Pent-1-en-4-yne}$
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Delete
10849
$\text{The IUPAC name of the above mentioned compound is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cyclohexylidenemethanone}$, $\text{Cyclohexylidemethanone}$...
$\text{Cyclohexylidenemethanone}$
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10848
$\text{The IUPAC name of the above mentioned compound is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{1,2,3-Tricyanopropane}$, $\text{Propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile}$...
$\text{Propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile}$
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Delete
10847
$\text{The IUPAC name of the above mentioned compound is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cyclohexylidenemethanone}$, $\text{Cyclohexylidemethanone}$...
$\text{Cyclohexylidenemethanone}$
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Delete
10846
$\text{The IUPAC name of the above mentioned compound is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{3,3-Diethyl-4-methyl-5-(methylethyl)octane}$, $\text{3,3-Diethyl-5-isopropyl-4-methyloctane}$...
$\text{3,3-Diethyl-4-methyl-5-(methylethyl)octane}$
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10845
$\text{The IUPAC name of } \text{CH}_3\text{CH}=\text{CHC}\equiv\text{CH} \text{ is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Pent - 3 - en - 1 - yne}$, $\text{Pent - 2 - en - 4 - yne}$...
$\text{Pent - 3 - en - 1 - yne}$
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10844
$\text{The correct IUPAC name, among the following, is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Prop-3-yn-1-ol}$, $\text{But-4-ol-4-yne}$...
$\text{But-3-yn-1-ol}$
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10843
$\text{The IUPAC name of the above mentioned compound is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{3-Methylcyclobut-1-en-2-ol}$, $\text{4-Methylcyclobut-2-en-1-ol}$...
$\text{4-Methylcyclobut-2-en-1-ol}$
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10842
$\text{The IUPAC name of the above mentioned compound is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{3, 4-Dimethylpentanoyl chloride}$, $\text{1-Chloro-1-oxo-2,3-dimethylpentane}$...
$\text{2, 3-Dimethylpentanoyl chloride}$
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10841
$\text{The compound with an isopropyl group is-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{2,2,3,3-Tetramethylpentane}$, $\text{2,2-Dimethylpentane}$...
$\text{2-Methylpentane}$
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10840
$\text{What is the IUPAC name of this compound?}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{2-Bromo-3-methylbutanoic acid}$, $\text{2-Methyl-3-bromobutanoic acid}$...
$\text{3-Bromo-2-methylbutanoic acid}$
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10839
$\text{The IUPAC name of the above-mentioned compound is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{cis-2-Chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene}$, $\text{trans-2-Chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene}$...
$\text{trans-2-Chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene}$
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10838
$\text{Arrange H, CH}_3\text{, C}_2\text{H}_5\text{, and C}_3\text{H}_7 \text{ in order of increasing positive inductive effect:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{H} < \text{CH}_3 < \text{C}_2\text{H}_5 < \text{C}_3\text{H}_7$, $\text{H} > \text{CH}_3 < \text{C}_2\text{H}_5 > \text{C}_3\text{H}_7$...
$\text{H} < \text{CH}_3 < \text{C}_2\text{H}_5 < \text{C}_3\text{H}_7$
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10837
$\text{The IUPAC name of the above mentioned compound is -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Citric acid}$, $\text{3-Hydroxy pentane-1,5-dioic acid}$...
$\text{2-Hydroxypropane-1,2,3-tricarboxylic acid}$
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10836
$\text{Which structure corresponds to the IUPAC name 3-Ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid?}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Structure with ethyl group at position 3, OH at position 2, methyl at position 4, double bond at position 3, triple bond at position 5, and COOH group}$, $\text{Structure with different arrangement of functional groups and carbon chain}$...
$\text{Structure with ethyl group at position 3, OH at position 2, methyl at position 4, double bond at position 3, triple bond at position 5, and COOH group}$
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10835
$\text{The correct increasing order of C-C bond length is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{C}_2\text{H}_6 > \text{C}_2\text{H}_4 > \text{C}_6\text{H}_6 > \text{C}_2\text{H}_2$, $\text{C}_2\text{H}_2 < \text{C}_2\text{H}_4 < \text{C}_6\text{H}_6 < \text{C}_2\text{H}_6$...
$\text{C}_2\text{H}_2 < \text{C}_2\text{H}_4 < \text{C}_6\text{H}_6 < \text{C}_2\text{H}_6$
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10834
$\text{The maximum number of carbon atoms arranged linearly in the molecule, } \text{CH}_3 - \text{C} \equiv \text{C} - \text{CH} = \text{CH}_2\text{, are -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$3$, $4$...
$4$
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10833
$\text{The number of } \sigma \text{ and } \pi \text{ bonds in the molecule } \text{C}_6\text{H}_{12} \text{ are:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$7 = (\sigma_{C-C}), 11 = (\sigma_{C-H}), \text{ and } 0 = \pi$, $6 = (\sigma_{C-C}), 12 = (\sigma_{C-H}), \text{ and } 0 = \pi$...
$6 = (\sigma_{C-C}), 12 = (\sigma_{C-H}), \text{ and } 0 = \pi$
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10832
$\text{The Cl - C - Cl angles in 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethene and tetrachloromethane will be about :}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$120^\circ \text{ and } 109.5^\circ$, $90^\circ \text{ and } 109.5^\circ$...
$120^\circ \text{ and } 109.5^\circ$
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10831
$\text{The total number of pi-bond electrons in the following structure are:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$4$, $8$...
$8$
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10830
$\text{The correct order of increasing bond length of C-H, C-O, C-C and C=C is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{C} - \text{C} < \text{C} = \text{C} < \text{C} - \text{O} < \text{C} - \text{H}$, $\text{C} - \text{O} < \text{C} - \text{H} < \text{C} - \text{C} < \text{C} = \text{C}$...
$\text{C} - \text{H} < \text{C} = \text{C} < \text{C} - \text{O} < \text{C} - \text{C}$
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10829
$\text{The number of tertiary carbon atoms in tertiary butyl alcohol are-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$1$, $2$...
$1$
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10828
$\text{The compound that contains only sp}^3 \text{ hybridized carbon atoms is:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{HCOOH}$, $(\text{NH}_2)_2\text{CO}$...
$(\text{CH}_3)_3\text{COH}$
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10827
$\text{In the organic compound } \text{CH}_2 = \text{CH} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH}\text{, which pair of hybridized orbitals is involved in forming the } \text{C}_2 - \text{C}_3 \text{ bond?}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{sp} - \text{sp}^2$, $\text{sp} - \text{sp}^3$...
$\text{sp}^2 - \text{sp}^3$
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10826
$\text{The enolic form of an acetone contains:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$9 \text{ sigma bonds, } 1 \text{ pi bond, and } 2 \text{ lone pairs of electrons}$, $8 \text{ sigma bonds, } 2 \text{ pi bonds, and } 2 \text{ lone pairs of electrons}$...
$9 \text{ sigma bonds, } 1 \text{ pi bond, and } 2 \text{ lone pairs of electrons}$
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10825
$\text{The } C - H \text{ bond distance is longer in -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{C}_2\text{H}_2$, $\text{C}_2\text{H}_4$...
$\text{C}_2\text{H}_6$
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10824
$\text{The cylindrical shape of an alkyne is due to the presence of-}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{Three sigma C-C bonds}$, $\text{Three } \pi \text{ C-C bonds}$...
$\text{One sigma C-C and two } \pi \text{ C-C bonds}$
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10823
$\text{The correct hybridization states of carbon atoms in } \text{C}_6\text{H}_6 \text{ is/are:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{sp}^2$, $\text{sp}$...
$\text{sp}^2$
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10822
$\text{The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate is given below. The number of sigma and pi bonds in the enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate are -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$18 \text{ sigma bonds and } 2 \text{ pi-bonds}$, $16 \text{ sigma bonds and } 1 \text{ pi-bond}$...
$18 \text{ sigma bonds and } 2 \text{ pi-bonds}$
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10821
$\text{The number of primary carbon atoms in the following compound are:}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$6$, $2$...
$6$
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10820
$\text{The number of } \sigma \text{ and } \pi \text{ bonds in the molecule } \text{C}_6\text{H}_6 \text{ are -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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10819
$\text{The correct hybridization states of carbon atoms marked as 1,2,3 in the following compound are:}$ $^1\text{CH}_3 - ^2\text{CH} = ^3\text{CH}_2$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{C}_1 = \text{sp}, \text{C}_2 = \text{sp}^3, \text{C}_3 = \text{sp}^2$, $\text{C}_1 = \text{sp}^2, \text{C}_2 = \text{sp}^3, \text{C}_3 = \text{sp}^3$...
$\text{C}_1 = \text{sp}^3, \text{C}_2 = \text{sp}^2, \text{C}_3 = \text{sp}^2$
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10818
$\text{CH}_2 = \text{C} = \text{O}$ $\text{The correct hybridization states of carbon atoms in the above compound are}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{C}_1 = \text{sp}, \text{C}_2 = \text{sp}^3$, $\text{C}_1 = \text{sp}^2, \text{C}_2 = \text{sp}$...
$\text{C}_1 = \text{sp}^2, \text{C}_2 = \text{sp}$
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10817
$\text{The number of } \sigma \text{ and } \pi \text{ bonds in the molecule CH}_2\text{Cl}_2 \text{ are -}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$2 = (\sigma_{C-Cl}), 1 = (\sigma_{C-H}), \text{ and } 1 = \pi$, $2 = (\sigma_{C-Cl}), 2 = (\sigma_{C-H}), \text{ and } 0 = \pi$...
$2 = (\sigma_{C-Cl}), 2 = (\sigma_{C-H}), \text{ and } 0 = \pi$
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10816
$\text{The correct hybridization states of carbon atoms in the following compound are -}$ $\text{CH}_2 = \text{CH} - \text{C} \equiv \text{N}$
2
212
Recommended Questions
$\text{C}^1 = \text{sp}, \text{C}^2 = \text{sp}^3, \text{C}^3 = \text{sp}^2$, $\text{C}^1 = \text{sp}^2, \text{C}^2 = \text{sp}^3, \text{C}^3 = \text{sp}^3$...
$\text{C}^1 = \text{sp}^2, \text{C}^2 = \text{sp}^2, \text{C}^3 = \text{sp}$
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10815
$\text{Consider two hot bodies, B}_1 \text{ and B}_2 \text{ which have temperatures of 100°C and 80°C respectively at t=0. The temperature of the surroundings is 40°C. The ratio of the respective rates of cooling R}_1 \text{ and R}_2 \text{ of these two bodies at t = 0 will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{R}_1 : \text{R}_2 = 3 : 2$, $\text{R}_1 : \text{R}_2 = 5 : 4$...
$\text{R}_1 : \text{R}_2 = 3 : 2$
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10814
$\text{The temperature of an object is 400°C. The temperature of the surroundings may be assumed to be negligible. What temperature would cause the energy to radiate twice as quickly? (Given, } 2^{\frac{1}{4}} \approx 1.18\text{)}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$200°\text{C}$, $200 \text{ K}$...
$800 \text{ K}$
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10813
$\text{The rate of heat emission from an ideal black body at temperature T is H. What will be the rate of emission of heat by another body of same size at temperature 2T and emissivity 0.25?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$16\text{H}$, $4\text{H}$...
$4\text{H}$
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10812
$\text{If the temperature of the body is increased from } -73°\text{C to } 327°\text{C, then the ratio of energy emitted per second in both cases is:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$1 : 3$, $1 : 81$...
$1 : 81$
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10811
$\text{A black body at 200 K is found to emit maximum energy at a wavelength of 14 } \mu\text{m. When its temperature is raised to 1000 K, the wavelength at which maximum energy is emitted will be:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$14 \mu\text{m}$, $70 \mu\text{m}$...
$2.8 \mu\text{m}$
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10810
$\text{A black body has a maximum wavelength at a temperature of 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at temperatures of 3000 K will be:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3}{2}\lambda_m$, $\frac{2}{3}\lambda_m$...
$\frac{2}{3}\lambda_m$
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10809
$\text{According to Wien's law:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\lambda_m T = \text{constant}$, $\frac{\lambda_m}{T} = \text{constant}$...
$\lambda_m T = \text{constant}$
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10808
$\text{On a clear sunny day, an object at temperature T is placed on the top of a high mountain. An identical object at the same temperature is placed at the foot of the mountain. If both the objects are exposed to sun-rays for two hours in an identical manner, the object placed on the top of a mountain will register a temperature:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{higher than the object at the foot.}$, $\text{lower than the object at the foot.}$...
$\text{lower than the object at the foot.}$
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10807
$\text{Which of the following is closest to an ideal black body?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{Black lamp}$, $\text{Cavity maintained at a constant temperature}$...
$\text{Cavity maintained at a constant temperature}$
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10806
$\text{Taking into account the radiation that a human body emits which of the following statements is true?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{The radiation is emitted only during the day.}$, $\text{The radiation is emitted during the summers and absorbed during the winters.}$...
$\text{The radiation emitted is in the infra-red region.}$
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10805
$\text{While measuring the thermal conductivity of a liquid, we keep the upper part hot and the lower part cool, so that:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{convection may be stopped}$, $\text{radiation may be stopped}$...
$\text{convection may be stopped}$
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10804
$\text{Air is a bad conductor of heat or partly conducts heat. Still, a vacuum is to be placed between the walls of the thermos flask because:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{it is difficult to fill the air between the walls of the thermos flask.}$, $\text{due to more pressure of air, the thermos can get cracks.}$...
$\text{by convection, heat can flow through the air.}$
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10803
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The coefficient of thermal conductivity of a metal rod is a function of the length of the rod.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Longer is the rod, the larger is the amount of heat conducted.}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are False.}$
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10802
$\text{The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a composite slab, consisting of two materials having coefficients of thermal conductivity K and 2K and thickness x and 4x, respectively are } T_2 \text{ and } T_1 (T_2 > T_1). \text{ The rate of heat transfer through the slab, in a steady state is } \left(\frac{A(T_2-T_1)K}{x}\right)f, \text{ with f which equals to:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$1$, $\frac{1}{2}$...
$\frac{1}{3}$
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10801
\text{The temperature of the hot and cold ends of a 20 cm long rod in a thermal steady state is at } 100°\text{C and } 20°\text{C respectively. The temperature at the centre of the rod will be:}
1
110
Recommended Questions
$50°\text{C}$, $60°\text{C}$...
$60°\text{C}$
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10800
$\text{Mud houses are cooler in the summer and warmer in the winter because:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{The mud is a superconductor of heat.}$, $\text{The mud is a good conductor of heat.}$...
$\text{The mud is a bad conductor of heat.}$
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10799
$\text{Two taps, one at } 10°\text{C and the other at } 100°\text{C, both supply water. How much hot water must be mixed with the cold water so that we get 20 kg of water at } 35°\text{C?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$7.2 \text{ kg}$, $10 \text{ kg}$...
$5.6 \text{ kg}$
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10798
$\text{When the pressure on the surface of water is increased, its boiling point will:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{Decrease}$, $\text{Increase}$...
$\text{Increase}$
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10797
$\text{Steam at } 100°\text{C is injected into 20 g of } 10°\text{C water. When water acquires a temperature of } 80°\text{C, the mass of water present will be:}$ $\text{(Take specific heat of water } = 1 \text{ cal g}^{-1} °\text{C}^{-1} \text{ and latent heat of steam } = 540 \text{ cal g}^{-1}\text{)}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$24 \text{ g}$, $31.5 \text{ g}$...
$22.5 \text{ g}$
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10796
$\text{One kilogram of ice at } 0^\circ\text{C is mixed with one kilogram of water at } 80^\circ\text{C. The final temperature of the mixture will be: (Take: Specific heat of water } = 4200 \text{ J kg}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}\text{, latent heat of ice} = 336 \text{ kJ kg}^{-1}\text{)}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$0^\circ\text{C}$, $50^\circ\text{C}$...
$0^\circ\text{C}$
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10795
$\text{A constrained steel rod of length } l\text{, area of cross-section } A\text{, Young's modulus } Y \text{ and coefficient of linear expansion } \alpha \text{ is heated through } t°\text{C. The work that can be performed by the rod when heated is:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$(YA\alpha t)(l\alpha t)$, $\frac{1}{2}(YA\alpha t)(l\alpha t)$...
$\frac{1}{2}(YA\alpha t)(l\alpha t)$
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10794
$\text{A pendulum clock runs faster by 5 s per day at } 20^\circ\text{C and goes slow by 10 s per day at } 35^\circ\text{C. It shows the correct time at a temperature of:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$27.5^\circ\text{C}$, $25^\circ\text{C}$...
$25^\circ\text{C}$
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10793
$\text{The value of the coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is } 5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ K}^{-1}\text{. The fractional change in the density of glycerin for a temperature increase of } 40°\text{C will be:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$0.015$, $0.020$...
$0.020$
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10792
$\text{Two absolute scales } A \text{ and } B, \text{ have triple points of water defined to be } 200A \text{ and } 350B. \text{ The relationship between } T_A \text{ and } T_B\text{:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$T_A = \frac{5}{7}T_B$, $T_A = \frac{4}{7}T_B$...
$T_A = \frac{4}{7}T_B$
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10791
$\text{A temperature of } 100°\text{F (Fahrenheit scale) is equal to } T \text{ K (Kelvin scale). The value of } T \text{ is:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$310.9$, $37.8$...
$310.9$
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10790
$\text{A body cools down from } 80^\circ\text{C to } 70^\circ\text{C in 5 minutes. The temperature of the same body will fall from } 70^\circ\text{C to } 60^\circ\text{C in:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{less than 5 minutes.}$, $\text{equal to 5 minutes.}$...
$\text{more than 5 minutes.}$
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10789
$\text{Hot coffee in a mug cools from } 90°\text{C to } 70°\text{C in } 4.8 \text{ minutes. The room temperature is } 20°\text{C. Applying Newton's law of cooling, the time needed to cool it further by } 10°\text{C should be nearly:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$4.2 \text{ minute}$, $3.8 \text{ minute}$...
$3.2 \text{ minute}$
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10788
$\text{A body cools from a temperature of } 3T \text{ to } 2T \text{ in 10 minutes. The room temperature is } T\text{. Assuming that Newton's law of cooling is applicable, the temperature of the body at the end of the next 10 minutes will be:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\frac{7}{4}T$, $\frac{3}{2}T$...
$\frac{3}{2}T$
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10787
\text{A certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5 minutes. The temperature of the surroundings will be:}
1
110
Recommended Questions
$45°\text{C}$, $20°\text{C}$...
$45°\text{C}$
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10786
$\text{A pan filled with hot food cools in 2 minutes from } 94°\text{C to } 86°\text{C when the room temperature is } 20°\text{C. How long will it take to cool from } 71°\text{C to } 69°\text{C?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$50 \text{ s}$, $52 \text{ s}$...
$42 \text{ s}$
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10785
$\text{A block of metal is heated to a temperature much higher than the room temperature and allowed to cool in a room free from air currents. Which of the following curves correctly represents the rate of cooling?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Temperature vs Time showing a curved decrease starting high and leveling off}$, $\text{Graph 2: Temperature vs Time showing an exponential decay curve}$...
$\text{Graph 2: Temperature vs Time showing an exponential decay curve}$
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10784
$\text{The temperature of a body falls from } 50°\text{C to } 40°\text{C in 10 minutes. If the temperature of the surroundings is } 20°\text{C, then the temperature of the body after another 10 minutes will be:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$36.6°\text{C}$, $33.3°\text{C}$...
$33.3°\text{C}$
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10783
\text{Which of the following graphs correctly represents the relation between } \ln E \text{ and } \ln T \text{ where } E \text{ is the amount of radiation emitted per unit time from a unit area of a body and } T \text{ is the absolute temperature?}
\text{(Take } \sigma = 5.67 \times 10^{-8} \text{ W m}^{-2}\text{K}^{-4} \text{ and } 0 < \epsilon < 1\text{)}
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: } \ln E \text{ vs } \ln T \text{ showing a straight line with positive slope passing through negative y-intercept}$, $\text{Graph 2: } \ln E \text{ vs } \ln T \text{ showing a curved line}$...
$\text{Both 1 and 3}$
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10782
\text{If the sun's surface radiates heat at } 6.3 \times 10^7 \text{ Wm}^{-2} \text{ then the temperature of the sun, assuming it to be a black body, will be: } (\sigma = 5.7 \times 10^{-8} \text{ Wm}^{-2}\text{K}^{-4})
1
110
Recommended Questions
$5.8 \times 10^3 \text{ K}$, $8.5 \times 10^3 \text{ K}$...
$5.8 \times 10^3 \text{ K}$
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10781
$\text{A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450-watt power at 500 K. If the radius were halved and the temperature doubled, the power radiated in watts would be:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$225$, $450$...
$1800$
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10780
$\text{If the radius of a star is } R \text{ and it acts as a black body, what would be the temperature of the star at which the rate of energy production is } Q?$ $(\sigma \text{ is Stefan-Boltzmann constant})$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\frac{Q}{4\pi R^2 \sigma}$, $\left(\frac{Q}{4\pi R^2 \sigma}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$...
$\left(\frac{Q}{4\pi R^2 \sigma}\right)^{\frac{1}{4}}$
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10779
\text{The wavelength corresponding to maximum emission of radiation from the sun is } \lambda_{\max} = 4753 \text{ Å (close to the wavelength of violet colour of visible region).}
\text{Hence if temperature is doubled, } \lambda_m \text{ is decreased } \left(\lambda_m \propto \frac{1}{T}\right) \text{ i.e. mostly ultraviolet radiations emits.}
\text{If the temperature of the sun becomes twice its present temperature, then:}
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{Radiated energy would be predominantly in the infrared range.}$, $\text{Radiated energy would be primarily in the ultraviolet range.}$...
$\text{Radiated energy would be primarily in the ultraviolet range.}$
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10778
$\text{A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at a wavelength of 250 nm is } U_1\text{, at a wavelength of 500 nm is } U_2 \text{ and that at 1000 nm is } U_3\text{. Given Wien's constant } b = 2.88 \times 10^6 \text{ nm-K, which of the following is correct?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$U_3 = 0$, $U_1 > U_2$...
$U_2 > U_1$
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10777
$\text{The energy distribution E with the wavelength } (\lambda) \text{ for the black body radiation at temperature T Kelvin is shown in the figure. As the temperature is increased the maxima will:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{Shift towards left and become higher}$, $\text{Rise high but will not shift}$...
$\text{Shift towards left and become higher}$
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10776
$\text{The plots of intensity versus wavelength for three black bodies at temperatures } T_1, T_2 \text{ and } T_3 \text{ respectively are as shown. Their temperatures are such that:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$T_1 > T_2 > T_3$, $T_1 > T_3 > T_2$...
$T_1 > T_3 > T_2$
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10775
$\text{Three stars A, B, and C have surface temperatures } T_A, T_B \text{ and } T_C \text{ respectively. Star A appears bluish, star B appears reddish and star C yellowish. Hence:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$T_A > T_B > T_C$, $T_B > T_C > T_A$...
$T_A > T_C > T_B$
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10774
$\text{If } \lambda_m \text{ is the wavelength, corresponding to which the radiant intensity of a black body is at its maximum and its absolute temperature is } T\text{, then which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of } T\text{?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Linear relationship: } \lambda_m \text{ increases linearly with } T$, $\text{Exponential relationship: } \lambda_m \text{ increases exponentially with } T \text{ and levels off}$...
$\text{Inverse relationship: } \lambda_m \text{ decreases as } T \text{ increases}$
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10773
$\text{A piece of iron is heated in a flame. If it becomes dull red first, then becomes reddish yellow, and finally turns to white hot, the correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{Stefan's law}$, $\text{Wien's displacement law}$...
$\text{Wien's displacement law}$
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10772
$\text{What is the ratio of the temperatures } T_1 \text{ and } T_2 \text{ in the following graph?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$3 : 2$, $2 : 1$...
$3 : 2$
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10771
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): While measuring the thermal conductivity of liquid experimentally, the upper layer is kept hot and the lower layer is kept cold.}$ $\text{Reason (R): This avoids the heating of liquid by convection.}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$
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10770
$\text{Heat is flowing through a conductor of length } l \text{ from } x = 0 \text{ to } x = L. \text{ If its thermal resistance per unit length is uniform, which of the subsequent graphs is accurate?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph showing linear increase in temperature with position}$, $\text{Graph showing linear increase in temperature with position (steeper slope)}$...
$\text{Graph showing linear decrease in temperature with position}$
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10769
$\text{One end of a copper rod of uniform cross-section and of length 3.1 m is kept in contact with ice, and the other end with water at } 100°\text{C. At what point along its length should a temperature of } 200°\text{C } \text{be maintained so that in steady-state, the mass of ice melting be equal to that of the steam produced in the same interval time? (Assume that the whole system is insulated from the surroundings. Latent heat of fusion of ice and vaporisation of water are 80 cal/gm and 540 cal/gm respectively)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$21.3 \text{ cm from } 100°\text{C end}$, $40 \text{ cm from } 0°\text{C end}$...
$21.3 \text{ cm from } 100°\text{C end}$
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10768
$\text{Two rods of the same length and the same area of the cross-section are joined. The temperature of the two ends is shown in the figure.}$ $\text{As we move along the rod, temperature varies as shown in the following figure.}$ $\text{Then:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$K_1 > K_2$, $K_1 = K_2$...
$K_1 > K_2$
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10767
$\text{A ring consisting of two parts, } ADB \text{ and } ACB, \text{ of the same heat conductivity } k, \text{ conducts an amount of heat } H. \text{ The } ADB \text{ part is now replaced with another metal, keeping the temperatures } T_1 \text{ and } T_2 \text{ constant. The amount of heat carried rises to } 2H. \text{ What should be the heat conductivity of the new } ADB \text{ part?}$ $\left(\frac{ACB}{ADB} = 3\right)$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{7}{3}k$, $2k$...
$\frac{7}{3}k$
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10766
$\text{Three rods of identical area of cross-section and made from the same metal form the sides of an isosceles triangle ABC, which is right-angled at B. The points A and B are maintained at temperatures T and } \sqrt{2}T \text{ respectively. In the steady state, the temperature of point C is } T_C. \text{ Assuming that only heat conduction takes place, } \frac{T_C}{T} \text{ is equal to:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{\left(\sqrt{2}+1\right)}$, $\frac{3}{\left(\sqrt{2}+1\right)}$...
$\frac{3}{\left(\sqrt{2}+1\right)}$
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10765
$\text{A slab of stone with an area } 0.36 \text{ m}^2 \text{ and thickness of } 0.1 \text{ m is exposed on the lower surface to steam at } 100^\circ\text{C. A block of ice at } 0^\circ\text{C rests on the upper surface of the slab. In one hour } 4.8 \text{ kg of ice is melted. The thermal conductivity of the slab will be:}$ $\text{(Given latent heat of fusion of ice } = 3.36 \times 10^5 \text{ JKg}^{-1})$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.29 \text{ J/m/s/}^\circ\text{C}$, $2.05 \text{ J/m/s/}^\circ\text{C}$...
$1.24 \text{ J/m/s/}^\circ\text{C}$
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10764
$\text{A wall is made up of two layers, A and B. The thickness of the two layers is the same, but the materials are different. The thermal conductivity of A is double that of B. If in thermal equilibrium, the temperature difference between the two ends is } 36^\circ\text{C, then the difference in temperature between the two surfaces of A will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$6^\circ\text{C}$, $12^\circ\text{C}$...
$12^\circ\text{C}$
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10763
$\text{One likes to sit in the sunshine in the winter season, because:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{the air around the body is hot, and the body absorbs heat from it.}$, $\text{we get energy from the sun.}$...
$\text{we get energy from the sun.}$
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10762
$\text{Two rods (one semi-circular and the other straight) of the same material and of the same cross-sectional area are joined as shown in the figure. The points A and B are maintained at different temperatures. The ratio of the heat transferred through a cross-section of a semi-circular rod to the heat transferred through a cross-section of a straight rod at any given point in time will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2 : \pi$, $1 : 2$...
$2 : \pi$
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10761
$\text{The thermal conductivities of two identical rods are } k \text{ and } 2k, \text{ respectively. If they are joined in parallel, then the ratio of heat flowing through them per second will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1:2$, $2:1$...
$1:2$
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10760
$\text{Consider a compound slab consisting of two different materials having equal thicknesses and thermal conductivities } K \text{ and } 2K, \text{ respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2}{6}K$, $\sqrt{2K}$...
$\frac{4}{3}K$
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10759
$\text{Three rods made of the same material, having the same cross-sectional area but different lengths 10 cm, 20 cm and 30 cm are joined as shown. The temperature of the junction will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10.8^\circ\text{C}$, $14.6^\circ\text{C}$...
$16.4^\circ\text{C}$
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10758
$\text{A cylindrical rod has temperatures } T_1 \text{ and } T_2 \text{ at its ends. The rate of flow of heat is } Q_1 \text{ cal/sec. If all the linear dimensions are doubled while keeping the temperature constant, then the rate of flow of heat } Q_2 \text{ will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$4Q_1$, $2Q_1$...
$2Q_1$
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10757
$\text{Two slabs } A \text{ and } B \text{ of equal surface area are placed one over the other such that their surfaces are completely in contact. The thickness of slab } A \text{ is twice that of } B. \text{ The coefficient of thermal conductivity of slab } A \text{ is twice that of } B. \text{ The first surface of slab } A \text{ is maintained at } 100^\circ\text{C}, \text{ while the second surface of slab } B \text{ is maintained at } 25^\circ\text{C}. \text{ The temperature at the common surface will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$62.5^\circ\text{C}$, $45^\circ\text{C}$...
$62.5^\circ\text{C}$
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10756
$\text{The heat passing through the cross-section of a conductor, varies with time } t \text{ as } Q(t) = \alpha t - \beta t^2 + \gamma t^3 \text{ (} \alpha, \beta \text{ and } \gamma \text{ are positive constants). The minimum heat current through the conductor is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\alpha - \frac{\beta^2}{2\gamma}$, $\alpha - \frac{\beta^2}{3\gamma}$...
$\alpha - \frac{\beta^2}{3\gamma}$
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10755
$\text{Four rods of the same material with different radii } r \text{ and length } l \text{ are used to connect two heat reservoirs at different temperatures. In which of the following cases is the heat conduction fastest?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$r = \frac{1}{3} \text{ cm}, l = \frac{1}{9} \text{ cm}$, $r = 3 \text{ cm}, l = 9 \text{ cm}$...
$r = 4 \text{ cm}, l = 8 \text{ cm}$
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10754
$\text{Two identical plates of different metals are joined to form a single plate whose thickness is double the thickness of each plate. If the coefficients of conductivity of each plate are 2 and 3 respectively, then the conductivity of the composite plate will be:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$5$, $2.4$...
$2.4$
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10753
$\text{When two ends of a rod wrapped with cotton are maintained at different temperatures and, after some time, every point of the rod attains a constant temperature, then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{conduction of heat at different points of the rod stops because the temperature is not increasing}$, $\text{the rod is a bad conductor of heat}$...
$\text{each point of the rod is giving heat to its neighbour at the same rate at which it is receiving heat}$
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10752
$\text{Two rods A and B of different materials having the same cross-sectional area are welded together as shown in the figure. Their thermal conductivities are } K_1 \text{ and } K_2. \text{ The thermal conductivity of the composite rod will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{K_1 + K_2}{2}$, $\frac{3(K_1 + K_2)}{2}$...
$\frac{K_1 + K_2}{2}$
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10751
$\text{Two conducting slabs of heat conductivity } K_1 \text{ and } K_2 \text{ are joined as shown in figure. If the temperature at the ends of the slabs are } \theta_1 \text{ and } \theta_2 \text{ (}\theta_1 > \theta_2\text{), then the final temperature (}\theta\text{)}_{m} \text{ of the junction will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{K_1\theta_1 + K_2\theta_2}{K_1 + K_2}$, $\frac{K_1\theta_2 + K_2\theta_1}{K_1 + K_2}$...
$\frac{K_1\theta_1 + K_2\theta_2}{K_1 + K_2}$
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10750
$\text{Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross-section have been joined as shown in the figure. Each rod has the same length. The left and right ends are kept at } 0°\text{C and } 90°\text{C, respectively. The temperature at the junction of the three rods will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$45°\text{C}$, $60°\text{C}$...
$60°\text{C}$
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10749
$\text{Two rods P and Q of equal length and having cross-sections } A_P \text{ and } A_Q \text{ respectively, have the same temperature difference across their ends. If } k_P \text{ and } k_Q \text{ are their thermal conductivities, then the condition for their equal rate of conduction of heat will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$k_P A_P = k_Q A_Q$, $\frac{\sqrt{k_P}}{A_P} = \frac{\sqrt{k_Q}}{A_Q}$...
$k_P A_P = k_Q A_Q$
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10748
$\text{The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at temperatures } 100°\text{C and } 110°\text{C. The rate of heat flow in the rod is found to be } 4.0 \text{ J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures } 200°\text{C and } 210°\text{C, the rate of heat flow will be:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$44.0 \text{ J/s}$, $16.8 \text{ J/s}$...
$4.0 \text{ J/s}$
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10747
$\text{From the given heat and temperature graph of a substance, choose the correct statement:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The latent heat of fusion is greater than the latent heat of vaporization.}$, $\text{The latent heat of vaporization is greater than the latent heat of fusion.}$...
$\text{The specific heat in a solid state is more than the specific heat in a liquid state.}$
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10746
$\text{If the same amount of heat is supplied to two spheres of the same material having the same radius (one is hollow and the other is solid), then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{the expansion in hollow is greater than the expansion in solid}$, $\text{the expansion in hollow is the same as that in solid}$...
$\text{the expansion in hollow is greater than the expansion in solid}$
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10745
$\text{A geyser heats water flowing at a rate of 3.0 litres per minute from 27°C to 77°C. If the geyser operates on a gas burner and its heat of combustion is } 4.0 \times 10^4 \text{ J/g, then what is the rate of combustion of fuel nearly?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$24 \text{ g/min}$, $12 \text{ g/min}$...
$16 \text{ g/min}$
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10744
$\text{50 g of ice at } 0°\text{C is dropped in a calorimeter of negligible heat capacity containing 50 g of water at } 100°\text{C, then the final temperature } (T_m) \text{ of the mixture will be: (neglect the heat loss)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10°\text{C}$, $\text{Below } 0°\text{C}$...
$10°\text{C}$
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10743
$\text{Some water at } 0°\text{C is placed in a large insulated enclosure (vessel). The water vapour formed is pumped out continuously. What fraction of the water will eventually freeze, if the latent heat of vaporization is seven times the latent heat of fusion?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\frac{7}{8}$, $\frac{8}{7}$...
$\frac{7}{8}$
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10742
$\text{In an experiment on the specific heat of a metal, a 0.20 kg block of the metal at 150°C is dropped in a copper calorimeter (of water equivalent of 0.025 kg) containing 150 cm}^3 \text{ of water at 27°C. The final temperature is 40°C. The specific heat of the metal will be:}$ $\text{(Heat losses to the surroundings are negligible)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.40 \text{ Jg}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}$, $0.43 \text{ Jg}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}$...
$0.43 \text{ Jg}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}$
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10741
$\text{Two identical bodies are made of a material whose heat capacity increases with temperature. One of these is at } 100°\text{C, while the other one is at } 0°\text{C. If the two bodies are brought into contact, then assuming no heat loss, the final common temperature will be:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$50°\text{C}$, $\text{more than } 50°\text{C}$...
2
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10740
$\text{A substance is in solid form at 0°C. The amount of heat added to this substance and its temperature are plotted in the following graph. If the relative specific heat capacity of the solid substance is 0.5, from the graph, the specific latent heat of the melting process is:}$ $\text{(Specific heat capacity of water = 1000 cal kg}^{-1} \text{K}^{-1}\text{)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$60000 \text{ cal kg}^{-1}$, $40000 \text{ cal kg}^{-1}$...
$40000 \text{ cal kg}^{-1}$
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10739
$150\text{ g of ice at } 0°\text{C is mixed with } 100\text{ g of water at a temperature of } 80°\text{C. The latent heat of ice is } 80\text{ cal/g and the specific heat of water is } 1\text{ cal/g°C. Assuming no heat loss to the environment, the amount of ice that does not melt is:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$100\text{ g}$, $0$...
$50\text{ g}$
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10738
$\text{5 g of water at 30°C and 5 g of ice at -20°C are mixed together in a calorimeter. The water equivalent of the calorimeter is negligible, and the specific heat and latent heat of ice are 0.5 cal/g°C and 80 cal/g, respectively. The final temperature of the mixture is:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$0°\text{C}$, $-8°\text{C}$...
$0°\text{C}$
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10737
$\text{A piece of ice falls from a height } h \text{ so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice, and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of } h \text{ is:}$ $\text{(Latent heat of ice is } 3.4 \times 10^5 \text{ J/kg and } g = 10 \text{ N/kg)}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$544 \text{ km}$, $136 \text{ km}$...
$136 \text{ km}$
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10736
$\text{Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated up to 300 K at a constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is constant. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of temperature with time?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph showing temperature increase, then flat horizontal line, then further increase}$, $\text{Graph showing gradual curved increase in temperature}$...
$\text{Graph showing temperature increase, then flat horizontal line, then further increase}$
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10735
$\text{A brass wire 1.8 m long at 27°C is held taut with a little tension between two rigid supports. If the wire is cooled to a temperature of -39°C, what is the tension created in a wire with a diameter of 2.0 mm?}$ $\text{(coefficient of linear expansion of brass = } 2.0 \times 10^{-5} \text{ K}^{-1}\text{, Young's modulus of brass = } 0.91 \times 10^{11} \text{ Pa )}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$3.8 \times 10^3 \text{ N}$, $3.8 \times 10^2 \text{ N}$...
$3.8 \times 10^2 \text{ N}$
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10734
$\text{The pressure applied from all directions on a cube is } P. \text{ The volume elasticity of the cube is } \beta \text{ and the coefficient of volume expansion is } \alpha. \text{ How much should its temperature be raised to maintain the original volume?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\frac{P}{\alpha\beta}$, $\frac{P\alpha}{\beta}$...
2
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10733
$\text{The temperature of a wire of length 1 m and an area of cross-section } 1 \text{ cm}^2 \text{ is increased from 0°C to 100°C. If the rod is not allowed to increase in length, the force required will be:}$ $(\alpha = 10^{-5}/°\text{C and } Y = 10^{11} \text{ N/m}^2)$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$10^3 \text{ N}$, $10^4 \text{ N}$...
2
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10732
$\text{A metal bar of length } L \text{ and area of cross-section } A \text{ is clamped between two rigid supports. For the material of the rod, it's Young's modulus is } Y \text{ and the coefficient of linear expansion is } \alpha. \text{ If the temperature of the rod is increased by } \Delta t°C, \text{ the force exerted by the rod on the supports will be:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$YAL\Delta t$, $YA\alpha\Delta t$...
$YA\alpha\Delta t$
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10731
$\text{The diagram shows a bimetallic strip used as a thermostat in a circuit. Copper expands more than Invar for the same temperature rise.}$ $\text{What will be switched on when the bimetallic strip becomes hot?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{bell only}$, $\text{lamp and bell only}$...
$\text{lamp and bell only}$
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10730
\text{A large steel wheel is to be fitted onto a shaft of the same material. At 27°C, the outer diameter of the shaft is 8.70 cm and the wheel's central hole has a diameter of 8.69 cm. The shaft is cooled using 'dry ice'. At what temperature of the shaft does the wheel slip on the shaft?}
\text{(Assume the coefficient of linear expansion of the steel to be constant over the required temperature range and } \alpha_{\text{steel}} = 1.20 \times 10^{-5} \text{ K}^{-1}\text{)}
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{68°C}$, $\text{-70°C}$...
3
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10729
$\text{A bimetallic strip is shown in the figure. On cooling, which shape will it attain if } \alpha_{\text{brass}} > \alpha_{\text{steel}} \text{?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Option 1 (straight strip)}$, $\text{Option 2 (curved with brass on outside)}$...
$\text{Option 3 (curved with steel on outside)}$
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10728
$\text{Two rods, one made of aluminium and the other made of steel, having initial lengths } l_1 \text{ and } l_2 \text{ are connected together to form a single rod of length } l_1 + l_2. \text{ The coefficient of linear expansion for aluminium and steel are } \alpha_a \text{ and } \alpha_s \text{ respectively. If the length of each rod increases by the same amount when their temperature is raised by } t°C, \text{ then the ratio } \frac{l_1}{l_1+l_2} \text{ is:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\alpha_s}{\alpha_a}$, $\frac{\alpha_a}{\alpha_s}$...
4
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10727
$\text{If two rods of length L and 2L having coefficients of linear expansion } \alpha \text{ and } 2\alpha \text{ respectively are connected so that their total length becomes 3L, the average coefficient of linear expansion of the composition of rods equals:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3}{2}\alpha$, $\frac{5}{2}\alpha$...
$\frac{5}{3}\alpha$
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10726
$\text{When a uniform rod is heated, which of its following properties will increase as a result of it?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\text{mass}$, $\text{weight}$...
$\text{moment of inertia}$
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10725
$\text{A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of an unknown length have an equal increase in their lengths independent of an increase in temperature. The length of the aluminium rod is:}$ $(\alpha_{\text{Cu}} = 1.7 \times 10^{-5} \text{ K}^{-1} \text{ and } \alpha_{\text{Al}} = 2.2 \times 10^{-5} \text{ K}^{-1})$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$68 \text{ cm}$, $6.8 \text{ cm}$...
$68 \text{ cm}$
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10724
$\text{The coefficients of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are } \alpha_1 \text{ and } \alpha_2, \text{ lengths of brass and steel rods are } l_1 \text{ and } l_2 \text{ respectively. If } (l_2 - l_1) \text{ is maintained the same at all temperatures, Which one of the following relations holds good?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\alpha_1 l_2^2 = \alpha_2 l_1^2$, $\alpha_1^2 l_2 = \alpha_2^2 l_1$...
$\alpha_1 l_2 = \alpha_2 l_1$
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10723
$\text{The triple points of neon and carbon dioxide are 24.57 K and 216.55 K respectively. The value of these temperatures on Fahrenheit scale will be:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$-415.44^\circ \text{F}, -69.88^\circ \text{F}$, $-248.58^\circ \text{F}, -56.60^\circ \text{F}$...
$-415.44^\circ \text{F}, -69.88^\circ \text{F}$
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10722
$\text{The temperature of a body on the Kelvin scale is found to be } x^{\circ} \text{K. When it is measured by a Fahrenheit thermometer, it is found to be } x^{\circ} \text{F, then the value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$40$, $313$...
$574.25$
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10721
$\text{If a graph is plotted between the temperature of a body in degrees Celsius (along the y-axis) and Fahrenheit (along the x-axis) at different temperatures, then the slope of the graph will be:}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$\frac{5}{9}$, $\frac{9}{5}$...
$\frac{5}{9}$
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10720
$\text{On a new scale of temperature, which is linear and called the W scale, the freezing and boiling points of water are } 39^{\circ} \text{W and } 239^{\circ} \text{W respectively. What will be the temperature on the new scale corresponding to a temperature of } 39^{\circ} \text{C on the Celsius scale?}$
1
110
Recommended Questions
$78^{\circ} \text{C}$, $117^{\circ} \text{W}$...
2
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10719
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Noble gases have the highest ionization energies in their respective periods.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The outermost sub-shell of noble gases in which the electron enters is completely filled.}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{(A) is true but (R) is false.}$
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10718
$\text{XeF}_6 \text{ dissolves in anhydrous HF to give a good conducting solution that contains-}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}^+ \text{ and } \text{XeF}_7^- \text{ ions}$, $\text{HF}_2^- \text{ and } \text{XeF}_5^+ \text{ ions}$...
$\text{HF}_2^- \text{ and } \text{XeF}_5^+ \text{ ions}$
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10717
$\text{Which of the following statements about the subsequent reactions is false?}$ $\text{XeF}_6 + \text{H}_2\text{O}(\text{excess}) \rightarrow 'X' + \text{HF}$ $\text{XeF}_6 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow 'Y' + \text{HF}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$X' \text{ is explosive}$, $'Y' \text{ is an oxyacid of xenon}$...
$'Y' \text{ is an oxyacid of xenon}$
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10716
$\text{Which of the following statements is false?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{He is used in gas-cooled nuclear reactors}$, $\text{He is used as a cryogenic agent for carrying out experiments at low temperature}$...
$\text{He is used to fill gas balloons instead of H}_2 \text{ because it is lighter and non-inflammable.}$
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10715
$\text{False statement regarding PCl}_5 \text{ is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{PCl}_5 \text{ molecule is non-reactive.}$, $\text{Three equatorial P-Cl bonds make an angle of 120° with each other.}$...
$\text{PCl}_5 \text{ molecule is non-reactive.}$
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10714
$\text{Which of the following gases is the easiest to liquefy?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ar}$, $\text{Ne}$...
$\text{Xe}$
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10713
$\text{Choose the incorrect statement among the following regarding noble gases:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.}$, $\text{Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy.}$...
$\text{Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points.}$
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10712
$\text{Which of the following statements about helium is false?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{It has the lowest boiling point}$, $\text{It has the highest first ionization energy}$...
$\text{It can form clathrate compounds}$
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10711
$\text{Argon is used:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{To obtain low temperature}$, $\text{In high-temperature welding}$...
$\text{In high-temperature welding}$
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10710
$\text{The welding of magnesium can be done in an atmosphere of:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{O}_2$, $\text{Ar}$...
$\text{Ar}$
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10709
$\text{Which of the following statements is correct?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Only type of interactions between particles of noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces.}$, $\text{Ionisation enthalpy of molecular oxygen is very high as compared to xenon.}$...
$\text{Only type of interactions between particles of noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces.}$
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10708
$\text{The gas that is used in the gas thermometer is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{He}$, $\text{O}_2$...
$\text{He}$
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10707
$\text{Which of the following is incorrect regarding noble gases?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{The atomic radii corresponds to van der Waal's radii.}$, $\text{They have the largest size in a period.}$...
$\text{They combine to form molecules.}$
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10706
$\text{Which of the following statements is false?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Xe is the most reactive among the rare gases.}$, $\text{He is an inert gas.}$...
$\text{The most abundant rare gas found in the atmosphere is He.}$
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10705
$\text{In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken } \text{O}_2^+\text{PtF}_6^- \text{ as a base compound. This is because:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both } \text{O}_2 \text{ and Xe have same size.}$, $\text{Both } \text{O}_2 \text{ and Xe have same electron gain enthalpy.}$...
$\text{Both } \text{O}_2 \text{ and Xe have almost same ionisation enthalpy.}$
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10704
$\text{XeF}_4 \text{ is isostructural with:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{ICl}_4^-$, $\text{IBr}_2^-$...
$\text{ICl}_4^-$
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10703
$\text{Which of the following liquids has the ability to climb the glass vessel's wall?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Alcohol}$, $\text{Liquid He}$...
$\text{Liquid He}$
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10702
$\text{Which of the following statement is false?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Liquid helium is used as a cryogenic liquid.}$, $\text{XeO}_3 \text{ has four } \sigma \text{ and four } \pi\text{-bonds.}$...
$\text{XeO}_3 \text{ has four } \sigma \text{ and four } \pi\text{-bonds.}$
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10701
$\text{Among the following molecules,}$ $\text{(i) } \text{XeO}_3$ $\text{(ii) } \text{XeOF}_4$ $\text{(iii) } \text{XeF}_6$ $\text{Those having the same number of lone pairs on Xe are}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{(i) and (ii) only}$, $\text{(i) and (iii) only}$...
$\text{(i), (ii) and (iii) only}$
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10700
$\text{Which of the following statements is false?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_3\text{PO}_2\text{, H}_3\text{PO}_3 \text{ and H}_3\text{PO}_4 \text{ all are tribasic and reducing in nature.}$, $\text{Amongst anions } NO_3^-\text{, } SO_3^{2-}\text{, } CO_3^{2-}\text{, and } BO_3^{3-}\text{, only } SO_3^{2-} \text{ have p}\pi\text{-d}\pi \text{ bonding.}$...
$\text{H}_3\text{PO}_2\text{, H}_3\text{PO}_3 \text{ and H}_3\text{PO}_4 \text{ all are tribasic and reducing in nature.}$
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10699
$\text{(a) XeF}_6 + 3\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow$ $\text{(b) XeF}_6 + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow$ $\text{The products formed in the above reactions, respectively, are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{XeO}_3\text{, XeOF}_4$, $\text{XeO}_6\text{, XeOF}_4$...
$\text{XeO}_3\text{, XeOF}_4$
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10698
$\text{The molecular shapes of SF}_4\text{, CF}_4 \text{ and XeF}_4 \text{ are:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{The same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons on the central atoms, respectively}$, $\text{The same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pairs of electrons on the central atoms, respectively}$...
$\text{Different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atoms, respectively}$
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10697
$\text{Xe} + \text{PtF}_6 \rightarrow ?$ $\text{The product of the above reaction is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{O}_2^+ [\text{PtF}_6]^-$, $\text{XeF}_4$...
$\text{Xe}^+ [\text{PtF}_6]^-$
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10696
$\text{Match the species given in Column I with the shape given in Column II and mark the correct option.}$ $\text{Column I:}$ $\text{A. Its partial hydrolysis does not change oxidation state of central atom.}$ $\text{B. It is used in modern diving apparatus.}$ $\text{C. It is used to provide inert atmosphere for filling electrical bulbs.}$ $\text{D. It's central atom is in sp}^3\text{d}^2\text{ hybridisation.}$ $\text{Column II:}$ $\text{1. He}$ $\text{2. XeF}_6$ $\text{3. XeF}_4$ $\text{4. Ar}$ $\text{Codes:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3}$, $\text{A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4}$...
$\text{A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3}$
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10695
$\text{A xenon fluoride that does not exist is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{XeF}_4$, $\text{XeF}_2$...
$\text{XeF}_3$
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10694
$\text{Radon is used in the treatment of:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Typhoid}$, $\text{Cancer}$...
$\text{Cancer}$
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10693
$\text{Among the following statements, the correct one(s) is/are:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Neon gas is filled in discharge tubes with characteristic colours.}$, $\text{Neon gas is used in beacon lights.}$...
$\text{All of the above.}$
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10692
$\text{Which of the following compound does not exist?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{XeOF}_4$, $\text{NeF}_2$...
$\text{NeF}_2$
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10691
$\text{Match the interhalogen compounds in Column I with the geometry in Column II and assign the correct code:}$ $\text{Column-I:}$ $\text{(A) XX'}$ $\text{(B) XX'}_3$ $\text{(C) XX'}_5$ $\text{(D) XX'}_7$ $\text{Column-II:}$ $\text{(i) T-shape}$ $\text{(ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal}$ $\text{(iii) Linear}$ $\text{(iv) Square Pyramidal}$
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$\text{(A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)}$, $\text{(A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)}$...
$\text{(A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)}$
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10690
$\text{Identify the false statement among the following about the halogens:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{All form monobasic oxyacids(except HOF).}$, $\text{All are oxidizing agents.}$...
$\text{Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy.}$
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10689
$\text{Cl}_2\text{(g)} + \text{Ba(OH)}_2 \rightarrow \text{X(aq)} + \text{BaCl}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O}$ $\text{X} + \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow \text{Y} + \text{BaSO}_4$ $\text{Y} \xrightarrow{\Delta > 365 \text{ K}} \text{Z} + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{O}_2$ $\text{Y and Z are respectively :}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{HClO}_4, \text{ClO}_2$, $\text{HClO}_3, \text{ClO}_2$...
$\text{HClO}_3, \text{ClO}_2$
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10688
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): HI cannot be prepared by the reaction of KI with concentrated H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{.}$ $\text{Reason (R): HI has the lowest H-X bond strength among halogen acids.}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$
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10687
$\text{Why does fluorine not produce oxyacids?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{It is most electronegative}$, $\text{It is the most powerful oxidising agent}$...
$\text{It is most electronegative}$
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10686
$\text{What order does the stability of interhalogen compounds follow?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{IF}_3 > \text{BrF}_3 > \text{ClF}_3$, $\text{BrF}_3 > \text{IF}_3 > \text{ClF}_3$...
$\text{IF}_3 > \text{BrF}_3 > \text{ClF}_3$
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10685
$\text{Which halogen produces O}_2 \text{ when combined with hot concentrated NaOH?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{F}_2$, $\text{Cl}_2$...
$\text{F}_2$
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10684
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The atomic size of F is smaller than that of Cl.}$ $\text{Reason (R): F-F bond is stronger than the Cl-Cl bond.}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{(A) is true but (R) is false.}$
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10683
$\text{Which of the following is the anhydride of HClO}_4\text{?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl}_2\text{O}$, $\text{ClO}_2$...
$\text{Cl}_2\text{O}_7$
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10682
$\text{The correct order of the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl}_2 > \text{Br}_2 > \text{F}_2 > \text{I}_2$, $\text{Br}_2 > \text{I}_2 > \text{F}_2 > \text{Cl}_2$...
$\text{Cl}_2 > \text{Br}_2 > \text{F}_2 > \text{I}_2$
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10681
$\text{Incorrect order among the following is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{F}_2 > \text{Cl}_2 > \text{Br}_2 > \text{I}_2$ $\text{Oxidising power}$, $\text{F} < \text{Cl} > \text{Br} > \text{I}$ $\text{Electron gain enthalpy}$...
$\text{F}_2 > \text{Cl}_2 > \text{Br}_2 > \text{I}_2$ $\text{Bond dissociation energy}$
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10680
$\text{Select the correct option based on the statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): NaCl reacts with concentrated H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ to give colourless fumes with a pungent smell. But on adding MnO}_2\text{, the fumes become greenish-yellow.}$ $\text{Reason (R): MnO}_2 \text{ oxidizes HCl to chlorine gas which is greenish-yellow.}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$
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10679
$\text{HI cannot be prepared by the action of KI and H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ because}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{HI is a much weaker acid than H}_2\text{SO}_4$, $\text{HI gets oxidized by H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ to form I}_2$...
$\text{HI gets oxidized by H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ to form I}_2$
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10678
$\text{Which of the following statements is true?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{SO}_2 \text{ bleaches by reduction}$, $\text{Cl}_2 \text{ bleaches by oxidation}$...
$\text{All of the above}$
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10677
$\text{Which parent oxy acid does not have its own hypo acid?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{SO}_2$, $\text{HNO}_2$...
$\text{H}_2\text{SO}_2$
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10676
$\text{The electron gain enthalpy values for O} \rightarrow \text{O}^- \text{ and O} \rightarrow \text{O}^{2-} \text{ are -141 and 702 kJ mol}^{-1}\text{, respectively. The correct statement about the formation of oxides is-}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Higher the electron gain enthalpy lower is the lattice energy.}$, $\text{Higher the electron gain enthalpy higher is the lattice energy.}$...
$\text{Higher the electron gain enthalpy higher is the stability of oxide.}$
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10675
$\text{The correct relationship between the pH of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide}(\text{pH}_1)\text{, sodium sulphide}(\text{pH}_2)\text{, sodium selenide}(\text{pH}_3)\text{ and sodium telluride}(\text{pH}_4)\text{ is -}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{pH}_1 > \text{pH}_2 \approx \text{pH}_3 > \text{pH}_4$, $\text{pH}_1 < \text{pH}_2 < \text{pH}_3 < \text{pH}_4$...
$\text{pH}_1 > \text{pH}_2 > \text{pH}_3 > \text{pH}_4$
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10674
$\text{The gas that cannot be collected over water is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{N}_2$, $\text{O}_2$...
$\text{SO}_2$
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10673
$\text{The correct statement regarding the bond angle of } \text{H}_2\text{O} \text{ and } \text{H}_2\text{S} \text{ is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both have the same bond angle.}$, $\text{Bond angle of } \text{H}_2\text{O} \text{ is larger than that of } \text{H}_2\text{S}$...
$\text{Bond angle of } \text{H}_2\text{O} \text{ is larger than that of } \text{H}_2\text{S}$
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10672
$\text{The partial hydrolysis of one mole of peroxodi-sulphuric acid produces}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Two moles of sulphuric acid}$, $\text{Two moles of peroxomono-sulphuric acid}$...
$\text{One mole of sulphuric acid, one mole of peroxomono-sulphuric acid}$
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10671
$\text{SO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{S} \rightarrow \text{product. The final product will be:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{S}$, $\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4$...
$\text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{S}$
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10670
$\text{The oxide of a non-metal possesses the following characteristics:}$ $\text{i. It is both a proton donor and a proton acceptor.}$ $\text{ii. It is a poor conductor of electricity.}$ $\text{iii. It reacts readily with basic and acidic oxides.}$ $\text{iv. It oxidises Fe at boiling point.}$ $\text{The formula for oxide is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{CO}_2$...
$\text{H}_2\text{O}$
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10669
$\text{Which of the following statements about acid strength is false?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{HI} > \text{HBr} > \text{HCl}$, $\text{HIO}_4 > \text{HBrO}_4 > \text{HClO}_4$...
$\text{HIO}_4 > \text{HBrO}_4 > \text{HClO}_4$
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10668
$\text{How can one obtain sulphur trioxide?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{CaSO}_4 + \text{C} \xrightarrow{\Delta}$, $\text{Fe}_2(\text{SO}_4)_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta}$...
$\text{Fe}_2(\text{SO}_4)_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta}$
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10667
$\text{Hypo on treatment with I}_2 \text{ gives:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}_2\text{SO}_4$, $\text{Na}_2\text{S}_4\text{O}_6$...
$\text{Na}_2\text{S}_4\text{O}_6$
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10666
$\text{Which of the following are peroxoacids of sulphur?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{SO}_5 \text{ and } \text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_8$, $\text{H}_2\text{SO}_5 \text{ and } \text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_7$...
$\text{H}_2\text{SO}_5 \text{ and } \text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_8$
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10665
$\text{The correct statement among the following about SO}_2 \text{ gas is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{It acts as bleaching agent in moist conditions.}$, $\text{It's molecule has linear geometry.}$...
$\text{It acts as bleaching agent in moist conditions.}$
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10664
$\text{Compound among the following with an S-S bond is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_7$, $\text{H}_2\text{SO}_5$...
$\text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_6$
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10663
$\text{Which of the following statements is true?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{S} - \text{S bond is present in } \text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_6$, $\text{In peroxosulphuric acid } (\text{H}_2\text{SO}_5) \text{ sulphur is in } +5 \text{ oxidation state.}$...
$\text{S} - \text{S bond is present in } \text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_6$
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10662
$\text{The oxidation states of the S atom in } \text{S}_4\text{O}_6^{2-} \text{ from left to right, respectively, are:}$
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Recommended Questions
$+6, 0, 0, \text{ and } +6$, $+5, +1, +1, \text{ and } +5$...
$+5, 0, 0, \text{ and } +5$
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10661
$\text{The correct order of boiling points for group 16 hydrides is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{O} < \text{H}_2\text{S} < \text{H}_2\text{Se} < \text{H}_2\text{Te}$, $\text{H}_2\text{Te} < \text{H}_2\text{Se} < \text{H}_2\text{S} < \text{H}_2\text{O}$...
$\text{H}_2\text{S} < \text{H}_2\text{Se} < \text{H}_2\text{Te} < \text{H}_2\text{O}$
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10660
$\text{What order does the stability of interhalogen compounds follow?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{IF}_3 > \text{BrF}_3 > \text{ClF}_3$, $\text{BrF}_3 > \text{IF}_3 > \text{ClF}_3$...
$\text{IF}_3 > \text{BrF}_3 > \text{ClF}_3$
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10659
$\text{The bleaching action of SO}_2 \text{ is due to its}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Acidic property}$, $\text{Basic property}$...
$\text{Reducing property}$
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10658
$\text{Among the following hydrides that has the lowest boiling point is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{H}_2\text{S}$...
$\text{H}_2\text{S}$
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10657
$\text{No S-S bonds are present in?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{S}_2\text{O}_3^{2-}$, $\text{S}_2\text{O}_4^{2-}$...
$\text{S}_2\text{O}_7^{2-}$
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10656
$\text{Which of the following statements about H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ is false:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{It can act as an oxidising agent with copper}$, $\text{It acts as a dehydrating agent with sugar}$...
$\text{It acts as a reducing agent in its reaction with Cu}_2\text{O}$
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10655
$\text{Which of the following has the least bond angle?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{NH}_3$...
$\text{H}_2\text{O}$
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10654
$\text{Which of the following statements regarding ozone is incorrect?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Powerful oxidising agent.}$, $\text{Bleaching agent}$...
$\text{Paramagnetic}$
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10653
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur exist as } \text{S}_8 \text{ but oxygen exists as } \text{O}_2\text{.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Oxygen forms } p\pi - p\pi \text{ multiple bonds due to its small size and small bond length but } p\pi - p\pi \text{ bonding is not possible in sulphur.}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$
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10652
$\text{Oxygen forms hydrogen bonds while chlorine does not, because:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Chlorine has a bigger size and as a result, a higher electron density per unit volume.}$, $\text{Oxygen has a smaller size and as a result, a lower electron density per unit volume.}$...
$\text{Oxygen has a smaller size and as a result, a higher electron density per unit volume.}$
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10651
$\text{A compound that does not have a tetrahedral shape is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_4^{+}$, $\text{SiCl}_4$...
$\text{SF}_4$
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10650
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$
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10649
$\text{Oxygen exists as gas and sulphur exists as a solid because:}$
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211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Oxygen is less electronegative than sulphur.}$, $\text{Sulphur is smaller than oxygen molecule.}$...
$\text{Oxygen has a tendency to form p}\pi\text{-p}\pi\text{ bonds.}$
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10648
$\text{The compound among the following with the lowest p}K_a \text{ value is?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{H}_2\text{S}$...
$\text{H}_2\text{Te}$
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10647
$\text{The physical property of hydrides of group 16 that decreases down the group is:}$
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211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Melting point}$, $\text{Thermal stability}$...
$\text{Thermal stability}$
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10646
$\text{Which of the following is the correct match?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{As}_2\text{O}_3 < \text{SiO}_2 < \text{P}_2\text{O}_3 < \text{SO}_2 \text{ - Basic strength.}$, $\text{AsH}_3 < \text{PH}_3 < \text{NH}_3 \text{ - Enthalpy of vaporisation.}$...
$\text{H}_2\text{O} > \text{H}_2\text{S} > \text{H}_2\text{Se} > \text{H}_2\text{Te} \text{ - Thermal stability}$
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10645
$\text{a. CaF}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow \text{CaSO}_4 + 2\text{HF}$ $\text{b. 2HI + H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow \text{I}_2 + \text{SO}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$ $\text{c. Cu + 2H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow \text{CuSO}_4 + \text{SO}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$ $\text{d. NaCl + H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow \text{NaHSO}_4 + \text{HCl}$ $\text{In which of the above-mentioned reactions does conc. H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{ act as an oxidising reagent?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{a and b}$, $\text{b and c}$...
$\text{b and c}$
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10644
$\text{Hydrogen peroxide can be generated by the hydrolysis of}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{HNO}_3$, $\text{H}_2\text{P}_2\text{O}$...
$\text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_8$
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10643
$\text{Which of the following reactions does not exhibit the oxidising behaviour of H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cu + 2H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow \text{CuSO}_4 + \text{SO}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $3\text{S + 2H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow 3\text{SO}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$...
$\text{CaF}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow \text{CaSO}_4 + 2\text{HF}$
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10642
$\text{One gas bleaches the colour of flowers by reduction, while the other gas bleaches by oxidation. The two gases, respectively, are:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{CO and Cl}_2$, $\text{H}_2\text{S and Br}_2$...
$\text{SO}_2 \text{ and Cl}_2$
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10641
$\text{The correct statement regarding } \text{H}_3\text{PO}_3 \text{ is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Each hydrogen atom is attached to oxygen.}$, $\text{Two hydrogen atoms are attached to oxygen atoms.}$...
$\text{Two hydrogen atoms are attached to oxygen atoms.}$
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10640
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\textbf{Assertion (A):} \text{SF}_6 \text{ cannot be hydrolysed but SF}_4 \text{ can be.}$ $\textbf{Reason (R):} \text{Six F-atoms in SF}_6 \text{ prevent the attack of H}_2\text{O on sulphur atom of SF}_6$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$
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10639
$\text{The number of S = O bonds present in } \text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_8 \text{ is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$1$, $2$...
$4$
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10638
$\text{An amorphous solid "A" burns in the air to form a gas "B" which turns lime}$ $\text{water milky. The gas is also produced as a by-product during the roasting of}$ $\text{sulphide ore. This gas decolourises acidified aqueous KMnO}_4 \text{ solution and}$ $\text{reduces Fe}^{3+} \text{ to Fe}^{2+}\text{. The solid "A" and the gas "B" are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{'A' = S}_8\text{; 'B' = SO}_2$, $\text{'A' = S}_8\text{; 'B' = SO}_3$...
$\text{'A' = S}_8\text{; 'B' = SO}_2$
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10637
$\text{Which of the following hydrides is the most acidic?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{Te}$, $\text{H}_2\text{Se}$...
$\text{H}_2\text{Te}$
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10636
$\text{Match the items in Columns I and II and mark the correct option.}$ $\textbf{Column I} \qquad \qquad \qquad \textbf{Column II}$ $\text{A. H}_2\text{SO}_4 \qquad \qquad \qquad \text{1. Highest electron affinity}$ $\text{B. CCl}_3\text{NO}_2 \qquad \qquad \qquad \text{2. Chalcogen}$ $\text{C. Cl}_2 \qquad \qquad \qquad \qquad \text{3. Tear gas}$ $\text{D. Sulphur} \qquad \qquad \qquad \text{4. Storage batteries}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2}$, $\text{A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2}$...
$\text{A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2}$
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10635
$\text{The acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solution increases in the order:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{S} < \text{H}_2\text{Se} < \text{H}_2\text{Te}$, $\text{H}_2\text{Se} < \text{H}_2\text{S} < \text{H}_2\text{Te}$...
$\text{H}_2\text{S} < \text{H}_2\text{Se} < \text{H}_2\text{Te}$
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10634
$\text{Oxygen exists as gas and sulphur exists as a solid because:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Oxygen is less electronegative than sulphur.}$, $\text{Sulphur is smaller than oxygen molecule.}$...
$\text{Oxygen has a tendency to form p}\pi\text{-p}\pi\text{ bonds.}$
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10633
$\text{The chemical formula of oleum is -}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_8$, $\text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_7$...
$\text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_7$
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10632
$\text{The catalyst that is used in the contact process is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3$, $\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3$...
$\text{V}_2\text{O}_5$
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10631
$\text{Sulphuric acid is used:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{In lead storage batteries}$, $\text{In making fertilizers}$...
$\text{All of the above}$
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10630
$\text{A chemical that depletes the ozone layer is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Sulphur}$, $\text{Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)}$...
$\text{Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)}$
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10629
$\text{What is produced when orthophosphoric acid reacts with phosphate rock (fluorapatite)?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ca}(\text{H}_2\text{PO}_4)_2 + \text{CaF}_2$, $\text{Ca}_3(\text{PO}_4)_2 + \text{CaF}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O}$...
$\text{Ca}(\text{H}_2\text{PO}_4)_2 + \text{HF}$
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10628
$\text{By heating which of the following, would } \text{NO}_2 \text{ be produced?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{NaNO}_3$, $\text{AgNO}_3$...
$\text{AgNO}_3$
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10627
$\text{An oxyacid among the following that contains both P-H and P-P bonds simultaneously is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_4\text{P}_2\text{O}_5$, $\text{H}_4\text{P}_2\text{O}_7$...
$\text{None of the above}$
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10626
$\text{Which sequence of the following, in terms of boiling point, is correct?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_3\text{PO}_4 < \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4$, $\text{H}_2\text{O} > \text{H}_2\text{O}_2$...
$\text{H}_3\text{PO}_4 < \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4$
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10625
$\text{A substance that gives a brick red flame and breaks down on heating to give oxygen and a brown gas is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Calcium carbonate}$, $\text{Magnesium carbonate}$...
$\text{Calcium nitrate}$
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10624
$\text{Which of the following is true regarding the P}_4 \text{ molecule of white phosphorus?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{It has 6 lone pairs of electrons.}$, $\text{It has four P - P single bonds.}$...
$\text{It has four lone pairs of electrons.}$
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10623
$\text{What is the correct order of oxyacids of phosphorous in terms of their acidic strength?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_3\text{PO}_2 > \text{H}_3\text{PO}_3 > \text{H}_3\text{PO}_4$, $\text{H}_3\text{PO}_4 > \text{H}_3\text{PO}_3 > \text{H}_3\text{PO}_2$...
$\text{H}_3\text{PO}_2 > \text{H}_3\text{PO}_3 > \text{H}_3\text{PO}_4$
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10622
$\text{Which element exhibits the highest catenation property?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Phosphorus}$, $\text{Nitrogen}$...
$\text{Phosphorus}$
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10621
$\text{In the nitrogen family, the H-M-H bond angle in the hybrides } \text{MH}_3 \text{ gradually becomes closer to } 90° \text{ if we move from N to Sb. This shows that gradually}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{The basic strength of hybrides increases.}$, $\text{Pure p-orbitals (almost) are used for M-H bonding.}$...
$\text{Pure p-orbitals (almost) are used for M-H bonding.}$
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10620
$\text{Which of the following is in the correct sequence?}$ $\text{[For the correct order mark (T) and for the incorrect order mark (F)]:}$ $\text{(a) Lewis acidity order: } \text{SiF}_4 < \text{SiCl}_4 < \text{SiBr}_4 < \text{SiI}_4$ $\text{(b) Melting point: } \text{NH}_3 > \text{SbH}_3 > \text{AsH}_3 > \text{PH}_3$ $\text{(c) Boiling point: } \text{NH}_3 > \text{SbH}_3 > \text{AsH}_3 > \text{PH}_3$ $\text{(d) Dipole moment order: } \text{NH}_3 > \text{SbH}_3 > \text{AsH}_3 > \text{PH}_3$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{(a) F, (b) T, (c) F, (d) T}$, $\text{(a) T, (b) F, (c) T, (d) F}$...
$\text{(a) F, (b) T, (c) F, (d) T}$
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10619
$\text{Which of the following statements is true?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_3 \text{ is less soluble than } \text{PH}_3 \text{ in water}$, $\text{NH}_3 \text{ is a stronger base and stronger reducing agent than } \text{PH}_3$...
$\text{PH}_3 \text{ is a stronger reducing agent than } \text{NH}_3 \text{ and it has lower melting critical temperature than } \text{NH}_3$
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10618
$\text{Which of the following compounds is not an acidic salt?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{NaH}_2\text{PO}_2$, $\text{NaH}_2\text{PO}_3$...
$\text{NaH}_2\text{PO}_2$
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10617
$\text{The least acidic oxide among the following is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{P}_4\text{O}_6$, $\text{P}_4\text{O}_{10}$...
$\text{As}_4\text{O}_6$
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10616
$\text{Which of the following contains salts of } \text{H}_3\text{PO}_3?$ $\text{I. } \text{NaH}_2\text{PO}_3 \quad \text{II. } \text{Na}_2\text{HPO}_3 \quad \text{III. } \text{Na}_3\text{PO}_3$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{I, and II only}$, $\text{I, II, and III}$...
$\text{I, and II only}$
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10615
$\text{Which of the following acids is the strongest?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_3\text{PO}_2$, $\text{H}_3\text{PO}_3$...
$\text{H}_4\text{P}_2\text{O}_7$
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10614
$\text{NO}_2 \text{ is the anhydride of}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{HNO}_3$, $\text{HNO}_2$...
$\text{HNO}_3 + \text{HNO}_2$
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10613
$\text{Which of the following hydrides is the least poisonous?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_3$, $\text{PH}_3$...
$\text{NH}_3$
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10612
$\text{Phosphine can not be produced by the following reaction:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{White P is heated with NaOH.}$, $\text{Red P is heated with NaOH.}$...
$\text{Red P is heated with NaOH.}$
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10611
$\text{The incorrect statement regarding oxoacids of phosphorus is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Orthophosphoric acid is used in the manufacture of triple superphosphate.}$, $\text{Hypophosphorous acid is a diprotic acid.}$...
$\text{Hypophosphorous acid is a diprotic acid.}$
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10610
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): } \text{PF}_5 \text{ and } \text{IF}_3 \text{ have similar shapes.}$ $\text{Reason (R): All the bond lengths are equal in } \text{PF}_5\text{.}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are false.}$
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10609
$\text{PCl}_5 \text{ acts as}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Reducing agent}$, $\text{Oxidising agent}$...
$\text{Oxidising agent}$
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10608
$\text{In solid-state, } \text{PCl}_5 \text{ exists as:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Covalent solid.}$, $\text{Octahedral structure.}$...
$\text{Ionic solid with } [\text{PCl}_4]^+ \text{ tetrahedral and } [\text{PCl}_6]^- \text{ octahedral.}$
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10607
$\text{Incorrect statement regarding } \text{PH}_3 \text{ is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{It is produced by the hydrolysis of } \text{Ca}_3\text{P}_2$, $\text{It gives a black ppt, } \text{Cu}_3\text{P}_2 \text{ with a } \text{CuSO}_4 \text{ solution.}$...
$\text{It does not react with } \text{B}_2\text{H}_6$
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10606
$\text{The hydride that possesses the maximum complex formation nature is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_3$, $\text{PH}_3$...
$\text{NH}_3$
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10605
$\text{Which of the following statements is false?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Nitrous oxide supports combustion more vigorously than air.}$, $\text{Phosphorous pentaoxide dehydrates nitric acid-forming nitrogen pentaoxide.}$...
$\text{Red phosphorous changes to white phosphorus on heating in the atmosphere of } \text{CO}_2 \text{ or coal gas at 573 K.}$
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10604
$\text{Which of the following statements is false?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{ONClO and ONO}^- \text{ are isoelectronic.}$, $\text{O}_3 \text{ molecule is bent}$...
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10603
$\text{The incorrect statement regarding oxoacids of phosphorus is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Orthophosphoric acid is used in the manufacture of triple superphosphate.}$, $\text{Hypophosphorous acid is a diprotic acid.}$...
$\text{Hypophosphorous acid is a diprotic acid.}$
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10602
$\text{The paramagnetic oxides of nitrogen are:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{NO, N}_2\text{O}$, $\text{NO}_2\text{, NO, N}_2\text{O}$...
$\text{NO, NO}_2$
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10601
$\text{In which compound does phosphorous have the lowest oxidation state?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_3\text{PO}_3$, $\text{PCl}_3$...
$\text{Ca}_3\text{P}_2$
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10600
$\text{Which of the following statements is false?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{ONClO and ONO}^- \text{ are isoelectronic.}$, $\text{O}_3 \text{ molecule is bent}$...
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10599
51
2
211
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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10598
$\text{Which of the following is in correct sequence in terms of acid nature?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{HClO}_2 < \text{HClO}_3 < \text{HClO}_4$, $\text{H}_3\text{PO}_4 < \text{H}_3\text{PO}_3 < \text{H}_3\text{PO}_2$...
$\text{All of the above.}$
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10597
$\text{The strongest reducing agent is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_4\text{P}_2\text{O}_7$, $\text{H}_3\text{PO}_3$...
$\text{H}_3\text{PO}_2$
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10596
$\text{Which of the following compounds does not release oxygen when heated?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Zn(ClO}_3\text{)}_2$, $\text{K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7$...
$(\text{NH}_4)_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7$
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10595
$\text{Copper on heating with concentrated } \text{HNO}_3 \text{ produces:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cu}(\text{NO}_3)_2 \text{ and NO}$, $\text{Cu}(\text{NO}_3)_2, \text{NO and } \text{NO}_2$...
$\text{Cu}(\text{NO}_3)_2 \text{ and } \text{NO}_2$
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10594
$\text{Incorrect statement about red phosphorus is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{It is hard and crystalline.}$, $\text{It is poisonous.}$...
$\text{It is poisonous.}$
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10593
$\text{The maximum covalency of nitrogen is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$3$, $5$...
$4$
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10592
$\text{Oxidation of nitrogen among the following reactions is indicated by -}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{N}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{NH}_3$, $\text{N}_2\text{O}_4 \rightarrow 2\text{NO}_2$...
$\text{NO}_2^- \rightarrow \text{NO}_3^-$
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10591
$\text{The element that does not form pentoxide is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{As}$, $\text{Sb}$...
$\text{Bi}$
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10590
$\text{The correct increasing order for the acid strength of nitrogen oxides is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{N}_2\text{O} < \text{NO} < \text{N}_2\text{O}_4 < \text{N}_2\text{O}_3 < \text{N}_2\text{O}_5$, $\text{N}_2\text{O} < \text{NO} < \text{N}_2\text{O}_3 < \text{N}_2\text{O}_4 < \text{N}_2\text{O}_5$...
$\text{N}_2\text{O} < \text{NO} < \text{N}_2\text{O}_3 < \text{N}_2\text{O}_4 < \text{N}_2\text{O}_5$
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10589
$\text{Element/s that form p}\pi - \text{p}\pi \text{ multiple bonds with themselves, as well as with carbon and oxygen are:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{P, As}$, $\text{N, As}$...
$\text{N}$
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10588
$\text{A compound 'X', upon reaction with } \text{H}_2\text{O}, \text{ produces a colourless gas 'Y' with a rotten fish smell. Gas 'Y' is absorbed in a solution of } \text{CuSO}_4 \text{ to give } \text{Cu}_3\text{P}_2 \text{ as one of the products. The compound 'X' will be:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ca}_3\text{P}_2$, $\text{NH}_4\text{Cl}$...
$\text{Ca}_3\text{P}_2$
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10587
$\text{Which of the following is true about reactivity of group 15 elements?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Stability of their hydrides increases down the group.}$, $\text{Higher oxides are acidic in nature.}$...
$\text{Higher oxides are acidic in nature.}$
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10586
$\text{Iodine on reaction with concentrated nitric acid forms:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{HOI}$, $\text{HI}$...
$\text{HIO}_3$
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10585
$\text{Among the following reactions, } \text{N}_2 \text{ is not generated by heating:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$(\text{NH}_4)_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7$, $\text{NH}_4\text{Cl} + \text{NaNO}_2$...
$\text{NH}_4\text{Cl} + \text{CaO}$
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10584
$\text{Nitrogen exists as a diatomic molecule and phosphorus as P}_4 \text{ because on moving}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{up a group, the tendency to form p}\pi\text{-p}\pi \text{ bonds decreases.}$, $\text{down a group, the tendency to form p}\pi\text{-p}\pi \text{ bonds decreases.}$...
$\text{down a group, the tendency to form p}\pi\text{-p}\pi \text{ bonds decreases.}$
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10583
$\text{Among the following reactions, } \text{N}_2 \text{ is not generated by heating:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$(\text{NH}_4)_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7$, $\text{NH}_4\text{Cl} + \text{NaNO}_2$...
$\text{NH}_4\text{Cl} + \text{CaO}$
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10582
$\text{The number of moles of NO produced by the oxidation of two moles of NH}_3 \text{ will be -}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$2$, $3$...
$2$
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Delete
10581
$\text{Among the following reactions, } \text{N}_2 \text{ is not generated by heating:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$(\text{NH}_4)_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7$, $\text{NH}_4\text{Cl} + \text{NaNO}_2$...
$\text{NH}_4\text{Cl} + \text{CaO}$
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10580
$\text{P forms multiple bonds in POCl}_3 \text{ by using}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$p\pi - p\pi$, $d\pi - d\pi$...
$p\pi - d\pi$
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10579
$\text{Among the following reactions, } \text{N}_2 \text{ is not generated by heating:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$(\text{NH}_4)_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7$, $\text{NH}_4\text{Cl} + \text{NaNO}_2$...
$\text{NH}_4\text{Cl} + \text{CaO}$
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10578
$\text{The basicity of the acids H}_3\text{PO}_2\text{, H}_3\text{PO}_3\text{, H}_3\text{PO}_4 \text{ and H}_4\text{P}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ are, respectively:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$1, 2, 3, 7$, $2, 3, 4, 7$...
$1, 2, 3, 4$
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Delete
10577
$\text{Bismuth is present in a +5 oxidation state in:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Bi}_2\text{O}_5$, $\text{BiF}_5$...
$\text{BiF}_5$
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10576
$\text{False statement regarding PCl}_5 \text{ is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{PCl}_5 \text{ molecule is non-reactive.}$, $\text{Three equatorial P-Cl bonds make an angle of 120° with each other.}$...
$\text{PCl}_5 \text{ molecule is non-reactive.}$
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10575
$\text{Nitrogen dioxide is paramagnetic in a gaseous state but diamagnetic in solid because:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{NO}_2 \text{ exists as a dimer in a gaseous as well as solid state.}$, $\text{NO}_2 \text{ exists as a monomer in a gaseous as well as solid state.}$...
$\text{NO}_2 \text{ exists as a monomer in a gaseous state and it becomes dimerized in solid state.}$
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10574
$\text{The false statement regarding hydrides from the 15th group is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_3 > \text{PH}_3 > \text{AsH}_3 > \text{SbH}_3 > \text{BiH}_3 \text{ Thermal stability}$, $\text{N-H} > \text{P-H} > \text{As-H} > \text{Sb-H} > \text{Bi-H E-H bond dissociation enthalpy}$...
$\text{NH}_3 > \text{PH}_3 > \text{AsH}_3 > \text{SbH}_3 > \text{BiH}_3 \text{ Reducing character}$
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10573
$\text{The least basic compound is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{BiH}_3$, $\text{AsH}_3$...
$\text{BiH}_3$
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10572
$\text{The condition that does not exist in the Haber process for the manufacturing of ammonia is:}$
2
211
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$\text{Pressure (around } 200 \times 10^5 \text{ Pa)}$, $\text{Temperature (700 K)}$...
$\text{Presence of inert gases.}$
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10571
$\text{The oxidation state of the central atom in the anion of compound } \text{NaH}_2\text{PO}_2 \text{ will be:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$+3$, $+5$...
$+1$
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10570
$\text{The strong reducing behaviour of H}_3\text{PO}_2 \text{ is due to:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Presence of one -OH group and two P-H bonds.}$, $\text{High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus.}$...
$\text{Presence of one -OH group and two P-H bonds.}$
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10569
$\text{Lead nitrate upon heating gives:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{N}_2\text{O, PbO}$, $\text{NO}_2\text{, PbO}$...
$\text{NO}_2\text{, PbO}$
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10568
$\text{Which of the following statements is true?}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{All three N - O bond lengths in HNO}_3 \text{ are equal.}$, $\text{All P - Cl bond lengths in PCl}_5 \text{ molecule in gaseous state are equal.}$...
$\text{P}_4 \text{ molecules in white phosphorus have angular strain. Therefore, white phosphorus is very reactive.}$
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10567
$\text{A brown ring formed in the ring test for } \text{NO}_3^- \text{ ion is due to the formation of:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Fe}(\text{H}_2\text{O})_5(\text{NO})]^{2+}$, $\text{FeSO}_4.\text{NO}_2$...
$[\text{Fe}(\text{H}_2\text{O})_5(\text{NO})]^{2+}$
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10566
$\text{An element that does not show allotropy is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{Nitrogen}$, $\text{Phosphorus}$...
$\text{Nitrogen}$
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10565
$\text{A solid (A) reacts with strong aqueous NaOH, liberating a foul smelling gas (B), which spontaneously burns in the air, giving smoky rings. A and B are, respectively:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{P}_4\text{ (red) and PH}_3$, $\text{P}_4\text{ (white) and PH}_3$...
$\text{P}_4\text{ (white) and PH}_3$
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10564
$\text{The correct increasing order of basic strength of hydrides:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{BiH}_3 \simeq \text{SbH}_3 < \text{AsH}_3 < \text{PH}_3 < \text{NH}_3$, $\text{BiH}_3 > \text{NH}_3 > \text{PH}_3 > \text{SbH}_3 > \text{AsH}_3$...
$\text{BiH}_3 \simeq \text{SbH}_3 < \text{AsH}_3 < \text{PH}_3 < \text{NH}_3$
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10563
$\text{A compound having two direct bonds between P and H atoms is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_3\text{PO}_2$, $\text{H}_3\text{PO}_3$...
$\text{H}_3\text{PO}_2$
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10562
$\text{Ammonium dichromate and barium azide on heating gives:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{N}_2 \text{ in both cases.}$, $\text{N}_2 \text{ with ammonium dichromate and NO with barium azide.}$...
$\text{N}_2 \text{ in both cases.}$
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10561
$\text{The correct structure of pyrophosphoric acid is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{HO-P(=O)(OH)-OH}$, $\text{H-P(=O)(OH)-OH}$...
$\text{HO-P(=O)(OH)-O-P(=O)(OH)-OH}$
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10560
$\text{A brown-coloured mixture of two gases is obtained by reducing 6 N nitric acid with metallic copper. This mixture on cooling condenses to a blue liquid which on freezing (-30 °C) gives a blue solid. The correct statement for the blue liquid or solid is:}$
2
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$\text{It is referred to as the anhydride of nitrous acid.}$, $\text{It is an acidic oxide. Hence, it dissolves in alkalies producing nitrites.}$...
$\text{All of the above.}$
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10559
$\text{Nitrogen gas is liberated by the thermal decomposition of:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_4\text{NO}_2$, $\text{NaN}_3$...
$\text{All of the above}$
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10558
$\text{An element belongs to group 15 and 3}^{\text{rd}} \text{ period of the periodic table. Its electronic configuration would be:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$1s^2 2s^2 2p^4$, $1s^2 2s^2 2p^3$...
$1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^3$
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10557
$\text{A balanced chemical equation for the reaction showing catalytic oxidation of NH}_3 \text{ by atmospheric oxygen is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$4\text{NH}_3 + 5\text{O}_2 \xrightarrow[\text{500 K; 9 bar}]{\text{Pt / Rh gauge catalyst}} 4\text{NO} + 6\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $3\text{NH}_4 + 5\text{O}_2 \xrightarrow[\text{500 K; 9 bar}]{\text{Pt / Rh gauge catalyst}} 3\text{NO} + 6\text{H}_2\text{O}$...
$4\text{NH}_3 + 5\text{O}_2 \xrightarrow[\text{500 K; 9 bar}]{\text{Pt / Rh gauge catalyst}} 4\text{NO} + 6\text{H}_2\text{O}$
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10556
$\text{The respective oxidation states of P in } \text{H}_4\text{P}_2\text{O}_5, \text{H}_4\text{P}_2\text{O}_6, \text{ and } \text{H}_4\text{P}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ are:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$+3, +5, \text{ and } +4$, $+5, +3, \text{ and } +4$...
$+3, +4, \text{ and } +5$
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10555
$\text{Match the formulas of oxides given in Column I with the type of oxide given in Column II and mark the correct option.}$ $\text{Column I}$ $\text{A. Pb}_3\text{O}_4$ $\text{B. N}_2\text{O}$ $\text{C. Mn}_2\text{O}_7$ $\text{D. Bi}_2\text{O}_3$ $\text{Column II}$ $\text{1. Neutral oxide}$ $\text{2. Acidic oxide}$ $\text{3. Basic oxide}$ $\text{4. Mixed oxide}$
2
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$\text{A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4}$, $\text{A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3}$...
$\text{A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3}$
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10554
$\text{Match the name of process given in Column I with the name of compound given in Column II and mark the correct option.}$ $\text{Column I:}$ $\text{(a) Pure nitrogen}$ $\text{(b) Haber process}$ $\text{(c) Contact process}$ $\text{(d) Deacons process}$ $\text{Column II:}$ $\text{(i) Chlorine}$ $\text{(ii) Sulphuric acid}$ $\text{(iii) Ammonia}$ $\text{(iv) Sodium azide or Barium azide}$
2
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$\text{(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)}$, $\text{(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)}$...
$\text{(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)}$
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10553
$\text{NH}_3 \text{ forms a hydrogen bond but PH}_3 \text{ does not because:}$
2
211
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$\text{Phosphorus is more electronegative as compared to nitrogen.}$, $\text{Nitrogen is more electronegative as compared to phosphorus.}$...
$\text{Nitrogen is more electronegative as compared to phosphorus.}$
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10552
$\text{An element that does not have a d-orbital is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$\text{P}$, $\text{N}$...
$\text{N}$
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10551
$\text{The bonding present in nitrogen molecules is:}$
2
211
Recommended Questions
$p\pi - p\pi$, $p\pi - d\pi$...
$p\pi - p\pi$
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10550
$\text{PH}_3 \text{ forms bubbles when passed slowly through water but } \text{NH}_3 \text{ gets dissolved in water, because:}$
2
211
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$\text{NH}_3 \text{ forms an H-bond with water, so it is soluble but } \text{PH}_3 \text{ does not form an H-bond.}$, $\text{NH}_3 \text{ does not form an H-bond with water, so it is soluble but } \text{PH}_3 \text{ does form an H-bond.}$...
$\text{NH}_3 \text{ forms an H-bond with water, so it is soluble but } \text{PH}_3 \text{ does not form an H-bond.}$
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10549
$\text{The element from group 15 that forms a strong bond with hydrogen is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{N}$, $\text{P}$...
$\text{N}$
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10548
$\text{In a capillary tube, pressure below the curved surface of the water will be:}$
1
109
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$\text{equal to atmospheric pressure.}$, $\text{equal to upper side pressure.}$...
4
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10547
$\text{If a capillary tube is partially dipped vertically into liquid and the levels of the liquid inside and outside are the same, then the angle of contact is:}$
1
109
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$90°$, $30°$...
1
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10546
$\text{The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on:}$
1
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$\text{viscosity}$, $\text{surface tension}$...
4
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10545
$\text{If the surface tension of water is } 0.06 \text{ N/m}^2, \text{ then the capillary rise in a tube of diameter 1 mm is:}$ $(\theta = 0°)$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.22 \text{ m}$, $2.44 \text{ cm}$...
2
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10544
$\text{When two drops of water coalesce:}$ $\text{I: total surface area decreases.}$ $\text{II: there is some rise in temperature.}$ $\text{Which of the following is correct?}$
1
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$\text{Both (I) and (II) are wrong statements.}$, $\text{Statement (I) is true but (II) is not true.}$...
4
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10543
$\text{The radius of a soap bubble is increased from R to 2R. Work done in this process (T = surface tension) is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$24\pi R^2 T$, $48\pi R^2 T$...
1
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10542
$\text{A wooden stick 2 m long is floating on the surface of the water. The surface tension of water is 0.07 N/m. By putting soap solution on one side of the stick, the surface tension is reduced to 0.06 N/m. The net force on the stick due to surface tension will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.07 \text{ N}$, $0.06 \text{ N}$...
4
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10541
$\text{Small droplets of liquid are usually more spherical in shape than the larger drops of the same liquid because:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{the force of surface tension is equal and opposite to the force of gravity.}$, $\text{the force of surface tension predominates the force of gravity.}$...
2
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10540
$\text{The energy needed to break a drop of radius } R \text{ into } n \text{ drops of radii } r \text{ is given by:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$4\pi T(nr^2 - R^2)$, $\frac{4}{3}\pi(r^3n - R^2)$...
1
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10539
$\text{If the excess pressure inside a soap bubble is balanced by an oil column of height of 2 mm, then the surface tension of the soap solution will be:}$ $\text{(the radius of the soap bubble, } r = 1 \text{ cm and density of oil, } d = 0.8 \text{ gm/cm}^3\text{)}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$3.9 \text{ N/m}$, $3.9 \times 10^{-2} \text{ N/m}$...
2
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10538
$\text{In order to float a ring of area } 0.04 \text{ m}^2 \text{ in a liquid of surface tension } 75 \text{ N/m, the required surface energy will be:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$3 \text{ J}$, $6.5 \text{ J}$...
1
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10537
$\text{The property of surface tension of the liquid is due to:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{the gravitational force of attraction between the molecules.}$, $\text{the cohesive forces between the molecules.}$...
2
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10536
$\text{A spherical drop of water has a radius of 1 mm. If the surface tension of water is } 70 \times 10^{-3} \text{ N/m, the difference in pressures inside and outside the spherical drop is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$35 \text{ N/m}^2$, $70 \text{ N/m}^2$...
3
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10535
$\text{With an increase in temperature, the viscosity of liquid and gas, respectively will:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{increase and increase}$, $\text{increase and decrease}$...
3
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10534
$\text{The velocity of a small ball of mass } m \text{ and density } \rho \text{ when dropped in a container filled with glycerin of density } \sigma \text{ becomes constant after sometime. The viscous force acting on the ball in the final stage is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$mg\left(\frac{\sigma}{\rho}\right)$, $mg\left(1 + \frac{\sigma}{\rho}\right)$...
3
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10533
$\text{With an increase in temperature, the viscosity of:}$ $\text{(a) gases decrease. (b) liquids increase.}$ $\text{(c) gases increase. (d) liquids decrease.}$ $\text{Which of the following options is/are correct?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{(b), (c)}$, $\text{(a), (d)}$...
3
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10532
$\text{A spherical ball of radius } r \text{ is falling in a viscous fluid of viscosity } \eta \text{ with a velocity } v. \text{ The retarding viscous force acting on the spherical ball is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{inversely proportional to } r \text{ but directly proportional to velocity } v.$, $\text{directly proportional to both radius } r \text{ and velocity } v.$...
2
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10531
$\text{The pans of a physical balance are in equilibrium. If Air is blown under the right-hand pan then the right-hand pan will:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{move up}$, $\text{move down}$...
2
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10530
$\text{The velocity of kerosene oil in a horizontal pipe is 5 m/s. If } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\text{, then the velocity head of oil will be:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$1.25 \text{ m}$, $12.5 \text{ m}$...
1
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10529
$\text{Equation of continuity is based on:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{Conservation of mass}$, $\text{Conservation of energy}$...
1
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10528
$\text{An incompressible fluid flows steadily through a cylindrical pipe which has a radius } 2r \text{ at the point A and a radius } r \text{ at the point B further along the flow direction. If the velocity at the point A is } v\text{, its velocity at the point B is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$2v$, $v$...
4
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10527
$\text{If an incompressible liquid is flowing through a horizontal pipe having branches of area } A, 0.4A, \text{ and } 0.5A \text{ as shown in the figure, then the value of } v \text{ is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$3.2 \text{ m/s}$, $6.4 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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10526
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): A piece of ice floats in water, the level of water remains unchanged when the ice melts completely.}$ $\text{Reason (R): According to Archimedes principle, the loss in weight of the body in the liquid is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by the immersed part of the body.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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10525
$\text{A body is just floating on the surface of a liquid. The density of the body is the same as that of the liquid. The body is slightly pushed down. What will happen to the body?}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{It will slowly come back to its earlier position}$, $\text{It will remain submerged, where it was left}$...
2
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10524
$\text{A boat carrying steel balls is floating on the surface of water in a tank. If the balls are thrown into the tank one by one, how will it affect the level of water?}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{It will remain unchanged}$, $\text{It will rise}$...
3
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10523
If two pieces of metal when immersed in a liquid have equal upthrust on them, then:
1
109
Recommended Questions
Both pieces must have equal weights, Both pieces must have equal densities...
3
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10522
1
109
Recommended Questions
Increase, Decrease...
1
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10521
Which of the following diagrams does not represent a streamline flow?
1
109
Recommended Questions
1., 2....
4
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10520
There are four cylindrical vessels identical in dimensions. If these are filled with equal masses of four different liquids P, Q, R, and S such that their densities are $\rho_P > \rho_Q > \rho_R > \rho_S$, then pressure at the base of vessel will be:
1
109
Recommended Questions
$P_P = P_Q = P_R = P_S$, $P_P > P_Q > P_R > P_S$...
1
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10519
A barometer kept in a stationary elevator reads If the elevator starts accelerating up, the reading will be:
1
109
Recommended Questions
zero, equal to...
4
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10518
The value of g at a place decreases by 2%. Then, the barometric height of mercury:
1
109
Recommended Questions
increases by 2%., decreases by 2%....
1
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10517
$\text{The area of cross-section of the wider tube shown in the figure is 800 cm}^2\text{. If a mass of 12 kg is placed on the massless piston, then the difference in heights h of the levels of water in the two tubes will be:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{10 cm}$, $\text{6 cm}$...
3
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10516
$\text{If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal to }\frac{2}{3}^{\text{rd}}\text{ the pressure at the bottom of the lake, then the depth of the lake is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{10 m}$, $\text{20 m}$...
2
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10515
$\text{A liquid is poured into three vessels of the same base area and equal heights as shown in the figure, then:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{The maximum force on the base will be for the vessel } C\text{.}$, $\text{The maximum force on the base will be for the vessel } B\text{.}$...
4
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10514
$\text{For the figures given below, the correct observation is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{pressure at the bottom of the tank (a) is greater than at the bottom of the tank (b).}$, $\text{pressure at the bottom of the tank (a) is lesser than at the bottom of (b).}$...
4
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10513
$\text{In a capillary tube experiment, a vertical 30 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water rises up to a height of 10 cm due to capillary action. If this experiment is conducted in a freely falling elevator, the length of the water column becomes:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{10 cm}$, $\text{20 cm}$...
3
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10512
$\text{Water rises in a capillary tube to a certain height such that the upward force due to surface tension is balanced by } 75 \times 10^{-4} \text{ N force due to the weight of the liquid. If the surface tension of water is } 6 \times 10^{-2} \text{ Nm}^{-1}\text{, the inner circumference of the capillary must be:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$1.25 \times 10^{-2} \text{ m}$, $0.50 \times 10^{-2} \text{ m}$...
4
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10511
$\text{A capillary tube of radius } r \text{ is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height } h\text{. The mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary tube of radius } 2r \text{ is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{5.0 g}$, $\text{10.0 g}$...
2
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10510
$\text{Three liquids of densities } \rho_1, \rho_2 \text{ and } \rho_3 \text{ (with } \rho_1 > \rho_2 > \rho_3\text{), having the same value of surface tension } T\text{, rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact } \theta_1, \theta_2 \text{ and } \theta_3 \text{ obey:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\pi}{2} > \theta_1 > \theta_2 > \theta_3 \geq 0$, $0 \leq \theta_1 < \theta_2 < \theta_3 < \frac{\pi}{2}$...
2
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10509
$\text{If the capillary experiment is performed in a vacuum, then for a liquid the capillary will:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{rise}$, $\text{remain the same}$...
2
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10508
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\textbf{Assertion (A):} \text{ When height of a tube is less than liquid rise in the capillary tube, the liquid does not overflow.}$ $\textbf{Reason (R):} \text{ Product of radius of meniscus and height of liquid in capillary tube always remains constant.}$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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10507
$\text{Water rises to a height h in a capillary at the surface of earth. On the surface of the moon, the height of water column in the same capillary will be:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$6\text{h}$, $\frac{1}{6}\text{h}$...
1
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10506
$\text{A liquid filled in a container has a plane meniscus. If } \theta \text{ is the angle of contact, then:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\theta = 0°$, $\theta = 90°$...
2
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10505
$\text{Water rises to height } h \text{ in a capillary tube. If the length of the capillary tube above the surface of water is made less than } h, \text{ then:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{water does not rise at all.}$, $\text{water rises up to the top of the capillary tube, then starts overflowing like a fountain.}$...
3
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10504
$\text{Which of the following graphs best represents the variation of capillary rise of a liquid with the radius of the capillary tube?}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Linear increasing relationship between } h \text{ and } r$, $\text{Graph 2: Exponential increasing relationship between } h \text{ and } r$...
4
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10503
$\text{There is a horizontal film of soap solution. On it, a thread is placed in the form of a loop. The film is pierced inside the loop and the thread becomes a circular loop of radius } R. \text{ If the surface tension of the loop is } T, \text{ then what will be the tension in the thread?}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\pi R^2 / T$, $\pi R^2 T$...
4
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10502
$\text{A soap bubble, having a radius of 1 mm, is blown from a detergent solution having a surface tension of } 2.5 \times 10^{-2} \text{ N/m. The pressure inside the bubble equals at a point } Z_0 \text{ below the free surface of the water in a container. Taking } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2, \text{ the density of water } = 10^3 \text{ kg/m}^3, \text{ the value of } Z_0 \text{ is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$0.5 \text{ cm}$, $100 \text{ cm}$...
4
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10501
$\text{A liquid drop at temperature T, isolated from its surroundings, breaks into a number of droplets. The temperature of the droplets will be—}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{equal to T}$, $\text{greater than T}$...
3
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10500
$\text{A soap bubble is blown with the help of a mechanical pump at the mouth of a tube. The pump produces a certain increase per minute in the volume of the bubble, irrespective of its internal pressure. The graph between the pressure inside the soap bubble and time t will be:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph showing pressure P decreasing exponentially with time t (curved downward)}$, $\text{Graph showing pressure P increasing linearly with time t (straight line upward)}$...
1
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10499
$\text{An air bubble of radius } r \text{ in water is at a certain depth below the water surface. If } P \text{ is the pressure inside the bubble, then the depth below the water surface is:}$ $\text{(}P_0 = \text{atmospheric pressure, } \rho = \text{density of water, } T = \text{surface tension of water)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{P - P_0}{\rho g} - \frac{4T}{r\rho g}$, $\frac{P + P_0}{\rho g} + \frac{2T}{r\rho g}$...
3
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10498
$\text{A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4 cm × 2 cm) to (5 cm × 4 cm). If the work done is } 3 \times 10^{-4} \text{ J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$0.25 \text{ N/m}$, $0.125 \text{ N/m}$...
2
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10497
$\text{The surface tension of a liquid is 5 N m}^{-1}\text{. If a film is held on a ring of area 0.02 m}^2\text{, then its total surface energy is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$3 \times 10^{-2} \text{ J}$, $2 \times 10^{-1} \text{ J}$...
2
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10496
$\text{A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius } r \text{ coalesce to form a single drop of radius } R \text{ and volume } V\text{. If } T \text{ is the surface tension of the liquid, then: Energy} = 4VT\left(\frac{1}{r} - \frac{1}{R}\right) \text{ is released}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{Energy} = 4VT\left(\frac{1}{r} - \frac{1}{R}\right) \text{ is released}$, $\text{Energy} = 3VT\left(\frac{1}{r} + \frac{1}{R}\right) \text{ is released}$...
3
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10495
$\text{Two soap bubbles are connected by a tube as shown in the figure. Which of the following statement is true?}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{The volume of A will increase.}$, $\text{The volume of A will remain constant.}$...
3
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10494
$\text{An iron sphere is dropped into a viscous liquid. Which of the following represents its acceleration } (a) \text{ versus time } (t) \text{ graph?}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph showing acceleration starting from zero and increasing asymptotically to a constant value}$, $\text{Graph showing acceleration increasing linearly with time}$...
4
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10493
$\text{A small sphere of radius } r \text{ falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to the viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity is proportional to:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$r^3$, $r^2$...
3
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10492
$\text{If a small drop of water falls from rest through a large height } h \text{ in air, then the final velocity is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\propto \sqrt{h}$, $\propto h$...
4
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10491
$\text{A small tiny water droplet is falling towards earth at a uniform speed of 1 cm/s. When 27 such identical droplets combine together to form a bigger drop, then with what uniform velocity will this bigger drop fall?}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$27 \text{ cm/s}$, $9 \text{ cm/s}$...
2
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10490
$\text{A small spherical solid ball is dropped in a viscous liquid. Its journey in the liquid is best described in the figure by:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{curve A}$, $\text{curve B}$...
3
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10489
$\text{Two small spherical metal balls, having equal masses, are made from materials of densities } \rho_1 \text{ and } \rho_2 \text{ such that } \rho_1 = 8\rho_2 \text{ and having radii of 1 mm and 2 mm, respectively. They are made to fall vertically (from rest) in a viscous medium whose coefficient of viscosity equals } \eta \text{ and whose density is } 0.1\rho_2. \text{ The ratio of their terminal velocities would be:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\frac{79}{72}$, $\frac{19}{36}$...
4
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10488
$\text{A square plate of 0.1 m side moves parallel to a second plate with a velocity of 0.1 m/s, both plates being immersed in water. If the viscous force is 0.002 N and the coefficient of viscosity is 0.01 poise, then the distance between the plates in m is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$0.1$, $0.05$...
4
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10487
$\text{A metal block of area 0.10 m}^2 \text{ is connected to a 0.010 kg mass via a string that passes over an ideal pulley (considered massless and frictionless), as in the figure below. A liquid film with a thickness of 0.30 mm is placed between the block and the table. When released the block moves to the right with a constant speed of 0.085 m/s. The coefficient of viscosity of the liquid is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$4.45 \times 10^{-2} \text{ Pa/s}$, $4.45 \times 10^{-3} \text{ Pa/s}$...
4
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10486
$\text{The velocity of a small ball of mass m and density } \rho \text{ when dropped in a container filled with glycerin of density } \sigma \text{ becomes constant after sometime. The viscous force acting on the ball in the final stage is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$mg\left(\frac{\sigma}{\rho}\right)$, $mg\left(1 + \frac{\sigma}{\rho}\right)$...
3
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10485
$\text{The relative velocity of two adjacent layers of a liquid is 6 cm/s and the perpendicular distance between layers is 0.1 mm. The velocity gradient for liquid (in per second) is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$6$, $0.6$...
4
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10484
$\text{An ideal fluid is flowing in a steady-state from section A to B through a pipe in a vertical plane as shown. Select the incorrect statement.}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{Total energy per unit volume is the same at both sections A and B.}$, $\text{The incoming flow rate at A is equal to the outgoing flow rate at B.}$...
3
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10483
$\text{Water flows through a horizontal tube as shown in figure. If the difference in heights of water column in vertical tubes is 80 cm and the area of cross-section at A and B are 5 cm}^2 \text{ and 3 cm}^2 \text{ respectively, then the rate of flow of water at A( in cc/sec) is:-}$ $[\text{Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2]$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$15 \times 10^2$, $15 \times 10^3$...
1
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10482
$\text{Fluid flows through a pipe in a horizontal plane. The fluid has a relative density of 0.9 and its velocity at P (where cross-section area is A) is 4 m/s. What is its pressure at Q? (where cross-section area is }\frac{A}{4}\text{, The pressure at P is }2.8 \times 10^5\text{ Pa)}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$2.36 \times 10^5\text{ Pa}$, $3.88 \times 10^5\text{ Pa}$...
4
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10481
$\text{From the given diagram, the speed with which water leaves the tube B of small diameter is-}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{2(gh)_1}$, $\sqrt{2(gh)_2}$...
2
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10480
$\text{A sniper fires a rifle bullet into a gasoline tank making a hole 53.0 m below the surface of gasoline. The tank was sealed at 3.10 atm. The stored gasoline has a density of 660 kgm}^{-3}\text{. The velocity with which gasoline begins to shoot out of the hole will be:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$27.8 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $41.0 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
2
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10479
$\text{A water tank is kept at a height H above the ground and the tank contains depth H of water as shown. Find the maximum possible range of water current, if there exists a small hole on the sidewall of the tank.}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$2H$, $\frac{3H}{2}$...
1
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10478
$\text{An L-shaped tube with a small orifice is held in a water stream as shown in fig. The upper end of the tube is 10.6 cm above the surface of water. What will be the height of the jet of water coming from the orifice? Velocity of water stream is 2.45 m/s.}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{Zero}$, $20.0 \text{ cm}$...
2
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10477
$\text{Water flows through a frictionless duct with a cross-section varying as shown in the figure. Pressure } P \text{ at points along the axis is represented by:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph showing pressure decreasing then leveling off}$, $\text{Graph showing pressure increasing then leveling off}$...
1
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10476
$\text{There is a hole in the bottom of a tank having water. If the total pressure at the bottom is 3 atm (1 atm = } 10^5 \text{ N/m}^2\text{), then the velocity of water flowing from the hole is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{400} \text{ m/s}$, $\sqrt{600} \text{ m/s}$...
1
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10475
$\text{Find the rate of flow of glycerin of density } 1.25 \times 10^3 \text{ kg/m}^3 \text{ through the conical section of a pipe, if the radii of its ends are 0.1 m and 0.04 m and the pressure drop across its length is 10 N/m}^2\text{.}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$3.14 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}^3\text{/s}$, $6.28 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}^3\text{/s}$...
2
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10474
$\text{A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the roof of a house. The area of the roof is 250 m}^2\text{. Assuming that the pressure inside the house is atmospheric pressure, the force exerted by the wind on the roof and the direction of the force will be: } (\rho_{\text{air}} = 1.2 \text{ kg/m}^3)$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$4.8 \times 10^5 \text{ N, downwards}$, $4.8 \times 10^5 \text{ N, upwards}$...
3
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10473
$\text{An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity } v \text{ and } m \text{ is the mass per unit length of the water jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to water?}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2}mv^3$, $mv^3$...
1
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10472
$\text{A tank has an orifice near its bottom. The volume of the liquid flowing per second out of the orifice does not depend upon:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{the area of the orifice.}$, $\text{the height of the liquid level above the orifice.}$...
3
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10471
$\text{The speed of flow past the lower surface of a wing of an airplane is 50 m/s. What speed of flow over the upper surface will give a dynamic lift of 1000 Pa?}$ $\text{(density of air } 1.3 \text{ kg/m}^3\text{)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$25.55 \text{ m/s}$, $63.55 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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10470
$\text{In a horizontal pipe line the pressure falls by 16 Nm}^{-2} \text{ between two points separated by a distance of 2 km. Density of oil is 800 kg m}^{-3}\text{. Change in kinetic energy per kg of the oil flowing in the tube is:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$2 \times 10^3 \text{ J/kg}$, $2 \times 10^2 \text{ J/kg}$...
3
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10469
$\text{The water flows through a frictionless tube with a varying cross-section as shown in the figure. The variation of pressure } P \text{ at the point } x \text{ along the axis is roughly given by:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph showing stepped pressure profile}$, $\text{Graph showing constant pressure profile}$...
3
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10468
$\text{A small hole of an area of cross-section } 2 \text{ mm}^2 \text{ is present near the bottom of a fully filled open tank of height } 2 \text{ m. Taking } (g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2), \text{ the rate of flow of water through the open hole would be nearly:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$6.4 \times 10^{-6} \text{ m}^3/\text{s}$, $12.6 \times 10^{-6} \text{ m}^3/\text{s}$...
2
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10467
$\text{There is an orifice at some depth in the water tank. Absolute pressure at the level of the orifice in the water tank is } 4 \text{ atmospheric pressure. The density of water is } 10^3 \text{ kg/m}^3 \text{ and } 1 \text{ atm pressure} = 10^5 \text{ N/m}^2. \text{ The speed of water coming out of the orifice is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ m/s}$, $20 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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10466
The following figure shows the flow of liquid through a horizontal pipe. Three tubes $A$, $B$ and $C$ are connected to the pipe. The radii of the tubes $A$, $B$ and $C$ at the junction are respectively $2 ext{ cm}$, $1 ext{ cm}$ and $2 ext{ cm}$. It can be said that:
1
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Recommended Questions
The height of the liquid in the tube $A$ is maximum., The height of the liquid in the tubes $A$ and $B$ is the same....
4
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10465
A horizontal pipe line carries water in a streamline flow. At a point along the pipe where cross-sectional area is $10 \text{ cm}^2$, the velocity of water is $1\text{ m/s}$ and pressure is $2000\text{ Pa}$. The pressure of water at another point where cross-sectional area is $5\text{ cm}^2$, is: (Density of water=$1000\text{ kg/m}^3$)
1
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Recommended Questions
$250\text{ Pa}$, $500\text{ Pa}$...
2
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10464
$\text{The pressure of water in a water pipe when tap is opened and closed are respectively } 3 \times 10^5 \text{ Nm}^{-2} \text{ and } 3.5 \times 10^5 \text{ Nm}^{-2}. \text{ With open tap, the velocity of water flowing is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $5 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
1
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10463
A tank is filled with water up to a height $H$. The water is allowed to come out of a hole $P$ in one of the walls at a depth $D$ below the surface of the water. The horizontal distance $x$ in terms of $H$ and $D$ is:
1
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Recommended Questions
$x = \sqrt{D(H - D)}$, $x = \sqrt{\frac{D(H - D)}{2}}$...
3
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10462
$\text{A large open tank with a square hole of side } 0.1 \text{ cm in the wall at a depth of } 0.2 \text{ m from the top is completely filled with a liquid. The rate of flow of liquid (in cm}^3\text{/s) through the hole will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1$, $2$...
2
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10461
The diameter of a syringe is $4\text{ mm}$ and the diameter of its nozzle (opening) is $1\text{ mm}$. The syringe is placed on the table horizontally at a height of $1.25\text{ m}$. If the piston is moved at a speed of $0.5\text{ m/s}$, then considering the liquid in the syringe to be ideal, the horizontal range of liquid is: ($g = 10\text{ m/s}^2$)
1
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Recommended Questions
$4\text{ m}$, $8\text{ m}$...
1
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10460
$\text{Water flows through a frictionless duct with a cross-section varying as shown in the figure. Pressure p at points along the axis is represented by:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Pressure decreases in the converging section, remains low in the throat, then increases in the diverging section}$, $\text{Graph 2: Pressure increases in the converging section, remains high in the throat, then decreases in the diverging section}$...
1
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10459
$\text{The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius } R\text{, one end of which has } n \text{ fine holes, each of radius } r\text{. If the speed of the liquid in the tube is } v\text{, then the speed of ejection of the liquid through the holes will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{vR^2}{n^2r^2}$, $\frac{vR^2}{nr^2}$...
2
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10458
From the given diagram, what is the velocity $v_3$?
1
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Recommended Questions
$4$ m/s, $3$ m/s...
3
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10457
$\text{In a horizontal pipe of a non-uniform cross-section, water flows with a velocity of } 1 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ at a point where the diameter of the pipe is } 20 \text{ cm. The velocity of water (ms}^{-1}\text{) at a point where the diameter of the pipe is } 5 \text{ cm is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$8$, $16$...
2
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10456
A cube floats both in water and in a liquid of specific gravity of $0.8$. Therefore,
1
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Recommended Questions
(a) and (c) both are correct., only (d) is correct....
1
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10455
$\text{A metallic sphere with an internal cavity weighs 40 gwt in air and 20 gwt in water. If the density of the material with the cavity is } 8 \text{ gm/cm}^3\text{, then the volume of the cavity is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0 \text{ cm}^3$, $5 \text{ cm}^3$...
4
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10454
A hemispherical bowl just floats without sinking in a liquid of density $1.2 \times 10^3 \text{ kg/m}^3$. If the outer diameter and the density of the material of the bowl are $1 \text{ m}$ and $2 \times 10^4 \text{ kg/m}^3$ respectively, then the inner diameter of the bowl will be:
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.94 \text{ m}$, $0.97 \text{ m}$...
3
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10453
$\text{A solid sphere of density } \eta \text{ (} > 1\text{) times lighter than water is suspended in a water tank by a string tied to its base as shown in fig. If the mass of the sphere is m, then the tension in the string is given by:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\left(\frac{\eta - 1}{\eta}\right)mg$, $\eta mg$...
4
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10452
Two bodies are in equilibrium when suspended in water from the arms of a balance. The mass of one body is $36 \text{ g}$ and its density is $9 \text{ g/cm}^3$. If the mass of the other is $48 \text{ g}$, its density in $(\text{g/cm}^3)$ will be:
1
109
Recommended Questions
$\frac{4}{3}$, $\frac{3}{2}$...
3
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10451
$\text{A concrete sphere of radius R has a cavity of radius r which is packed with sawdust. The specific gravities of concrete and sawdust are respectively 2.4 and 0.3. For this sphere to float with its entire volume submerged underwater, the ratio of mass of concrete to mass of sawdust will be:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$8$, $4$...
2
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10450
A solid is suspended from an independent support in a liquid placed on a weighing machine, due to which the weight of the liquid:
1
109
Recommended Questions
Increases, Decreases...
1
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10449
$\text{A block of ice floats on a liquid of density } 1.2 \text{ g/cm}^3 \text{ in a beaker. The level of liquid when ice completely melts:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Remains same}$, $\text{Rises}$...
2
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10448
A candle of diameter $d$ is floating on a liquid in a cylindrical container of diameter $D$ ($D \gg d$) as shown in the figure. If it is burning at the rate of $2 \text{ cm/hour}$ then the top of the candle will:
1
109
Recommended Questions
Remain at the same height, \text{Fall at the rate of } 1 \text{ cm/hour}...
2
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10447
$\text{A wooden block with a coin placed on its top, floats in water as shown in fig. The distance } l \text{ and } h \text{ are shown there. After some time the coin falls into the water. Then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$l \text{ decreases and } h \text{ increases}$, $l \text{ increases and } h \text{ decreases}$...
4
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10446
Two non-mixing liquids of densities $\rho$ and $n\rho$ ($n > 1$) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is $h$. A solid cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length $pL(p < 1)$ in the denser liquid. The density of the cylinder is $d$. The density $d$ is equal to:
1
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Recommended Questions
$[2 + (n + 1)p]\rho$, $[2 + (n - 1)p]\rho$...
3
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10445
$\text{The reading of a spring balance when a block is suspended from it in the air is 60 N. This reading is changed to 40 N when the block is submerged in water. The specific gravity of the block, therefore, must be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$3$, $2$...
1
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10444
A block weighs $5 \text{ N}$ in the air and $4.5 \text{ N}$ in a liquid of specific gravity $0.5$. Its weight in water will be:
1
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Recommended Questions
$3.5 \text{ N}$, $4.0 \text{ N}$...
2
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10443
$\text{A body of density } 0.7 \text{ g/cm}^3 \text{ floats on a lake of water. The fraction of the body that is outside water is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$30\%$, $70\%$...
1
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10442
When a man sits on a boat of length $2 \text{ m}$ and breadth $1 \text{ m}$ floating on a lake, the boat sinks by $2 \text{ cm}$. The mass of the man is:
1
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Recommended Questions
$25 \text{ kg}$, $40 \text{ kg}$...
2
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10441
$\text{If two iron balls when fully immersed in water experience thrust force in the ratio of } 1 : 2, \text{ then the ratio of the masses of the balls will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1 : 1$, $1 : 2$...
2
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10440
An iceberg of density $900 \text{ kg/m}^3$ is floating in the water of density $1000 \text{ kg/m}^3$. The percentage of the volume of ice cube outside the water is:
1
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Recommended Questions
$20\%$, $35\%$...
3
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10439
$\text{Three liquids of densities } d, 2d \text{ and } 3d \text{ are mixed in equal proportions of weights. The relative density of the mixture is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{11d}{7}$, $\frac{18d}{11}$...
2
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10438
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Specific gravity of a fluid is a dimensionless quantity.}$ $\text{Reason (R): It is the ratio of the density of the fluid to the density of water.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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10437
A tank is filled with water up to a height $h$ and the pressure at the bottom of the tank is $3P$ where $P$ is the atmospheric pressure. The height of a point from the bottom of the tank where pressure is $\frac{11P}{5}$ is:
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2h}{5}$, $\frac{3h}{5}$...
1
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10436
The heart of a man pumps $5 \text{ L}$ of blood through the arteries per minute at a pressure of $150 \text{ mm}$ of mercury. If the density of mercury is $13.6 \times 10^3 \text{ kg/m}^3$ and $g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2$, then the power of heart in watt is:
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.70$, $2.35$...
1
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10435
$\text{A triangular lamina of area A and height h is immersed in a liquid of density } \rho \text{ in a vertical plane with its base on the surface of the liquid. The thrust on the lamina is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2}A\rho gh$, $\frac{1}{3}A\rho gh$...
2
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10434
A liquid is filled in a container as shown in the figure. The force exerted by the liquid on the base of the container must be:
1
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Recommended Questions
Equal to the weight of the liquid, More than the weight of the liquid...
2
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10433
$\text{A U tube is partially filled with water. Oil which is immiscible in water is poured into one side until the water rises by 25 cm on the other side. If the oil level is 12.5 cm higher than the water level, then the relative density of the oil is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$0.3$, $0.5$...
3
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10432
A mercury-filled U-tube arrangement is connected to a bulb containing a gas. Atmospheric pressure is $1.012 \times 10^5 \text{ Pa}$ and $H = 0.05 \text{ m}$. Then:
1
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Recommended Questions
gauge pressure at $\text{R}$ is nil., gauge pressure at $\text{R}$ is $6.56 \times 10^3 \text{ Pa}$....
1
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10431
$\text{An inverted bell lying at the bottom of a lake 47.6 m deep has 50 cm}^3 \text{ of air trapped in it. The bell is brought to the surface of the lake. The volume of the trapped air will be: (atmospheric pressure = 70 cm of Hg and density of Hg = 13.6 g/cm}^3\text{)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$350 \text{ cm}^3$, $300 \text{ cm}^3$...
2
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10430
\text{A vertical U-tube of uniform inner cross-section contains mercury in both its arms. A glycerin (density } = 1.3\text{ g/cm}^3\text{) column of length }10\text{ cm is introduced into one of its arms. Oil of density }0.8\text{ g/cm}^3\text{ is poured into the other arm until the upper surfaces of the oil and glycerin are at the same horizontal level. The length of the oil column is:}
\text{(density of mercury } = 13.6\text{ g/cm}^3\text{)}
1
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Recommended Questions
$10.4 \text{ cm}$, $8.2 \text{ cm}$...
4
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10429
$\text{A siphon in use is demonstrated in the following figure. The density of the liquid flowing in the siphon is 1.5 g/cc. The pressure difference between the point P and S will be:}$
1
109
Recommended Questions
$10^5 \text{ N/m}^2$, $2 \times 10^5 \text{ N/m}^2$...
3
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10428
The height of a mercury barometer is $75 \text{ cm}$ at sea level and $50 \text{ cm}$ at the top of a hill. The ratio of the density of mercury to that of air is $10^4$. The height of the hill is:
1
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Recommended Questions
$250 \text{ m}$, $2.5 \text{ km}$...
2
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10427
$\text{A diver is 10 m below the surface of the water. The approximate pressure experienced by the diver is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$10^5 \text{ Pa}$, $2 \times 10^5 \text{ Pa}$...
2
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10426
\text{Given:}
\text{Wing area: } A = 120 \text{ m}^2
\text{Pressure difference: } \Delta P = 2.5 \text{ kPa} = 2500 \text{ Pa}
\text{Acceleration due to gravity: } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2
\text{Solution:}
\text{For level flight, lift force equals weight:}
F_{\text{lift}} = \Delta P \times A = mg
\text{Therefore: } m = \frac{\Delta P \times A}{g}
m = \frac{2500 \times 120}{10} = \frac{300000}{10} = 30000 \text{ kg}
\text{Mass of airplane} = 30 \text{ tonnes}
1
109
Recommended Questions
$2 \times 10^3 \text{ kg}$, $3 \times 10^4 \text{ kg}$...
2
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10425
$\text{When strain is produced in a body within elastic limit, its internal energy:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{Remains constant}$, $\text{Decreases}$...
3
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10424
$\text{A wire of negligible mass and length 2 m is stretched by hanging a 20 kg load to its lower end keeping its upper end fixed. If work done in stretching the wire is 50 J, then the strain produced in the wire will be:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$0.5$, $0.1$...
4
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10423
$\text{If the force constant of a wire is } K\text{, the work done in increasing the length of the wire by } l \text{ is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\frac{Kl}{2}$, $Kl$...
3
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10422
$\text{The work done per unit volume to stretch the length of a wire by 1\% with a constant cross-sectional area will be:}$ $(Y = 9 \times 10^{11} \text{ N/m}^2)$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$9 \times 10^{11} \text{ J}$, $4.5 \times 10^{7} \text{ J}$...
2
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10421
$\text{The ratio of Young's modulus of the material of two wires is 2 : 3. If the same stress is applied on both, then the ratio of elastic energy per unit volume will be:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$3 : 2$, $2 : 3$...
1
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10420
$\text{A 5 m long wire is fixed to the ceiling. A weight of 10 kg is hung at the lower end and is 1 m above the floor. The wire was elongated by 1 mm. The energy stored in the wire due to stretching is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $0.05 \text{ J}$...
2
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10419
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Soft steel can be made red hot by continued hammering on it, but hard steel cannot.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Energy transfer in the case of soft is large as in hard steel.}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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Delete
10418
$\text{The Young's modulus of a wire is } Y. \text{ If the energy per unit volume is } E, \text{ then the strain will be:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{\frac{2E}{Y}}$, $\sqrt{2EY}$...
1
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10417
$\text{A material has Poisson's ratio of 0.5. If a uniform rod made of it suffers a longitudinal strain of } 2 \times 10^{-3}, \text{ what is the percentage increase in volume?}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$2\%$, $4\%$...
3
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10416
The increase in the length of a wire on stretching is 0.04%. If Poisson's ratio for the material of wire is 0.5, then the diameter of the wire will:
1
108
Recommended Questions
decrease by 0.02%., decrease by 0.01%....
1
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10415
$\text{When a spiral spring is stretched by suspending a load on it, the strain produced is called:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{Shearing}$, $\text{Longitudinal}$...
4
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10414
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring.}$ $\text{Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of the same dimensions.}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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10413
$\text{The density of metal at normal pressure is } \rho. \text{ Its density when it is subjected to an excess pressure } P \text{ is } \rho'. \text{ If } B \text{ is the bulk modulus of the metal, the ratio } \frac{\rho'}{\rho} \text{ is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{1-\frac{P}{B}}$, $1 + \frac{P}{B}$...
1
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10412
\text{Given below are two statements:}
\text{Assertion (A): Bulk modulus of elasticity } B \text{ represents the incompressibility of the material.}
\text{Reason (R): } B = -\frac{\Delta p}{\Delta V/V}\text{, where symbols have their usual meaning.}
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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10411
$\text{Choose the correct statement.}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{Breaking stress does not depend on the area of cross-section.}$, $B_{\text{solid}} > B_{\text{gas}} > B_{\text{liquid}} \text{ where } B \text{ is the bulk modulus.}$...
1
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10410
$\text{A uniform cube is subjected to volume compression. If each side is decreased by 1\%, then bulk strain is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$0.01$, $0.06$...
4
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10409
$\text{The compressibility of water is } 4 \times 10^{-5} \text{ per unit atmospheric pressure. The decrease in volume of 100 cubic centimeter of water under a pressure of 100 atmosphere will be:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$0.4 \text{ cc}$, $4 \times 10^{-5} \text{ cc}$...
1
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10408
$\text{The modulus of rigidity of the ideal liquid is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{infinity}$, $\text{zero}$...
2
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10407
$\text{A ball falling into a lake of depth 200 m shows a 0.1\% decrease in its volume at the bottom. What is the bulk modulus of the material of the ball?}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$19.6 \times 10^8 \text{ N/m}^2$, $19.6 \times 10^{-10} \text{ N/m}^2$...
1
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10406
$\text{The bulk modulus of water is } 2 \times 10^9 \text{ N/m}^2\text{. The increase in pressure required to decrease the volume of the water sample by 0.1\% is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$4 \times 10^6 \text{ N/m}^2$, $2 \times 10^6 \text{ N/m}^2$...
2
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10405
$\text{A vessel of } 1 \times 10^{-3} \text{ m}^3 \text{ volume contains oil. When a pressure of } 1.2 \times 10^5 \text{ N/m}^2 \text{ is applied on it, then volume decreases by } 0.3 \times 10^{-6} \text{ m}^3\text{. The bulk modulus of oil is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$1 \times 10^6 \text{ N/m}^2$, $2 \times 10^7 \text{ N/m}^2$...
3
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10404
$\text{The bulk modulus of rubber is } 9.8 \times 10^8 \text{ N/m}^2\text{. To what depth a rubber ball be taken in a lake so that its volume is decreased by 0.1\%?}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$25 \text{ m}$, $100 \text{ m}$...
2
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10403
$\text{Overall changes in volume and radius of a uniform cylindrical steel wire are 0.2\% and 0.002\% respectively when subjected to some suitable force. Longitudinal tensile stress acting on the wire is:}$ $(2.0 \times 10^{11} \text{ Nm}^{-2})$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$3.2 \times 10^{11} \text{ Nm}^{-2}$, $3.2 \times 10^{7} \text{ Nm}^{-2}$...
4
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10402
$\text{A uniform cylinder rod of length } L, \text{ cross-sectional area } A \text{ and Young's modulus } Y \text{ is acted upon by the forces, as shown in the figure. The elongation of the rod is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3FL}{5AY}$, $\frac{2FL}{5AY}$...
4
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10401
$\text{Copper of fixed volume } V \text{ is drawn into a wire of length } l. \text{ When this wire is subjected to a constant force } F, \text{ the extension produced in the wire is } \Delta l. \text{ Which of the following graphs is a straight line?}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\Delta l \text{ vs } \frac{1}{l}$, $\Delta l \text{ vs } l^2$...
2
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10400
$\text{The area of cross-section of a wire of length 1.1 m is } 1 \text{ mm}^2. \text{ It is loaded with mass of 1 kg. If Young's modulus of copper is } 1.1 \times 10^{11} \text{ N/m}^2, \text{ then the increase in length will be: (If } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$0.01 \text{ mm}$, $0.075 \text{ mm}$...
3
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10399
$\text{A metallic rope of diameter 1 mm breaks at 10 N force. If the wire of the same material has a diameter of 2 mm, then the breaking force is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$2.5 \text{ N}$, $5 \text{ N}$...
4
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10398
$\text{On applying stress of } 20 \times 10^8 \text{ N/m}^2\text{, the length of a perfectly elastic wire is doubled. It's Young's modulus will be:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$40 \times 10^8 \text{ N/m}^2$, $20 \times 10^8 \text{ N/m}^2$...
2
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10397
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Young's modulus for a perfectly plastic body is zero.}$ $\text{Reason (R): For a perfectly plastic body, restoring force is zero.}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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10396
$\text{Steel and copper wires of the same length and area are stretched by the same weight one after the other. Young's modulus of steel and copper are } 2 \times 10^{11} \text{ N/m}^2 \text{ and } 1.2 \times 10^{11} \text{ N/m}^2\text{. The ratio of increase in length is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2}{5}$, $\frac{3}{5}$...
2
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10395
$\text{The figure shows the graph between stress and strain for a uniform wire at two different temperatures. Then:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$T_1 > T_2$, $T_2 > T_1$...
1
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10394
$\text{The figure shows the stress-strain curve for a given material. The approximate yield strength for this material is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$3 \times 10^8 \text{ N/m}^2$, $2 \times 10^8 \text{ N/m}^2$...
1
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10393
$\text{On withdrawing the external applied force on bodies within the elastic limit, the body:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{regains its previous state very quickly}$, $\text{regains its previous state after some time}$...
1
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10392
$\text{If two different types of rubber are found to have stress-strain curves as shown, then:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{A is suitable for shock absorbers.}$, $\text{B is suitable for shock absorbers.}$...
2
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10391
$\text{Two wires of copper having length in the ratio of } 4 : 1 \text{ and radii ratio of } 1 : 4 \text{ are stretched by the same force. The ratio of longitudinal strain in the two will be:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$1 : 16$, $16 : 1$...
2
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10390
$\text{Hooke's law is applicable for:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{elastic materials only}$, $\text{plastic materials only}$...
1
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10389
$\text{The ratio of lengths of two rods } A \text{ and } B \text{ of the same material is } 1 : 2 \text{ and the ratio of their radii is } 2 : 1. \text{ The ratio of modulus of rigidity of } A \text{ and } B \text{ will be:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$4 : 1$, $16 : 1$...
4
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10388
$\text{A cube of aluminium of sides 0.1 m is subjected to a shearing force of 100 N. The top face of the cube is displaced through 0.02 cm with respect to the bottom face. The shearing strain would be:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$0.02$, $0.1$...
4
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10387
One end of a uniform wire of length $L$ and of weight $W$ is attached rigidly to a point in the roof and a weight $W_1$ is suspended from its lower end. If $A$ is the area of the cross-section of the wire, the stress in the wire at a height $\frac{3L}{4}$ from its lower end is:
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\frac{W+W_1}{A}$, $\frac{4W+W_1}{3A}$...
4
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10386
$\text{If } \rho \text{ is the density of the material of a wire and } \sigma \text{ is the breaking stress, the greatest length of the wire that can hang freely without breaking is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2}{\rho g}$, $\frac{\rho}{\sigma g}$...
4
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10385
A force $F$ is needed to break a copper wire having radius $R$. The force needed to break a copper wire of radius $2R$ will be:
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\frac{F}{2}$, $2F$...
3
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10384
The breaking stress of a wire depends on:
1
108
Recommended Questions
length of the wire, applied force...
3
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10383
For an ideal liquid:
(a) The bulk modulus is infinite.
(b) The bulk modulus is zero.
(c) The shear modulus is infinite.
(d) The shear modulus is zero.
Choose the correct option from the options given below:
1
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Recommended Questions
(a) and (d) only, (b) and (d) only...
1
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10382
A copper and a steel wire of the same diameter are connected end to end. A deforming force $F$ is applied to this composite wire which causes a total elongation of $\text{1 cm}$. The two wires will have:
1
108
Recommended Questions
(a) the same stress (b) different stress, (a) (d)...
2
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10381
A wire of length $L$ and cross-sectional area $A$ is made of a material of Young's modulus $Y$. It is stretched by an amount $x$. The work done is:
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\frac{YxA}{2L}$, $\frac{Yx^2A}{L}$...
3
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10380
$\text{If } E \text{ is the energy stored per unit volume in a wire having } Y \text{ as Young's modulus of the material, then the stress applied is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{2EY}$, $2\sqrt{EY}$...
1
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10379
$\text{An elastic material of Young's modulus } Y \text{ is subjected to a stress } S. \text{ The elastic energy stored per unit volume of the material is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\frac{SY}{2}$, $\frac{S^2}{2Y}$...
2
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10378
The work done in stretching an elastic wire per unit volume is:
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{stress} \times \text{strain}$, $\frac{1}{2} \times \text{stress} \times \text{strain}$...
2
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10377
$\text{A uniform wire is held at one end and stretched by applying force at the other end. If the product of the length of wire and area of cross-section of the wire remains unchanged, then Poisson's ratio of material of the wire will be:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$0$, $0.50$...
2
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10376
The Poisson's ratio of a material is $0.4$. If a force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a decrease in the cross-section area by $2\%$. In such a case the percentage increase in its length will be:
1
108
Recommended Questions
$3\%$, $2.5\%$...
2
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10375
$\text{What is the density of water at a depth where pressure is 80.0 atm, given that its density at the surface is } 1.03 \times 10^3 \text{ kg m}^{-3}\text{?}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$0.021 \times 10^3 \text{ kg m}^{-3}$, $4.022 \times 10^3 \text{ kg m}^{-3}$...
4
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10374
A square lead slab of side $50 \text{ cm}$ and thickness $10 \text{ cm}$ is subject to a shearing force (on its narrow face) of $9.0 \times 10^4 \text{ N}$. The lower edge is riveted to the floor as shown in the figure below. How much will the upper edge be displaced? (Shear modulus of lead $= 5.6 \times 10^9 \text{ Nm}^{-2}$)
1
108
Recommended Questions
$0.16 \text{ mm}$, $1.8 \text{ mm}$...
1
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10373
$\text{The bulk modulus of a spherical object is } B. \text{ If it is subjected to uniform pressure } P, \text{ the fractional decrease in radius will be:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\frac{P}{B}$, $\frac{B}{3P}$...
4
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10372
The edge of an aluminum cube is $10 \text{ cm}$ long. One face of the cube is firmly fixed to a vertical wall. A mass of $100 \text{ kg}$ is then attached to the opposite face of the cube. The shear modulus of aluminum is $25 \text{ GPa}$. What is the vertical deflection of this face?
1
108
Recommended Questions
$4.86 \times 10^{-6} \text{ m}$, $3.92 \times 10^{-7} \text{ m}$...
2
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10371
$\text{The volume contraction of a solid copper cube, 10 cm on an edge, when subjected to a hydraulic pressure of } 7.0 \times 10^6 \text{ Pa is:}$ $\text{(Bulk modulus of copper is } 140 \times 10^9 \text{ Pa.)}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$3.1 \times 10^{-2} \text{ m}^3$, $9.1 \times 10^{-3} \text{ cm}^3$...
3
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10370
Four identical hollow cylindrical columns of mild steel support a big structure of a mass of $50,000 \text{ kg}$. The inner and outer radii of each column are $30 \text{ cm}$ and $60 \text{ cm}$ respectively. Assuming the load distribution to be uniform, the compressional strain of each column is:
(Given, Young's modulus of steel, $Y = 2 \times 10^{11} \text{ Pa}$)
1
108
Recommended Questions
$3.03 \times 10^{-7}$, $2.8 \times 10^{-6}$...
3
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10369
\text{Two wires of diameter 0.25 cm, one made of steel and the other made of brass are loaded, as shown in the figure.}
\text{The unloaded length of the steel wire is 1.5 m and that of the brass wire is 1.0 m.}
\text{The elongation of the steel wire will be:}
\text{(Given that Young's modulus of the steel, } Y_S = 2 \times 10^{11} \text{ Pa}
\text{and Young's modulus of brass, } Y_B = 1 \times 10^{11} \text{ Pa)}
1
108
Recommended Questions
$1.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}$, $0.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}$...
1
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10368
In the CGS system, Young's modulus of a steel wire is $2 \times 10^{12} \text{ dyne/cm}^2$. To double the length of a wire of unit cross-section area, the force required is:
1
108
Recommended Questions
$4 \times 10^6 \text{ dynes}$, $2 \times 10^{12} \text{ dynes}$...
2
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10367
$\text{The Young's modulus of a wire is numerically equal to the stress at a point when:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{The strain produced in the wire is equal to unity.}$, $\text{The length of the wire gets doubled.}$...
4
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10366
The Young's modulus of steel is twice that of brass. Two wires of the same length and of the same area of cross-section, one of steel and another of brass are suspended from the same roof. If we want the lower ends of the wires to be at the same level, then the weight added to the steel and brass wires must be in the ratio of:
1
108
Recommended Questions
$1:2$, $2:1$...
2
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10365
$\text{Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has a cross-sectional area } A \text{ and the second wire has a cross-sectional area } 3A. \text{ If the length of the first wire is increased by } \Delta l \text{ on applying a force } F, \text{ how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount?}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$9F$, $6F$...
1
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10364
$\text{If the ratio of lengths, radii, and Young's modulus of steel and brass wires in the figure are } a, b \text{ and } c \text{ respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths will be:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2a^2c}{b}$, $\frac{3a}{2b^2c}$...
2
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10363
A steel ring of radius $r$ and cross-section area $A$ is fitted onto a wooden disc of radius $R(R > r)$. If Young's modulus is $E$, then the force with which the steel ring is expanded is:
1
108
Recommended Questions
$AE\frac{R}{r}$, $AE\left(\frac{R-r}{r}\right)$...
2
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10362
$\text{The strain-stress curves of three wires of different materials are shown in the figure. } P, Q \text{ and } R \text{ are the elastic limits of the wires. The figure shows that:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{Elasticity of wire } P \text{ is maximum.}$, $\text{Elasticity of wire } Q \text{ is maximum.}$...
4
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10361
Two wires $X$ and $Y$ of the same length are made of the same material. The figure represents the load $F$ versus extension $\Delta x$ graph for the two wires. Hence:
1
108
Recommended Questions
Modulus of elasticity of $Y$ is greater than that of $X$., Stiffness of $Y$ is more than that of $X$....
2
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10360
The figure shows the stress-strain curve for a given material. The approximate yield strength for this material is:
1
108
Recommended Questions
$3 \times 10^8 \text{ N/m}^2$, $2 \times 10^8 \text{ N/m}^2$...
1
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10359
$\text{Three wires } A, B, C \text{ made of the same material and radius have different lengths. The graphs in the figure show the elongation-load variation. The longest wire is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$A$, $B$...
3
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10358
$\text{The stress-strain curve for two materials } A \text{ and } B \text{ are as shown in the figure. Select the correct statement:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{Material } A \text{ is less brittle and less elastic as compared to } B.$, $\text{Material } A \text{ is more ductile and less elastic as compared to } B.$...
3
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10357
$\text{The elongation } (X) \text{ of a steel wire varies with the elongating force } (F) \text{ according to the graph: (within elastic limit)}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Hyperbolic curve (decreasing)}$, $\text{Graph 2: Exponential curve (increasing)}$...
4
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10356
$\text{The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two materials } A \text{ and } B \text{ are as shown in the figure. If } Y_A \text{ and } Y_B \text{ are the Young's moduli of the materials, then:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$Y_B = 2Y_A$, $Y_A = Y_B$...
4
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10355
The stress-strain graphs for materials $A$ and $B$ are shown in the figure. Young's modulus of material $A$ is:
(the graphs are drawn to the same scale)
1
108
Recommended Questions
equal to material $B$, less than material $B$...
3
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10354
The stress-strain curves are drawn for two different materials $X$ and $Y$. It is observed that the ultimate strength point and the fracture point are close to each other for material $X$ but are far apart for material $Y$. We can say that the materials $X$ and $Y$ are likely to be (respectively):
1
108
Recommended Questions
ductile and brittle, brittle and ductile...
2
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10353
The stress versus strain graph is shown for two wires. If $Y_1$ and $Y_2$ are Young modulus of wire $A$ and $B$ respectively, then the correct option is:
1
108
Recommended Questions
$Y_1 > Y_2$, $Y_2 > Y_1$...
1
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10352
Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Hooke's law is applicable up to the elastic limit.
Reason (R): Up to the elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to strain.
1
108
Recommended Questions
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)., Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)....
4
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10351
The length of elastic string, obeying Hooke's law is $l_1$ metres when the tension is $4 \text{ N}$, and $l_2$ metres when the tension is $5 \text{ N}$. The length in metres when the tension is $0 \text{ N}$ will be:
1
108
Recommended Questions
$5l_1 - 4l_2$, $5l_2 - 4l_1$...
1
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10350
$\text{The length of an elastic string is } a \text{ metre when the longitudinal tension is 4 N and } b \text{ metre when the longitudinal tension is 5 N. The length of the string in metre when the longitudinal tension is 9 N will be:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$a - b$, $5b - 4a$...
2
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10349
$\text{A 1000 kg lift is tied with metallic wires of maximum safe stress of } 1.4 \times 10^8 \text{ N m}^{-2}\text{. If the maximum acceleration of the lift is } 1.2 \text{ m s}^{-2}\text{, then the minimum diameter of the wire is:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$1 \text{ m}$, $0.1 \text{ m}$...
3
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10348
$\text{Anvils made of single crystals of diamond, with the shape as shown in the figure, are used to investigate the behaviour of materials under very high pressures. Flat faces at the narrow end of the anvil have a diameter of 0.50 mm, and the wide end are subjected to a compressional force of 50,000 N. What is the pressure at the tip of the anvil?}$
1
108
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$2.5 \times 10^{11} \text{ Pa}$, $3.7 \times 10^{11} \text{ Pa}$...
1
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10347
$\text{A rod of length 1.05 m having negligible mass is supported at its ends by two wires of steel (wire } A\text{) and aluminium (wire } B\text{) of equal lengths as shown in the figure. The cross-sectional areas of wires } A \text{ and } B \text{ are } 1.0 \text{ mm}^2 \text{ and } 2.0 \text{ mm}^2 \text{ respectively. At what point along the rod should a mass m be suspended in order to produce equal stresses in both steel and aluminium wires?}$
1
108
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$0.7 \text{ m from wire } A$, $0.07 \text{ m from wire } A$...
1
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10346
$\text{To break a wire, a force of } 10^6 \text{ N/m}^2 \text{ is required. If the density of the material is } 3 \times 10^3 \text{ kg/m}^3\text{, then the length of the wire which will break by its own weight will be:}$
1
108
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$34 \text{ m}$, $30 \text{ m}$...
1
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10345
$\text{A uniform wire of length 3 m and mass 10 kg is suspended vertically from one end and loaded at another end by a block of mass 10 kg. The radius of the cross-section of the wire is 0.1 m. The stress in the middle of the wire is: (Take } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2}\text{)}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$1.4 \times 10^4 \text{ N/m}^2$, $4.8 \times 10^3 \text{ N/m}^2$...
2
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10344
$\text{A wire can sustain a weight of 10 kg before breaking. If the wire is cut into two equal parts, then each part can sustain a weight of:}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$2.5 \text{ kg}$, $5 \text{ kg}$...
3
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10343
$\text{The breaking stress of a wire going over a smooth pulley in the following question is } 2 \times 10^9 \text{ N/m}^2\text{. What would be the minimum radius of the wire used if it is not to break?}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$0.46 \times 10^{-6} \text{ m}$, $0.46 \times 10^{-4} \text{ m}$...
2
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10342
$\text{A light rod of length 2 m is suspended from the ceiling horizontally by means of two vertical wires of equal length. A weight } W \text{ is hung from the light rod as shown in the figure. The rod is hung by means of a steel wire of cross-sectional area } A_1 = 0.1 \text{ cm}^2 \text{ and brass wire of cross-sectional area } A_2 = 0.2 \text{ cm}^2\text{. To have equal stress in both wires, } \frac{T_1}{T_2} \text{?}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{3}$, $\frac{1}{4}$...
4
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10341
$\text{A steel cable with a radius of 1.5 cm supports a chairlift at a ski area. If the maximum stress is not to exceed } 10^8 \text{ N/m}^2\text{, what is the maximum load that the cable can support?}$
1
108
Recommended Questions
$7.06 \times 10^4 \text{ N}$, $5.03 \times 10^4 \text{ N}$...
1
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10340
$\text{An insect, initially on the circumference of a disc, starts moving along a chord of the disc, rotating about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane of the disc. Its angular speed:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\text{increases.}$, $\text{decreases.}$...
3
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10339
$\text{Which of the following will not be affected if the radius of the sphere is increased while keeping mass constant?}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\text{Moment of inertia}$, $\text{Angular momentum}$...
2
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10338
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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10337
$\text{If the radius of the earth is suddenly contracted to half of its present value, then the duration of the day will be of:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\text{6 hours}$, $\text{12 hours}$...
1
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10336
$\text{The law of conservation of angular momentum is valid when:}$
1
107
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$\text{The net force is zero and the net torque is non-zero}$, $\text{The net force is non-zero and the net torque is non-zero}$...
3
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10335
$\text{When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\text{a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation}$, $\text{the line making an angle of } 45^\circ \text{ to the plane of rotation}$...
1
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10334
$\text{The body of mass 1.5 kg rotating about an axis with angular velocity of 0.3 rad s}^{-1} \text{ has the angular momentum of 1.8 kg m}^2\text{s}^{-1}\text{. The radius of gyration of the body about the axis is:}$
1
107
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$\text{2 m}$, $\text{1.2 m}$...
1
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10333
$\text{A thin uniform circular disc of mass } M \text{ and radius } R \text{ is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane with an angular velocity } \omega\text{. Another disc of the same dimensions but of mass } \frac{1}{4}M \text{ is placed gently on the first disc co-axially. The angular velocity of the system will be:}$
1
107
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$\frac{2}{3}\omega$, $\frac{4}{5}\omega$...
2
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10332
$\text{A horizontal heavy uniform bar of weight } W \text{ is supported at its ends by two men. At the instant, one of the men lets go off his end of the rod, the other feels the force on his hand changed to:}$
1
107
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$W$, $\frac{W}{2}$...
4
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10331
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): If there is no external torque on a body about its centre of mass, then the velocity of the centre of mass remains constant.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The linear momentum of an isolated system remains constant.}$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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10330
$\text{A body of mass M is moving on a circular track of radius r in such a way that its kinetic energy K depends on the distance travelled by the body s according to relation } K = \beta s, \text{ where } \beta \text{ is a constant. The angular acceleration of the body is:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\beta r}{M^2}$, $\sqrt{\frac{\beta r}{M}}$...
4
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10329
$\text{A circular disc is to be made by using iron and aluminium so that it acquires a maximum moment of inertia about its geometrical axis. It is possible with:}$
1
107
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$\text{Aluminium in the interior and iron surrounding it}$, $\text{Iron at the interior and aluminium surrounding it}$...
1
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10328
$\text{The moment of inertia of a thin uniform circular disc about one of its diameter is I. Its moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to the circular surface and passing through its center will be:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{2I}$, $2I$...
2
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10327
$\text{Two uniform, thin, identical rods, each of mass } M \text{ and length } l \text{ are joined together to form a cross. What will be the moment of inertia of the cross about an axis passing through the point at which the two rods are joined and are perpendicular to the plane of the cross?}$
1
107
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$\frac{Ml^2}{12}$, $\frac{Ml^2}{6}$...
2
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10326
$\text{The moment of inertia of a horizontal ring about its vertical axis through the centre is } mR^2. \text{ The moment of inertia about its tangent parallel to the plane is:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3mR^2}{2}$, $\frac{mR^2}{4}$...
1
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10325
$\text{If a particle moves in a circle with a constant angular speed } (\omega) \text{ about the point } O\text{, then its angular speed about the point } A \text{ will be:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2\omega}{\omega}$, $\frac{\omega}{2}$...
2
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10324
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The axis of rotation of a rigid body cannot lie outside the body.}$ $\text{Reason (R): It must pass through a material particle of the body.}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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10323
$\text{A solid body rotates about a stationary axis according to the equation } \theta = 6t - 2t^3. \text{ What is the average angular velocity over the time interval between } t = 0 \text{ and the time when the body comes to rest? } (\theta: \text{ angular displacements, } t: \text{ time})$
1
107
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$1 \text{ rad/s}$, $2 \text{ rad/s}$...
4
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10322
$\text{Particles } A \text{ and } B \text{ are separated by 10 m, as shown in the figure. If } A \text{ is at rest and } B \text{ started moving with a speed of 20 m/s then the angular velocity of } B \text{ with respect to } A \text{ at that instant is:}$
1
107
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$1 \text{ rad/s}$, $1.5 \text{ rad/s}$...
1
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10321
$\text{If a body is moving in a circular path with decreasing speed, then (symbols have their usual meanings):}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\vec{r} \cdot \vec{\omega} = 0$, $\vec{r} \cdot \vec{v} = 0$...
4
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10320
$\text{For a rigid body rotating about a fixed axis, which of the following quantities is the same at an instant for all the particles of the body?}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\text{Angular acceleration}$, $\text{Angular velocity}$...
4
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10319
$\text{A wheel has an angular acceleration of } 3.0 \text{ rad/s}^2 \text{ and an initial angular speed of } 2.00 \text{ rad/s. In a time of } 2 \text{ s, it has rotated through an angle (in radians) of:}$
1
107
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$6$, $10$...
2
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10318
$\text{Two particles of mass, } 2 \text{ kg and } 4 \text{ kg, are projected from the top of a tower simultaneously, such that } 2 \text{ kg of mass is projected with a speed } 20 \text{ m/s at an angle } 30^\circ \text{ above horizontal and } 4 \text{ kg is projected at } 40 \text{ m/s horizontally. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the system of two particles will be:}$
1
107
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$\frac{g}{2}$, $\frac{g}{4}$...
3
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10317
$\text{A uniform rod of length } 1 \text{ m and mass } 2 \text{ kg is suspended by two vertical inextensible strings as shown in the following figure. The tension } T \text{ (in newtons) in the left string at the instant when the right string snaps is:}$ $(g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$2.5 \text{ N}$, $5 \text{ N}$...
2
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10316
$\text{A solid cylinder of mass } 50 \text{ kg and radius } 0.5 \text{ m is free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless string is wound around the cylinder with one end attached to it and the other end hanging freely. The tension in the string required to produce an angular acceleration of } 2 \text{ rev/s}^2 \text{ will be:}$
1
107
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$25 \text{ N}$, $50 \text{ N}$...
4
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10315
$\text{A uniform rod of length } l \text{ is hinged at one end and is free to rotate in the vertical plane. The rod is released from its position, making an angle } \theta \text{ with the vertical. The acceleration of the free end of the rod at the instant it is released is:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3g\sin\theta}{l}$, $\frac{3g\cos\theta}{2}$...
3
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10314
$\text{Two rotating bodies } A \text{ and } B \text{ of masses } m \text{ and } 2m \text{ with moments of inertia } I_A \text{ and } I_B \text{ (} I_B > I_A \text{) have equal kinetic energy of rotation. If } L_A \text{ and } L_B \text{ be their angular momenta respectively, then:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$L_A = \frac{L_B}{2}$, $L_A = 2L_B$...
3
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10313
$\text{A rigid body rotates with an angular momentum of } L. \text{ If its kinetic energy is halved, the angular momentum becomes:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$L$, $\frac{L}{2}$...
4
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10312
\text{Given below are two statements:}
\text{Assertion (A): For a body under translatory as well as rotational equilibrium, net torque about any axis is zero.}
\text{Reason (R): Together } \sum \vec{F}_i = 0 \text{ and } \sum \left(\vec{r}_i \times \vec{F}_i\right) = 0 \text{ implies that } \sum \left(\vec{r}_i - \vec{r}_0\right) \times \vec{F}_i = 0
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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10311
$\text{A string is wrapped along the rim of a wheel of the moment of inertia 0.10 kg-m}^2 \text{ and radius 10 cm. If the string is now pulled by a force of 10 N, then the wheel starts to rotate about its axis from rest. The angular velocity of the wheel after 2 s will be:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$40 \text{ rad/s}$, $80 \text{ rad/s}$...
4
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10310
$\text{A wheel is rotating about an axis through its centre at 720 rpm. It is acted upon by a constant torque opposing its motion for 8 seconds to bring it to rest finally. The value of torque in (N-m) is:}$ $\text{(given } I = \frac{24}{\pi} \text{ kg.m}^2\text{)}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$48$, $72$...
2
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10309
$\text{A bob of mass m attached to an inextensible string of length l is suspended from vertical support. The bob rotates in a horizontal circle with an angular speed } \omega \text{ rad/s about the vertical. About the point of suspension.}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\text{Angular momentum is conserved}$, $\text{Angular momentum changes in magnitude but not in the direction}$...
3
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10308
$\text{A child is standing on the edge of a merry-go-round that has the shape of a disk, as shown in the figure. The mass of the child is 40 kilograms. The merry-go-round has a mass of 200 kilograms and a radius of 2.5 meters, and it is rotating with an angular velocity of } \omega = 2.0 \text{ radians per second. The child then walks slowly towards the center of the merry-go-round. When the child reaches the center, what is the angular velocity of the disc? (The size of the child can be neglected.)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2.0 \text{ rad/s}$, $2.2 \text{ rad/s}$...
4
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10307
$\text{A billiard ball of mass m and radius r, when hit in a horizontal direction by a cue at a height h above its centre, acquires a linear velocity } v_0. \text{ The angular velocity } \omega_0 \text{ acquired by the ball will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{5v_0r^2}{2h}$, $\frac{2v_0r^2}{5h}$...
4
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10306
$\text{A particle of mass m moves with a constant velocity along 3 different paths, DE, OA and BC. Which of the following statements is not correct about its angular momentum about point O?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{It is zero when it is at A and moving along OA.}$, $\text{The same at all points along the line DE.}$...
4
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10305
$\text{A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless vertical axle. Its radius is R = 2m and its moment of inertia about the axle is 200 kg m}^2\text{. Initially, it is at rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge of the platform and begins to walk along the edge at a speed of 1 m s}^{-1}\text{ relative to the ground. The time taken by the man to complete one revolution is:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\pi \text{ sec}$, $\frac{3\pi}{2} \text{ sec}$...
3
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10304
$\text{A uniform rod on a smooth horizontal table is moving with uniform horizontal speed } v. \text{ Suddenly rod is hinged at the center of the rod. The angular velocity of the rod, now, will be:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2v}{3l}$, $\frac{3v}{2l}$...
4
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10303
$\text{A uniform rod of mass } m \text{ and length } l \text{ is in uniform translational motion. If one of its ends is suddenly hinged then (hinge is smooth):}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{It will continue its translational motion.}$, $\text{It will now be in pure rotational motion about the hinged end.}$...
2
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10302
$\text{The position of a particle is given by } \vec{r} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} - \hat{k} \text{ and momentum } \vec{P} = (3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} - 2\hat{k}). \text{ The angular momentum is perpendicular to:}$
1
107
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$\text{X-axis}$, $\text{Y-axis}$...
1
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10301
$\text{A particle is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to the positive x-axis. The magnitude of its angular momentum with respect to the origin is:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $\text{increasing with } x$...
4
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10300
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ moves in the } XY \text{ plane with a velocity of } v \text{ along the straight line } AB. \text{ If the angular momentum of the particle about the origin } O \text{ is } L_A \text{ when it is at } A \text{ and } L_B \text{ when it is at } B, \text{ then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$L_A > L_B$, $L_A = L_B$...
2
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10299
$\text{A force } \vec{F} = \alpha\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 6\hat{k} \text{ is acting at a point } \vec{r} = 2\hat{i} - 6\hat{j} - 12\hat{k}\text{. The value of } \alpha \text{ for which angular momentum is conserved about the origin is:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$-1$, $2$...
1
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10298
$\text{A solid sphere of mass } m \text{ is in pure rolling motion with the centre of mass moving with velocity } v_0. \text{ It's angular momentum about the point } P \text{ shown in the diagram is:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2}{5}mv_0R$, $\frac{1}{5}mv_0R$...
3
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10297
$\text{The figure below shows two identical particles 1 and 2, each of mass } m\text{, moving in opposite directions with the same speed } v \text{ along parallel lines. At a particular instant, } r_1 \text{ and } r_2 \text{ are their respective position vectors drawn from point } A\text{, which is in the plane of the parallel lines.}$ $\text{Consider the following statements.}$
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$\text{(a), (c) only}$, $\text{(a), (d) only}$...
2
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10296
$\text{A rod is falling down with constant velocity } V_0 \text{ as shown. It makes contact with hinge A and rotates around it. The angular velocity of the rod just after the moment when it comes in contact with hinge A is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2V_0}{3L}$, $\frac{3V_0}{2L}$...
2
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10295
$\text{A ring of mass of 10 kg and diameter of 0.4 m is rotated about its axis. If it makes 2100 revolutions per minute, then its angular momentum will be:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$44 \text{ kg m}^2 \text{ s}^{-1}$, $88 \text{ kg m}^2 \text{ s}^{-1}$...
2
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10294
$\text{Two discs are rotating about their axes, normal to the discs and passing through the centres of the discs. Disc } D_1 \text{ has a 2 kg mass, 0.2 m radius, and an initial angular velocity of 50 rad s}^{-1}\text{. Disc } D_2 \text{ has 4 kg mass, 0.1 m radius, and initial angular velocity of 200 rad s}^{-1}\text{. The two discs are brought in contact face to face, with their axes of rotation coincident. The final angular velocity (in rad.s}^{-1}\text{) of the system will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$60$, $100$...
2
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10293
$\text{A boy is standing on a disc rotating about the vertical axis passing through its centre. He pulls his arms towards himself, reducing his moment of inertia by a factor of m. The new angular speed of the disc becomes double its initial value. If the moment of inertia of the boy is } I_0\text{, then the moment of inertia of the disc will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2I_0m$, $I_0\left(1 - \frac{2}{m}\right)$...
2
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10292
$\text{A solid sphere of mass } M \text{ and the radius } R \text{ is in pure rolling with angular speed } \omega \text{ on a horizontal plane as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the angular momentum of the sphere about the origin } O \text{ is:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\frac{7}{5}MR^2\omega$, $\frac{3}{2}MR^2\omega$...
1
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10291
$\text{A thin circular ring of mass } M \text{ and radius } R \text{ is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis vertical to its plane with a constant angular velocity } \omega\text{. If two objects each of mass } m \text{ are attached gently to the opposite ends of the diameter of the ring, the ring will then rotate with an angular velocity:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{\omega(M-2m)}{M+2m}$, $\frac{\omega M}{M+2m}$...
2
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10290
$\text{A uniform cubical block of side L rests on a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of friction } \mu. \text{ A horizontal force F is applied on the block as shown. If there is sufficient friction between the block and the ground, then the torque due to normal reaction about its centre of mass is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Zero}$, $FL$...
2
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10289
$\text{A force } -F\hat{k} \text{ acts on O, the origin of the coordinate system. The torque at the point (1, -1) will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$-F(\hat{i} + \hat{j})$, $F(\hat{i} + \hat{j})$...
1
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10288
$\text{On a rough horizontal surface (coefficient of friction } \mu\text{), a cubical block of side 'a' and mass m is projected horizontally. The net torque on the block about its centre of mass till the block stops is equal to:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $\frac{1}{2}\mu mga$...
1
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10287
The figure shows a lamina in XY-plane. Two axes z and z' pass perpendicular to its plane. A force $\vec{F}$ acts in the plane of the lamina at point P as shown. (The point P is closer to the z'-axis than the z-axis.)
(a) torque $\vec{\tau}$ caused by $\vec{F}$ about z-axis is along $-\hat{k}$
(b) torque $\vec{\tau}'$ caused by $\vec{F}$ about z'-axis is along $-\hat{k}$
(c) torque caused by $\vec{F}$ about the z-axis is greater in magnitude than that about the z'-axis
(d) total torque is given by $\vec{\tau}_{\text{net}} = \vec{\tau} + \vec{\tau}'$
1
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Recommended Questions
$(c, d)$, $(a, c)$...
3
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10286
$\text{A meter stick is balanced on a knife edge at its center. When two coins, each of the mass 5 gm are put one on top of the other at the 12.0 cm mark, the stick is found to be balanced at 45.0 cm. What is the mass of the meter stick?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$66 \text{ gm}$, $56 \text{ gm}$...
1
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10285
$\text{For L = 3.0 m, the total torque about pivot A provided by the forces as shown in the figure is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$210 \text{ Nm}$, $140 \text{ Nm}$...
4
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10284
$\text{Shown in the figure is a rigid and uniform one-metre long rod, } AB\text{, held in the horizontal position by two strings tied to its ends and attached to the ceiling. The rod is of mass } m \text{ and has another weight of mass } 2m \text{ hung at a distance of 75 cm from } A\text{. The tension in the string at } A \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2mg$, $0.5mg$...
4
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10283
$\text{A rod of weight } w \text{ is supported by two parallel knife edges, } A \text{ and } B\text{, and is in equilibrium in a horizontal position. The knives are at a distance } d \text{ from each other. The centre of mass of the rod is at a distance } x \text{ from } A\text{. The normal reaction on } A \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{wx}{d}$, $\frac{wd}{x}$...
4
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10282
$\text{A force } \vec{F} = (2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 4\hat{k}) \text{ N is acting at point } (2 \text{ m}, -3 \text{ m}, 6 \text{ m}). \text{ Find the torque of this force about a point whose position vector is } (2\hat{i} + 5\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}) \text{ m.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\vec{\tau} = (-17\hat{i} + 6\hat{j} + 4\hat{k}) \text{ N-m}$, $\vec{\tau} = (-17\hat{i} + 6\hat{j} - 4\hat{k}) \text{ N-m}$...
4
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10281
$\text{A uniform beam, 3.0 m long, of weight 100 N has a 300 N weight placed 0.5 m from one end. The beam is suspended by a string 1.0 m from the same end. A diagram of the weights placed on the beam is given below:}$ $\text{How far from the other end must a weight of 80 N be placed for the beam to be balanced?}$
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$0.75 \text{ m}$, $2.25 \text{ m}$...
1
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10280
$\text{A force } \vec{F} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \text{ N acts at a point } 4\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - \hat{k} \text{ m. Let the magnitude of the torque about the point } \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + \hat{k} \text{ m be } \sqrt{x} \text{ N-m. The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
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$145$, $195$...
2
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10279
\text{Which of the following is the value of the torque of force } \vec{F} \text{ about origin } O \text{:}
\vec{F} = (5\sqrt{3}\hat{i} + 5\hat{j}) \text{ N}
\text{Point coordinates: } (1, 1)
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$\vec{\tau} = 5(1 - \sqrt{3})\hat{k} \text{ N-m}$, $\vec{\tau} = 5(1 - \sqrt{3})\hat{j} \text{ N-m}$...
1
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10278
$\text{A uniform cube of mass } m \text{ and side } a \text{ is placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. A vertical force } F \text{ is applied to the edge as shown in the figure. Match the following (most appropriate choice).}$ $\text{List- I}$ $\text{(a) } mg/4 < F < mg/2$ $\text{(b) } F > mg/2$ $\text{(c) } F > mg$ $\text{(d) } F = mg/4$ $\text{List- II}$ $\text{(i) cube will move up.}$ $\text{(ii) cube will not exhibit motion.}$ $\text{(iii) cube will begin to rotate and slip at A.}$ $\text{(iv) normal reaction effectively at } a/3 \text{ from A, no motion.}$
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$\text{a - (i), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (iii)}$, $\text{a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv)}$...
2
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10277
$\text{A wheel with a radius of 20 cm has forces applied to it as shown in the figure. The torque produced by the forces of 4 N at } A\text{, 8 N at } B\text{, 6 N at } C\text{, and 9 N at } D\text{, at the angles indicated, is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$5.4 \text{ N-m anticlockwise}$, $1.80 \text{ N-m clockwise}$...
2
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10276
$\text{In the figure given below, } O \text{ is the centre of an equilateral triangle } ABC \text{ and } \vec{F}_1, \vec{F}_2, \vec{F}_3 \text{ are three forces acting along the sides } AB, BC \text{ and } AC. \text{ What should be the magnitude of } \vec{F}_3 \text{ so that total torque about } O \text{ is zero?}$
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$|\vec{F}_3| = |\vec{F}_1| + |\vec{F}_2|$, $|\vec{F}_3| = |\vec{F}_1| - |\vec{F}_2|$...
1
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10275
$\text{A rope of negligible mass is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N? (Assume that there is no slipping.)}$
1
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$21 \text{ rad/s}^2$, $24 \text{ rad/s}^2$...
4
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10274
$\text{The value of } M\text{, as shown, for which the rod will be in equilibrium is:}$
1
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$1 \text{ kg}$, $2 \text{ kg}$...
3
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10273
$\text{To maintain a rotor at a uniform angular speed of 200 rad s}^{-1}\text{, an engine needs to transmit a torque of 180 N-m. What is the power required by the engine?}$
1
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$33 \text{ kW}$, $36 \text{ kW}$...
2
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10272
$\text{A ball is spinning on a horizontal surface, about the vertical axis passing through its centre. Its angular velocity decreases from } 2\pi \text{ rad/s to } \pi \text{ rad/s in 10 s. If the moment of inertia of the ball is } 0.5 \text{ kg/m}^2\text{, the torque acting on the ball is:}$
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$-\frac{\pi}{100} \text{ N-m}$, $-\frac{\pi}{50} \text{ N-m}$...
3
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10271
$\text{An } ABC \text{ is a right-angled triangular plate of uniform thickness. The sides are such that } AB > BC\text{. As shown in the figure } I_1\text{, } I_2 \text{ and } I_3 \text{ are moments of inertia about } AB\text{, } BC \text{ and } AC \text{ respectively. Which of the following relation is correct?}$
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$I_1 = I_2 = I_3$, $I_2 > I_1 > I_3$...
2
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10270
$\text{Consider two uniform discs of the same thickness and different radii } R_1 = R \text{ and } R_2 = \alpha R \text{ made of the same material. If the ratio of their moments of inertia, } I_1 \text{ and } I_2\text{, respectively, about their axes is } I_1 : I_2 = 1 : 16\text{, then the value of } \alpha \text{ is:}$
1
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$\sqrt{2}$, $4$...
3
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10269
$\text{Four-point masses each of value } m \text{ are placed at the corners of a square } ABCD \text{ of side } l\text{. The moment of inertia of this system about an axis passing through } A \text{ and parallel to } BD \text{ will be:}$
1
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$2ml^2$, $4ml^2$...
3
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10268
$\text{A uniform rod of mass } 2M \text{ is bent into four adjacent semicircles, each of radius } r\text{, all lying in the same plane. The moment of inertia of the bent rod about an axis through one end A and perpendicular to the plane of the rod is:}$
1
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$22Mr^2$, $88Mr^2$...
3
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10267
$\text{A square lamina is as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the frame about the three axes is } I_1\text{, } I_2 \text{ and } I_3 \text{ respectively. Select the correct alternative.}$
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$I_2 = I_3 > I_1$, $I_1 > I_2 > I_3$...
3
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10266
$\text{From a circular ring of mass } M \text{ and radius } R\text{, an arc corresponding to a } 90^\circ \text{ sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the centre of the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is } K \text{ times } MR^2\text{. The value of } K \text{ will be:}$
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$\frac{1}{4}$, $\frac{1}{8}$...
3
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10265
$\text{Let } I_A \text{ and } I_B \text{ be moments of inertia of a body about two axes, A and B, respectively. The axis A passes through the centre of mass of the body, but B does not. Which of the following is correct?}$
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$I_A < I_B$, $\text{If } I_A < I_B\text{, the axes are parallel.}$...
3
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10264
$\text{Four identical solid spheres each of mass 'm' and radius 'a' are placed with their centres on the four corners of a square of side 'b'. The moment of inertia of the system about one side of the square where the axis of rotation is parallel to the plane of the square is:}$
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$\frac{4}{5}ma^2 + 2mb^2$, $\frac{8}{5}ma^2 + mb^2$...
3
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10263
$\text{A thin wire of length } L \text{ and uniform linear mass density } \rho \text{ is bent into a circular loop with the centre at } O \text{ as shown. The moment of inertia of the loop about the axis } XX' \text{ is:}$
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$\frac{\rho L^3}{8\pi^2}$, $\frac{\rho L^3}{16\pi^2}$...
4
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10262
$\text{Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and radius r, are placed as shown in the figure. Consider an axis XX', which is touching two shells and passes through the diameter of the third shell. The moment of inertia of the system consisting of these three spherical shells about the XX' axis is:}$
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$\frac{11}{5}mr^2$, $3mr^2$...
4
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10261
$\text{Four thin rods, each of mass } m \text{ and the length } L\text{, form a square. The moment of inertia on any side of the square is:}$
1
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$\frac{5}{3}mL^2$, $4mL^2$...
1
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10260
$\text{The one-quarter sector is cut from a uniform circular disc of radius } R. \text{ This sector has a mass } M. \text{ It is made to rotate about a line perpendicular to its plane and passing through the centre of the original disc. Its moment of inertia about the axis of rotation will be:}$
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$\frac{1}{2}MR^2$, $\frac{1}{4}MR^2$...
1
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10259
$\text{Four masses are joined to light circular frames as shown in the figure. The radius of gyration of this system about an axis passing through the center of the circular frame and perpendicular to its plane would be:}$ $\text{(where 'a' is the radius of the circle)}$
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$\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}}$, $\frac{a}{2}$...
3
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10258
$\text{The radius of gyration of a uniform solid sphere about a tangent is:}$
1
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$R\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}$, $R\sqrt{\frac{2}{5}}$...
4
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10257
$\text{Three-point masses each of mass } m, \text{ are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side } a. \text{ The moment of inertia of the system through a mass } m \text{ at } O \text{ and lying in the plane of } COD \text{ and perpendicular to } OA \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2ma^2$, $\frac{2}{3}ma^2$...
3
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10256
$\text{In the three figures, each wire has a mass M, radius R and a uniform mass distribution. If they form part of a circle of radius R, then about an axis perpendicular to the plane and passing through the centre (shown by crosses), their moment of inertia is in the order:}$
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Recommended Questions
$I_A > I_B > I_C$, $I_A = I_B = I_C$...
2
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10255
$\text{A light rod of length } l \text{ has two masses, } m_1 \text{ and } m_2, \text{ attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through the centre of mass is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{m_1m_2}{m_1+m_2}l^2$, $\frac{m_1+m_2}{m_1m_2}l^2$...
1
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10254
$\text{The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc and of a circular ring of the same radius about a tangential axis in the plane of the ring will be:}$
1
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$2 : 1$, $\sqrt{5} : \sqrt{6}$...
2
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10253
$\text{The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is maximum about an axis perpendicular to the disc and passing through:}$
1
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$\text{B}$, $\text{C}$...
1
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10252
$\text{The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius } R \text{ and mass } M \text{ about an axis touching the disc at its diameter and normal to the disc will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{3}{5}MR^2$, $\frac{1}{2}MR^2$...
1
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10251
$\text{Five particles of mass 2 kg each are attached to the circumference of a circular disc of a radius of 0.1 m and negligible mass. The moment of inertia of the system about the axis passing through the centre of the disc and perpendicular to its plane will be:}$
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$1 \text{ kg-m}^2$, $0.1 \text{ kg-m}^2$...
2
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10250
$\text{A particle rotating on a circular path of the radius } \frac{4}{\pi} \text{ m at 300 rpm reaches 600 rpm in 6 revolutions. If the angular velocity increases at a constant rate, find the tangential acceleration of the particle:}$
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$10 \text{ m/s}^2$, $12.5 \text{ m/s}^2$...
4
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10249
$\text{A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration about its axis. Initially, its angular velocity is zero. In the first 2 s, it rotates through an angle } \theta_1. \text{ In the next 2 s, it rotates through an additional angle } \theta_2. \text{ The ratio of } \frac{\theta_2}{\theta_1} \text{ is:}$
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$1$, $2$...
3
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10248
$\text{Two gear wheels that are meshed together have radii of 0.50 cm and 0.15 cm. The number of revolutions made by the smaller one when the larger one goes through 3 revolutions is:}$
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$5 \text{ revolutions}$, $20 \text{ revolutions}$...
4
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10247
$\text{What is the value of linear velocity, if the angular velocity vector is } \vec{\omega} = 3\hat{i} - 4\hat{j} + \hat{k} \text{ and the position vector is } \vec{r} = 5\hat{i} - 6\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}?$
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Recommended Questions
$-18\hat{i} - 13\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}$, $18\hat{i} + 13\hat{j} - 2\hat{k}$...
1
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10246
$\text{A rigid body rotates about a fixed axis with a variable angular velocity equal to } \alpha - \beta t, \text{ at the time } t, \text{ where } \alpha, \beta \text{ are constants. The angle through which it rotates before it stops is:}$
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$\frac{\alpha^2}{2\beta}$, $\frac{\alpha^2-\beta^2}{2\alpha}$...
1
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10245
$\text{The angular speed of the wheel of a vehicle is increased from 360 rpm to 1200 rpm in 14 seconds. Its angular acceleration will be:}$
1
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$2\pi \text{ rad/s}^2$, $28\pi \text{ rad/s}^2$...
1
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10244
$\text{For a body, with angular velocity } \vec{\omega} = \hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \text{ and radius vector } \vec{r} = \hat{i} + \hat{j} + \hat{k}, \text{ its velocity will be:}$
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Recommended Questions
$-5\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}$, $-5\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}$...
1
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10243
$\text{An electric fan rotating at 1200 rpm is switched off. If the fan stops after 10 seconds, the number of revolutions completed by the fan before it stops will be: (assume uniform retardation)}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$100$, $50$...
1
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10242
$\text{A ladder is leaned against a smooth wall and it is allowed to slip on a frictionless floor. Which figure represents the path followed by its center of mass?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Ladder moves in a straight line downward and to the right}$, $\text{Ladder moves in a curved path downward and to the right}$...
1
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10241
$\text{Given the following statements:}$ $\text{(a) The centre of gravity (C.G.) of a body is the point at which the weight of the body acts.}$ $\text{(b) If the earth is assumed to have an infinitely large radius, the centre of mass coincides with the centre of gravity.}$ $\text{(c) To evaluate the gravitational field intensity due to any body at an external point, the entire mass of the body can be considered to be concentrated at its C.G.}$ $\text{(d) The radius of gyration of any body rotating about an axis is the length of the perpendicular dropped from the C.G. of the body to the axis.}$ $\text{Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct?}$
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$\text{(a) and (b)}$, $\text{(b) and (c)}$...
1
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10240
$\text{Two loads } P_1 \text{ and } P_2 \text{ (}P_1 > P_2\text{) are connected by a string passing over a fixed pulley. The center of gravity of loads are initially at the same height. Find the acceleration of the center of gravity of the system:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\left(\frac{P_1 - P_2}{P_1 + P_2}\right)^2 g$, $\left(\frac{P_1 - P_2}{P_1 + P_2}\right) g$...
3
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10239
$\text{If a rod of length 3 m with its mass acting per unit length, is directly proportional to distance } x \text{ from one of its ends, then its centre of gravity from that end will be at:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1.5 \text{ m}$, $2 \text{ m}$...
2
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10238
$\text{Four particles of mass } m_1 = 2m, m_2 = 4m, m_3 = m, \text{ and } m_4 \text{ are placed at the four corners of a square. What should be the value of } m_4 \text{ so that the centre of mass of all the four particles is exactly at the centre of the square?}$
1
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$2m$, $8m$...
4
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10237
$\text{A man 'A', mass 60 kg, and another man 'B', mass 70 kg, are sitting at the two extremes of a 2 m long boat, of mass 70 kg, standing still in the water as shown. They come to the middle of the boat. (Neglect friction) How far does the boat move on the water during the process?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{5 cm leftward}$, $\text{5 cm rightward}$...
2
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10236
$\text{A boat of length 10 m and a mass of 450 kg is floating without motion in still water. A man of 50 kg standing at one end walks to the other end and comes to a stop. The magnitude of the displacement of the boat relative to the ground is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $\text{1 m}$...
2
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10235
$\text{A man hangs from a rope attached to a hot-air balloon. The man's mass is greater than the mass of the balloon and its contents. The system is stationary in the air. If the man now climbs up the balloon using the rope, the centre of mass of the 'man plus balloon' system will:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{remain stationary}$, $\text{move up}$...
1
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10234
$\text{If the linear density of a rod of length 3 m varies as } \lambda = 2 + x\text{, then the position of the center of mass of the rod is at a distance of:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{7}{3} \text{ m}$, $\frac{10}{7} \text{ m}$...
3
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10233
$\text{The center of mass of a system of particles does not depend upon:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\text{position of particles}$, $\text{relative distance between particles}$...
4
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10232
$\text{Two particles of masses 2 kg and 3 kg start to move towards each other due to mutual forces of attraction. The speed of the first particle is } v_1 \text{ and that of the second is } v_2 \text{ at a certain instant. The speed of the centre of mass is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{v_1 + v_2}{2}$, $\frac{2v_1 + 3v_2}{5}$...
4
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10231
$\text{The coordinates of the centre of mass of a uniform plate of shape as shown in the figure are:}$
1
107
Recommended Questions
$\frac{L}{2}, \frac{L}{2}$, $\frac{5L}{12}, \frac{5L}{12}$...
2
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10230
$\text{The mass per unit length of a non-uniform rod of length } L \text{ is given by } \mu = \lambda x^2 \text{ where } \lambda \text{ is a constant and } x \text{ is the distance from one end of the rod. The distance between the centre of mass of the rod and this end is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{L}{2}$, $\frac{L}{4}$...
3
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10229
$\text{Three identical spheres, each of mass } M, \text{ are placed at the corners of a right-angle triangle with mutually perpendicular sides equal to 2 m (see figure). Taking the point of intersection of the two mutually perpendicular sides as the origin, find the position vector of the centre of mass.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2}{3}(\hat{i} + \hat{j})$, $(\hat{i} + \hat{j})$...
3
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10228
$\text{A bomb is projected from the ground at a horizontal range of } R. \text{ If the bomb explodes mid-air, then the range of its centre of mass is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{R}{2}$, $R$...
2
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10227
$\text{At } t = 0, \text{ the positions of the two blocks are shown. There is no external force acting on the system. Find the coordinates of the centre of mass of the system (in SI units) at } t = 3 \text{ seconds.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$(1, 0)$, $(3, 0)$...
4
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10226
$\text{A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity-free space at a height of 10 m above the floor. He throws a stone of 0.5 kg mass downwards with a speed of 2 ms}^{-1}\text{. When the stone reaches the floor, the distance of the man above the floor will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$9.9 \text{ m}$, $10.1 \text{ m}$...
2
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10225
$\text{Five uniform circular plates, each of diameter } D \text{ and mass } m, \text{ are laid out in a pattern shown. Using the origin shown, the } y\text{-coordinate of the centre of mass of the "five-plate" system will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2D}{5}$, $\frac{4D}{5}$...
2
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10224
$\text{The centre of the mass of 3 particles, 10 kg, 20 kg, and 30 kg, is at }(0, 0, 0)\text{. Where should a particle with a mass of 40 kg be placed so that its combined centre of mass is }(3, 3, 3)\text{?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$(0, 0, 0)$, $(7.5, 7.5, 7.5)$...
2
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10223
$\text{The coordinates of the position of masses } m_1 = 7 \text{ gm}, m_2 = 4 \text{ gm}, m_3 = 10 \text{ gm are } \vec{r}_1 = (\hat{i} + 5\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}), \vec{r}_2 = (2\hat{i} + 5\hat{j} + 7\hat{k}), \vec{r}_3 = (3\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - \hat{k}) \text{ respectively in cm. The position of the centre of mass of the system would be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\left(-\frac{15}{7}, \frac{85}{17}, \frac{1}{7}\right) \text{ cm}$, $\left(\frac{15}{7}, -\frac{85}{17}, \frac{1}{7}\right) \text{ cm}$...
3
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10222
$\text{A uniform square plate }ABCD\text{ has a mass of 10 kg. If two point masses of 5 kg each are placed at the corners }C\text{ and }D\text{ as shown in the adjoining figure, then the centre of mass shifts to the mid-point of:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$OH$, $DH$...
1
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10221
$\text{Three masses are placed on the x-axis: 300 g at the origin, 500 g at } x = 40 \text{ cm, and 400 g at } x = 70 \text{ cm. The distance of the center of mass from the origin is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$40 \text{ cm}$, $45 \text{ cm}$...
1
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10220
$\text{An insect, initially on the circumference of a disc, starts moving along a chord of the disc, rotating about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane of the disc. Its angular speed:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{increases.}$, $\text{decreases.}$...
3
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10219
$\text{Which of the following will not be affected if the radius of the sphere is increased while keeping mass constant?}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{Moment of inertia}$, $\text{Angular momentum}$...
2
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10218
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): If the ice on the polar caps of the earth melts, then the length of the day will increase.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Moment of inertia of the earth increases, as ice on polar caps melts.}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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10217
$\text{If the radius of the earth is suddenly contracted to half of its present value, then the duration of the day will be of:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{6 hours}$, $\text{12 hours}$...
1
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10216
$\text{The law of conservation of angular momentum is valid when:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{The net force is zero and the net torque is non-zero}$, $\text{The net force is non-zero and the net torque is non-zero}$...
3
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10215
$\text{When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation}$, $\text{the line making an angle of } 45^\circ \text{ to the plane of rotation}$...
1
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10214
$\text{The body of mass 1.5 kg rotating about an axis with angular velocity of 0.3 rad s}^{-1} \text{ has the angular momentum of 1.8 kg m}^2\text{s}^{-1}\text{. The radius of gyration of the body about the axis is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{2 m}$, $\text{1.2 m}$...
1
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10213
$\text{A thin uniform circular disc of mass } M \text{ and radius } R \text{ is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane with an angular velocity } \omega. \text{ Another disc of the same dimensions but of mass } \frac{1}{4}M \text{ is placed gently on the first disc co-axially. The angular velocity of the system will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2}{5}\omega$, $\frac{4}{5}\omega$...
2
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10212
$\text{A horizontal heavy uniform bar of weight } W \text{ is supported at its ends by two men. At the instant, one of the men lets go off his end of the rod, the other feels the force on his hand changed to:}$
1
106
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$W$, $\frac{W}{2}$...
4
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10211
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): If there is no external torque on a body about its centre of mass, then the velocity of the centre of mass remains constant.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The linear momentum of an isolated system remains constant.}$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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10210
$\text{A body of mass M is moving on a circular track of radius r in such a way that its kinetic energy K depends on the distance travelled by the body s according to relation } K = \beta s, \text{ where } \beta \text{ is a constant. The angular acceleration of the body is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\beta r}{M^2}$, $\sqrt{\frac{\beta r}{M}}$...
4
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10209
$\text{A circular disc is to be made by using iron and aluminium so that it acquires a maximum moment of inertia about its geometrical axis. It is possible with:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{Aluminium in the interior and iron surrounding it}$, $\text{Iron at the interior and aluminium surrounding it}$...
1
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10208
$\text{The moment of inertia of a thin uniform circular disc about one of its diameter is } I. \text{ Its moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to the circular surface and passing through its center will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{2I}$, $2I$...
2
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10207
$\text{Two uniform, thin, identical rods, each of mass } M \text{ and length } l \text{ are joined together to form a cross. What will be the moment of inertia of the cross about an axis passing through the point at which the two rods are joined and are perpendicular to the plane of the cross?}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{Ml^2}{12}$, $\frac{Ml^2}{6}$...
2
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10206
$\text{The moment of inertia of a horizontal ring about its vertical axis through the centre is } mR^2. \text{ The moment of inertia about its tangent parallel to the plane is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3mR^2}{2}$, $\frac{mR^2}{4}$...
1
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10205
$\text{If a particle moves in a circle with a constant angular speed } (\omega) \text{ about the point } O, \text{ then its angular speed about the point } A \text{ will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$2\omega$, $\frac{\omega}{2}$...
2
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10204
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The axis of rotation of a rigid body cannot lie outside the body.}$ $\text{Reason (R): It must pass through a material particle of the body.}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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10203
$\text{A solid body rotates about a stationary axis according to the equation } \theta = 6t - 2t^3\text{. What is the average angular velocity over the time interval between } t = 0 \text{ and the time when the body comes to rest? (}\theta\text{: angular displacement, } t\text{: time)}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$1 \text{ rad/s}$, $2 \text{ rad/s}$...
4
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10202
$\text{Particles } A \text{ and } B \text{ are separated by 10 m, as shown in the figure. If } A \text{ is at rest and } B \text{ started moving with a speed of 20 m/s then the angular velocity of } B \text{ with respect to } A \text{ at that instant is:}$
1
106
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$1 \text{ rad/s}$, $1.5 \text{ rad/s}$...
1
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10201
$\text{If a body is moving in a circular path with decreasing speed, then (symbols have their usual meanings):}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\vec{r} \cdot \vec{\omega} = 0$, $\vec{\tau} \cdot \vec{v} = 0$...
4
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10200
$\text{For a rigid body rotating about a fixed axis, which of the following quantities is the same at an instant for all the particles of the body?}$
1
106
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$\text{Angular acceleration}$, $\text{Angular velocity}$...
4
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10199
$\text{A wheel has an angular acceleration of } 3.0 \text{ rad/s}^2 \text{ and an initial angular speed of } 2.00 \text{ rad/s. In a time of } 2 \text{ s, it has rotated through an angle (in radians) of:}$
1
106
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$6$, $10$...
2
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10198
$\text{Two particles of mass, 2 kg and 4 kg, are projected from the top of a tower simultaneously, such that 2 kg of mass is projected with a speed 20 m/s at an angle 30° above horizontal and 4 kg is projected at 40 m/s horizontally. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the system of two particles will be:}$
1
106
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$\frac{g}{2}$, $\frac{g}{4}$...
3
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10197
$\text{A uniform rod of length } 1 \text{ m and mass } 2 \text{ kg is suspended by two vertical inextensible strings as shown in the following figure. The tension } T \text{ (in newtons) in the left string at the instant when the right string snaps is:}$ $(g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$2.5 \text{ N}$, $5 \text{ N}$...
2
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10196
$\text{A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless string is wound around the cylinder with one end attached to it and the other end hanging freely. The tension in the string required to produce an angular acceleration of 2 rev/s}^2 \text{ will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$25 \text{ N}$, $50 \text{ N}$...
4
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10195
$\text{A uniform rod of length } l \text{ is hinged at one end and is free to rotate in the vertical plane. The rod is released from its position, making an angle } \theta \text{ with the vertical. The acceleration of the free end of the rod at the instant it is released is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3g\sin\theta}{4}$, $\frac{3g\cos\theta}{2}$...
3
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10194
$\text{Two rotating bodies A and B of masses } m \text{ and } 2m \text{ with moments of inertia } I_A \text{ and } I_B \text{ (}I_B > I_A\text{) have equal kinetic energy of rotation. If } L_A \text{ and } L_B \text{ be their angular momenta respectively, then:}$
1
106
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$L_A = \frac{L_B}{2}$, $L_A = 2L_B$...
3
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10193
$\text{A rigid body rotates with an angular momentum of } L. \text{ If its kinetic energy is halved, the angular momentum becomes:}$
1
106
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$L$, $L/2$...
4
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10192
\text{Given below are two statements:}
\text{Assertion (A): For a body under translatory as well as rotational equilibrium, net torque about any axis is zero.}
\text{Reason (R): Together } \sum \vec{F}_i = 0 \text{ and } \sum (\vec{r}_i \times \vec{F}_i) = 0 \text{ implies that } \sum (\vec{r}_i - \vec{r}_0) \times \vec{F}_i = 0.
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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10191
$\text{A string is wrapped along the rim of a wheel of the moment of inertia } 0.10 \text{ kg-m}^2 \text{ and radius } 10 \text{ cm. If the string is now pulled by a force of } 10 \text{ N, then the wheel starts to rotate about its axis from rest. The angular velocity of the wheel after } 2 \text{ s will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$40 \text{ rad/s}$, $80 \text{ rad/s}$...
4
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10190
$\text{A wheel is rotating about an axis through its centre at } 720 \text{ rpm. It is acted upon by a constant torque opposing its motion for } 8 \text{ seconds to bring it to rest finally. The value of torque in (N-m) is:}$ $\text{(given } I = \frac{24}{\pi} \text{ kg.m}^2\text{)}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$48$, $72$...
2
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10189
$\text{A bob of mass m attached to an inextensible string of length l is suspended from vertical support. The bob rotates in a horizontal circle with an angular speed } \omega \text{ rad/s about the vertical. About the point of suspension:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{Angular momentum is conserved}$, $\text{Angular momentum changes in magnitude but not in the direction}$...
3
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10188
$\text{A child is standing on the edge of a merry-go-round that has the shape of a disk, as shown in the figure. The mass of the child is 40 kilograms. The merry-go-round has a mass of 200 kilograms and a radius of 2.5 meters, and it is rotating with an angular velocity of } \omega = 2.0 \text{ radians per second. The child then walks slowly towards the center of the merry-go-round. When the child reaches the center, what is the angular velocity of the disc? (The size of the child can be neglected.)}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$2.0 \text{ rad/s}$, $2.2 \text{ rad/s}$...
4
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10187
$\text{A billiard ball of mass m and radius r, when hit in a horizontal direction by a cue at a height h above its centre, acquires a linear velocity } v_0 \text{. The angular velocity } \omega_0 \text{ acquired by the ball will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{5v_0r^2}{2h}$, $\frac{2v_0r^2}{5h}$...
4
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10186
$\text{A particle of mass m moves with a constant velocity along 3 different paths, DE, OA and BC. Which of the following statements is not correct about its angular momentum about point O?}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{It is zero when it is at A and moving along OA.}$, $\text{The same at all points along the line DE.}$...
4
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10185
$\text{A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless vertical axle. Its radius is R = 2m and its moment of inertia about the axle is 200 kg m}^2\text{. Initially, it is at rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge of the platform and begins to walk along the edge at a speed of 1 m s}^{-1}\text{ relative to the ground. The time taken by the man to complete one revolution is:}$
1
106
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$\pi \text{ sec}$, $\frac{3\pi}{2} \text{ sec}$...
3
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10184
$\text{A uniform rod on a smooth horizontal table is moving with uniform horizontal speed } v\text{. Suddenly rod is hinged at the center of the rod. The angular velocity of the rod, now, will be:}$
1
106
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$\frac{2v}{3l}$, $\frac{3v}{2l}$...
4
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10183
$\text{A uniform rod of mass m and length l is in uniform translational motion. If one of its ends is suddenly hinged then (hinge is smooth):}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{It will continue its translational motion.}$, $\text{It will now be in pure rotational motion about the hinged end.}$...
2
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10182
$\text{The position of a particle is given by } \vec{r} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} - \hat{k} \text{ and momentum } \vec{P} = (3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} - 2\hat{k})\text{. The angular momentum is perpendicular to:}$
1
106
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$\text{X-axis}$, $\text{Y-axis}$...
1
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10181
$\text{A particle is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to the positive x-axis. The magnitude of its angular momentum with respect to the origin is:}$
1
106
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$\text{zero}$, $\text{increasing with } x$...
4
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10180
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ moves in the } XY \text{ plane with a velocity of } v \text{ along the straight line } AB\text{. If the angular momentum of the particle about the origin } O \text{ is } L_A \text{ when it is at } A \text{ and } L_B \text{ when it is at } B\text{, then:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$L_A > L_B$, $L_A = L_B$...
2
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10179
$\text{A force } \vec{F} = \alpha\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 6\hat{k} \text{ is acting at a point } \vec{r} = 2\hat{i} - 6\hat{j} - 12\hat{k}\text{. The value of } \alpha \text{ for which angular momentum is conserved about the origin is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$-1$, $2$...
1
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10178
$\text{A solid sphere of mass } m \text{ is in pure rolling motion with the centre of mass moving with velocity } v_0\text{. It's angular momentum about the point } P \text{ shown in the diagram is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2}{5}mv_0R$, $\frac{1}{5}mv_0R$...
3
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10177
\text{The figure below shows two identical particles 1 and 2, each of mass } m\text{, moving in opposite directions with the same speed } v \text{ along parallel lines.}
\text{At a particular instant, } r_1 \text{ and } r_2 \text{ are their respective position vectors drawn from point A, which is in the plane of the parallel lines.}
\text{Consider the following statements:}
\text{(a) angular momentum } l_1 \text{ of particle 1 about A is } l_1 = mv(d_1) \hat{k}
\text{(b) angular momentum } l_2 \text{ of particle 2 about A is } l_2 = mv(r_2) \hat{k}
\text{(c) total angular momentum of the system about A is } l = mv(r_1 + r_2) \hat{k}
\text{(d) total angular momentum of the system about A is } l = mv(d_2 - d_1) \hat{k}
\text{Choose the correct option from the given ones:}
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$\text{(a), (c) only}$, $\text{(a), (d) only}$...
2
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10176
$\text{A rod is falling down with constant velocity } V_0 \text{ as shown. It makes contact with hinge A and rotates around it. The angular velocity of the rod just after the moment when it comes in contact with hinge A is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{2V_0}{3L}$, $\frac{3V_0}{2L}$...
2
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10175
$\text{A ring of mass of 10 kg and diameter of 0.4 m is rotated about its axis. If it makes 2100 revolutions per minute, then its angular momentum will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$44 \text{ kg m}^2 \text{ s}^{-1}$, $88 \text{ kg m}^2 \text{ s}^{-1}$...
2
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10174
$\text{Two discs are rotating about their axes, normal to the discs and passing through the centres of the discs. Disc D}_1 \text{ has a 2 kg mass, 0.2 m radius, and an initial angular velocity of 50 rad s}^{-1}\text{. Disc D}_2 \text{ has 4 kg mass, 0.1 m radius, and initial angular velocity of 200 rad s}^{-1}\text{. The two discs are brought in contact face to face, with their axes of rotation coincident. The final angular velocity (in rad.s}^{-1}\text{) of the system will be:}$
1
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$60$, $100$...
2
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10173
$\text{A boy is standing on a disc rotating about the vertical axis passing through its centre. He pulls his arms towards himself, reducing his moment of inertia by a factor of m. The new angular speed of the disc becomes double its initial value. If the moment of inertia of the boy is } I_0\text{, then the moment of inertia of the disc will be:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2I_0m$, $I_0\left(1 - \frac{2}{m}\right)$...
2
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10172
$\text{A solid sphere of mass } M \text{ and the radius } R \text{ is in pure rolling with angular speed } \omega \text{ on a horizontal plane as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the angular momentum of the sphere about the origin } O \text{ is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{7}{5}MR^2\omega$, $\frac{3}{2}MR^2\omega$...
1
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10171
$\text{A thin circular ring of mass } M \text{ and radius } R \text{ is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis vertical to its plane with a constant angular velocity } \omega. \text{ If two objects each of mass } m \text{ are attached gently to the opposite ends of the diameter of the ring, the ring will then rotate with an angular velocity:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\omega(M-2m)}{M+2m}$, $\frac{\omega M}{M+2m}$...
2
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10170
$\text{A uniform cubical block of side } L \text{ rests on a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of friction } \mu. \text{ A horizontal force } F \text{ is applied on the block as shown. If there is sufficient friction between the block and the ground, then the torque due to normal reaction about its centre of mass is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Zero}$, $FL$...
2
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10169
$\text{A force } -F\hat{k} \text{ acts on O, the origin of the coordinate system. The torque at the point } (1, -1) \text{ will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$-F(\hat{i} + \hat{j})$, $F(\hat{i} + \hat{j})$...
1
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10168
$\text{On a rough horizontal surface (coefficient of friction } \mu\text{), a cubical block of side 'a' and mass m is projected horizontally. The net torque on the block about its centre of mass till the block stops is equal to:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $\frac{1}{2}\mu mga$...
1
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10167
\text{The figure shows a lamina in XY-plane. Two axes } z \text{ and } z' \text{ pass}
\text{perpendicular to its plane. A force } \vec{F} \text{ acts in the plane of the lamina}
\text{at point P as shown. (The point P is closer to the } z'\text{-axis than the } z\text{-axis.)}
\text{(a) torque } \vec{\tau} \text{ caused by } \vec{F} \text{ about } z\text{-axis is along } -\hat{k}
\text{(b) torque } \vec{\tau}' \text{ caused by } \vec{F} \text{ about } z'\text{-axis is along } -\hat{k}
\text{(c) torque caused by } \vec{F} \text{ about the } z\text{-axis is greater in}
\text{magnitude than that about the } z'\text{-axis}
\text{(d) total torque is given by } \vec{\tau}_{\text{net}} = \vec{\tau} + \vec{\tau}'
1
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$(c, d)$, $(a, c)$...
3
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10166
$\text{A meter stick is balanced on a knife edge at its center. When two coins, each of the mass 5 gm are put one on top of the other at the 12.0 cm mark, the stick is found to be balanced at 45.0 cm. What is the mass of the meter stick?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{66 gm}$, $\text{56 gm}$...
1
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10165
$\text{For L = 3.0 m, the total torque about pivot A provided by the forces as shown in the figure is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$210 \text{ Nm}$, $140 \text{ Nm}$...
4
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10164
$\text{Shown in the figure is a rigid and uniform one-metre long rod, } AB\text{, held in the horizontal position by two strings tied to its ends and attached to the ceiling. The rod is of mass } m \text{ and has another weight of mass } 2m \text{ hung at a distance of 75 cm from } A\text{. The tension in the string at } A \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2mg$, $0.5mg$...
4
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10163
$\text{A rod of weight } w \text{ is supported by two parallel knife edges, } A \text{ and } B \text{, and is in equilibrium in a horizontal position. The knives are at a distance } d \text{ from each other. The centre of mass of the rod is at a distance } x \text{ from } A \text{. The normal reaction on } A \text{ is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{wx}{d}$, $\frac{wd}{x}$...
4
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10162
$\text{A force } \vec{F} = (2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 4\hat{k}) \text{ N is acting at point } (2\text{ m}, -3\text{ m}, 6\text{ m}). \text{ Find the torque of this force about a point whose position vector is } (2\hat{i} + 5\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}) \text{ m.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\vec{\tau} = (-17\hat{i} + 6\hat{j} + 4\hat{k}) \text{ N-m}$, $\vec{\tau} = (-17\hat{i} + 6\hat{j} - 4\hat{k}) \text{ N-m}$...
4
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10161
$\text{A uniform beam, 3.0 m long, of weight 100 N has a 300 N weight placed 0.5 m from one end. The beam is suspended by a string 1.0 m from the same end. A diagram of the weights placed on the beam is given below:}$ $\text{How far from the other end must a weight of 80 N be placed for the beam to be balanced?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{0.75 m}$, $\text{2.25 m}$...
1
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10160
$\text{A force } \vec{F} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \text{ N acts at a point } 4\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - \hat{k} \text{ m. Let the magnitude of the torque about the point } \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + \hat{k} \text{ m be } \sqrt{x} \text{ N-m. The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$145$, $195$...
2
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10159
\text{Which of the following is the value of the torque of force } \vec{F} \text{ about origin } O\text{?}
\text{Given: } \vec{F} = (5\sqrt{3} \hat{i} + 5\hat{j}) \text{ N and position vector from origin to point of application is } \vec{r} = (\hat{i} + \hat{j})
1
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Recommended Questions
$\vec{\tau} = 5(1 - \sqrt{3})\hat{k} \text{ N-m}$, $\vec{\tau} = 5(1 - \sqrt{3})\hat{j} \text{ N-m}$...
1
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10158
$\text{A uniform cube of mass } m \text{ and side } a \text{ is placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. A vertical force } F \text{ is applied to the edge as shown in the figure. Match the following (most appropriate choice).}$ $\text{List- I}$ $\text{(a) } mg/4 < F < mg/2$ $\text{(b) } F > mg/2$ $\text{(c) } F > mg$ $\text{(d) } F = mg/4$ $\text{List- II}$ $\text{(i) cube will move up.}$ $\text{(ii) cube will not exhibit motion.}$ $\text{(iii) cube will begin to rotate and slip at A.}$ $\text{(iv) normal reaction effectively at } a/3 \text{ from A, no motion.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{a - (i), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (iii)}$, $\text{a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv)}$...
2
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10157
$\text{A wheel with a radius of 20 cm has forces applied to it as shown in the figure. The torque produced by the forces of 4 N at } A\text{, 8 N at } B\text{, 6 N at } C\text{, and 9 N at } D\text{, at the angles indicated, is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$5.4 \text{ N-m anticlockwise}$, $1.80 \text{ N-m clockwise}$...
2
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10156
$\text{In the figure given below, } O \text{ is the centre of an equilateral triangle } ABC \text{ and } \vec{F}_1, \vec{F}_2, \vec{F}_3 \text{ are three forces acting along the sides } AB, BC \text{ and } AC. \text{ What should be the magnitude of } \vec{F}_3 \text{ so that total torque about } O \text{ is zero?}$
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Recommended Questions
$|\vec{F}_3| = |\vec{F}_1| + |\vec{F}_2|$, $|\vec{F}_3| = |\vec{F}_1| - |\vec{F}_2|$...
1
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10155
$\text{A rope of negligible mass is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N?}$ $\text{(Assume that there is no slipping.)}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$21 \text{ rad/s}^2$, $24 \text{ rad/s}^2$...
4
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10154
$\text{The value of } M, \text{ as shown, for which the rod will be in equilibrium is:}$ $\text{[A rod is supported at a fulcrum point, with a 6 kg mass at 20 cm from the fulcrum on the left side, and mass } M \text{ at 30 cm from the fulcrum on the right side]}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$1 \text{ kg}$, $2 \text{ kg}$...
3
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10153
$\text{To maintain a rotor at a uniform angular speed of 200 rad s}^{-1}, \text{ an engine needs to transmit a torque of 180 N-m. What is the power required by the engine?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$33 \text{ kW}$, $36 \text{ kW}$...
2
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10152
$\text{A ball is spinning on a horizontal surface, about the vertical axis passing through its centre. Its angular velocity decreases from } 2\pi \text{ rad/s to } \pi \text{ rad/s in 10 s. If the moment of inertia of the ball is } 0.5 \text{ kg/m}^2\text{, the torque acting on the ball is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$-\frac{\pi}{100} \text{ N-m}$, $-\frac{\pi}{50} \text{ N-m}$...
3
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10151
$\text{An } ABC \text{ is a right-angled triangular plate of uniform thickness. The sides are such that } AB > BC. \text{ As shown in the figure } I_1, I_2 \text{ and } I_3 \text{ are moments of inertia about } AB, BC \text{ and } AC \text{ respectively. Which of the following relation is correct?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$I_1 = I_2 = I_3$, $I_2 > I_1 > I_3$...
2
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10150
$\text{Consider two uniform discs of the same thickness and different radii } R_1 = R \text{ and } R_2 = \alpha R \text{ made of the same material. If the ratio of their moments of inertia, } I_1 \text{ and } I_2\text{, respectively, about their axes is } I_1 : I_2 = 1 : 16\text{, then the value of } \alpha \text{ is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{2}$, $4$...
3
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10149
$\text{Four-point masses each of value } m \text{ are placed at the corners of a square } ABCD \text{ of side } l. \text{ The moment of inertia of this system about an axis passing through } A \text{ and parallel to } BD \text{ will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$2ml^2$, $4ml^2$...
3
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10148
$\text{A uniform rod of mass } 2M \text{ is bent into four adjacent semicircles, each of radius } r\text{, all lying in the same plane. The moment of inertia of the bent rod about an axis through one end A and perpendicular to the plane of the rod is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$22Mr^2$, $88Mr^2$...
3
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10147
$\text{A square lamina is as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the frame about the three axes is } I_1, I_2 \text{ and } I_3 \text{ respectively. Select the correct alternative.}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$I_2 = I_3 > I_1$, $I_1 > I_2 > I_3$...
3
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10146
$\text{From a circular ring of mass } M \text{ and radius } R\text{, an arc corresponding to a } 90^\circ \text{ sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the centre of the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is } K \text{ times } MR^2\text{. The value of } K \text{ will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{4}$, $\frac{1}{8}$...
3
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10145
$\text{Let } I_A \text{ and } I_B \text{ be moments of inertia of a body about two axes, A and B, respectively. The axis A passes through the centre of mass of the body, but B does not. Which of the following is correct?}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$I_A < I_B$, $\text{If } I_A < I_B, \text{ the axes are parallel.}$...
3
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10144
$\text{Four identical solid spheres each of mass 'm' and radius 'a' are placed with their centres on the four corners of a square of side 'b'. The moment of inertia of the system about one side of the square where the axis of rotation is parallel to the plane of the square is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{4}{5}ma^2 + 2mb^2$, $\frac{8}{5}ma^2 + mb^2$...
3
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10143
$\text{A thin wire of length } L \text{ and uniform linear mass density } \rho \text{ is bent into a circular loop with the centre at } O \text{ as shown. The moment of inertia of the loop about the axis } XX' \text{ is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\rho L^3}{8\pi^2}$, $\frac{\rho L^3}{16\pi^2}$...
4
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10142
$\text{Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and radius r, are placed as shown in the figure. Consider an axis XX', which is touching two shells and passes through the diameter of the third shell. The moment of inertia of the system consisting of these three spherical shells about the XX' axis is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{11}{5}mr^2$, $3mr^2$...
4
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10141
$\text{Four thin rods, each of mass } m \text{ and the length } L, \text{ form a square. The moment of inertia on any side of the square is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{5}{3}mL^2$, $4mL^2$...
1
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10140
$\text{The one-quarter sector is cut from a uniform circular disc of radius } R. \text{ This sector has a mass } M. \text{ It is made to rotate about a line perpendicular to its plane and passing through the centre of the original disc. Its moment of inertia about the axis of rotation will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2}MR^2$, $\frac{1}{4}MR^2$...
1
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10139
$\text{Four masses are joined to light circular frames as shown in the figure. The radius of gyration of this system about an axis passing through the center of the circular frame and perpendicular to its plane would be:}$ $\text{(where 'a' is the radius of the circle)}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}}$, $\frac{a}{2}$...
3
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10138
$\text{The radius of gyration of a uniform solid sphere about a tangent is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$R\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}$, $R\sqrt{\frac{2}{5}}$...
4
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10137
$\text{Three-point masses each of mass } m \text{ are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side } a. \text{ The moment of inertia of the system through a mass } m \text{ at } O \text{ and lying in the plane of } COD \text{ and perpendicular to } OA \text{ is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$2ma^2$, $\frac{2}{3}ma^2$...
3
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10136
$\text{In the three figures, each wire has a mass M, radius R and a uniform mass distribution. If they form part of a circle of radius R, then about an axis perpendicular to the plane and passing through the centre (shown by crosses), their moment of inertia is in the order:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$I_A > I_B > I_C$, $I_A = I_B = I_C$...
2
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10135
$\text{A light rod of length } l \text{ has two masses, } m_1 \text{ and } m_2, \text{ attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through the centre of mass is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{m_1m_2}{m_1+m_2}l^2$, $\frac{m_1+m_2}{m_1m_2}l^2$...
1
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10134
$\text{The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc and of a circular ring of the same radius about a tangential axis in the plane of the ring will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$2 : 1$, $\sqrt{5} : \sqrt{6}$...
2
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10133
$\text{The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is maximum about an axis perpendicular to the disc and passing through:}$
1
106
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$\text{B}$, $\text{C}$...
1
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10132
$\text{The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius 'R' and mass 'M' about an axis touching the disc at its diameter and normal to the disc will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3}{2}MR^2$, $\frac{1}{2}MR^2$...
1
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10131
$\text{Five particles of mass 2 kg each are attached to the circumference of a circular disc of a radius of 0.1 m and negligible mass. The moment of inertia of the system about the axis passing through the centre of the disc and perpendicular to its plane will be:}$
1
106
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$1 \text{ kg-m}^2$, $0.1 \text{ kg-m}^2$...
2
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10130
$\text{A particle rotating on a circular path of the radius } \frac{4}{\pi} \text{ m at 300 rpm reaches 600 rpm in 6 revolutions. If the angular velocity increases at a constant rate, find the tangential acceleration of the particle:}$
1
106
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$10 \text{ m/s}^2$, $12.5 \text{ m/s}^2$...
4
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10129
\text{A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration about its axis. Initially, its angular velocity is zero. In the first 2 s, it rotates through an angle } \theta_1\text{. In the next 2 s, it rotates through an additional angle } \theta_2\text{.}
\text{The ratio of } \frac{\theta_2}{\theta_1} \text{ is:}
1
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Recommended Questions
$1$, $2$...
3
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10128
$\text{Two gear wheels that are meshed together have radii of 0.50 cm and 0.15 cm. The number of revolutions made by the smaller one when the larger one goes through 3 revolutions is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{5 revolutions}$, $\text{20 revolutions}$...
4
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10127
$\text{What is the value of linear velocity, if the angular velocity vector is } \vec{\omega} = 3\hat{i} - 4\hat{j} + \hat{k} \text{ and the position vector is } \vec{r} = 5\hat{i} - 6\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}?$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$-18\hat{i} - 13\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}$, $18\hat{i} + 13\hat{j} - 2\hat{k}$...
1
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10126
$\text{A rigid body rotates about a fixed axis with a variable angular velocity equal to } \alpha - \beta t, \text{ at the time } t, \text{ where } \alpha, \beta \text{ are constants. The angle through which it rotates before it stops is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\alpha^2}{2\beta}$, $\frac{\alpha^2 - \beta^2}{2\alpha}$...
1
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10125
$\text{The angular speed of the wheel of a vehicle is increased from 360 rpm to 1200 rpm in 14 seconds. Its angular acceleration will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$2\pi \text{ rad/s}^2$, $28\pi \text{ rad/s}^2$...
1
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10124
$\text{For a body, with angular velocity } \vec{\omega} = \hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \text{ and radius vector } \vec{r} = \hat{i} + \hat{j} + \hat{k}, \text{ its velocity will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$-5\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}$, $-5\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}$...
1
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10123
$\text{An electric fan rotating at 1200 rpm is switched off. If the fan stops after 10 seconds, the number of revolutions completed by the fan before it stops will be: (assume uniform retardation)}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$100$, $50$...
1
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10122
$\text{A ladder is leaned against a smooth wall and it is allowed to slip on a frictionless floor. Which figure represents the path followed by its center of mass?}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{Figure 1: Ladder moving downward and to the right}$, $\text{Figure 2: Ladder moving upward and to the right}$...
1
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10121
$\text{Given the following statements:}$ $\text{(a) The centre of gravity (C.G.) of a body is the point at which the weight of the body acts.}$ $\text{(b) If the earth is assumed to have an infinitely large radius, the centre of mass coincides with the centre of gravity.}$ $\text{(c) To evaluate the gravitational field intensity due to any body at an external point, the entire mass of the body can be considered to be concentrated at its C.G.}$ $\text{(d) The radius of gyration of any body rotating about an axis is the length of the perpendicular dropped from the C.G. of the body to the axis.}$ $\text{Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct?}$
1
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$\text{(a) and (b)}$, $\text{(b) and (c)}$...
1
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10120
$\text{Two loads } P_1 \text{ and } P_2 (P_1 > P_2) \text{ are connected by a string passing over a fixed pulley. The center of gravity of loads are initially at the same height. Find the acceleration of the center of gravity of the system:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\left(\frac{P_1 - P_2}{P_1 + P_2}\right)^2 g$, $\left(\frac{P_1 - P_2}{P_1 + P_2}\right) g$...
3
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10119
$\text{If a rod of length 3 m with its mass acting per unit length, is directly proportional to distance } x \text{ from one of its ends, then its centre of gravity from that end will be at:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{1.5 m}$, $\text{2 m}$...
2
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10118
$\text{Four particles of mass } m_1 = 2m, m_2 = 4m, m_3 = m, \text{ and } m_4 \text{ are placed at the four corners of a square. What should be the value of } m_4 \text{ so that the centre of mass of all the four particles is exactly at the centre of the square?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$2m$, $8m$...
4
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10117
$\text{A man 'A', mass 60 kg, and another man 'B', mass 70 kg, are sitting at the two extremes of a 2 m long boat, of mass 70 kg, standing still in the water as shown. They come to the middle of the boat. (Neglect friction). How far does the boat move on the water during the process?}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$5 \text{ cm leftward}$, $5 \text{ cm rightward}$...
2
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10116
$\text{A boat of length 10 m and a mass of 450 kg is floating without motion in still water. A man of 50 kg standing at one end walks to the other end and comes to a stop. The magnitude of the displacement of the boat relative to the ground is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $\text{1 m}$...
2
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10115
$\text{A man hangs from a rope attached to a hot-air balloon. The man's mass is greater than the mass of the balloon and its contents. The system is stationary in still air. If the man now climbs up the balloon using the rope, the centre of mass of the 'man plus balloon' system will:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{remain stationary}$, $\text{move up}$...
1
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10114
$\text{If the linear density of a rod of length 3 m varies as } \lambda = 2 + x\text{, then the position of the center of mass of the rod is at a distance of:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{7}{3} \text{ m}$, $\frac{10}{7} \text{ m}$...
3
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10113
$\text{The center of mass of a system of particles does not depend upon:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{position of particles}$, $\text{relative distance between particles}$...
4
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10112
$\text{Two particles of masses 2 kg and 3 kg start to move towards each other due to mutual forces of attraction. The speed of the first particle is } v_1 \text{ and that of the second is } v_2 \text{ at a certain instant. The speed of the centre of mass is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\frac{v_1 + v_2}{2}$, $\frac{2v_1 + 3v_2}{5}$...
4
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10111
$\text{The coordinates of the centre of mass of a uniform plate of shape as shown in the figure are:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\left(\frac{L}{2}, \frac{L}{2}\right)$, $\left(\frac{5L}{12}, \frac{5L}{12}\right)$...
2
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10110
$\text{The mass per unit length of a non-uniform rod of length } L \text{ is given by } \mu = \lambda x^2 \text{ where } \lambda \text{ is a constant and } x \text{ is the distance from one end of the rod. The distance between the centre of mass of the rod and this end is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{L}{2}$, $\frac{L}{4}$...
3
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10109
$\text{Three identical spheres, each of mass } M, \text{ are placed at the corners of a right-angle triangle with mutually perpendicular sides equal to 2 m (see figure). Taking the point of intersection of the two mutually perpendicular sides as the origin, find the position vector of the centre of mass.}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$2(\hat{i} + \hat{j})$, $(\hat{i} + \hat{j})$...
3
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10108
$\text{A bomb is projected from the ground at a horizontal range of } R. \text{ If the bomb explodes mid-air, then the range of its centre of mass is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{R}{2}$, $R$...
2
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10107
$\text{At } t = 0\text{, the positions of the two blocks are shown. There is no external force acting on the system. Find the coordinates of the centre of mass of the system (in SI units) at } t = 3 \text{ seconds.}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$(1, 0)$, $(3, 0)$...
4
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10106
$\text{A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity-free space at a height of 10 m above the floor. He throws a stone of 0.5 kg mass downwards with a speed of 2 ms}^{-1}\text{. When the stone reaches the floor, the distance of the man above the floor will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\text{9.9 m}$, $\text{10.1 m}$...
2
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10105
$\text{Five uniform circular plates, each of diameter } D \text{ and mass } m\text{, are laid out in a pattern shown. Using the origin shown, the } y\text{-coordinate of the centre of mass of the "five-plate" system will be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2D}{5}$, $\frac{4D}{5}$...
2
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10104
$\text{The centre of the mass of 3 particles, 10 kg, 20 kg, and 30 kg, is at }(0, 0, 0)\text{. Where should a particle with a mass of 40 kg be placed so that its combined centre of mass is }(3, 3, 3)\text{?}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$(0, 0, 0)$, $(7.5, 7.5, 7.5)$...
2
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10103
$\text{The coordinates of the position of masses } m_1 = 7 \text{ gm}, m_2 = 4 \text{ gm}, m_3 = 10 \text{ gm are } \vec{r}_1 = (\hat{i} + 5\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}), \vec{r}_2 = (2\hat{i} + 5\hat{j} + 7\hat{k}), \vec{r}_3 = (3\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - \hat{k}) \text{ respectively in cm. The position of the centre of mass of the system would be:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$\left(\frac{15}{7}, \frac{85}{17}, \frac{1}{7}\right) \text{ cm}$, $\left(\frac{15}{7}, -\frac{85}{17}, \frac{1}{7}\right) \text{ cm}$...
3
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10102
$\text{A uniform square plate } ABCD \text{ has a mass of 10 kg. If two point masses of 5 kg each are placed at the corners } C \text{ and } D \text{ as shown in the adjoining figure, then the centre of mass shifts to the mid-point of:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$OH$, $DH$...
1
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10101
$\text{Three masses are placed on the x-axis: 300 g at the origin, 500 g at } x = 40 \text{ cm, and 400 g at } x = 70 \text{ cm. The distance of the center of mass from the origin is:}$
1
106
Recommended Questions
$40 \text{ cm}$, $45 \text{ cm}$...
1
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10100
120
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
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10099
119
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Delete
10098
118
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
10097
117
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
10096
116
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
10095
115
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
10094
114
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
10093
113
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Delete
10092
112
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
10091
111
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
10090
110
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
10089
109
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
10088
108
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
10087
107
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
10086
106
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
10085
105
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Delete
10084
104
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
10083
103
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
10082
105
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
10081
101
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
10080
100
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
10079
99
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Delete
10078
98
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
10077
97
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
10076
96
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
10075
95
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
10074
94
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
10073
93
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
10072
92
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
10071
91
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
10070
90
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
10069
89
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
10068
88
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
10067
87
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
10066
86
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
10065
85
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Delete
10064
84
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Delete
10063
83
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
10062
82
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
10061
81
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
10060
80
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
10059
79
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
10058
78
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
10057
77
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
10056
76
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
10055
75
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
10054
74
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
10053
73
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
10052
72
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
10051
71
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
10050
70
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
10049
69
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
10048
68
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
10047
67
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
10046
66
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
10045
65
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
10044
64
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
10043
63
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
10042
62
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
10041
61
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
10040
60
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
10039
59
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
10038
58
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Delete
10037
57
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Delete
10036
56
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Delete
10035
55
1
106
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10034
54
1
106
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10033
53
1
106
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10032
52
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106
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10031
51
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106
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10030
50
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106
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10029
49
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106
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10028
48
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106
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10027
47
1
106
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10026
46
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106
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10025
45
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106
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10024
44
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10023
43
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10022
42
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10021
41
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106
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1
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10020
40
1
106
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1
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10019
39
1
106
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10018
38
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106
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10017
37
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106
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10016
36
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106
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10015
35
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106
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10014
34
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10013
33
1
106
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1
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10012
32
1
106
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10011
31
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106
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10010
30
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106
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10009
29
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106
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10008
28
1
106
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10007
27
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106
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10006
26
1
106
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1
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10005
25
1
106
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1
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10004
24
1
106
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1
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10003
23
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106
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1, 2...
1
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10002
22
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106
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1, 2...
1
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10001
21
1
106
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1, 2...
1
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10000
20
1
106
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3
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9999
19
1
106
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2
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9998
18
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106
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9997
17
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106
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9996
16
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106
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9995
15
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106
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1
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9994
14
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106
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9993
13
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106
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9992
12
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9991
11
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106
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2
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9990
10
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106
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9989
9
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106
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9988
8
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106
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9987
7
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106
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9986
6
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106
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9985
5
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106
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9984
4
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106
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9983
3
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106
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9982
2
1
106
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1
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9981
1
1
106
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9980
160
1
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9979
159
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9978
158
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9977
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9976
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9975
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9974
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9973
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9972
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9971
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9970
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9969
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9968
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9967
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9966
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9965
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9964
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9963
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9962
142
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9961
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9960
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9959
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9958
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9957
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9956
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9955
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9954
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9953
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9952
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9951
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9950
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9949
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9948
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9947
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9946
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9945
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9944
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9943
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9941
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9940
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9939
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9938
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9937
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9936
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9935
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9934
114
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9933
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9932
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9931
111
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9930
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9929
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9928
108
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9927
107
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9926
$\text{A body of mass } m \text{ moving with speed } v \text{ collides head-on elastically with another identical body at rest. The percentage loss in kinetic energy of the first body will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$0\%$, $25\%$...
4
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9925
$\text{A body of mass } m \text{ moving at a certain speed suffers a perfectly inelastic collision with a body of mass } M \text{ at rest. The ratio of the final kinetic energy of the system to the initial kinetic energy will be:}$
1
105
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$\frac{m}{m+M}$, $\frac{M}{m+M}$...
1
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9924
$\text{A car of mass 100 kg and traveling at 20 m/s collides with a truck weighing 1 tonne traveling at 9 km/h in the same direction. The car bounces back at a speed of 5 m/s. The speed of the truck after the impact will be:}$
1
105
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$11.5 \text{ m/s}$, $5 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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9923
$\text{Which of the following remains unchanged (for the system) during an inelastic collision?}$
1
105
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$\text{Mechanical energy}$, $\text{Kinetic energy}$...
3
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9922
$\text{The speed of a particle moving in a circular path decreases with time. The instantaneous power due to the force acting on it will be:}$
1
105
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$\text{Positive}$, $\text{Negative}$...
2
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9921
$\text{A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path with a speed } v = kt, \text{ where k is constant and t is time. The instantaneous power delivered to the particle is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\text{Zero}$, $mkt$...
3
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9920
A water pump rated 400 W has an efficiency of 75%. If it is employed to raise water to a height of 40 m, then the volume of water drawn in 10 min is:
1
105
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$10.9 \text{ m}^3$, $0.45 \text{ m}^3$...
2
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9919
$\text{A pump ejects 12,000 kg of water at a speed of 4 m/s in 40 s. The average rate at which the pump is working is:}$
1
105
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$\text{0.24 kW}$, $\text{2.4 W}$...
3
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9918
$\text{According to the work-energy theorem, the change in kinetic energy of a body is equal to work done by:}$
1
105
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$\text{Non-conservative force on the particle}$, $\text{Conservative force on the particle}$...
4
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9917
$\text{A position-dependent force; } F = 6 + 8x - 3x^2 \text{ N acts on a small body of mass 3 kg, displacing it from } x = 0 \text{ to } x = 2 \text{ m. The work done in joule is:}$
1
105
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$20$, $40$...
1
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9916
$\text{Work done by frictional force during the walking of a man is:}$
1
105
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$\text{positive}$, $\text{negative}$...
3
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9915
$\text{Mark the correct statement(s):}$
1
105
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$\text{Internal forces cannot increase the kinetic energy of a system.}$, $\text{Internal forces may increase the kinetic energy of a system.}$...
2
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9914
$\text{A body having an initial kinetic energy 2 J collides with an identical body at rest. The maximum loss of kinetic energy in the collision will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\text{2 J}$, $\text{Zero}$...
3
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9913
$\text{Block A moves on a smooth surface and collides with block B at rest. The maximum energy stored in the spring will be:}$
1
105
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$\frac{1}{8}mv^2$, $\frac{1}{4}mv^2$...
2
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9912
$\text{A block of mass m is moving with speed v towards a spring block system. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, then the maximum compression in the spring will be:}$
1
105
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$v\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}$, $v\sqrt{\frac{2m}{k}}$...
4
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9911
A stone is projected from a horizontal plane. It attains maximum height, }H\text{, and strikes a stationary smooth wall & falls on the ground vertically below the maximum height. Assuming the collision to be elastic, the height of the point on the wall where the ball will strike will be:
1
105
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$\frac{H}{2}$, $\frac{H}{4}$...
3
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9910
$\text{Five balls are placed one after another along a straight line as shown in the figure. Initially, all the balls are at rest. Then the second ball is projected with speed } v_0 \text{ towards the third ball. Mark the correct statement(s). (Assume all collisions to be head-on and elastic):}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\text{The total number of collisions in the process is 5.}$, $\text{The velocity of separation between the first and fifth ball after the last possible collision is } v_0.$...
4
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9909
$\text{On a frictionless surface, a block of mass } M \text{ moving at speed } v \text{ collides elastically with another block of the same mass } M \text{ which is initially at rest. After the collision, the first block moves at an angle } \theta \text{ to its initial direction and has a speed } \frac{v}{3}. \text{ The second block's speed after the collision will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3}v$, $\frac{3}{4}v$...
1
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9908
$\text{A body of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 3 m/s collides with a body of mass of 1 kg moving with a velocity of 4 m/s in the opposite direction. If the collision is head-on and completely inelastic, then the wrong statement is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both bodies move together with a velocity } \frac{2}{3} \text{ m/s.}$, $\text{The momentum of the system is 2 kg-m/s throughout.}$...
3
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9907
$\text{A car of mass 100 kg and traveling at 20 m/s collides with a truck weighing 1 tonne traveling at 9 km/h in the same direction. The car bounces back at a speed of 5 m/s. The speed of the truck after the impact will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$11.5 \text{ m/s}$, $5 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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9906
$\text{A smooth sphere of mass } M \text{, moving with velocity } u \text{, directly collides elastically with another sphere of mass } m \text{ at rest. After the collision, their final velocities are } V \text{ and } v \text{, respectively. The value of } v \text{ is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2um}{m}$, $\frac{2um}{M}$...
3
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9905
$\text{Two equal masses, } m_1 \text{ and } m_2\text{, moving in the same straight line at velocities } +3 \text{ m/s and } -5 \text{ m/s respectively, collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$+4 \text{ m/s for both}$, $-3 \text{ m/s and } +5 \text{ m/s}$...
4
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9904
$\text{A body of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of } (\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}) \text{ m/s collides with another body of mass 3 kg moving with a velocity of } (2\hat{i} + \hat{j} + \hat{k}) \text{ m/s. If they stick together, the velocity in m/s of the composite body will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{5}(8\hat{i} + 7\hat{j} - 3\hat{k})$, $\frac{1}{5}(-4\hat{i} + \hat{j} - 3\hat{k})$...
1
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9903
$\text{A body of mass } m \text{ accelerates uniformly from rest to } v_1 \text{ in time } t_1\text{. As a function of time } t\text{, the instantaneous power delivered to the body will be:}$
1
105
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$\frac{mv_1t}{t_1}$, $\frac{mv_1^2t}{t_1}$...
4
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9902
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ is driven by a machine that delivers a constant power of } k \text{ watts. If the particle starts from rest, the force on the particle at time } t \text{ is:}$
1
105
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$\sqrt{\frac{mk}{2}} t^{-1/2}$, $\sqrt{mkt} t^{-1/2}$...
1
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9901
A quarter horse-power motor runs at a speed of 600 rpm. Assuming 40% efficiency, the work done by the motor in one rotation will be:
1
105
Recommended Questions
$7.46 \text{ J}$, $7400 \text{ J}$...
1
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9900
$\text{The power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies with time as } P = \frac{3t^2}{2} \text{ Watt, where t is in seconds. If the velocity of a particle at t = 0 is v = 0, then the velocity of the particle at t = 2 s will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$1 \text{ m/s}$, $4 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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9899
$\text{A truck of mass 30,000 kg moves up an inclined plane of slope 1 in 100 }(\tan \theta = \frac{1}{100})\text{ at a speed of 30 km/h. The power of the truck is: (given }g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2}\text{):}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$25 \text{ kW}$, $10 \text{ kW}$...
1
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9898
Water falls from a height of 60 m at a rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional forces are 10% of energy. How much power is generated by the turbine? }(g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)
1
105
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$8.1 \text{ kW}$, $10.2 \text{ kW}$...
1
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9897
$\text{An engine pumps liquid of density d continuously through a pipe of cross-sectional area A. If the speed with which liquid passes through the pipe is v, then the rate at which kinetic energy is being imparted to the liquid by the pump is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$Adv^2$, $\frac{1}{2}Adv^2$...
3
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9896
$\text{An automobile of mass } m \text{ accelerates from rest, while the engine supplies constant power } P. \text{ The speed of the automobile as a function of time, } t, \text{ is given by:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$v = \left(\frac{2Pt}{m}\right)^{1/2}$, $v = (2Ptm)^{1/3}$...
1
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9895
$\text{A particle moves with a velocity of } (5\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}) \text{ m/s under the influence of a constant force } \vec{F} = (10\hat{i} + 10\hat{j} + 20\hat{k}) \text{ N. The instantaneous power applied to the particle is:}$
1
105
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$200 \text{ J/s}$, $40 \text{ J/s}$...
3
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9894
$\text{A body is thrown vertically up with a certain initial velocity. The potential and the kinetic energy of the body are equal at a point P in its path. If the same body is thrown with double the velocity upwards, the ratio of the potential and the kinetic energies of the body when it crosses at the same point will be:}$
1
105
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$1:1$, $1:4$...
3
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9893
$\text{A particle is suspended by a light rod of length } l. \text{ The minimum speed at which the particle should be projected, so that it moves in a vertical circle, is:}$
1
105
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$3\sqrt{gl}$, $\sqrt{2gl}$...
3
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9892
$\text{A chain of length L and mass m is placed upon a smooth surface. The length of BA is (L-b). What will be the velocity of the chain when its end A reaches B?}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{\frac{2g\sin\theta}{L}(L^2 - b^2)}$, $\sqrt{\frac{g\sin\theta}{2L}(L^2 - b^2)}$...
3
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9891
$\text{The principle of conservation of energy implies that:}$
1
105
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$\text{the total mechanical energy is conserved.}$, $\text{the total kinetic energy is conserved.}$...
4
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9890
$\text{A spherical ball of mass 20 kg is stationary at the top of a hill of height 100 m. It slides down a smooth surface to the ground, then climbs up another hill of height 30 m and finally slides down to a horizontal base at a height of 20 m above the ground. The velocity attained by the ball is:}$
1
105
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$10 \text{ m/s}$, $10\sqrt{30} \text{ m/s}$...
3
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9889
A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of \text{20 m} with an initial velocity $v_0$. It collides with the ground, loses \text{50%} of its energy in a collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity $v_0$ is: (Take $g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2}$)
1
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$14 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $20 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
2
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9888
$\text{A block of mass } M \text{ is attached to the lower end of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from the ceiling and has a force constant value of } k\text{. The mass is released from rest with the spring initially unstretched. The maximum extension produced along the length of the spring will be:}$
1
105
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$\frac{Mg}{k}$, $\frac{2Mg}{k}$...
2
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9887
$\text{If a stone is projected vertically upward from the ground at a speed of 10 m/s, then it's: } (g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\text{Potential energy will be maximum after 0.5 s}$, $\text{Kinetic energy will be maximum again after 1 s}$...
3
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9886
$\text{A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height } h \text{ (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter } AB = D. \text{ The height } h \text{ is equal to:}$
1
105
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$\frac{3}{2}D$, $D$...
4
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9885
$\text{When an object is shot from the bottom of a long, smooth inclined plane kept at an angle of } 60^\circ \text{ with horizontal, it can travel a distance } x_1 \text{ along the plane. But when the inclination is decreased to } 30^\circ \text{ and the same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel } x_2 \text{ distance. Then } x_1 : x_2 \text{ will be:}$
1
105
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$1 : 2\sqrt{3}$, $1 : \sqrt{2}$...
4
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9884
$\text{A ball is dropped from a height of 5 m. If it rebounds up to a height of 1.8 m, then the ratio of velocities of the ball after and before the rebound will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3}{5}$, $\frac{2}{5}$...
1
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9883
$\text{The potential energy of a system increases if work is done:}$
1
105
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$\text{by the system against a conservative force.}$, $\text{by the system against a non-conservative force.}$...
1
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9882
$\text{A particle of mass 'm' is moving in a horizontal circle of radius 'r' under a centripetal force equal to } -\frac{K}{r^2}, \text{ where K is a constant. The total energy of the particle will be:}$
1
105
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$\frac{K}{2r}$, $-\frac{K}{2r}$...
2
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9881
$\text{The potential energy of a particle of mass 1 kg free to move along the X-axis is given by } U(x) = (3x^2 - 4x + 6) \text{ J. The force acting on the particle at x = 0 will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$2\hat{i} \text{ N}$, $-4\hat{i} \text{ N}$...
4
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9880
$\text{The figure shows the potential energy function U(x) for a system in which a particle is in a one-dimensional motion. What is the direction of the force when the particle is in region AB? (symbols have their usual meanings)}$
1
105
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$\text{The positive direction of x}$, $\text{The negative direction of x}$...
1
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9879
$\text{The potential energy of a particle of mass m varies as the magnitude of the } U = ax^2 + by. \text{ The magnitude of the acceleration of the particle at (0, 3) is: (symbols have their usual meaning)}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{\frac{b}{m}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{3b}{m}}$...
3
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9878
$\text{Potential energy (U) related to coordinates is given by; } U = 3(x + y). \text{ Work done by the conservative force when the particle is going from (0, 0), (2, 3) is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$15 \text{ J}$, $-15 \text{ J}$...
2
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9877
$\text{The potential energy of a particle in a force field is } U = \frac{A}{r^2} - \frac{B}{r} \text{ where A and B are positive constants and r is the distance of the particle from the centre of the field. For stable equilibrium, the distance of the particle is:}$
1
105
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$\frac{B}{A}$, $\frac{B}{2A}$...
3
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9876
$\text{A particle is moving such that the potential energy U varies with position in metre as } U(x) = (4x^2 - 2x + 50) \text{ J. The particle will be in equilibrium at:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$x = 25 \text{ cm}$, $x = 2.5 \text{ cm}$...
1
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9875
$\text{The potential energy of a particle varies with distance } r \text{ as shown in the graph. The force acting on the particle is equal to zero at:}$
1
105
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$P$, $S$...
3
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9874
$\text{The potential energy } U \text{ of a system is given by } U = A - Bx^2 \text{ (where } x \text{ is the position of its particle and } A, B \text{ are constants). The magnitude of the force acting on the particle is:}$
1
105
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$\text{constant}$, $\text{proportional to } x$...
2
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9873
$\text{The work done in increasing the length of a massless spring from its natural length 15 cm to 15.1 cm is 20 J. Work done in increasing the length from 15.1 cm to 15.2 cm will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$20 \text{ J}$, $40 \text{ J}$...
3
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9872
$\text{A vertical spring with a force constant } k \text{ is fixed on a table. A ball of mass } m \text{ at a height } h \text{ above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring so that the spring is compressed by a distance } d. \text{ The net work done in the process is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$mg(h + d) + \frac{1}{2}kd^2$, $mg(h + d) - \frac{1}{2}kd^2$...
2
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9871
$\text{A vertical spring with a force constant } k \text{ is fixed on a table. A ball of mass } m \text{ at a height } h \text{ above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring so that the spring is compressed by a distance } d. \text{ The net work done in the process is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$mg(h + d) + \frac{1}{2}kd^2$, $mg(h + d) - \frac{1}{2}kd^2$...
1
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9870
$\text{Two springs of spring constants } k \text{ and } 3k \text{ are stretched separately by the same force. The ratio of potential energy stored in them respectively, will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$3 : 1$, $9 : 1$...
1
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9869
$\text{If two springs, A and B } (K_A = 2 K_B) \text{, are stretched by the same suspended weights, then the ratio of work done in stretching is equal to:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$1 : 2$, $2 : 1$...
3
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9868
$\text{A block of mass } M \text{ moving on the frictionless horizontal surface collides with the spring of spring constant } k \text{ and compresses it by length } L. \text{ The maximum momentum of the block after the collision will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $\frac{ML^2}{k}$...
3
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9867
$\text{When a spring is subjected to 4 N force, its length is a metre and if 5 N is applied, its length is b metre. If 9 N is applied, its length will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$4b - 3a$, $5b - a$...
4
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9866
$\text{A spring 40 mm long is stretched by the application of force. If 10 N force is required to stretch the spring through 1 mm, then work done to stretch the spring 40 mm is equal to:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$84 \text{ J}$, $68 \text{ J}$...
2
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9865
$\text{A block of mass } m \text{ initially at rest, is dropped from a height } h \text{ onto a spring of force constant } k. \text{ If the maximum compression in the spring is } x, \text{ then:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$mgh = \frac{1}{2}kx^2$, $mg(h + x) = \frac{1}{2}kx^2$...
4
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9864
$\text{Select the incorrect statement about potential energy:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\text{A change in potential energy is equal to work done against the internal conservative force.}$, $\text{A change in potential energy is independent of the reference point.}$...
3
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9863
$\text{A bolt of mass 0.3 kg falls from the ceiling of an elevator moving down at a uniform speed of 7 m/s. It hits the floor of the elevator (length of the elevator = 3 m) and does not rebound. What is the heat produced by the impact?}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$8.82 \text{ J}$, $7.65 \text{ J}$...
1
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9862
$\text{What is the work done by gravity on block A in 2 seconds after the blocks are released? (Pulley is light)}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$240 \text{ J}$, $200 \text{ J}$...
1
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9861
$\text{A particle of mass 'm' is projected at an angle '} \alpha \text{' with the horizontal, with an initial velocity 'u'. The work done by gravity during the time it reaches its highest point is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$u^2 \sin^2 \alpha$, $\frac{mu^2 \cos^2 \alpha}{2}$...
4
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9860
$\text{In the given figure, a man pulls the mass } m \text{ with the help of a rope. Work done by the man against gravity when mass is lifted by 0.5 m is: } (g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$50 \text{ J}$, $100 \text{ J}$...
1
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9859
$\text{The work done by a person in carrying a box of mass 10 kg to a vertical height of 10 m is 4900 J. The mass of the person is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$40 \text{ kg}$, $60 \text{ kg}$...
1
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9858
$\text{A uniform chain of length } L \text{ and mass } M \text{ is lying on a smooth table and one-third of its length is hanging vertically down over the edge of the table. If } g \text{ is acceleration due to gravity, the work required to pull the hanging part on the table is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$MgL$, $\frac{MgL}{3}$...
4
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9857
$\text{Four situations are shown in the following options. In each situation, planes are equally rough and the block begins with the same speed and slides until the kinetic frictional force has stopped it. In which of the following cases increase in thermal energy due to sliding is least?}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\text{Block sliding on horizontal surface}$, $\text{Block sliding down a 30° incline}$...
4
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9856
$\text{A body of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with velocity } v = ax^{3/2} \text{ where } a = 5 \text{ m}^{-1/2} \text{s}^{-1}\text{. What is the work done by the net force during its displacement from } x = 0 \text{ to } x = 2 \text{ m?}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$50 \text{ J}$, $45 \text{ J}$...
1
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9855
$\text{A bullet fired towards a wall reduces its kinetic energy by half after the penetration of 6 cm. The further penetration of the bullet into the wall is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ cm}$, $1 \text{ cm}$...
3
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9854
$\text{A block of mass } m \text{ is connected to a spring of force constant } K\text{. Initially, the block is at rest and the spring is relaxed. A constant force } F \text{ is applied horizontally towards the right. The maximum speed of the block will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\frac{F}{\sqrt{2mK}}$, $\frac{\sqrt{2}F}{\sqrt{mK}}$...
3
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9853
$\text{The energy required to accelerate a car from rest to 30 m/s is E. The energy required to accelerate the car from 30 m/s to 60 m/s will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$E$, $2E$...
3
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9852
$\text{A body of mass } m \text{ dropped from a height } h \text{ reaches the ground with a speed of } 1.4\sqrt{gh}\text{. The work done by air drag is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$-0.2mgh$, $-0.02mgh$...
2
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9851
$\text{A block is released from rest from a height of } h = 5 \text{ m. After travelling through the smooth curved surface, it moves on the rough horizontal surface through a length } l = 8 \text{ m and climbs onto the other smooth curved surface at a height } h'\text{. If } \mu = 0.5\text{, find } h'\text{.}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ m}$, $3 \text{ m}$...
3
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9850
$\text{A body of mass 'm' is released from the top of a fixed rough inclined plane as shown in the figure. If the frictional force has magnitude F, then the body will reach the bottom with a velocity: } (L = \sqrt{2h})$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{2gh}$, $\sqrt{\frac{2Fh}{m}}$...
4
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9849
$\text{A block is carried slowly up an inclined plane. If } W_f \text{ is work done by the friction, } W_N \text{ is work done by the reaction force, } W_g \text{ is work done by the gravitational force and } W_{ex} \text{ is the work done by an external force, then choose the correct relation(s):}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$W_N + W_f + W_g + W_{ex} = 0$, $W_N = 0$...
4
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9848
$\text{A particle of mass 10 kg moves with a velocity of } 10\sqrt{x} \text{ in SI units, where } x \text{ is displacement. The work done by the net force during the displacement of the particle from } x = 4 \text{ m to } x = 9 \text{ m is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$1250 \text{ J}$, $1000 \text{ J}$...
4
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9847
$\text{The bob of a simple pendulum having length l, is displaced from the mean position to an angular position } \theta \text{ with respect to vertical. If it is released, then the velocity of the bob at the lowest position will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{2gl(1 - \cos \theta)}$, $\sqrt{2gl(1 + \cos \theta)}$...
1
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9846
$\text{An object of mass } m = 1.5 \text{ kg is acted upon by the force as shown in the figure that varies with the position of the object as shown. If the object starts from rest at a point } x = 0, \text{ then what is its speed at } x = 50 \text{ m?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$20 \text{ m/s}$, $25 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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9845
$\text{A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity of 20 ms}^{-1}. \text{It momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? } (g = 10) \text{ ms}^{-2}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$20 \text{ J}$, $30 \text{ J}$...
1
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9844
$\text{A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity of 20 ms}^{-1}\text{. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? (g = 10) ms}^{-2}$
1
105
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$\text{20 J}$, $\text{30 J}$...
1
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9843
$\text{A force of 5 N making an angle } \theta \text{ with the horizontal acting on an object displaces it by 0.4 m along the horizontal direction. If the object gains kinetic energy of 1 J then the component of the force is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\text{1.5 N}$, $\text{2.5 N}$...
2
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9842
$\text{The relationship between the force F and the position x of a body is as shown in the figure. The work done in displacing the body from x = 1 m to x = 5 m will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\text{30 J}$, $\text{15 J}$...
2
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9841
$\text{A force } \vec{F} = -k(y\hat{i} + x\hat{j}) \text{ (where k is a positive constant) acts on a particle moving in the xy-plane. Starting from the origin, the particle is taken along the positive x-axis to the point (a, 0) and then parallel to the y-axis to the point (a, a). The total work done by the force on the particle is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$-2ka^2$, $2ka^2$...
3
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9840
$\text{When a body moves non-uniformly on a circular path:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\text{no work is done by the tangential force.}$, $\text{no work is done by the centripetal force.}$...
2
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9839
$\text{A force } F = (20 + 10y) \text{ acts on a particle in the } y\text{-direction where } F \text{ is in Newton and } y \text{ is in meter. Work done by this force to move the particle from } y = 0 \text{ to } y = 1 \text{ m is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$20 \text{ J}$, $30 \text{ J}$...
2
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9838
$\text{A position dependent force } F = 7 - 2x + 3x^2 \text{ N acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and displaces it from } x = 0 \text{ to } x = 5 \text{ m. The work done in joule is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$70$, $270$...
4
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9837
$\text{The relationship between force and position is shown in the given figure (in a one-dimensional case). The work done by the force in displacing a body from } x = 1 \text{ cm to } x = 5 \text{ cm is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$20 \text{ ergs}$, $60 \text{ ergs}$...
1
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9836
$\text{Forces acting on a particle have magnitudes of 14, 7, and 7 N and act in the direction of vectors } 6\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}, 3\hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}, 2\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} - 6\hat{k} \text{ respectively. The forces remain constant while the particle is displaced from point } A: (2, 1, -3) \text{ to } B: (5, 1, 1). \text{ The coordinates are specified in meters. The work done equal to:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$75 \text{ J}$, $55 \text{ J}$...
1
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9835
$\text{A cord is used to vertically lower a block of mass m by a distance d at a constant downward acceleration of } \frac{g}{4}. \text{ The work done by the chord on the block will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\frac{3}{4}mgd$, $-\frac{3}{4}mgd$...
2
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9834
$\text{A bicyclist comes to a skidding stop in 10 m. During this process, the force on the bicycle due to the road is 200 N is directly opposed to the motion. The work done by the cycle on the road is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$+2000 \text{ J}$, $-200 \text{ J}$...
3
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9833
$\text{The position-time } (x-t) \text{ graph of a particle of mass 2 kg is shown in the figure. Total work done on the particle from } t = 0 \text{ to } t = 4 \text{ s is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$8 \text{ J}$, $4 \text{ J}$...
3
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9832
$\text{The position of a particle } (x) \text{ varies with time } (t) \text{ as } x = (t - 2)^2, \text{ where } x \text{ is in meters and } t \text{ is in seconds. Calculate the work done during } t = 0 \text{ to } t = 4 \text{ s if the mass of the particle is 100 g.}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$0.4 \text{ J}$, $0.2 \text{ J}$...
4
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9831
$\text{In the diagram shown, force } F \text{ acts on the free end of the string. If the weight } W \text{ moves up slowly by distance } h, \text{ then work done on the weight by the string holding it will be: (pulley and string are ideal)}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$Fh$, $2Fh$...
2
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9830
$\text{A particle moves from a point } (-2\hat{i} + 5\hat{j}) \text{ to } (4\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}) \text{ when a force of } (4\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}) \text{ N is applied. How much work has been done by the force?}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$8 \text{ J}$, $11 \text{ J}$...
3
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9829
$\text{A block of mass m is placed in an elevator moving down with an acceleration } \frac{g}{3}\text{. The work done by the normal reaction on the block as the elevator moves down through a height h is:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\frac{-2mgh}{3}$, $\frac{-mgh}{3}$...
1
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9828
A person-1 stands on an elevator moving with an initial velocity of 'v' & upward acceleration 'a'. Another person-2 of the same mass m as person-1 is standing on the same elevator. The work done by the lift on the person-1 as observed by person-2 in time 't' is:
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\text{m}(g) + \text{a}(vt) + \frac{1}{2}at^2$, $-\text{mg}(vt) + \frac{1}{2}at^2$...
3
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9827
$\text{The minimum work done in pulling up a block of wood weighing 2 kN for a length of 10 m on a smooth plane inclined at an angle of 15° with the horizontal is (given: sin15° = 0.2588):}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$4.36 \text{ kJ}$, $5.17 \text{ kJ}$...
2
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9826
$\text{A person of mass 'm' ascends the stairs and goes up slowly through a height 'h'.}$ $\text{Then,}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\text{Work done by gravity is mgh}$, $\text{Work done by normal reaction is mgh}$...
3
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9825
$\text{The kinetic energy of a body is increased by 21\%. The percentage increase in the magnitude of linear momentum of the body will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$10\%$, $20\%$...
1
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9824
$\text{A rigid body of mass m is moving in a circle of radius r with constant speed v. The force on the body is } \frac{mv^2}{r} \text{ and is always directed towards the center. The work done by this force in moving the body over half the circumference of the circle will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\frac{mv^2}{\pi r}$, $mv^2 \pi$...
3
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9823
$\text{Which of the following is not a unit of energy?}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$\text{watt-hour}$, $\text{joule}$...
4
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9822
$\text{A body constrained to move along the z-axis of a coordinate system is subjected to constant force given by } \vec{F} = -\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \text{ where } \hat{i}, \hat{j} \text{ and } \hat{k} \text{ are unit vectors along the x-axis, y-axis and z-axis of the system respectively. The work done by this force in moving the body a distance of 4 m along the z-axis will be:}$
1
105
Recommended Questions
$15 \text{ J}$, $14 \text{ J}$...
4
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9821
$\text{A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. He does:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{negative work}$, $\text{positive but not maximum work}$...
3
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9820
$\text{A mass } m \text{ is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\text{inclined at a } 60^\circ \text{ angle from vertical}$, $\text{the mass is at the highest point}$...
4
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9819
$\text{A massless and inextensible string connects two blocks A and B of masses } 3m \text{ and } m, \text{ respectively. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring, as shown in the figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\frac{g}{3}, g$, $g, g$...
1
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9818
$\text{A block slides down on a } 45^\circ \text{ rough incline in thrice the time it takes to slide down on a frictionless } 45^\circ \text{ incline of the same length. The coefficient of friction between the block and the rough incline is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$0.6$, $0.7$...
4
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9817
$\text{A simple pendulum hangs from the roof of a train moving on horizontal rails. If the string is inclined towards the front of the train, then the train is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\text{moving with constant velocity.}$, $\text{in accelerated motion.}$...
3
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9816
$\text{A body is moving with a velocity of } 2\hat{i} \text{ m/s. If the force acting on the body is } (2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}) \text{ N, then the momentum of the body is changing in:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$X\text{-direction only}$, $X\text{-}Y \text{ directions}$...
4
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9815
$\text{The angle between the position vector and the acceleration vector of a particle in non-uniform circular motion (centre of the circle is taken as the origin) will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$0°$, $45°$...
4
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9814
$\text{A stone of mass } m \text{ tied to the end of a string revolves in a vertical circle of radius } R. \text{ The magnitude of net forces at the lowest and highest points of the circle directed vertically downwards are:}$ $\text{(}T_1 \text{ and } v_1 \text{ denote the tension and speed at the lowest point. } T_2 \text{ and } v_2 \text{ denote corresponding values at the highest point.)}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\text{Lowest point: } mg - T_1, \text{ Highest point: } mg + T_2$, $\text{Lowest point: } mg + T_1, \text{ Highest point: } mg + T_2$...
1
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9813
$\text{The kinetic energy } K \text{ of a particle moving in a circular path varies with the distance covered } S \text{ as } K = aS^2 \text{ where } a \text{ is constant. The angle between the tangential force and the net force acting on the particle is: (}R \text{ is the radius of the circular path)}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{S}{R}\right)$, $\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{R}{S}\right)$...
1
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9812
$\text{A bucket full of water tied with the help of a 2 m long string performs a vertical circular motion. The minimum angular velocity of the bucket at the uppermost point so that water will not fall will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$2\sqrt{5} \text{ rad/s}$, $\sqrt{5} \text{ rad/s}$...
2
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9811
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ having speed } v \text{ goes in a vertical circular motion such that its centre is at its origin, as shown in the figure. If at any instant the angle made by the string with a negative } y\text{-axis is } \theta \text{ then the tension in the string is:}$ $\text{[Take radius = } R\text{]}$
1
104
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$mg \sin \theta + \frac{mv^2}{R}$, $mg \cos \theta - \frac{mv^2}{R}$...
3
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9810
$\text{A point mass } m \text{ is moved in a vertical circle of radius } r \text{ with the help of a string. The velocity of the mass is } \sqrt{7gr} \text{ at the lowest point. The tension in the string at the lowest point will be:}$
1
104
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$6mg$, $7mg$...
3
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9809
$\text{A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/s. A plumb bob is suspended from the roof of the car by a light rigid rod of length 1.00 m. The angle formed by the rod with respect to the vertical is:}$
1
104
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$\text{zero}$, $30°$...
3
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9808
$\text{The banking angle for a curved road of radius 490 m for a vehicle moving at 35 m/s is:}$
1
104
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$\tan^{-1}(0.25)$, $\tan^{-1}(0.55)$...
1
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9807
$\text{A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the banking angle is of 45°, the speed of the car is:}$
1
104
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$20 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $30 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
2
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9806
$\text{The angle of banking for a cyclist taking a turn at a curve is given by } \tan \theta = \frac{v^n}{rg} \text{ where symbols have their usual meaning. The value of } n \text{ is:}$
1
104
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$1$, $2$...
2
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9805
$\text{One end of the string of length } l \text{ is connected to a particle of mass } m \text{ and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with speed } v\text{, the net force on the particle (directed towards the centre) will be: (}T \text{ represents the tension in the string)}$
1
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$T$, $T + \frac{mv^2}{l}$...
1
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9804
$\text{A motorcycle is going on an overbridge of radius } R\text{. The driver maintains a constant speed. The normal force on the motorcycle as it ascends the overbridge will be:}$
1
104
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$\text{increases}$, $\text{decreases}$...
1
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9803
$\text{A tube of length } L \text{ is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass } M \text{ and closed at both ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity } \omega\text{. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is:}$
1
104
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$\frac{ML\omega^2}{2}$, $\frac{ML^2\omega}{2}$...
1
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9802
$\text{A point mass } m \text{ is suspended from a light thread of length } l\text{, fixed at } O\text{, and is whirled in a horizontal circle at a constant speed as shown. From your point of view, stationary with respect to the mass, the forces on the mass are:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Tension } T \text{ (upward and leftward), centrifugal force } F \text{ (leftward), and weight } W \text{ (downward)}$, $\text{Tension } T \text{ (upward and leftward) and weight } W \text{ (downward)}$...
3
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9801
$\text{A block of mass 10 kg is in contact with the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is 0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for the cylinder, which is vertical and rotating about its axis, will be:}$ $(g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
104
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$10\pi \text{ rad/s}$, $\sqrt{10\pi} \text{ rad/s}$...
4
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9800
$\text{Two stones of masses } m \text{ and } 2m \text{ are whirled in horizontal circles, the heavier one in a radius } \frac{r}{2} \text{ and the lighter one in the radius } r\text{. The tangential speed of lighter stone is } n \text{ times that of heavier stone when they experience the same centripetal forces. The value of } n \text{ is:}$
1
104
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$2$, $3$...
1
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9799
$\text{A body of mass } m \text{ is moving on a concave bridge } ABC \text{ of the radius of curvature } R \text{ at a speed } v. \text{ The normal reaction of the bridge on the body at the instant it is at the lowest point of the bridge is:}$
1
104
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$mg - \frac{mv^2}{R}$, $mg + \frac{mv^2}{R}$...
2
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9798
$\text{A coin placed on a rotating table just slips if it is placed at a distance } 4r \text{ from the center. On doubling the angular velocity of the table, the coin will just slip when the distance from the centre is equal to:}$
1
104
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$4r$, $2r$...
3
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9797
$\text{Two masses, } M \text{ and } m, \text{ are attached to a vertical axis by weightless threads of combined length } l. \text{ They are set in rotational motion in a horizontal plane about this axis with constant angular velocity } \omega. \text{ If the tensions in the threads are the same during motion, the distance of } M \text{ from the axis is:}$
1
104
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$\frac{Ml}{M+m}$, $\frac{ml}{M+m}$...
2
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9796
$\text{A roller coaster is designed such that riders experience "weightlessness" as they go round the top of a hill whose radius of curvature is 20 m. The speed of the car at the top of the hill is between:}$
1
104
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$14 \text{ m/s and } 15 \text{ m/s}$, $15 \text{ m/s and } 16 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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9795
$\text{A ball of mass } 0.1 \text{ kg is whirled in a horizontal circle of radius } 1 \text{ m by means of a string at an initial speed of } 10 \text{ rpm. Keeping the radius constant, the tension in the string is reduced to one quarter of its initial value. The new speed is:}$
1
104
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$5 \text{ rpm}$, $10 \text{ rpm}$...
1
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9794
$\text{A massless string of length } 1 \text{ m fixed at one end carries a mass of } 2 \text{ kg at the other end. The string makes } \frac{2}{\pi} \text{ rev/s around the axis through the fixed end as shown in the figure. The tension on the string will be:}$
1
104
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$32 \text{ N}$, $3 \text{ N}$...
1
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9793
$\text{A } 10 \text{ kg block is kept on a horizontal turntable that rotates at an angular velocity of } 2 \text{ rad/s. If the distance of the block from the center of the table is } 0.5 \text{ m, the net force on the block is:}$
1
104
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$40 \text{ N}$, $20 \text{ N}$...
2
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9792
$\text{The maximum constant speed with which a car can move on a flat horizontal circular road with the radius of curvature } 20 \text{ m and a coefficient of static friction } 0.5 \text{ is: } (g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
104
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$36 \text{ km/h}$, $54 \text{ km/h}$...
1
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9791
$\text{A small coin is kept at a distance } r \text{ from the centre of a gramophone disc rotating at an angular speed } \omega\text{. The minimum coefficient of friction for which a coin will not slip is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\frac{r\omega^2}{g}$, $\frac{g}{r\omega^2}$...
1
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9790
$\text{A particle of mass } m \text{ is suspended from a ceiling through a massless string. The particle moves in a horizontal circle as shown in the given figure. The tension in the string is:}$
1
104
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$mg$, $2mg$...
2
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9789
$\text{A car of mass } m \text{ is moving on a level circular track of radius } R. \text{ If } \mu_s \text{ represent the static friction between the road and tyres of the car, then the maximum speed of the car in circular motion is given by:}$
1
104
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$\sqrt{\mu_s m R g}$, $\sqrt{\frac{Rg}{\mu_s}}$...
4
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9788
$\text{Two plates of the same mass are attached rigidly to the two ends of a spring. One of the plates rests on a horizontal surface, and the other results in compression } X \text{ of the spring when it is in steady-state. If an external force is applied to the upper plate to just lift off the lowest plate, what further compression in the spring is required?}$
1
104
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$0.5X$, $3X$...
3
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9787
$\text{The reading of spring balance in the depicted figure will be:}$
1
104
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$0 \text{ N}$, $20 \text{ N}$...
3
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9786
$\text{If the system shown in the figure is in equilibrium, then the reading of spring balance (in kgf) is:}$
1
104
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$10$, $20$...
1
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9785
$\text{The length of a spring is } l_1 \text{ and } l_2 \text{ when stretched with a force of 4 N and 5 N respectively. Its natural length is?}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$l_2 + l_1$, $2(l_2 - l_1)$...
3
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9784
$\text{Three blocks each of mass } m \text{ are hanged vertically with the help of inextensible strings and ideal springs. Initially, the system was in equilibrium. If at any instant, the lowermost string is cut, then the acceleration of block B just after cutting the string will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$g$, $\frac{g}{2}$...
1
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9783
$\text{Calculate the reading of the spring balance shown in the figure: (take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\text{)}$ $\text{The system shows a 10 kg mass on a 30° inclined plane connected via a pulley to a 5 kg hanging mass, with the entire system accelerating upward at 2 m/s}^2$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$60 \text{ N}$, $40 \text{ N}$...
1
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9782
$\text{A massless and inextensible string connects two blocks A and B of masses } 3m \text{ and } m\text{, respectively. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring, as shown in the figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\frac{g}{3}, g$, $g, g$...
1
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9781
$\text{Three blocks } A, B \text{ and } C \text{ of mass } 3M, 2M \text{ and } M \text{ respectively are suspended vertically with the help of springs } PQ \text{ and } TU \text{ and a string } RS \text{ as shown in Figure. The acceleration of blocks } A, B \text{ and } C \text{ are } a_1, a_2 \text{ and } a_3 \text{ respectively. The value of acceleration } a_1 \text{ at the moment string } RS \text{ is cut will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$g \text{ downward}$, $g \text{ upward}$...
2
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9780
$\text{Two blocks, A and B, of masses } 2m \text{ and } 4m \text{ are connected by a string. The block of mass } 4m \text{ is connected by a spring (massless). The string is suddenly cut. The ratio of the magnitudes of accelerations of masses } 2m \text{ and } 4m \text{ at that instant will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$1 : 2$, $2 : 1$...
2
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9779
$\text{Two masses, A and B, each of mass } M \text{ are fixed together by a massless spring. A force acts on the mass B as shown in the figure. If the mass B starts moving away from mass A with acceleration } a \text{ in the ground frame, then the acceleration of mass A will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\frac{Ma - F}{M}$, $\frac{MF}{F + Ma}$...
4
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9778
$\text{An engine pumps liquid of density d continuously through a pipe of cross-sectional area A. If the speed with which liquid passes through the pipe is v, then the rate at which kinetic energy is being imparted to the liquid by the pump is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$Adv^2$, $\frac{1}{2}Adv^2$...
1
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9777
$\text{As shown in the figure, two masses of } 10 \text{ kg and } 20 \text{ kg, respectively are connected by a massless spring. A force of } 200 \text{ N acts on the } 20 \text{ kg mass. At the instant shown, the } 10 \text{ kg mass has an acceleration of } 12 \text{ m/s}^2 \text{ towards the right. The acceleration of } 20 \text{ kg mass at this instant is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$12 \text{ m/s}^2$, $4 \text{ m/s}^2$...
2
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9776
$\text{A block of mass } 1 \text{ kg lying on the floor is subjected to a horizontal force given by, } F = 2 \sin \omega t \text{ newtons. The coefficient of friction between the block and the floor is } 0.25. \text{ The acceleration of the block will be:}$
1
104
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$\text{positive and uniform}$, $\text{positive and non-uniform}$...
3
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9775
$\text{A block } B \text{ is placed on top of block } A. \text{ The mass of block } B \text{ is less than the mass of block } A. \text{ Friction exists between the blocks, whereas the ground on which block } A \text{ is placed is assumed to be smooth. A horizontal force } F, \text{ increasing linearly with time begins to act on } B. \text{ The acceleration } a_A \text{ and } a_B \text{ of blocks } A \text{ and } B \text{ respectively are plotted against } t. \text{ The correctly plotted graph is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: } a_B \text{ starts above } a_A \text{ and both increase linearly with } a_B > a_A$, $\text{Graph 2: } a_B \text{ and } a_A \text{ both start from origin and increase linearly with } a_B > a_A$...
4
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9774
$\text{A block is placed on a rough horizontal plane. A time dependent horizontal force, } F = kt, \text{ acts on the block. The acceleration time graph of the block is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Exponential increase in acceleration with time}$, $\text{Graph 2: Zero acceleration initially, then linear increase}$...
2
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9773
$\text{An object of mass } m \text{ is held against a vertical wall by applying horizontal force } F \text{ as shown in the figure. The minimum value of the force } F \text{ will be: (Consider friction between wall and object.)}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\text{Less than } mg$, $\text{Equal to } mg$...
3
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9772
$\text{The block of mass } m \text{ (shown in the figure) does not move on applying the inclined force } F. \text{ The friction force acting on the block is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$F \cos \theta$, $F \sin \theta$...
1
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9771
$\text{The friction between the front foot and the back foot when walking on a horizontal surface is, respectively:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\text{Forward, forward}$, $\text{Backward, backward}$...
4
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9770
$\text{A 40 kg slab rests on a frictionless floor. A 10 kg block rests on top of the slab. The static coefficient of friction between the block and the slab is 0.60, while the kinetic coefficient of friction is 0.40. The 10 kg block is acted upon by a horizontal force of 100 N. If } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\text{, the resulting acceleration of the slab will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$1.0 \text{ m/s}^2$, $1.47 \text{ m/s}^2$...
1
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9769
$\text{Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 3 kg placed on a horizontal surface are connected by a massless string. If 3 kg is pulled by 10 N as shown in the figure, then the force of friction acting on the 2 kg block will be:}$ $\text{(Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\text{)}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$6 \text{ N}$, $4 \text{ N}$...
2
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9768
$\text{If } \mu \text{ between block A and inclined plane is 0.5 and that between block B and the inclined plane is 0.8, then the normal reaction between blocks A and B will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$180 \text{ N}$, $216 \text{ N}$...
3
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9767
$\text{A heavy uniform chain partly lies on a horizontal table. If the coefficient of friction between the chain and the table surface is 0.25, then the maximum fraction of the length of the chain that can hang over the edge of the table will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$20\%$, $25\%$...
1
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9766
$\text{A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 2 m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of friction between them is } \mu = 0.5\text{. The distance that the box will move relative to the belt before coming to rest on it, taking } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2} \text{ is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$0.4 \text{ m}$, $1.2 \text{ m}$...
1
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9765
$\text{On the horizontal surface of a truck, a block of mass 1 kg is placed (} \mu = 0.6 \text{) and the truck is moving with an acceleration of } 5 \text{ m/s}^2\text{. The frictional force on the block will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$5 \text{ N}$, $6 \text{ N}$...
1
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9764
$\text{The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination } \theta \text{ is perfectly smooth while the lower half is rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of friction between the block and the lower half of the plane is given by:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\mu = 2/\tan \theta$, $\mu = 2 \tan \theta$...
2
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9763
$\text{Block A has a mass of 10 kg. Between block A and the table, the coefficient of static friction is 0.2, and the coefficient of kinetic friction is also 0.2. The required mass of B to start the motion will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ kg}$, $2.2 \text{ kg}$...
1
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9762
$\text{A body of mass } m \text{ is kept on a rough horizontal surface (coefficient of friction = } \mu \text{). A horizontal force is applied to the body, but it does not move. The resultant of normal reaction and the frictional force acting on the object is given by } \vec{F} \text{ where:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$|\vec{F}| = mg + \mu mg$, $|\vec{F}| = \mu mg$...
3
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9761
$\text{A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised at the other end. As the angle of inclination with the horizontal reaches } 30°, \text{ the box starts to slip and slides } 4.0 \text{ m down the plank in } 4.0 \text{ s. The coefficients of static and kinetic friction between the box and the plank, respectively, will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$0.6 \text{ and } 0.6$, $0.6 \text{ and } 0.5$...
2
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9760
$\text{A uniform chain of length } L \text{ hangs partly from a table which is kept in equilibrium by friction. If the maximum length that can be supported without slipping is } l, \text{ then the coefficient of friction between the table and the chain is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\frac{l}{L}$, $\frac{l}{L+l}$...
3
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9759
$\text{A block of mass } m \text{ lying on a rough horizontal plane is acted upon by a horizontal force } P \text{ and another force } Q \text{ inclined at an angle } \theta \text{ to the vertical. The block will remain in equilibrium if the coefficient of friction between it and the surface is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\frac{(P+Q\sin\theta)}{(mg+Q\cos\theta)}$, $\frac{(P\cos\theta+Q)}{(mg-Q\sin\theta)}$...
1
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9758
$\text{A block } B \text{ is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity } v. \text{ If } \mu \text{ is the coefficient of sliding friction between } B \text{ and the surface, the block } B \text{ will come to rest after a time:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\frac{v}{g\mu}$, $\frac{g\mu}{v}$...
1
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9757
$\text{A block of mass } m \text{ is in contact with the cart } (C) \text{ as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the cart is } \mu. \text{ The acceleration } a \text{ of the cart that will prevent the block from falling satisfies:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$a > \frac{mg}{\mu}$, $a > \frac{g}{\mu m}$...
3
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9756
$\text{Two masses, } A \text{ and } B\text{, of mass 4 kg and 1 kg, respectively, are connected with the help of a massless inextensible string. Mass } A \text{ is placed on a rough horizontal table, and mass } B \text{ is suspended with the help of a string passing through a smooth hole at the centre of the table. For the system to be in equilibrium, what should be the minimum value of the coefficient of friction?}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$0.5$, $0.25$...
2
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9755
$\text{A system consists of three masses } m_1\text{, } m_2\text{, and } m_3 \text{ connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass } m_1 \text{ hangs freely, and } m_2 \text{ and } m_3 \text{ are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction } = \mu\text{.) The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass } m_1 \text{ is:}$ $\text{(Assume } m_1 = m_2 = m_3 = m \text{ and } g \text{ is the acceleration due to gravity.)}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\frac{g(1-g\mu)}{9}$, $\frac{2g\mu}{3}$...
3
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9754
$\text{A rigid rod is placed against the wall as shown in the figure. When the velocity at its lower end is } 10 \text{ ms}^{-1} \text{ and its base makes an angle } \alpha = 60^\circ \text{ with horizontal, then the vertical velocity of its end B (in ms}^{-1}\text{) will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$10\sqrt{3}$, $\frac{10}{\sqrt{3}}$...
2
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9753
$\text{If the block is being pulled by the rope moving at speed } v \text{ as shown, then the horizontal velocity of the block is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$v$, $v \cos \theta$...
4
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9752
$\text{The figure shows a rod of length 5 m. Its ends, } A \text{ and } B\text{, are restrained to moving in horizontal and vertical guides. When the end } A \text{ is 3 m above } O\text{, it moves at 4 m/s. The velocity of end } B \text{ at that instant is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ m/s}$, $3 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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9751
$\text{What is the velocity of the block when the angle between the string and the horizontal is } 30^\circ \text{ as shown in the diagram?}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$v_B = v_P$, $v_B = \frac{v_P}{\sqrt{3}}$...
4
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9750
$\text{A block of mass } M \text{ is pulled by a force } F\text{, making an angle } \theta \text{ with the horizontal on a smooth horizontal surface as shown. If } a \text{ is the acceleration of block on the surface, then the contact force between the block and the surface will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$Mg + Ma \cos \theta$, $Mg - Ma \cos \theta$...
4
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9749
$\text{A lift is going up. The total mass of lift and the passenger is 1500 kg. The variation in the speed of the lift is as given in the graph. The tension in the rope pulling the lift at } t = 11^{\text{th}} \text{ s will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$17400 \text{ N}$, $14700 \text{ N}$...
3
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9748
$\text{Two masses, } m \text{ and } M\text{, are connected by a light string passing over a smooth pulley. When mass } m \text{ moves up by 1.4 m in 2 sec, the ratio } \frac{m}{M} \text{ is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\frac{13}{15}$, $\frac{15}{13}$...
1
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9747
$\text{When a 5 kg plastic box is placed deep inside the water, it accelerates up at a rate of } \frac{g}{6}\text{. How much sand should be put inside the box so that it may accelerate down at the rate of } \frac{g}{6}\text{?}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ kg}$, $3 \text{ kg}$...
1
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9746
$\text{A block } B \text{ of mass 3 kg is kept on block } A \text{ of mass 5 kg in a lift accelerating upward with an acceleration of } g\text{. The reaction by } A \text{ on } B \text{ is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$10g$, $16g$...
4
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9745
$\text{A string tied on a roof bears a maximum tension of 50 kg-wt. The minimum acceleration that can be acquired by a man of 98 kg to descend will be:}$ $\text{[Take } g = 9.8 \text{ m/s}^2\text{]}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$9.8 \text{ m/s}^2$, $4.9 \text{ m/s}^2$...
3
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9744
$\text{A 5 m long uniformly thick string rests on a horizontal frictionless surface. It is pulled by a horizontal force of 5 N from one end. The tension in the string at 1 m from the end where the force is applied is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $5\text{ N}$...
3
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9743
$\text{Three identical masses, each of mass 4 kg, are connected by massless inextensible strings. The string joining } A \text{ and } B \text{ passes over a massless frictionless pulley as shown in the figure. The tension in the string connecting mass } B \text{ and } C \text{ is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$40\text{ N}$, $20\text{ N}$...
3
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9742
$\text{In the given figure, spring balance is massless, so the reading of spring balance will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$2\text{ kg}$, $3.5\text{ kg}$...
3
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9741
$\text{Two masses, } M \text{ and } m\text{, are connected by a weightless string. They are pulled by a force on a frictionless horizontal surface. The tension in the string will be:}$
1
104
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$\frac{F(M+2m)}{m+M}$, $\frac{F}{m+M}$...
1
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9740
$\text{The strings and pulleys shown in the figure are massless. The reading shown by the light spring balance } S \text{ is:}$
1
104
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$2.4 \text{ kg}$, $5 \text{ kg}$...
1
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9739
$\text{A small ball is suspended from a thread. If it is lifted up with an acceleration of } 4.9 \text{ ms}^{-2} \text{ and lowered with an acceleration of } 4.9 \text{ ms}^{-2}\text{, then the ratio of the tension in the thread in both cases will be:}$
1
104
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$1 : 3$, $3 : 1$...
2
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9738
$\text{If a young man of mass } 60 \text{ kg stands on the floor of a lift which is accelerating downwards at } 1 \text{ m/s}^2\text{, then the reaction of the floor of the lift on the man will be: } (g = 9.8 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
104
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$528 \text{ N}$, $540 \text{ N}$...
1
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9737
$\text{A monkey weighing } 20 \text{ kg is holding a vertical rope. The rope will not break when a mass of } 25 \text{ kg is suspended from it but will break if the mass exceeds } 25 \text{ kg. What is the maximum acceleration with which the monkey can climb up the rope? } (g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
104
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$5 \text{ m/s}^2$, $10 \text{ m/s}^2$...
4
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9736
$\text{Three blocks A, B, and C of masses } 4 \text{ kg, } 2 \text{ kg, and } 1 \text{ kg respectively, are in contact on a frictionless surface, as shown. If a force of } 14 \text{ N is applied to the } 4 \text{ kg block, then the contact force between A and B is:}$
1
104
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$2 \text{ N}$, $6 \text{ N}$...
2
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9735
$\text{Two bodies of mass, 4 kg and 6 kg, are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley, which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity } (g) \text{ is:}$
1
104
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$\frac{g}{2}$, $\frac{g}{5}$...
2
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9734
$\text{A block A of mass 7 kg is placed on a frictionless table. A thread tied to it passes over a frictionless pulley and carries a body B of mass 3 kg at the other end. The acceleration of the system will be: (given } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\text{)}$
1
104
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$100 \text{ ms}^{-2}$, $3 \text{ ms}^{-2}$...
2
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9733
$\text{Two masses 8 kg and 12 kg are connected at the two ends of a light inextensible string that goes over a frictionless pulley. The acceleration of the masses and the tension in the string when the masses are released are:}$
1
104
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$2 \text{ ms}^{-2}, 69 \text{ N}$, $1 \text{ ms}^{-2}, 69 \text{ N}$...
3
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9732
$\text{At a wall, } N \text{ bullets, each of mass } m\text{, are fired with a velocity } v \text{ at the rate of } n \text{ bullets/sec upon the wall. The bullets are stopped by the wall. The reaction offered by the wall to the bullets is:}$
1
104
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$\frac{Nmv}{n}$, $nNmv$...
4
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9731
$\text{A mass of 4 kg is suspended as shown in the figure with the help of massless inextensible string } A\text{. Another identical string, } B\text{, is connected at the lower end of the block. When a sudden pulling downward jerk slightly greater than the breaking strength of } A \text{ and } B \text{ is given to string } B\text{, then:}$
1
104
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$\text{String } A \text{ will break.}$, $\text{String } B \text{ will break.}$...
2
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9730
$\text{A particle is on a smooth horizontal plane. A force } F \text{ is applied, whose } (F-t) \text{ graph is given.}$ $\text{Consider the following statements:}$ $\text{(a) At time } t_1\text{, acceleration is constant.}$ $\text{(b) Initially the particle must be at rest.}$ $\text{(c) At time } t_2\text{, acceleration is constant.}$ $\text{(d) The initial acceleration is zero.}$ $\text{Select the correct statement(s):}$
1
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$\text{(a), (c)}$, $\text{(a), (b), (d)}$...
3
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9729
$\text{Sand is being dropped on a conveyor belt at a rate of } M \text{ kg/s. The force necessary to keep the belt moving with at a constant velocity of } v \text{ m/s will be:}$
1
104
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$Mv \text{ newton}$, $2Mv \text{ newton}$...
1
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9728
$\text{A parachutist falls downward with an acceleration of } 2 \text{ m/s}^2 \text{ at a height of } 200 \text{ m from the ground. Calculate the upthrust of air if the mass of the parachutist is } 60 \text{ kg: (assume } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\text{)}$
1
104
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$480 \text{ N}$, $620 \text{ N}$...
1
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9727
$\text{A particle moves in the } XY\text{-plane under the action of a force } F \text{ such that the components of its linear momentum } p \text{ at any time } t \text{ are } p_x = 2\cos t, p_y = 2\sin t. \text{ The angle between } F \text{ and } p \text{ at time } t \text{ will be:}$
1
104
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$90°$, $0°$...
1
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9726
$\text{If the force acting on a system is zero, the quantity which remains constant is:}$
1
104
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$\text{Force}$, $\text{Linear momentum}$...
2
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9725
$\text{A 0.5 kg body experiences a force } F = (2 + 3x^2) \text{ N, where } x \text{ in metres is the displacement from the origin. If it is released to move along the } X\text{-axis from the origin, then its initial acceleration is:}$
1
104
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$2 \text{ m/s}^2$, $10 \text{ m/s}^2$...
3
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9724
$\text{The variation of momentum with the time of one of the bodies in a two-body collision is shown in fig. The instantaneous force is the maximum corresponding to the point:}$
1
104
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$P$, $Q$...
3
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9723
$\text{A rigid ball of mass } M \text{ strikes a rigid wall at } 60^\circ \text{ and gets reflected without loss of speed, as shown in the figure. The value of the impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be:}$
1
104
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$Mv$, $2Mv$...
1
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9722
$\text{An object of mass 3 kg is at rest. Now if a force of } \vec{F} = 6t^2\hat{i} + 4t\hat{j} \text{ is applied to the object, then the velocity of the object at } t = 3 \text{ second will be:}$
1
104
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$18\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}$, $18\hat{i} + 6\hat{j}$...
2
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9721
$\text{A 100 kg gun fires a ball of 1 kg horizontally from a cliff at a height of 500 m. It falls on the ground at a distance of 400 m from the bottom of the cliff. The recoil velocity of the gun is: (Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\text{)}$
1
104
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$0.2 \text{ m/s}$, $0.4 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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9720
$\text{An impulse of } 6m\hat{j} \text{ is applied to a body of mass m moving with velocity } \hat{i} + 2\hat{j}\text{. The final velocity of the body will be:}$
1
104
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$-\hat{i} + 8\hat{j}$, $\hat{i} - 8\hat{j}$...
3
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9719
$\text{Two masses, } m_1 \text{ and } m_2 \text{ are experiencing the same force where } m_1 < m_2\text{. The ratio of their acceleration } \frac{a_1}{a_2} \text{ is:}$
1
104
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$1$, $\text{less than 1}$...
3
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9718
$\text{On the application of an impulsive force, a sphere of mass 500 grams starts moving with an acceleration of } 10 \text{ m/s}^2\text{. The force acts on it for } 0.5 \text{ s. The gain in the momentum of the sphere will be:}$
1
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$2.5 \text{ kg-m/s}$, $5 \text{ kg-m/s}$...
1
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9717
$\text{The force F acting on a particle of mass m is indicated by the force-time graph shown below. The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from 0 to 8 s is:}$
1
104
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$24 \text{ N-s}$, $20 \text{ N-s}$...
3
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9716
$\text{A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by two perpendicular forces, 8 N and 6 N. The magnitude of the acceleration of the body is:}$
1
104
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$0.99 \text{ ms}^{-2}$, $3 \text{ ms}^{-2}$...
3
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9715
$\text{If two forces } (6\hat{i} + 8\hat{j}) \text{ and } (4\hat{i} + 4\hat{j}) \text{ N are acting on a body of mass 2 kg, then the acceleration produced in the body (in m/s}^2\text{) will be:}$
1
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$(5\hat{i} + 6\hat{j})$, $(10\hat{i} + 12\hat{j})$...
1
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9714
$\text{Choose the incorrect alternative:}$
1
104
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$\text{Newton's first law is the law of inertia.}$, $\text{Newton's first law states that if the net force on a system is zero, the acceleration of any particle of the system is not zero.}$...
2
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9713
$\text{In the diagram, a 100 kg block is moving up with constant velocity. Find out the tension at the point } P.$
1
104
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$1330 \text{ N}$, $490 \text{ N}$...
3
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9712
$\text{A man of mass } m \text{ stands on a crate of mass } M. \text{ He pulls on a light rope, passing over a smooth light pulley. The other end of the rope is attached to the crate. For the system to be in equilibrium, the force exerted by the man on the rope will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$mg$, $Mg$...
3
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9711
$\text{A particle moves from a point } (-2\hat{i} + 5\hat{j}) \text{ to } (4\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}) \text{ when a force of } (4\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}) \text{ N is applied. How much work has been done by the force?}$
1
104
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$8 \text{ J}$, $11 \text{ J}$...
3
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9710
$\text{A string of negligible mass going over a clamped pulley of mass } m \text{ supports a block of mass } M \text{ as shown in the figure. The force on the pulley by the clamp is given by:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{2Mg}$, $\sqrt{2mg}$...
4
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9709
$\text{A man of mass 60 kg is standing on the ground and holding a string passing over a system of ideal pulleys. A mass of 10 kg is hanging over a light pulley such that the system is in equilibrium. The force exerted by the ground on the man is: (}g = \text{acceleration due to gravity)}$
1
104
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$20g$, $45g$...
3
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9708
$\text{A metal sphere is suspended from a wall by a string. The forces acting on the sphere are shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\vec{N} + \vec{T} + \vec{W} = 0$, $T^2 = N^2 + W^2$...
3
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9707
$\text{A mass } M \text{ of 100 kg is suspended with the use of strings } A, B \text{ and } C \text{ as shown in the figure. The tension in the string } B \text{ will be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$100g \text{ N}$, $\text{zero}$...
1
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9706
$\text{Three blocks with masses of } m, 2m, \text{ and } 3m \text{ are connected by strings as shown in the figure. After an upward force } F \text{ is applied on block } m, \text{ the masses move upward at a constant speed, } v. \text{ What is the net force on the block of mass } 2m? \text{ (}g \text{ is the acceleration due to gravity).}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$2mg$, $3mg$...
4
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9705
$\text{In the shown system, each of the blocks is at rest. The value of } \theta \text{ is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\tan^{-1}(1)$, $\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)$...
3
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9704
$\text{A body of mass 5 kg is suspended by the strings making angles } 60^\circ \text{ and } 30^\circ \text{ with the horizontal. Then, choose the correct option from the given ones:}$ $\text{(A) } T_1 = 25 \text{ N}$ $\text{(B) } T_2 = 25 \text{ N}$ $\text{(C) } T_1 = 25\sqrt{3} \text{ N}$ $\text{(D) } T_2 = 25\sqrt{3} \text{ N}$
1
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$\text{(A), (B), and (C) only}$, $\text{(A) and (B) only}$...
3
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9703
$\text{The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are smooth and of negligible mass. For the system to remain in equilibrium, the angle } \theta \text{ should be:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$0^\circ$, $30^\circ$...
3
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9702
$\text{Fundamentally, the normal force between two surfaces in contact is:}$
1
104
Recommended Questions
$\text{Electromagnetic}$, $\text{Gravitational}$...
1
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9701
$\text{A steam boat goes across a lake and comes back (a) On a quiet day when the water is still and (b) On a rough day when there is a uniform air current so as to help the journey onward and to impede the journey back. If the speed of the launch on both the days was the same, in which case will the steam boat complete the journey in lesser time:}$
1
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$\text{Case (a)}$, $\text{Case (b)}$...
1
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9700
$\text{A person, who can swim with speed } u \text{ relative to water, wants to cross a river (of width } d \text{ and water is flowing with speed } v\text{). The minimum time in which the person can do so is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{d}{v}$, $\frac{d}{u}$...
2
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9699
$\text{To the captain of a ship } A \text{ travelling with velocity } \vec{v}_A = (3\hat{i} - 4\hat{j}) \text{ km/h, a second ship } B \text{ appears to have a velocity } \vec{v}_B = (5\hat{i} + 12\hat{j}) \text{ km/h. What is the true velocity of the ship } B\text{?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$2\hat{i} + 16\hat{j} \text{ km/h}$, $13\hat{i} + 8\hat{j} \text{ km/h}$...
4
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9698
$\text{A ship } A \text{ is moving westward with a speed of 10 kmph and a ship } B\text{, 100 km South of } A\text{, is moving northward with a speed of 10 kmph. The time after which the distance between them becomes the shortest is:}$
1
103
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$0 \text{ h}$, $5 \text{ h}$...
2
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9697
$\text{Two particles having position vectors } \vec{r_1} = (3\hat{i} + 5\hat{j}) \text{ metres and } \vec{r_2} = (-5\hat{i} - 3\hat{j}) \text{ metres are moving with velocities } \vec{v_1} = (4\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}) \text{ m/s and } \vec{v_2} = (\alpha\hat{i} + 7\hat{j}) \text{ m/s. If they collide after 2 seconds, the value of } \alpha \text{ is:}$
1
103
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$2$, $4$...
4
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9696
$\text{It is raining at 20 m/s in still air. Now a wind starts blowing with speed 10 m/s in the north direction. If a cyclist starts moving at 10 m/s in the south direction, then the apparent velocity of rain with respect to a cyclist will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$20 \text{ m/s}$, $20\sqrt{2} \text{ m/s}$...
2
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9695
$\text{Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 30 m/s. A woman rides a bicycle with a speed of 10 m/s in the north to south direction. What is the direction in which she should hold her umbrella?}$ $\text{[Given: } \tan 16° = 0.29, \text{ \& } \tan 18° = 0.33\text{]}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$16° \text{ with the vertical, towards north}$, $18° \text{ with the vertical, towards north}$...
4
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9694
$\text{Two men } P \text{ and } Q \text{ are standing at corners } A \text{ and } B \text{ of a square } ABCD \text{ of side 8 m. They start moving along the track with a constant speed 2 m/s and 10 m/s respectively. The time when they will meet for the first time is equal to:}$
1
103
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$\text{2 sec}$, $\text{3 sec}$...
2
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9693
$\text{A river is flowing from east to west at a speed of 5 m/min. A man on south bank of river, capable of swimming 10 m/min in still water, wants to swim across the river in shortest time. He should swim:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{Due north}$, $\text{Due north-east}$...
1
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9692
$\text{A man sitting in a bus travelling in a direction from west to east with a speed of 40 km/h observes that the rain-drops are falling vertically downwards. To another man standing on ground the rain will appear:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{To fall vertically downwards}$, $\text{To fall at an angle going from west to east}$...
2
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9691
$\text{River of width 500 m is flowing at a speed of 10 m/s. A swimmer can swim at a speed of 10 m/s in still water. If he starts swimming at an angle of 120° with the flow direction, then the distance he travels along the river while crossing the river is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$250 \text{ m}$, $500\sqrt{3} \text{ m}$...
3
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9690
$\text{Two bullets are fired horizontally and simultaneously towards each other from the rooftops of two buildings (building being 100 m apart and being of the same height of 200 m) with the same velocity of 25 m/s. When and where will the two bullets collide?}$ $(g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{After 2 s at a height of 180 m}$, $\text{After 2 s at a height of 20 m}$...
1
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9689
$\text{The speed of water in a river is 4 km/h and a man can swim at 5 km/h. The minimum time taken by the man to cross the river of width 200 m is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{5} \text{ h}$, $\frac{1}{25} \text{ h}$...
2
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9688
$\text{A boat moves with a speed of 5 km/h relative to water in a river flowing with a speed of 3 km/h. Width of the river is 1 km. The minimum time taken for a round trip will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{5 min}$, $\text{60 min}$...
4
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9687
$\text{A car is moving along east at 10 m/s and a bus is moving along north at 10 m/s. The velocity of the car with respect to the bus is along:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{North-East}$, $\text{South-East}$...
2
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9686
$\text{A river is flowing from W to E with a speed of 5 m/min. A man can swim in still water with a velocity of 10 m/min. In which direction should the man swim so as to take the shortest possible path to go to the south:}$
1
103
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$30° \text{ with downstream}$, $60° \text{ with downstream}$...
3
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9685
$\text{Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of the ground where } AB = a. \text{ The boy at B starts running in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity } v_1. \text{ The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity } v \text{ and catches the other boy in a time } t, \text{ where } t \text{ is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{a}{\sqrt{v^2 + v_1^2}}$, $\frac{a}{\sqrt{v^2 - v_1^2}}$...
2
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9684
$\text{A car with a vertical windshield moves in a rain storm at a speed of 40 km/hr. The rain drops fall vertically with a constant speed of 20 m/s. The angle at which raindrops strike the windshield is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\tan^{-1}\frac{5}{9}$, $\tan^{-1}\frac{9}{5}$...
1
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9683
$\text{Balls A and B are thrown from two points lying on the same horizontal plane separated by a distance of 120 m. Which of the following statements is correct?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{The balls can never meet.}$, $\text{The balls can meet if the ball B is thrown 1 s later.}$...
3
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9682
$\text{Two particles are separated by a horizontal distance } x \text{ as shown in the figure. They are projected at the same time as shown in the figure with different initial speeds. The time after which the horizontal distance between them becomes zero will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{x}{u}$, $\frac{u}{2x}$...
1
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9681
$\text{A man is crossing a river flowing with a velocity of 5 m/s. He reaches a point directly across the river at a distance of 60 m in 5 s. His velocity in still water should be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$12 \text{ m/s}$, $13 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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9680
$\text{When a man walks on a horizontal road with velocity 1 km/h, the rain appears to him coming vertically at a speed of 2 km/h. The actual speed of the rain with respect to ground is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{3} \text{ km/h}$, $\sqrt{5} \text{ km/h}$...
2
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9679
$\text{A man can row a boat with a speed of 10 kmph in still water. The river flows at 6 kmph. If he crosses the river from one bank to the other along the shortest possible path, the time taken to cross the river of width 1 km is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{8} \text{ hr}$, $\frac{1}{4} \text{ hr}$...
1
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9678
$\text{A man standing on a road holds his umbrella at } 30° \text{ with the vertical to keep the rain away. He throws the umbrella and starts running at } 10 \text{ km/hr. He finds that raindrops are hitting his head vertically. The speed of raindrops with respect to the road will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ km/hr}$, $20 \text{ km/hr}$...
2
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9677
$\text{A swimmer swims a distance d upstream in 4 s and swims an equal distance downstream in 2 s. The ratio of swimmer's speed in still water to the speed of river water will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{6}{5}$, $\frac{3}{1}$...
2
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9676
$\text{A person reaches a point directly opposite on the other bank of a flowing river while swimming at a speed of } 5 \text{ m/s at an angle of } 120° \text{ with the flow. The speed of the flow must be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$2.5 \text{ m/s}$, $3 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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9675
$\text{The raindrops are falling with speed } v \text{ vertically downwards and a man is running horizontal road with speed } u. \text{ The magnitude of the velocity of the raindrops with respect to the man is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$v - u$, $v + u$...
4
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9674
$\text{A boat is moving with a velocity } 3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} \text{ with respect to ground. The water in the river is moving with a velocity } -3\hat{i} - 4\hat{j} \text{ with respect to ground. The relative velocity of the boat with respect to water is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$8\hat{j}$, $-6\hat{i} - 8\hat{j}$...
3
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9673
$\text{A man is walking on the road with a speed 3 m/s. Rain is falling vertically at speed 3 m/s. At what angle from the vertical, man has to hold his umbrella to avoid the rain drops?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$45°$, $30°$...
1
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9672
$\text{A man is walking on a horizontal road at a speed of 4 km/hr. Suddenly, the rain starts vertically downwards with a speed of 7 km/hr. The magnitude of the relative velocity of the rain with respect to the man is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{33} \text{ km/hr}$, $\sqrt{65} \text{ km/hr}$...
2
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9671
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Uniform circular motion is the only example of a situation in which the speed of a particle remains constant even though a force is acting on the particle.}$ $\text{Reason (R): In uniform circular motion, a force acting along the circle pushes the particle forward.}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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9670
$\text{A particle of mass 2 kg is moving in a circular path with a constant speed of 10 m/s. The change in the magnitude of velocity when a particle travels from } P \text{ to } Q \text{ will be: [assume the radius of the circle is } 10/\pi^2\text{]}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$10\sqrt{3}$, $20\sqrt{3}$...
4
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9669
$\text{A particle moves with constant angular velocity in a circle. During the motion its:}$
1
103
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$\text{Energy is conserved}$, $\text{Momentum is conserved}$...
1
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9668
$\text{Figure below shows a body of mass } M \text{ moving with a uniform speed } v \text{ on a circular path of radius, } R\text{. What is the change in acceleration in going from } P_1 \text{ to } P_2\text{?}$
1
103
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$\text{zero}$, $\frac{v^2}{2R}$...
4
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9667
$\text{A particle is projected with a speed } u \text{ at an angle } \theta \text{ to the horizontal. Radius of curvature at highest point of its trajectory is?}$
1
103
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$\frac{u^2 \cos^2 \theta}{2g}$, $\frac{\sqrt{3}u^2 \cos^2 \theta}{2g}$...
3
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9666
$\text{An object moves at a constant speed along a circular path in a horizontal XY plane with its centre at the origin. When the object is at } x = -2 \text{ m, its velocity is } -(4 \text{ m/s})\hat{j}\text{. What is the object's acceleration when it is at } y = 2 \text{ m?}$
1
103
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$-8 \text{ m/s}^2 \hat{j}$, $-8 \text{ m/s}^2 \hat{i}$...
1
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9665
$\text{A particle rotates in a circular path starting from rest. If angular acceleration is } 4 \text{ rad/s}^2\text{, then the time after which angle between net acceleration and tangential acceleration becomes } 45^\circ \text{ is?}$
1
103
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$0.5 \text{ s}$, $0.25 \text{ s}$...
1
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9664
$\text{Which one of the following is not true?}$
1
103
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$\text{The net acceleration of a particle in a circular motion is always along the radius of the circle towards the centre.}$, $\text{The velocity vector of a particle at a point is always along the tangent to the path of the particle at that point.}$...
1
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9663
$\text{Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect regarding the motion in a plane?}$
1
103
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$\text{a body can't move on a curved path with constant acceleration.}$, $\text{the angle between acceleration and velocity can be 90°.}$...
1
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9662
$\text{A particle moves along a circle of radius } \frac{20}{\pi} \text{ m with constant tangential acceleration. If the velocity of the particle is 80 m/s at the end of the second revolution after motion has begun, the tangential acceleration is:}$
1
103
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$40 \text{ ms}^{-2}$, $640\pi \text{ ms}^{-2}$...
1
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9661
$\text{A particle moves with constant speed } v \text{ along a circular path of radius } r \text{ and completes the circle in time } T. \text{ The acceleration of the particle is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2\pi v}{T}$, $\frac{2\pi r}{T}$...
1
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9660
$\text{A deer wants to save her life from a lion. The lion follows a path whose equation is } x^2 + y^2 = 16. \text{ For saving her life, the deer needs to move on a path whose equation will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$x^2 + y^2 = 4$, $x^2 + y^2 = 16$...
4
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9659
$\text{The magnitude of vector } \vec{A} \text{ is constant but it is changing its direction continuously. The angle between } \vec{A} \text{ and } \frac{d\vec{A}}{dt} \text{ is:}$
1
103
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$180°$, $120°$...
3
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9658
$\text{A stone tied to the end of a string 80 cm long is whirled in a horizontal circle at a constant speed. If the stone makes 14 revolutions in 25 s, what is the magnitude of the acceleration of the stone?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$8.1 \text{ ms}^{-2}$, $7.7 \text{ ms}^{-2}$...
4
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9657
$\text{Certain neutron stars are believed to be rotating at about 1 rev/s. If such a star has a radius of 20 km, the acceleration of an object on the equator of the star will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$20 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s}^2$, $8 \times 10^5 \text{ m/s}^2$...
2
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9656
$\text{A particle starts moving on a circular path from rest, such that its tangential acceleration varies with time as } a_t = kt. \text{ Distance travelled by particle on the circular path in time } t \text{ is:}$
1
103
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$\frac{kt^3}{3}$, $\frac{kt^2}{6}$...
3
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9655
$\text{A car is moving at a speed of 40 m/s on a circular track of radius 400 m. This speed is increasing at the rate of 3 m/s}^2. \text{ The acceleration of the car is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$4 \text{ m/s}^2$, $7 \text{ m/s}^2$...
3
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9654
$\text{A particle moves in the } (x-y) \text{ plane according to the rule } x = a\sin(\omega t) \text{ and } y = a\cos(\omega t). \text{ The particle follows:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{a circular path.}$, $\text{a parabolic path.}$...
1
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9653
$\text{In a uniform circular motion, if the speed of the particle is 2 m/s and radius of the circle is 2 m, then the values of centripetal and tangential acceleration are, respectively:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ m/s}^2, 2 \text{ m/s}^2$, $2 \text{ m/s}^2, 1 \text{ m/s}^2$...
4
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9652
$\text{A stone tied to the end of a 1 m long string is whirled in a horizontal circle at a constant speed. If the stone makes 22 revolutions in 44 seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of acceleration of the stone?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\pi^2 \text{ ms}^{-2} \text{ and direction along the tangent to the circle.}$, $\pi^2 \text{ ms}^{-2} \text{ and direction along the radius towards the centre.}$...
2
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9651
$\text{If a particle is moving in a circular orbit with constant speed, then:}$
1
103
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$\text{its velocity is variable.}$, $\text{its acceleration is variable.}$...
4
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9650
$\text{A particle is moving along a circle of radius } R \text{ with constant speed } v_0. \text{ What is the magnitude of change in velocity when the particle goes from point } A \text{ to } B \text{ as shown?}$
1
103
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$2v_0 \sin \frac{\theta}{2}$, $v_0 \sin \frac{\theta}{2}$...
1
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9649
$\text{The position vector of a particle is } \vec{r} = a \sin \omega t \hat{i} + a \cos \omega t \hat{j}. \text{ The velocity of the particle is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{parallel to the position vector.}$, $\text{at } 60^\circ \text{ with position vector.}$...
4
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9648
$\text{Two particles } A \text{ and } B \text{ are moving in a uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii } r_A \text{ and } r_B \text{ with speeds } v_A \text{ and } v_B \text{ respectively. Their time periods of rotation are the same. The ratio of the angular speed of } A \text{ to that of } B \text{ will be:}$
1
103
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$1 : 1$, $r_A : r_B$...
1
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9647
$\text{A car moves on a circular path such that its speed is given by } v = Kt, \text{ where } K = \text{constant and } t \text{ is time. Also given radius of the circular path is } r. \text{ The net acceleration of the car at time } t \text{ will be:}$
1
103
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$\sqrt{K^2 + \left(\frac{K^2t^2}{r}\right)^2}$, $2K$...
1
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9646
$\text{A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period 0.2π s. The acceleration of the particle is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$25 \text{ m/s}^2$, $36 \text{ m/s}^2$...
3
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9645
$\text{If the equation for the displacement of a particle moving on a circular path is given by } \theta = 2t^3 + 0.5 \text{ where } \theta \text{ is in radians and } t \text{ in seconds, then the angular velocity of the particle after 2 sec from its start is:}$
1
103
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$8 \text{ rad/sec}$, $12 \text{ rad/sec}$...
3
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9644
$\text{The angle turned by a body undergoing circular motion depends on the time as given by the equation, } \theta = \theta_0 + \theta_1 t + \theta_2 t^2. \text{ It can be deduced that the angular acceleration of the body is?}$
1
103
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$\theta_1$, $\theta_2$...
4
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9643
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\textbf{Assertion (A):} \text{ The maximum height of a projectile is always 25% of the maximum range.}$ $\textbf{Reason (R):} \text{ For maximum height, the projectile should be projected at } 90°.$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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9642
$\text{A particle is projected with a velocity } v \text{ such that its range on the horizontal plane is twice the greatest height attained by it. The range of the projectile is: (where } g \text{ is acceleration due to gravity)}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{4v^2}{5g}$, $\frac{4g}{5v^2}$...
1
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9641
$\text{A body is projected with a velocity } u \text{ with an angle of projection } \theta\text{. Change in velocity after the time } (t) \text{ from the time of projection will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$gt$, $\frac{1}{2}gt^2$...
1
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9640
$\text{Two particles are projected with the same initial velocity, one makes an angle } \theta \text{ with the horizontal while the other makes an angle } \theta \text{ with the vertical. If their common range is } R\text{, then the product of their time of flight is directly proportional to:}$
1
103
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$R$, $R^2$...
1
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9639
$\text{A body is projected at an angle of 30° with the horizontal with a speed of 30 m/s. What is the angle made by the velocity vector with the horizontal after 1.5 sec? } (g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
103
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$0°$, $30°$...
1
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9638
$\text{The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed. The angle of projection is:}$
1
103
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$15°$, $30°$...
4
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9637
$\text{Path of a projectile with respect to another projectile so long as both remain in the air is:}$
1
103
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$\text{Circular}$, $\text{Parabolic}$...
3
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9636
$\text{A projectile is projected with initial kinetic energy }K\text{. If it has kinetic energy }0.25K\text{ at its highest point, then the angle of projection is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$30°$, $45°$...
3
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9635
$\text{A particle is projected from a horizontal plane (}x\text{-}z\text{ plane) such that its velocity vector at time }t\text{ is given by }\vec{v} = a\hat{i} + (b - ct)\hat{j}\text{. Its range on this horizontal plane is given by:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{ba}{c}$, $\frac{2ba}{c}$...
2
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9634
$\text{An object of mass } m \text{ is projected from the ground with a momentum } p \text{ at such an angle that its maximum height is } \frac{1}{4}\text{th of its horizontal range. Its minimum kinetic energy in its path will be:}$
1
103
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$\frac{p^2}{8m}$, $\frac{p^2}{4m}$...
2
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9633
$\text{A body is thrown vertically so as to reach its maximum height in } t \text{ second. The total time from the time of projection to reach a point at half of its maximum height while returning (in second) is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{2}t$, $\left(1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)t$...
2
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9632
$\text{A projectile is projected from the ground with the velocity } v_0 \text{ at an angle } \theta \text{ with the horizontal. What is the vertical component of the velocity of the projectile when its vertical displacement is equal to half of the maximum height attained?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{3}v_0 \cos \theta$, $\frac{v_0}{\sqrt{2}} \sin \theta$...
2
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9631
$\text{A body is thrown horizontally with a velocity } \sqrt{2gh} \text{ from the top of a tower of height } h. \text{ It strikes the level ground through the foot of the tower at a distance } x \text{ from the tower. The value of } x \text{ is:}$
1
103
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$h$, $\frac{h}{2}$...
3
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9630
$\text{A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5 m/s and at an angle } \theta \text{ with the horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 m/s at the same angle follows a trajectory that is identical to the trajectory of the projectile fired from the Earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the other planet is: (given } g = 9.8 \text{ m/s}^2\text{)}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$3.5 \text{ m/s}^2$, $5.9 \text{ m/s}^2$...
1
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9629
$\text{The equation of a projectile is } y = ax - bx^2. \text{ Its horizontal range is?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{a}{b}$, $\frac{b}{a}$...
1
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9628
$\text{The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile is } \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \text{ times its initial velocity of projection } (u). \text{ Its range on the horizontal plane is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\sqrt{3}u^2}{2g}$, $\frac{3u^2}{2g}$...
1
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9627
$\text{Three balls are thrown from the top of a building with equal speeds at different angles. When the balls strike the ground, their speeds are } v_1, v_2 \text{ and } v_3 \text{ respectively, then:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$v_1 > v_2 > v_3$, $v_3 > v_2 = v_1$...
3
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9626
$\text{Four bodies } P, Q, R \text{ and } S \text{ are projected with equal velocities having angles of projection } 15°, 30°, 45°, \text{ and } 60° \text{ with the horizontal respectively. The body having the shortest range is?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$P$, $Q$...
1
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9625
$\text{Two bullets are fired simultaneously horizontally and at different speeds from the same place. Which bullet will hit the ground first? (Air resistance is neglected)}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{The faster one}$, $\text{The slower one}$...
4
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9624
$\text{A shell is fired vertically upward with a velocity of 20 m/s from a trolley moving horizontally with a velocity of 10 m/s. A person on the ground observes the motion of the shell like a parabola whose horizontal range is: } (g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$20 \text{ m}$, $10 \text{ m}$...
3
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9623
$\text{The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectile are equal. The angle of projection of the projectile is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\theta = \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)$, $\theta = \tan^{-1}(4)$...
2
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9622
$\text{The horizontal range of a projectile is } 4\sqrt{3} \text{ times its maximum height. Its angle of projection will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$45°$, $60°$...
4
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9621
$\text{When a particle is projected at some angle to the horizontal, it has a range } R \text{ and time of flight } t_1. \text{ If the same particle is projected with the same speed at some other angle to have the same range, its time of flight is } t_2, \text{ then:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$t_1 + t_2 = \frac{2R}{g}$, $t_1 - t_2 = \frac{R}{g}$...
3
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9620
$\text{The equation of trajectory of a projectile is given by } y = x - 10x^2 \text{. Its speed of projection is: } (g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$1 \text{ m/s}$, $2 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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9619
$\text{A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal distance of 100 m. With the same effort, he throws the ball vertically upwards. The maximum height attained by the ball is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$100 \text{ m}$, $80 \text{ m}$...
4
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9618
$\text{A body is projected with velocity } \vec{v} = (\alpha \hat{i} + \beta \hat{j}) \text{ m/s. The time of flight of the body is: [considering } x \text{ as horizontal and } y \text{ as vertical axis and } g \text{ is acceleration due to gravity]}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2\beta}{g}$, $\frac{2\alpha}{g}$...
1
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9617
$\text{A particle is thrown obliquely at } t = 0. \text{ The particle has the same K.E. at } t = 5 \text{ seconds and at } t = 9 \text{ seconds. The particle attains maximum altitude at:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$t = 6 \text{ s}$, $t = 7 \text{ s}$...
2
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9616
$\text{A particle } (A) \text{ is dropped from a height and another particle } (B) \text{ is projected in a horizontal direction with a speed of 5 m/s from the same height. The correct statement, from the following, is:}$
1
103
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$\text{Particle } (A) \text{ will reach the ground first with respect to particle } (B).$, $\text{Particle } (B) \text{ will reach the ground first with respect to particle } (A).$...
3
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9615
$\text{A body is projected with a velocity of } (3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j}) \text{ m/s. The maximum height attained by the projectile is: } (g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2})$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$0.8 \text{ m}$, $8 \text{ m}$...
1
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9614
$\text{What determines the nature of the path followed by a particle:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{Speed}$, $\text{Velocity}$...
4
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9613
$\text{If two projectiles, with the same masses and with the same velocities, are thrown at an angle } 60° \text{ and } 30° \text{ with the horizontal, then which of the following quantities will remain the same?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{time of flight}$, $\text{horizontal range of projectile}$...
2
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9612
$\text{The position coordinates of a projectile projected from ground on a certain planet (with no atmosphere) are given by } y = 4t - 2t^2 \text{ m and } x = 3t \text{ metre, where } t \text{ is in seconds and point of projection is taken as the origin. The angle of projection of projectile with vertical is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$30°$, $37°$...
2
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9611
$\text{A ball is projected at a certain angle with initial velocity } u\text{. It covers horizontal range } R\text{. With what initial velocity it should be projected keeping the angle of projection the same so that its horizontal range becomes } 2.25R\text{?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$2.5u$, $1.5u$...
2
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9610
$\text{A missile is fired for a maximum range with an initial velocity of } 20 \text{ m/s. If } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\text{, then the range of the missile will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$50 \text{ m}$, $60 \text{ m}$...
4
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9609
$\text{An airplane is moving with a velocity } u\text{. It drops a packet from a height } h\text{. The time } t \text{ taken by the packet to reach the ground will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{\frac{2g}{h}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{2u}{g}}$...
4
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9608
$\text{The velocity of a projectile at the initial point } A \text{ is } 2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} \text{ m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at the point } B \text{ is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$-2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}$, $2\hat{i} - 3\hat{j}$...
2
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9607
$\text{A stone projected with a velocity } u \text{ at an angle } \theta \text{ with the horizontal reaches maximum height } H_1\text{. When it is projected with velocity } u \text{ at an angle } \left(\frac{\pi}{2} - \theta\right) \text{ with the horizontal, it reaches maximum height } H_2\text{. The relation between the horizontal range of the projectile } R \text{ and } H_1 \text{ and } H_2 \text{ is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$R = 4\sqrt{H_1 H_2}$, $R = 4(H_1 - H_2)$...
1
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9606
$\text{For a projectile projected at angles } (45° - \theta) \text{ and } (45° + \theta)\text{, the horizontal ranges described by the projectile are in the ratio of:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$1 : 1$, $2 : 3$...
1
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9605
$\text{At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the directions of its velocity and acceleration are:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{perpendicular to each other.}$, $\text{parallel to each other.}$...
1
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9604
$\text{Two inclined planes are placed as shown in the figure. A block is projected from the Point } A \text{ of the inclined plane } AB \text{ along its surface with a velocity just sufficient to carry it to the top point } B \text{ at a height of 10 m. After reaching the point } B \text{ the block slides down on the inclined plane } BC\text{. The time it takes to reach the point } C \text{ from the point } A \text{ is } t(\sqrt{2} + 1) \text{ s. The value of } t \text{ is: (Take } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$1$, $2$...
2
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9603
$\text{A frictionless wire } AB \text{ is fixed on a sphere of radius } R\text{. A very small spherical ball slips on this wire. The time taken by this ball to slip from } A \text{ to } B \text{ is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2\sqrt{gR}}{g\cos\theta}$, $2\sqrt{gR} \cdot \frac{\cos\theta}{g}$...
3
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9602
$\text{A particle starts from the origin at } t = 0 \text{ with a velocity of } 5.0\hat{i} \text{ m/s and moves in the } x-y \text{ plane under the action of a force that produces a constant acceleration of } (3.0\hat{i} + 2.0\hat{j}) \text{ m/s}^2\text{. What is the } y\text{-coordinate of the particle at the instant its } x\text{-coordinate is 84 m?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$36 \text{ m}$, $26 \text{ m}$...
1
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9601
$\text{A body is slipping from an inclined plane of height } h \text{ and length } l\text{. If the angle of inclination is } \theta\text{, the time taken by the body to come from the top to the bottom of this inclined plane is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{2l}{g}}$...
3
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9600
$\text{A particle starts moving with constant acceleration with initial velocity } (\hat{i} + 5\hat{j}) \text{ m/s. After 4 seconds, its velocity becomes } (3\hat{i} - 2\hat{j}) \text{ m/s. The magnitude of its displacement in 4 seconds is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$5 \text{ m}$, $10 \text{ m}$...
2
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9599
$\text{A particle starts from the origin at } t = 0 \text{ sec with a velocity of } 10\hat{j} \text{ m/s and moves in the } x-y \text{ plane with a constant acceleration of } (8.0\hat{i} + 2.0\hat{j}) \text{ m/s}^2\text{. At what time is the } x\text{-coordinate of the particle 16 m?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ s}$, $3 \text{ s}$...
1
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9598
$\text{A particle starts from the origin at } t = 0 \text{ with a velocity of } 5.0\hat{i} \text{ m/s and moves in the } x-y \text{ plane under the action of a force that produces a constant acceleration of } (3.0\hat{i} + 2.0\hat{j}) \text{ m/s}^2\text{. What is the speed of the particle at the instant its } x\text{-coordinate is 84 m?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$36 \text{ m/s}$, $26 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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9597
$\text{The time taken by a block of wood (initially at rest) to slide down a smooth inclined plane 9.8 m long (angle of inclination is 30°) is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2} \text{ sec}$, $2 \text{ sec}$...
2
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9596
$\text{A body sliding on a smooth inclined plane requires 4 seconds to reach the bottom starting from the rest at the top. How much time does it take to cover one-fourth distance starting from the rest at the top?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$1 \text{ s}$, $2 \text{ s}$...
2
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9595
$\text{A body started moving with an initial velocity of 4 m/s along the east and an acceleration 1 m/s}^2 \text{ along the north. The velocity of the body just after 4 s will be?}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$8 \text{ m/s along East.}$, $4\sqrt{2} \text{ m/s along North-East.}$...
2
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9594
$\text{A particle has an initial velocity } \vec{u} = (4\hat{i} - 5\hat{j}) \text{ m/s and it is moving with an acceleration } \vec{a} = \left(\frac{1}{4}\hat{i} + \frac{3}{5}\hat{j}\right) \text{ m/s}^2. \text{ Velocity of the particle at } t = 2 \text{ s will be:}$
1
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$(6\hat{i} - 4\hat{j}) \text{ m/s}$, $(4.5\hat{i} - 4.5\hat{j}) \text{ m/s}$...
3
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9593
$\text{A particle has an initial velocity } (2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}) \text{ and an acceleration } (0.3\hat{i} + 0.2\hat{j}). \text{ The magnitude of velocity after 10 s will be:}$
1
103
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$9\sqrt{2} \text{ units}$, $5\sqrt{2} \text{ units}$...
2
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9592
$\text{A man sitting in a bus travelling in a direction from west to east with a speed of 40 km/h observes that the rain-drops are falling vertically downwards. To another man standing on ground the rain will appear:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{To fall vertically downwards}$, $\text{To fall at an angle going from west to east}$...
4
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9591
$\text{River of width 500 m is flowing at a speed of 10 m/s. A swimmer can swim at a speed of 10 m/s in still water. If he starts swimming at an angle of 120° with the flow direction, then the distance he travels along the river while crossing the river is:}$
1
103
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$\text{250 m}$, $500\sqrt{3}\text{ m}$...
1
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9590
$\text{Two bullets are fired horizontally and simultaneously towards each other from the rooftops of two buildings (building being 100 m apart and being of the same height of 200 m) with the same velocity of 25 m/s. When and where will the two bullets collide?}$ $(g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{After 2 s at a height of 180 m}$, $\text{After 2 s at a height of 20 m}$...
2
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9589
$\text{The speed of water in a river is 4 km/h and a man can swim at 5 km/h. The minimum time taken by the man to cross the river of width 200 m is:}$
1
103
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$\frac{1}{5}\text{ h}$, $\frac{1}{25}\text{ h}$...
4
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9588
$\text{A boat moves with a speed of 5 km/h relative to water in a river flowing with a speed of 3 km/h. Width of the river is 1 km. The minimum time taken for a round trip will be:}$
1
103
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$\text{5 min}$, $\text{60 min}$...
2
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9587
$\text{A car is moving along east at 10 m/s and a bus is moving along north at 10 m/s. The velocity of the car with respect to the bus is along:}$
1
103
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$\text{North-East}$, $\text{South-East}$...
4
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9586
$\text{A river is flowing from } W \text{ to } E \text{ with a speed of 5 m/min. A man can swim in still water with a velocity of 10 m/min. In which direction should the man swim so as to take the shortest possible path to go to the south:}$
1
103
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$30^\circ \text{ with downstream}$, $60^\circ \text{ with downstream}$...
4
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9585
$\text{Two boys are standing at the ends } A \text{ and } B \text{ of the ground where } AB = a\text{. The boy at } B \text{ starts running in a direction perpendicular to } AB \text{ with velocity } v_1\text{. The boy at } A \text{ starts running simultaneously with velocity } v \text{ and catches the other boy in a time } t\text{, where } t \text{ is:}$
1
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$\frac{a}{\sqrt{v^2 + v_1^2}}$, $\frac{a}{\sqrt{v^2 - v_1^2}}$...
3
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9584
$\text{A car with a vertical windshield moves in a rain storm at a speed of 40 km/hr. The rain drops fall vertically with a constant speed of 20 m/s. The angle at which raindrops strike the windshield is:}$
1
103
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$\tan^{-1} \frac{5}{9}$, $\tan^{-1} \frac{9}{5}$...
2
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9583
$\text{Balls } A \text{ and } B \text{ are thrown from two points lying on the same horizontal plane separated by a distance of 120 m. Which of the following statements is correct?}$
1
103
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$\text{The balls can never meet.}$, $\text{The balls can meet if the ball } B \text{ is thrown 1 s later.}$...
4
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9582
$\text{If the position of a particle varies according to the equations } x = 3t^2, y = 2t, \text{ and } z = 4t + 4, \text{ then which of the following is incorrect?}$
1
103
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$\text{Velocities in } y \text{ and } z \text{ directions are constant}$, $\text{Acceleration in the } x \text{ direction is non-uniform}$...
2
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9581
$\text{A body is moving with a velocity of 30 m/s towards the east. After 10 s, its velocity becomes 40 m/s towards the north. The average acceleration of the body is:}$
1
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$7 \text{ m/s}^2$, $\sqrt{7} \text{ m/s}^2$...
3
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9580
$\text{The } x \text{ and } y \text{ coordinates of the particle at any time are } x = 5t - 2t^2 \text{ and } y = 10t \text{ respectively, where } x \text{ and } y \text{ are in meters and } t \text{ in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at } t = 2 \text{ s is:}$
1
103
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$5\hat{i} \text{ m/s}^2$, $-4\hat{i} \text{ m/s}^2$...
2
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9579
$\text{The position vector of a particle } \vec{r} \text{ as a function of time } t \text{ (in seconds) is } \vec{r} = 3t\hat{i} + 2t^2\hat{j} \text{ m. The initial acceleration of the particle is:}$
1
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$2 \text{ m/s}^2$, $3 \text{ m/s}^2$...
3
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9578
$\text{In a two-dimensional motion, instantaneous speed } v_0 \text{ is a positive constant. Then which of the following is necessarily true?}$
1
103
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$\text{The acceleration of the particle is zero.}$, $\text{The acceleration of the particle is increasing.}$...
3
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9577
$\text{A particle projected from origin moves in the } x\text{-}y \text{ plane with a velocity } \vec{v} = 3\hat{i} + 6x\hat{j}, \text{ where } \hat{i} \text{ and } \hat{j} \text{ are the unit vectors along the } x \text{ and } y\text{-axis. The equation of path followed by the particle is:}$
1
103
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$y = x^2$, $y = \frac{1}{x^2}$...
1
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9576
$\text{The coordinates of a moving particle at a time } t \text{ are given by } x = 5 \sin 10t, y = 5 \cos 10t. \text{ It can be deduced that the speed of the particle will be:}$
1
103
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$25 \text{ units}$, $50 \text{ units}$...
2
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9575
$\text{In a two-dimensional motion, instantaneous speed } v_0 \text{ is a positive constant. Then which of the following is necessarily true?}$
1
103
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$\text{the average velocity is not zero at any time.}$, $\text{average acceleration must always vanish.}$...
4
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9574
$\text{A particle is moving with velocity } \vec{v} = k(y\hat{i} + x\hat{j}) \text{ where } k \text{ is a constant. The general equation for the path will be:}$
1
103
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$y = x^2 + \text{constant}$, $y^2 = x^2 + \text{constant}$...
2
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9573
$\text{Three particles are moving with constant velocities } v_1, v_2 \text{ and } v \text{ respectively as given in the figure. After some time, if all the three particles are in the same line, then the relation among } v_1, v_2 \text{ and } v \text{ is:}$
1
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$v = v_1 + v_2$, $v = \sqrt{v_1 v_2}$...
4
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9572
$\text{A bus is going to the North at a speed of 30 kmph. It makes a 90° left turn without changing the speed. The change in the velocity of the bus is:}$
1
103
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$\text{30 kmph towards W}$, $\text{30 kmph towards S-W}$...
3
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9571
\text{The following are four different relations about displacement, velocity, and acceleration for the motion of a particle in general. Choose the incorrect statement(s):}
\text{a. } v_{\text{avg}} = \frac{1}{2}[v(t_1) + v(t_2)]
\text{b. } v_{\text{avg}} = \frac{r(t_2) - r(t_1)}{t_2 - t_1}
\text{c. } r = \frac{1}{2}[v(t_2) - v(t_1)](t_2 - t_1)
\text{d. } a_{\text{avg}} = \frac{v(t_2) - v(t_1)}{t_2 - t_1}
1
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$\text{(a), (d)}$, $\text{(a), (c)}$...
2
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9570
$\text{For any arbitrary motion in space, which of the following relations is true?}$
1
103
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$\vec{v}_{avg} = \frac{1}{2}[\vec{v}(t_1) + \vec{v}(t_2)]$, $\vec{v}(t) = \vec{v}(0) + \vec{a}t$...
4
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9569
$\text{A particle starts moving from the origin in the XY plane and its velocity after time t is given by } \vec{v} = 4\hat{i} + 2t\hat{j}\text{. The trajectory of the particle is correctly shown in the figure:}$
1
103
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$\text{Upward opening parabola (concave up)}$, $\text{Straight diagonal line}$...
3
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9568
$\text{A particle moves on the curve } x^2 = 2y\text{. The angle of its velocity vector with the x-axis at the point } \left(1, \frac{1}{2}\right) \text{ will be:}$
1
103
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$30°$, $60°$...
3
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9567
$\text{Two particles move from A to C and A to D on a circle of radius R and the diameter AB. If the time taken by both particles is the same, then the ratio of magnitudes of their average velocities is:}$
1
103
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$2$, $2\sqrt{3}$...
3
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9566
$\text{The position of a particle is given by: } \vec{r} = (3.0t\hat{i} - 2.0t^2\hat{j} + 4.0\hat{k}) \text{ m, where t is in seconds and the coefficients have the proper units for r to be in meters. The magnitude and direction of } \vec{v}(t) \text{ at } t = 1.0 \text{ s are:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$4 \text{ m/s, } 53° \text{ with x-axis}$, $4 \text{ m/s, } 37° \text{ with x-axis}$...
4
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9565
$\text{Two particles A and B, move with constant velocities } \vec{v_1} \text{ and } \vec{v_2}\text{. At the initial moment their position vector are } \vec{r_1} \text{ and } \vec{r_2} \text{ respectively. The conditions for particles A and B for their collision to happen will be:}$
1
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$\vec{r_1} \cdot \vec{v_1} = \vec{r_2} \cdot \vec{v_2}$, $\vec{r_1} \times \vec{v_1} = \vec{r_2} \times \vec{v_2}$...
4
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9564
\text{A particle moves along the positive branch of the curve } y = \frac{x^2}{2}
\text{where } x = \frac{t^2}{2}
\text{x and y are measured in metres and t in seconds respectively.}
\text{At } t = 2 \text{ s, the velocity of the particle will be:}
1
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Recommended Questions
$(2\hat{i} - 4\hat{j}) \text{ m/s}$, $(4\hat{i} + 2\hat{j}) \text{ m/s}$...
3
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9563
$\text{In 1.0 s, a particle goes from point A to point B, moving in a semicircle of radius 1.0 m (see figure). The magnitude of the average velocity is:}$
1
103
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$3.14 \text{ m/s}$, $2.0 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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9562
$\text{The coordinates of a moving particle at any time } t \text{ are given by } x = \alpha t^3 \text{ and } y = \beta t^3. \text{ The speed of the particle at a time } t \text{ is given by:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{\alpha^2 + \beta^2}$, $3t\sqrt{\alpha^2 + \beta^2}$...
3
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9561
$\text{If three coordinates of a particle change according to the equations } x = 3t^2, y = 2t, z = 4, \text{ then the magnitude of the velocity of the particle at time } t = 1 \text{ second will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$2\sqrt{11} \text{ unit}$, $\sqrt{34} \text{ unit}$...
4
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9560
$\text{A car turns at a constant speed on a circular track of radius 100 m, taking 62.8 s for every circular lap. The average velocity and average speed for each circular lap, respectively, is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$0, 0$, $0, 10 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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9559
$\text{A particle is moving such that its position coordinates } (x, y) \text{ are } (2 \text{ m}, 3 \text{ m}) \text{ at time } t = 0, (6 \text{ m}, 7 \text{ m}) \text{ at time } t = 2 \text{ s and } (13 \text{ m}, 14 \text{ m}) \text{ at time } t = 5 \text{ s. The average velocity vector } (v_{avg}) \text{ from } t = 0 \text{ to } t = 5 \text{ s is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{5}(13\hat{i} + 14\hat{j})$, $\frac{7}{3}(\hat{i} + \hat{j})$...
4
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9558
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): For a given initial and final position the average velocity is single-valued while the average speed can have many values.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Velocity is a vector quantity and speed is a scalar quantity.}$
1
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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9557
$\text{A person moved from A to B on a circular path as shown in the figure below. If the distance travelled by him is 60 m, then the magnitude of displacement would be:}$ $\text{(given } \cos 135° = -0.7\text{)}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$42 \text{ m}$, $47 \text{ m}$...
2
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9556
$\text{A particle is moving along a circle such that it completes one revolution in 40 seconds. In 2 minutes 20 seconds, the ratio of } \frac{|displacement|}{distance} \text{ will be:}$
1
103
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$0$, $\frac{1}{7}$...
4
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9555
$\text{A boy runs on a circular track of radius } R \text{ (in km) with a speed of } \frac{\pi R}{2} \text{ km/h in the clockwise direction for 3 h and then with } \pi R \text{ km/h in the anticlockwise direction for 1 h. The magnitude of his displacement will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\pi R}{2}$, $\frac{R}{\sqrt{2}}$...
4
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9554
$\text{A man starts from point } P \text{ and goes 20 m due East, then 5 m due North, then 35 m due West, and finally 25 m due South. His displacement from point } P \text{ is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$25 \text{ m at } \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{4}{3}\right) \text{ west of south.}$, $85 \text{ m in south-west.}$...
3
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9553
$\text{A vector } \vec{a} \text{ is turned without a change in its length through a small angle } d\theta. \text{ The value of } |\Delta \vec{a}| \text{ and } \Delta a \text{ are, respectively:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$0, ad\theta$, $ad\theta, 0$...
2
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9552
$\text{A body starts moving from rest on a horizontal ground such that the position vector of the body with respect to its starting point is given by } \vec{r} = 2t\hat{i} + 3t^2\hat{j}. \text{ The equation of the trajectory of the body is:}$
1
103
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$y = 1.5x$, $y = 0.75x^2$...
2
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9551
$\text{A particle is moving on a circular path of radius } R. \text{ When the particle moves from point } A \text{ to } B \text{ (angle } \theta \text{), the ratio of the distance to that of the magnitude of the displacement will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\theta}{\sin \frac{\theta}{2}}$, $\frac{\theta}{2 \sin \frac{\theta}{2}}$...
2
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9550
$\text{An aeroplane flies 400 m north and then 300 m west and then flies 1200 m upwards. Its net displacement is:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$1200 \text{ m}$, $1300 \text{ m}$...
2
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9549
$\text{Coordinates of a particle as a function of time } t \text{ are } x = 2t, y = 4t. \text{ It can be inferred that the path of the particle will be:}$
1
103
Recommended Questions
$\text{Straight line}$, $\text{Ellipse}$...
1
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9548
$\text{A cat is situated at point } A (0, 3, 4) \text{ and a rat is situated at point } B (5, 3, -8). \text{ The cat is free to move but the rat is always at rest. The minimum distance travelled by the cat to catch the rat is:}$
1
103
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$5 \text{ unit}$, $12 \text{ unit}$...
3
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9547
\text{A particle starting from the origin } (0, 0) \text{ moves in a straight line in the } (x, y) \text{ plane.}
\text{Its coordinates at a later time are } (\sqrt{3}, 3).
\text{The path of the particle makes an angle of _______ with the } x\text{-axis.}
1
103
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$30^\circ$, $45^\circ$...
3
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9546
$\text{The displacement of the point } P \text{ on the wheel (see figure) as the wheel completes half revolution while rolling on the ground is:}$
1
103
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$2\pi r$, $\pi r$...
4
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9545
$\text{A particle starting from the point (1, 2) moves in a straight line in the XY-plane. Its coordinates at a later time are (2, 3). The path of the particle makes with x-axis an angle of:}$
1
103
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$30°$, $45°$...
2
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9544
$\text{The position of a moving particle at time } t \text{ is } \vec{r} = 3\hat{i} + 4t^2\hat{j} - t^3\hat{k}. \text{ Its displacement during the time interval } t = 1\text{s to } t = 3\text{s will be:}$
1
103
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$\hat{j} - \hat{k}$, $3\hat{i} - 4\hat{j} - \hat{k}$...
4
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9543
$\text{Three girls skating on a circular ice ground of radius 200 m start from a point } P \text{ on the edge of the ground and reach a point } Q \text{ diametrically opposite to } P \text{ following different paths as shown in the figure. The correct relationship among the magnitude of the displacement vector for three girls will be:}$
1
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$A > B > C$, $C > A > B$...
4
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9542
\text{Consider the motion of the tip of the second hand of a clock. In one minute (assuming } R \text{ to be the length of the second hand), its:}
1
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$\text{displacement is } 2\pi R$, $\text{distance covered is } 2R$...
3
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9541
160
1
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9540
159
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9539
158
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9538
157
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9537
156
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9536
155
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9535
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9534
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9533
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9532
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9531
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9530
149
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9529
148
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9528
147
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9527
146
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9526
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9525
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9524
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9523
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9522
141
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9521
140
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9520
139
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9519
138
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9518
137
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9517
136
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9516
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9515
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9514
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9513
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9512
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9511
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9510
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9509
128
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9508
127
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9507
126
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9506
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9505
124
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9504
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9503
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9502
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9501
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9500
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9499
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9498
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9497
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9496
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9495
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9494
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9492
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9491
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9222
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9221
$\text{Superoxide is formed on heating with an excess of air by:-}$
2
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$\text{Li, Na}$, $\text{Mg, Be}$...
4
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9220
$\text{Sodium hydroxide can be prepared by:}$
2
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$\text{Down's Process.}$, $\text{Castner-Kellner process.}$...
2
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9219
\text{Match the following:}
\text{Element} \quad \text{Biological Significance}
\text{(a) Sodium} \quad \text{(i) Oxidation of glucose to produce ATP}
\text{(b) Potassium} \quad \text{(ii) Helps in transporting sugars and amino acids into the cells}
\text{(c) Magnesium} \quad \text{(iii) Helps in the coagulation of blood}
\text{(d) Calcium} \quad \text{(iv) Helps in building and strengthening bones}
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$\text{(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)}$, $\text{(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)}$...
1
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9218
$\text{Ca, on exposure of the moist air, forms a layer on its surface as:}$
2
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$\text{CaCO}_3$, $\text{Ca(OH)}_2$...
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9217
$\text{Sodium nitrate decomposes above 800°C and does not give:}$
2
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$\text{N}_2$, $\text{O}_2$...
3
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9216
$\text{The incorrect equation for Solvay process is -}$
2
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$\text{Ca(OH)}_2 + 2\text{NH}_4\text{Cl} \rightarrow \text{NH}_3 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{CaCl}_2$, $2\text{NaHCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3 + \text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O}$...
4
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9215
$\text{Alkali metal ions are-}$
2
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$\text{Diamagnetic and coloured.}$, $\text{Diamagnetic and colourless.}$...
2
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9214
$\text{Nitrolim (a nitrogenous fertilizer) is a mixture of-}$
2
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$\text{Calcium carbide and calcium cyanamide.}$, $\text{Calcium oxide and calcium carbide.}$...
3
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9213
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is-}$
2
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$\text{The milk of magnesia used as an antacid is chemically MgO + MgCl}_2$, $\text{Stability of alkali metal peroxides increases with an increase in atomic number.}$...
1
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9212
$\text{The correct statement among the following regarding CsBr}_3 \text{ is -}$
2
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$\text{It is a covalent compound.}$, $\text{It contains Cs}^{2+} \text{ and Br}^- \text{ ions.}$...
4
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9211
$\text{Calcium hydride can be obtained by heating :}$
2
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$\text{Calcium oxide with hydrogen.}$, $\text{Calcium oxide with hydrogen under pressure.}$...
3
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9210
$\text{A compound that releases CO}_2 \text{ most easily upon heating is?}$
2
210
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$\text{K}_2\text{CO}_3$, $\text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3$...
3
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9209
$\text{CaCl}_2 \text{ is preferred over NaCl for clearing ice on roads particularly in very cold countries. This is because:}$
2
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$\text{CaCl}_2 \text{ is less soluble in } \text{H}_2\text{O} \text{ than NaCl.}$, $\text{CaCl}_2 \text{ is hygroscopic but NaCl is not.}$...
3
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9208
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following regarding Beryllium is-}$
2
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$\text{It is rendered passive by nitric acid.}$, $\text{It forms Be}_2\text{C}$...
3
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9207
$\text{The byproduct of the Solvay process is:}$
2
210
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$\text{CO}_2$, $\text{NH}_3$...
3
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9206
$\text{A substance that gives a brick red flame and breaks down on heating giving oxygen and a brown gas is-}$
2
210
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$\text{Calcium carbonate.}$, $\text{Magnesium carbonate.}$...
4
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9205
$\text{A compound insoluble in acetic acid is -}$
2
210
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$\text{Calcium oxide.}$, $\text{Calcium carbonate.}$...
3
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9204
$\text{An oxide that does not react with sodium hydroxide is:}$
2
210
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$\text{B}_2\text{O}_3$, $\text{CaO}$...
2
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9203
$\text{A compound (A) is used in the preparation of washing soda to recover ammonia in Solvay's process. When } \text{CO}_2 \text{ is bubbled through an aqueous solution of (A), the solution turns milky. It is used in whitewashing due to its disinfectant nature. The chemical formula of A is :}$
2
210
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$\text{Ca(HCO}_3\text{)}_2$, $\text{CaO}$...
3
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9202
$\text{The effect of addition of gypsum to cement is-}$
2
210
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$\text{It reduces the setting time of cement.}$, $\text{The setting time of cement increases.}$...
2
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9201
$\text{One mole of calcium phosphide upon reacting with water gives:}$
2
210
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$\text{One mole of the phosphene.}$, $\text{Two moles of phosphoric acid.}$...
3
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9200
$\text{Quick lime is heated with silica to give:}$
2
210
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$\text{CaSiO}_3$, $\text{CaSiO}_4$...
1
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9199
$\text{The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as -}$
2
210
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$\text{Limewater.}$, $\text{Quicklime.}$...
3
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9198
$\text{Magnesia can be prepared by -}$
2
210
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$\text{Burning Mg in air.}$, $\text{Heating hydroxide, nitrate, sulphate or carbonate of magnesium.}$...
4
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9197
$\text{Calcium hydroxide upon reacting with moist chlorine forms-}$
2
210
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$\text{CaCl}_2$, $\text{Ca}(\text{OCl})_2$...
2
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9196
$\text{A metal [X] heating on nitrogen gas gives [Y]. [Y] on treatment with H}_2\text{O gives a colourless gas which when passed through CuSO}_4\text{ solution gives a blue colour. [Y] is-}$
2
210
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$\text{Mg}(\text{NO}_3)_2$, $\text{Mg}_3\text{N}_2$...
2
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9195
$\text{Gypsum on heating can change to :}$
2
210
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$\text{Orthorhombic form.}$, $\text{Plaster of paris.}$...
4
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9194
$\text{The incorrect reaction among the following is:}$
2
210
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$\text{Na}_2\text{O}_2\text{(s)} + 2\text{H}_2\text{O(l)} \rightarrow 2\text{NaOH(aq)} + \text{H}_2\text{O}_2\text{(g)}$, $2\text{KO}_2\text{(s)} + 2\text{H}_2\text{O(l)} \rightarrow 2\text{KOH(aq)} + \text{H}_2\text{O}_2\text{(aq)} + \text{O}_2\text{(g)}$...
3
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9193
$\text{A Brine solution on electrolysis will not give :}$
2
210
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$\text{NaOH}$, $\text{Cl}_2$...
4
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9192
$\text{The bleaching action of bleaching powder is due to the formation of :}$
2
210
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$\text{OCl}^-$, $\text{O}_2$...
1
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9191
$\text{An active ingredient in bleaching powder that aids in the bleaching action is:}$
2
210
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$\text{Ca}(\text{OCl})_2$, $\text{CaO}_2\text{Cl}$...
1
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9190
$\text{Potassium carbonate cannot be prepared by the Solvay process because -}$
2
210
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$\text{Potassium carbonate is insoluble in water and does not precipitate out.}$, $\text{Potassium carbonate is soluble in water and does not precipitate out.}$...
2
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9189
$\text{An alkaline earth metal sulphate that has hydration enthalpy higher than the lattice enthalpy is -}$
2
210
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$\text{CaSO}_4$, $\text{BeSO}_4$...
2
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9188
$\text{A compound X on heating gives a colourless gas. The residue is dissolved in water to obtain Y. Excess } \text{CO}_2 \text{ is bubbled through an aqueous solution of Y, and Z is formed. Z on gentle heating gives back X. The compound X is-}$
2
210
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$\text{CaCO}_3$, $\text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3$...
1
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9187
$\text{Baking soda or baking powder is:}$
2
210
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$\text{Washing soda}$, $\text{Caustic soda}$...
4
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9186
$\text{The strongest base among the following is-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Al(OH)}_3$, $\text{Mg(OH)}_2$...
4
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9185
$\text{The correct statement regarding the dissolution of alkali metal in liquid ammonia is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ammoniated electron form.}$, $\text{Metal appear red in colour.}$...
1
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9184
$\text{A compound that has higher hydration enthalpy than the lattice enthalpy is:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{CaSO}_4$, $\text{BeSO}_4$...
2
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9183
$\text{The number of crystal water in Gypsum, Plaster of Paris and Epsom salt respectively are-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$2, 0.5, 7$, $7, 2, 1$...
1
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9182
$\text{The formula of washing soda is:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3$, $\text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3 \cdot \text{H}_2\text{O}$...
4
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9181
$\text{The chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{CaSO}_4 \cdot \frac{1}{2}\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{CaSO}_4 \cdot \text{2H}_2\text{O}$...
1
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9180
$\text{The correct statement(s) among the following options is/are:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Sodium metal reacts violently with water.}$, $\text{Sodium metal is heated in a free supply of air to give sodium peroxide.}$...
4
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9179
$\text{Assertion (A): When an alkali metal dissolves in liquid } \text{NH}_3 \text{ the solution acquires different colors.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Paired electrons are present in ammonia.}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{(A) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{(A) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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9178
$\text{BaO is soluble but } \text{BaSO}_4 \text{ is insoluble in water because :}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{BaSO}_4 \text{ is unstable.}$, $\text{BaO is unstable.}$...
2
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9177
$\text{HCl was passed through a solution of } \text{CaCl}_2, \text{MgCl}_2, \text{ and NaCl. Compound(s) that get crystallize is/are-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Only NaCl}$, $\text{Only } \text{MgCl}_2$...
1
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9176
$\text{LiF is almost insoluble in water whereas LiCl is soluble in water and acetone both, because of:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Greater covalent character of LiCl as compared to LiF.}$, $\text{Greater hydration energy of LiF as compared to LiCl.}$...
4
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9175
$\text{In case of alkali metal halides, the ionic character increases in the order:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{MF} < \text{MCl} < \text{MBr} < \text{MI}$, $\text{MI} < \text{MBr} < \text{MCl} < \text{MF}$...
2
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9174
$\text{The structures of beryllium chloride in solid-state, and vapor state are:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Dimer, and Linear, respectively.}$, $\text{Chain in both.}$...
3
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9173
$\text{The most acidic oxide among the following is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{MgO}$, $\text{BeO}$...
2
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9172
$\text{The correct statement(s) among the following options is/are:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{BeO is almost insoluble but } \text{BeSO}_4 \text{ is soluble in water.}$, $\text{BaO is soluble but } \text{BaSO}_4 \text{ is insoluble in water.}$...
4
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9171
$\text{Li}_2\text{CO}_3 \text{ decomposes at a lower temperature because -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Lithium carbonate is not stable to heat.}$, $\text{Lithium carbonate is ionic in nature.}$...
1
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9170
$\text{The cation of alkali metals are found as } \text{M}(\text{H}_2\text{O})_n^+ \text{ in } \text{H}_2\text{O}.$ $\text{The value of 'n' is maximum for -}$
2
210
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$\text{Na}^+$, $\text{K}^+$...
4
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9169
$\text{The most stable (thermally) carbonate of alkaline earth metal is-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{MgCO}_3$, $\text{CaCO}_3$...
4
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9168
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Li}^+ \text{ has minimum degree of hydration among alkali metal cations.}$, $\text{The oxidation state of K in } \text{KO}_2 \text{ is } +1$...
1
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9167
$\text{Among the following the least thermally stable carbonate is :}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{K}_2\text{CO}_3$, $\text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3$...
4
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9166
$\text{Be and Mg did not give flame colour because:}$
2
210
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$\text{Energy released by excited electron falls in visible region.}$, $\text{Energy released by excited electron does not fall in visible region}$...
2
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9165
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Sodium metal is used in organic qualitative analysis.}$, $\text{Sodium carbonate is soluble in water and it is used in inorganic qualitative analysis.}$...
3
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9164
$\text{A molecule among the following that has the highest hydration energy is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{MgCl}_2$, $\text{CaCl}_2$...
1
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9163
$\text{A molecule among the following that has the highest hydration energy is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{MgCl}_2$, $\text{CaCl}_2$...
2
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9162
$\text{An amphoteric hydroxide among the following is :}$
2
210
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$\text{Be}(\text{OH})_2$, $\text{Sr}(\text{OH})_2$...
1
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9161
$\text{The alkali metal that gives hydrated salts is -}$
2
210
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$\text{Li}$, $\text{Na}$...
1
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9160
$\text{Alkali and alkaline earth metals cannot be obtained by chemical reduction method because they are the strongest :}$
2
210
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$\text{Oxidizing agents.}$, $\text{Reducing agents.}$...
2
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9159
$\text{Lithium shows a diagonal relationship with :}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Sodium}$, $\text{Magnesium}$...
2
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9158
$(\text{NH}_4)_2 \text{Cr}_2 \text{O}_7 \text{ on heating (below 200 degrees celsius) liberates a gas. The same gas will be obtained below 600 degrees celsius by :}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Heating }\text{NH}_4 \text{NO}_2$, $\text{Heating }\text{NH}_4 \text{NO}_3$...
1
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9157
$\text{In the Solvay process of manufacturing sodium carbonate, the raw materials used are:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Aqueous NaOH, NH}_3 \text{ and CO}_2$, $\text{Molten NaOH, NH}_3 \text{ and CO}$...
4
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9156
$\text{The sequence of ionic mobility in an aqueous solution is:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{K}^+ > \text{Na}^+ > \text{Rb}^+ > \text{Cs}^+$, $\text{Cs}^+ > \text{Rb}^+ > \text{K}^+ > \text{Na}^+$...
2
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9155
$\text{The fire extinguisher contains NaHCO}_3 \text{ and the compound (X). The compound (X) maybe -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}$, $\text{NaOH}$...
1
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9154
$\text{The pair of compounds, that cannot exist together in a solution is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{NaHCO}_3 \text{ and NaOH}$, $\text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3 \text{ and NaOH}$...
1
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9153
$\text{Out of Be, Mg, Ca, Sr and Ba,}$ $\text{Total number of metal whose nitrates are decomposed according to the following reaction are:}$ $2\text{M(NO}_3\text{)}_2 \xrightarrow{\Delta} \text{Residue} + 4\text{NO}_2 + \text{O}_2$
2
210
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$5$, $4$...
1
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9152
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{The thermal stability of nitrates of groups 1 and 2 increases down the group.}$, $\text{Nitrates of both groups 1 and 2 are insoluble in water.}$...
2
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9151
$\text{An ion that has the largest size among the following is :}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Li}^+\text{(aq)}$, $\text{Cs}^+\text{(aq)}$...
1
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9150
$\text{The commercial method of preparation of potassium by reduction of molten KCl with metallic sodium at 850°C is based on the fact that -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Potassium is solid and sodium distils off at 850°C.}$, $\text{Potassium is more volatile and distils off thus shifting the reaction forward.}$...
2
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9149
$\text{The correct diagonal relation of Li and Mg among the following is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both form solid bicarbonates.}$, $\text{Their oxides are less soluble in water.}$...
2
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9148
$\text{The compound A on heating gives a colourless gas and a residue that is dissolved in water to obtain B. Excess of } \text{CO}_2 \text{ is bubbled through an aqueous solution of B. C is solid. Solid C on gentle heating gives back A. The compound A is:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3$, $\text{K}_2\text{CO}_3$...
4
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9147
$\text{KO}_2 \text{ is used in oxygen cylinders in space aircraft and submarines because it :}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Absorbs } \text{CO}_2 \text{ and increases } \text{O}_2 \text{ content.}$, $\text{Eliminates moisture.}$...
1
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9146
$\text{A compound X reacts with } \text{K}_2\text{CrO}_4 \text{ and dilute HCl to produce a yellow precipitate and pungent smelling gas.}$ $\text{If X gives a green flame test, then X is:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{MgSO}_4$, $\text{BaS}_2\text{O}_3$...
2
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9145
$\text{The correct order of increasing thermal stability of } \text{K}_2\text{CO}_3\text{, } \text{MgCO}_3\text{, } \text{CaCO}_3 \text{ and } \text{BeCO}_3 \text{ is:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{BeCO}_3 < \text{MgCO}_3 < \text{K}_2\text{CO}_3 < \text{CaCO}_3$, $\text{BeCO}_3 < \text{MgCO}_3 < \text{CaCO}_3 < \text{K}_2\text{CO}_3$...
2
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9144
$\text{Sodium is less reactive than potassium because-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Potassium loses electron easily.}$, $\text{Sodium loses electron easily.}$...
1
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9143
$\text{The correct statement(s) about the structure of } \text{BeCl}_2 \text{ is -}$ $\text{a. } \text{BeCl}_2 \text{ (solid)- exists as polymer.}$ $\text{b. } \text{BeCl}_2 \text{ (vapour)- exists as chlorobridged dimer.}$ $\text{c. } \text{BeCl}_2 \text{ has bent structure in the vapour phase.}$
2
210
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$\text{a}$, $\text{a and b}$...
2
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9142
$\text{The oxidation state of sodium in } \text{Na}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$+1$, $-1$...
1
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9141
$\text{Lithium salts are generally hydrated because they have:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{High polarizing power.}$, $\text{High ionization enthalpy.}$...
1
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9140
$\text{Sodium reacts with water less vigorously than potassium because-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{It has a higher atomic weight.}$, $\text{It is less electropositive.}$...
2
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9139
$\text{Sodium in liquid ammonia is used as:}$
2
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$\text{Oxidizing agent}$, $\text{Reducing agent}$...
2
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9138
$\text{Solubility of alkaline earth metal sulphates in water decreases in the sequence:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Mg} > \text{Ca} > \text{Sr} > \text{Ba}$, $\text{Ca} > \text{Sr} > \text{Ba} > \text{Mg}$...
1
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9137
$\text{The characteristic of alkaline earth metals is that-}$
2
210
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$\text{Their general oxidation state is +1}$, $\text{They have a smaller size than alkali metals.}$...
2
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9136
$\text{A blue coloured solution of an alkali metal in liq NH}_3 \text{ is due to the presence of -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{M}^- \text{ atoms}$, $\text{M}^+ \text{ ions}$...
4
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9135
$\text{In the reaction } \text{M} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{MO}_2 \text{ (superoxide) the metal is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Li}$, $\text{Na}$...
3
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9134
$\text{The correct order of thermal stability of carbonates of Group 2 elements is-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{BeCO}_3 < \text{MgCO}_3 < \text{CaCO}_3 < \text{SrCO}_3 < \text{BaCO}_3$, $\text{BeCO}_3 < \text{MgCO}_3 < \text{BaCO}_3 < \text{SrCO}_3 < \text{CaCO}_3$...
1
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9133
$\text{Alkali metals are not found in nature in their elemental state because they are:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Less reactive due to low ionization energies.}$, $\text{Highly reactive due to low ionization energies.}$...
2
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9132
$\text{An alkali metals that forms only the normal oxide M}_2\text{O on heating in air is-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Rb}$, $\text{K}$...
3
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9131
$\text{An alkali metal that reacts with nitrogen to form nitride is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Li}$, $\text{Na}$...
1
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9130
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Alkali metals are more electropositive than alkaline earth metals.}$, $\text{Alkaline earth metals are denser and harder than alkali metals.}$...
4
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9129
$\text{Common table salt becomes moist and does not pour easily in rainy season because:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{It contains magnesium chloride.}$, $\text{It contains magnesium carbonate.}$...
1
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Delete
9128
$\text{The incorrect statement regarding Be(II group) is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{It forms an ionic carbide.}$, $\text{Its carbonate decomposes on heating.}$...
4
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9127
$\text{A paramagnetic compound among the following is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{K}_2\text{O}$, $\text{K}_2\text{O}_2$...
4
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9126
$\text{The strongest reducing agent among the following is:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{K}$, $\text{Na}$...
1
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9125
$\text{Sodium does not form Na}^{2+} \text{ because:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Sodium contains only one electron in its outermost shell}$, $\text{First ionization potential is small and the difference in first and second ionization potential is very large.}$...
2
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9124
$\text{Alkali metals are characterised by:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Good conductors of heat and electricity.}$, $\text{High melting points.}$...
1
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9123
$\text{The largest value of } K_{sp} \text{ among the following is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{BeSO}_4$, $\text{MgSO}_4$...
1
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9122
$\text{All group-2 metals dissolve in liquid ammonia to produce a bright blue colour. The colour is due to-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{A change in the structure of ammonia.}$, $\text{d-d transition.}$...
3
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9121
$\text{Alkali metal with the lowest melting point is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}$, $\text{K}$...
4
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9120
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ionisation enthalpy of alkaline earth metals is higher than alkali metals.}$, $\text{Alkaline earth metal oxides are more basic than alkali metal oxides.}$...
2
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Delete
9119
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is :}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{The atomic radius of Na is greater than that of Mg.}$, $\text{Density of K is more than Na.}$...
2
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Delete
9118
$\text{Beryllium and Magnesium do not impart color in flame test, because -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Be and Mg have high Ionization Energy.}$, $\text{Be and Mg have low Ionization Energy.}$...
1
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Delete
9117
$\text{Property of the alkaline earth metals that increases with their atomic number is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Solubility of their hydroxides in water.}$, $\text{Solubility of their sulphates in water.}$...
1
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Delete
9116
$\text{Beryllium and Magnesium do not impart color in flame test, because -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Be and Mg have high Ionization Energy.}$, $\text{Be and Mg have low Ionization Energy.}$...
2
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Delete
9115
$\text{The correct relation about the density of Na and K is}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na} > \text{K}$, $\text{Na} = \text{K}$...
1
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9114
$\text{The incorrect statement about alkali metals is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{They have low density.}$, $\text{They have high ionization enthalpy.}$...
2
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Delete
9113
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following regarding alkaline earth metals is :}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Alkaline earth metals are silvery-white, lustrous, and harder than alkali metals.}$, $\text{Only Ca, Sr, Mg, and Ba give a flame test.}$...
2
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Delete
9112
$\text{The most basic compound among the following is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{RbOH}$, $\text{KOH}$...
2
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9111
$\text{The most basic compound among the following is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{RbOH}$, $\text{KOH}$...
1
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9110
$\text{A compound soluble in pyridine is:-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{LiCl}$, $\text{CsCl}$...
1
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9109
$\text{The strongest factor responsible for reducing action of Li metal in an aqueous solution is :}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Sublimation enthalpy .}$, $\text{Ionisation enthalpy.}$...
3
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9108
$\text{Lithium has the minimum tendency to form } \text{Li}^+ \text{ ion. The aqueous solution of lithium is the:}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Strongest reducing agent.}$, $\text{Poorest reducing agent.}$...
1
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9107
$\text{The reason for a lower basicity of hydroxides of alkaline earth metals than alkali metals is :}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Alkali metals form ionic compounds.}$, $\text{The bond strength of oxygen is more for alkali metals.}$...
3
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9106
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following regarding Lithium is that-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{The hydroxide, carbonate and nitrate decompose to give the oxide on heating.}$, $\text{It is the most electronegative element of group IA.}$...
4
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9105
$\text{The polarising power of Mg is close to that of –}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}$, $\text{Cs}$...
3
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9104
$\text{A colourless salt among the following that gives violet colour to Bunsen flame is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3$, $\text{K}_2\text{CO}_3$...
2
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9103
$\text{Potassium is kept-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{Under cold water.}$, $\text{In ammonia.}$...
4
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9102
$\text{An amphoteric oxide among the following is-}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{CaO}$, $\text{SrO}$...
3
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9101
$\text{The property of alkali metals that increases with increasing atomic number is -}$
2
210
Recommended Questions
$\text{First ionization energy.}$, $\text{Electronegativity.}$...
4
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9070
130
1
102
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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9069
129
1
102
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1, 2...
4
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9068
128
1
102
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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9067
127
1
102
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1, 2...
4
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9066
126
1
102
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1, 2...
3
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9065
125
1
102
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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9064
124
1
102
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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9063
123
1
102
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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9062
122
1
102
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1, 2...
1
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9061
121
1
102
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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9060
120
1
102
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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9059
119
1
102
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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9058
118
1
102
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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9057
117
1
102
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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9056
116
1
102
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1, 2...
2
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9055
115
1
102
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1, 2...
3
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9054
114
1
102
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1, 2...
3
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9053
113
1
102
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1, 2...
1
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9052
112
1
102
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1, 2...
4
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9051
111
1
102
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1, 2...
2
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9050
110
1
102
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1, 2...
4
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9049
109
1
102
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1, 2...
1
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9048
108
1
102
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1, 2...
4
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9047
107
1
102
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1, 2...
1
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9046
106
1
102
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1, 2...
1
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9045
105
1
102
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1, 2...
3
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9044
104
1
102
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1, 2...
3
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9043
103
1
102
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1, 2...
4
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9042
102
1
102
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1, 2...
4
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9041
101
1
102
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1, 2...
1
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9040
100
1
102
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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8953
13
1
102
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1, 2...
3
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8952
12
1
102
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1, 2...
2
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8951
11
1
102
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1, 2...
2
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8950
10
1
102
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2
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8941
1
1
102
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1, 2...
3
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8940
$\text{Which of the following four statements is false?}$
1
102
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$\text{A body can have zero velocity and still be accelerated.}$, $\text{A body can have a constant velocity and still have a varying speed.}$...
2
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8939
$\text{A body in one-dimensional motion has zero speed at an instant. At that instant, it must have:}$
1
102
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$\text{zero velocity.}$, $\text{zero acceleration.}$...
1
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8938
$\text{The displacement } (x) \text{ of a point moving in a straight line is given by:}$ $x = 8t^2 - 4t. \text{ Then the velocity of the particle is zero at:}$
1
102
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$0.4 \text{ s}$, $0.25 \text{ s}$...
2
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8937
$\text{A particle moving in unidirectional motion travels half of the total distance with a constant speed of 15 m/s.}$ $\text{Now the first half of the remaining journey time, it travels at 10 m/s, and the second half of the remaining journey time, it travels at 5 m/s.}$ $\text{The average speed of the particle is:}$
1
102
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$12 \text{ m/s}$, $10 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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8936
$\text{A ball is bouncing elastically with a speed of 1 m/s between the walls of a railway compartment of size 10 m in a direction perpendicular to the walls. The train is moving at a constant velocity of 10 m/s parallel to the direction of motion of the ball. As seen from the ground:}$ $\text{(a) the direction of motion of the ball changes every 10 sec.}$ $\text{(b) the speed of the ball changes every 10 sec.}$ $\text{(c) the average speed of the ball over any 20 sec intervals is fixed.}$ $\text{(d) the acceleration of the ball is the same as from the train.}$ $\text{Choose the correct option:}$
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$\text{(a), (c), (d)}$, $\text{(a), (c)}$...
3
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8935
$\text{An elevator car, whose floor to ceiling distance is equal to 2.7 m, starts ascending with constant acceleration of 1.2 ms}^{-2}\text{. 2 sec after the start, a bolt begins falling from the ceiling of the car. The free fall time of the bolt is:}$
1
102
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$\sqrt{0.54} \text{ s}$, $\sqrt{6} \text{ s}$...
3
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8934
$\text{A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity } u \text{ with respect to ground from a balloon descending with velocity } v \text{ with respect to ground. The ball will pass the balloon after time:}$
1
102
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$\frac{u-v}{2g}$, $\frac{u+v}{2g}$...
4
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8933
$\text{A person standing on the floor of an elevator drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor in time } t_1\text{, if the elevator is moving uniformly and time } t_2\text{, if the elevator is stationary. Then:}$
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102
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$t_1 < t_2 \text{ or } t_1 > t_2 \text{ depending upon whether the lift is going up or down.}$, $t_1 < t_2$...
4
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8932
$\text{A stone is dropped from a height } h\text{. Simultaneously, another stone is thrown up from the ground which reaches a height } 4h\text{. The two stones cross each other after time:}$
1
102
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$\sqrt{\frac{h}{8g}}$, $\sqrt{8gh}$...
1
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8931
$\text{A jet airplane travelling at the speed of 500 km/h ejects its products of combustion at the speed of 1500 km/h relative to the jet plane. What is the speed of the latter with respect to an observer on the ground?}$
1
102
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$1000 \text{ km/h}$, $500 \text{ km/h}$...
1
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8930
$\text{Two cars } A \text{ and } B \text{ are travelling in the same direction with velocities } v_1 \text{ and } v_2 (v_1 > v_2)\text{. When the car } A \text{ is at a distance } d \text{ behind the car } B\text{, the driver of the car } A \text{ applied the brake producing uniform retardation } a\text{. There will be no collision when:}$
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102
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$d < \frac{(v_1-v_2)^2}{2a}$, $d < \frac{v_1^2-v_2^2}{2a}$...
3
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8929
$\text{Suppose you are riding a bike with a speed of 20 m/s due east relative to a person } A \text{ who is walking on the ground towards the east. If your friend } B \text{ walking on the ground due west measures your speed as 30 m/s due east, then the relative velocity between two reference frames } A \text{ and } B \text{ is:}$
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$\text{the velocity of } A \text{ with respect to } B \text{ is 5 m/s towards the east.}$, $\text{the velocity of } A \text{ with respect to } B \text{ is 5 m/s towards the west.}$...
3
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8928
$\text{A boy falls from a building of height 320 m. After 5 seconds, superman jumps downward with initial speed } u \text{ such that the boy can be saved. The minimum value of } u \text{ is: (assume } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\text{)}$
1
102
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$95.1 \text{ m/s}$, $98.3 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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8927
$\text{A car } A \text{ is traveling on a straight level road at a uniform speed of 60 km/h. It is followed by another car } B \text{ which is moving at a speed of 70 km/h. When the distance between them is 2.5 km, car } B \text{ is given a deceleration of 20 km/h}^2\text{. After how much time will car } B \text{ catch up with car } A\text{?}$
1
102
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$1 \text{ hr}$, $\frac{1}{2} \text{ hr}$...
2
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8926
$\text{Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary escalator in time } t_1\text{. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time } t_2\text{. The time taken by her to walk upon the moving escalator will be:}$
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102
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$\frac{t_1 t_2}{t_2 - t_1}$, $\frac{t_1 t_2}{t_2 + t_1}$...
2
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8925
$\text{An elevator whose floor-to-ceiling height is 12 meters, moves upward with an acceleration of 2.2 m/s}^2\text{. After 1.5 s since starting, a bolt falls from its ceiling. The time taken by the bolt to reach the floor is:}$
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$1 \text{ s}$, $2 \text{ s}$...
3
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8924
$\text{Two trains each of length 100 m are moving parallel towards each other at speeds 72 km/h and 36 km/h respectively. In how much time will they cross each other?}$
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102
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$4.5 \text{ s}$, $6.67 \text{ s}$...
2
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8923
$\text{A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms}^{-1} \text{ on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist, with what minimum speed should the scooterist chase the bus?}$
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$20 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $40 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
1
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8922
$\text{Two cars are moving in the same direction with the same speed 30 km/hr. They are separated by a distance of 5 km. The speed of a car moving in the opposite direction, if it meets these two cars at an interval of 4 minutes, will be:}$
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102
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$40 \text{ km/hr}$, $45 \text{ km/hr}$...
2
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8921
$\text{The distance between two particles is decreasing at the rate of 6 m/sec when they are moving in the opposite directions. If these particles travel with the same initial speeds and in the same direction, then the separation increases at the rate of 4 m/sec. It can be concluded that particles' speeds could be:}$
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$5 \text{ m/sec, } 1 \text{ m/sec}$, $4 \text{ m/sec, } 1 \text{ m/sec}$...
1
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8920
$\text{Two trains, each 50 m long, are travelling in the opposite direction with velocities 10 m/s and 15 m/s. The time of crossing is:}$
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$10 \text{ sec}$, $4 \text{ sec}$...
2
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8919
$\text{Two balls are projected upward simultaneously with speeds of } 40 \text{ m/s and } 60 \text{ m/s. The relative position } (x) \text{ of the second ball with respect to the first ball at time } t = 5 \text{ s will be: (neglect air resistance)}$
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$20 \text{ m}$, $80 \text{ m}$...
3
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8918
$\text{A thief is running away on a straight road in a jeep moving with a speed of } 9 \text{ m/s. A policeman chases him on a motorcycle moving at a speed of } 10 \text{ m/s. If the instantaneous separation of the jeep from the motorcycle is } 100 \text{ m, how long will it take for the policeman to catch the thief?}$
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$1 \text{ s}$, $19 \text{ s}$...
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8917
$\text{In the following displacement } (x) \text{ versus time } (t) \text{ graph, at which points } P, Q \text{ and } R \text{ will the object's speed be increasing?}$
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102
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$R \text{ only}$, $P \text{ only}$...
1
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8916
$\text{Two stones are thrown vertically up simultaneously with different velocities. Which of the following graphs represents the relative separation } (\Delta y) \text{ between them as a function of time } (t)?$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Triangular shape - linear increase then linear decrease}$, $\text{Graph 2: Parabolic shape opening downward}$...
4
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8915
$\text{For the following acceleration versus time graph, the corresponding velocity versus displacement graph is:}$
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$\text{Graph 1: Linear relationship between velocity and displacement}$, $\text{Graph 2: Exponential-like curve starting flat then rising steeply}$...
3
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8914
$\text{A particle is moving along the positive } x\text{-axis with some initial velocity. The acceleration-time graphs are shown. In which case the velocity of the particle will increase for the entire time between } t_1 \text{ and } t_2?$
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$\text{only in (II)}$, $\text{in (I) and (III)}$...
4
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8913
$\text{Among the four graphs shown in the figure, there is only one graph for which average velocity over the time interval } (0, T) \text{ can vanish for a suitably chosen } T. \text{ Select the graph.}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Exponentially decreasing curve}$, $\text{Graph 2: Curve that rises then falls back down}$...
2
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8912
$\text{The graph below shows position as a function of time for two trains running on parallel tracks. Which of the following statements is true?}$
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$\text{At time } t_B \text{ both the trains have the same velocity}$, $\text{Both the trains have the same velocity at some time after } t_B$...
3
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8911
$\text{The graph between the displacement } x \text{ and time } t \text{ for a particle moving in a straight line is shown in the figure. During the interval OA, AB, BC and CD the acceleration of the particle is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{OA: +, AB: 0, BC: +, CD: +}$, $\text{OA: -, AB: 0, BC: +, CD: 0}$...
2
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8910
$\text{A ball is dropped vertically from a height } h \text{ above the ground. It hits the ground and bounces up vertically to a height of } \frac{h}{2}. \text{ Neglecting subsequent motion and air resistance, its velocity } v \text{ varies with the height } h \text{ as: [Take vertically upwards direction as positive.]}$
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102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Curved path showing downward then upward motion}$, $\text{Graph 2: Semi-circular path}$...
1
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8909
$\text{The variation of quantity } A \text{ with quantity } B \text{ is plotted in the given figure which describes the motion of a particle in a straight line.}$ $\text{Consider the following statements:}$ $\text{(a) Quantity } B \text{ may represent time.}$ $\text{(b) Quantity } A \text{ is velocity if motion is uniform.}$ $\text{(c) Quantity } A \text{ is displacement if motion is uniform.}$ $\text{(d) Quantity } A \text{ is velocity if motion is uniformly accelerated.}$ $\text{Select the correct option:}$
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$\text{(a), (b), (c)}$, $\text{(b), (c), (d)}$...
3
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8908
$\text{Acceleration-time graph of a body is shown.}$ $\text{The corresponding velocity-time graph of the same body is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph showing velocity increasing linearly, then remaining constant, then decreasing linearly}$, $\text{Graph showing velocity decreasing linearly, then remaining constant, then increasing linearly}$...
3
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8907
$\text{Which graph represents a uniformly accelerated motion?}$
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$\text{Displacement-time graph showing a parabolic curve (concave up)}$, $\text{Displacement-time graph showing a curved line (concave down)}$...
1
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8906
$\text{The graph of displacement time is given below.}$ $\text{Its corresponding velocity-time graph will be:}$
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$\text{Velocity-time graph showing a straight line decreasing from positive to negative}$, $\text{Velocity-time graph showing a parabolic curve opening upward}$...
1
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8905
$\text{The displacement-time (s-t) graphs of two moving particles A and B make angles of 30° and 45° with the x-axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity } \left(\frac{v_A}{v_B}\right) \text{ is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$1 : \sqrt{3}$, $\sqrt{3} : 1$...
1
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8904
$\text{A lift is going up. The variation in the speed of the lift is as given in the graph. What is the height to which the lift takes the passengers?}$
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$3.6 \text{ m}$, $28.8 \text{ m}$...
3
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8903
$\text{A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Then the velocity-time (v-t) graph will be:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{A straight line starting from positive velocity and decreasing linearly to negative velocity}$, $\text{A triangular shape starting at zero, increasing to a peak, then decreasing back to zero}$...
1
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8902
$\text{A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The maximum speed of the particle will be:}$
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102
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$110 \text{ m/s}$, $55 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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8901
$\text{A particle shows distance-time curve as given in this figure. The maximum instantaneous velocity of the particle is around the point:}$
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$\text{B}$, $\text{C}$...
2
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8900
$\text{The position (x) of a particle in a straight line motion is given by } x = 2 + 10t - 5t^2 \text{ m. Its velocity (v) is best represented by?}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Linear graph starting at 10 m/s at t=0, decreasing to 0 m/s at t=1s}$, $\text{Linear graph starting at 20 m/s, decreasing to 5 m/s at t=1s}$...
1
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8899
$\text{The velocity-time } (v-t) \text{ graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in the figure. The displacement and distance travelled by the body in 6 s are, respectively:}$ $\text{The graph shows:}$ $\text{- From } t = 0 \text{ to } t = 2\text{s: } v = 4\text{ m/s}$ $\text{- From } t = 2 \text{ to } t = 4\text{s: } v = -2\text{ m/s}$ $\text{- From } t = 4 \text{ to } t = 6\text{s: } v = 2\text{ m/s}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$8\text{ m, } 16\text{ m}$, $16\text{ m, } 8\text{ m}$...
1
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8898
$\text{Which one of the following displacement-time graph represents two moving objects } P \text{ and } Q \text{ with zero relative velocity?}$
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102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Object } Q \text{ has a steeper slope than object } P \text{ on the displacement-time graph}$, $\text{Graph 2: Objects } P \text{ and } Q \text{ have parallel lines with the same slope on the displacement-time graph}$...
2
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8897
$\text{In the following graph, the distance travelled by the body in metres is:}$ $\text{The velocity-time graph shows:}$ $\text{- From } t = 0 \text{ to } t = 10\text{s: velocity increases linearly from 0 to 10 m/s}$ $\text{- From } t = 10 \text{ to } t = 20\text{s: velocity remains constant at 10 m/s}$ $\text{- From } t = 20 \text{ to } t = 30\text{s: velocity decreases linearly from 10 to 0 m/s}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$200$, $250$...
1
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8896
$\text{Which of the following velocity-time graphs shows a realistic situation for a body in motion?}$
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$\text{Graph 1: A curved loop that intersects itself, showing multiple velocity values for some time instants}$, $\text{Graph 2: A continuous smooth curve that represents a mathematical function with one velocity value for each time instant}$...
2
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8895
$\text{The displacement time graph of a moving particle is shown in the figure below. The instantaneous velocity of the particle is negative at the point:}$ $\text{The graph shows a curved line with labeled points C, D, E, and F, where the curve rises to a maximum at D, then decreases through E, and rises again toward F.}$
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Recommended Questions
$D$, $F$...
4
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8894
$\text{The initial velocity of a particle is } u \text{ (at } t = 0\text{) and the acceleration } f \text{ is given by } at\text{. Which of the following relation is valid?}$
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102
Recommended Questions
$v = u + at^2$, $v = u + \frac{at^2}{2}$...
2
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8893
$\text{A body is thrown vertically upwards. If the air resistance is to be taken into account, then the time during which the body rises is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Equal to the time of fall.}$, $\text{Less than the time of fall.}$...
2
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8892
$\text{A point moves in a straight line under the retardation } av^2\text{. If the initial velocity is } u\text{, the distance covered in } t \text{ seconds is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$(aut)$, $\frac{1}{a}\ln(aut)$...
3
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8891
$\text{A particle is moving along the x-axis such that its velocity varies with time as per the equation } v = 20\left(1 - \frac{t}{2}\right)\text{. At } t = 0 \text{ particle is at the origin. From the following, select the correct position }(x)\text{ - time }(t)\text{ plot for the particle:}$
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102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Linear decrease in position with time, reaching a minimum and then continuing downward}$, $\text{Graph 2: Position decreases linearly, reaches a minimum at t = 2s, then increases linearly}$...
4
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8890
$\text{For the given acceleration }(a)\text{ versus time }(t)\text{ graph of a body, the body is initially at rest.}$ $\text{The acceleration-time graph shows acceleration starting at a positive value and decreasing linearly to zero.}$ $\text{From the following, the velocity }(v)\text{ versus time }(t)\text{ graph will be:}$
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102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Linear increasing line starting from origin with constant positive slope}$, $\text{Graph 2: Linear decreasing line starting from a positive value}$...
3
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8889
$\text{The acceleration of a particle starting from rest varies with time according to the relation } A = -a\omega^2 \sin \omega t. \text{ The displacement of this particle at a time } t \text{ will be:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2}(a\omega^2 \sin \omega t) t^2$, $a\omega \sin \omega t$...
4
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8888
$\text{A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according to } v(x) = \beta x^{-2n} \text{ where } \beta \text{ and } n \text{ are constants and } x \text{ is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as a function of } x \text{ is given by:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$-2n\beta^2 x^{-2n-1}$, $-2n\beta^2 x^{-4n-1}$...
2
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8887
$\text{The acceleration } a \text{ (in ms}^{-2}\text{) of a body, starting from rest varies with time } t \text{ (in s) as per the equation } a = 3t + 4. \text{ The velocity of the body at time } t = 2 \text{s will be:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $18 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
3
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8886
$\text{The motion of a particle along a straight line is described by the equation: } x = 8 + 12t - t^3, \text{ where } x \text{ is in metre and } t \text{ is in second. The retardation of the particle when its velocity becomes zero is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$24 \text{ ms}^{-2}$, $\text{zero}$...
4
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8885
$\text{The displacement of a particle is given by } y = a + bt + ct^2 - dt^4. \text{ The initial velocity and acceleration are, respectively:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$b, -4d$, $-b, 2c$...
3
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8884
$\text{A falling stone from rest takes 0.2 s to fall past a window on path which is 1 m high. From how far above the top of window, was the stone dropped?}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\frac{4}{5} \text{ m}$, $\frac{5}{7} \text{ m}$...
1
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8883
$\text{A balloon starts from the ground from rest with an upward acceleration of } 2 \text{ m/s}^2. \text{ After 1 sec, a stone is dropped from it. The time taken by the stone to strike the ground is approximately:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$0.3 \text{ s}$, $0.7 \text{ s}$...
2
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8882
$\text{A body starts falling from height } h \text{ and if it travels a distance of } \frac{h}{2} \text{ during the last second of motion, then the time of flight is (in seconds):}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{2} - 1$, $2 + \sqrt{2}$...
2
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8881
$\text{Select the correct option based on the statements given below:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): A body can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at a given instant of time.}$ $\text{Reason (R): A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses its direction of motion.}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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8880
$\text{A ball is dropped from a high-rise platform at } t = 0 \text{ starting from rest. After 6 seconds, another ball is thrown downwards from the same platform with speed } v. \text{ The two balls meet after 18 seconds. What is the value of } v?$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$75 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $55 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
1
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8879
$\text{A particle is allowed to fall from rest from a height } h\text{. Which of the following represents its velocity versus time graph?}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph showing a horizontal line at constant velocity } \sqrt{2gh}$, $\text{Graph showing a straight line with positive slope starting from origin, reaching } \sqrt{2gh} \text{ at time } \sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}}$...
2
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8878
$\text{Starting from rest, a car accelerates uniformly at the rate of } 1 \text{ m/s}^2 \text{ for some time, then decelerates uniformly at the rate of } 2 \text{ m/s}^2 \text{ and finally comes to rest after a journey of } 1 \text{ minute. The maximum possible speed of the car during this journey is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ m/s}$, $20 \text{ m/s}$...
4
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8877
$\text{A helicopter moving vertically upwards releases a packet when it is at a certain height above the ground. The packet initially moves upwards for a time } t_1 \text{ and then falls downwards for a time } t_2 \text{ until it reaches the ground. Then:}$
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102
Recommended Questions
$t_1 < t_2$, $t_1 = t_2$...
1
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8876
$\text{If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed } u\text{, the distance covered during the last } t \text{ seconds of its ascent is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$ut$, $\frac{1}{2}gt^2$...
2
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8875
$\text{A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of } 20 \text{ m/s from the top of a multistorey building. The height of the point from where the ball is thrown is } 25.0 \text{ m from the ground. How long will it be before the ball hits the ground?}$ $\text{(Take } g = 10 \text{ ms}^{-2}\text{)}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$3 \text{ s}$, $2 \text{ s}$...
3
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8874
$\text{A man throws some balls with the same speed vertically upwards one after the other at an interval of } 2 \text{ seconds. What should be the speed of the throw so that more than two balls are in the sky at any time? (Given } g = 9.8 \text{ m/s}^2\text{)}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{More than } 19.6 \text{ m/s}$, $\text{At least } 9.8 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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8873
$\text{If a freely falling body travels in the last second a distance equal to the distance travelled by it in the first three seconds, the time of the travel is:}$
1
102
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$6 \text{ sec}$, $5 \text{ sec}$...
2
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8872
$\text{A particle is projected upwards. The times corresponding to height } h \text{ while ascending and while descending are } t_1 \text{ and } t_2 \text{ respectively. The velocity of projection will be:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$gt_1$, $gt_2$...
4
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8871
$\text{A student is standing at a distance of 50 metres from the bus. As soon as the bus begins its motion with an acceleration of } 1 \text{ ms}^{-2}\text{, the student starts running towards the bus with a uniform velocity } u\text{. Assuming the motion to be along a straight road, the minimum value of } u\text{, so that the student is able to catch the bus is:}$
1
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Recommended Questions
$5 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $8 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
3
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8870
$\text{A stone falls freely from rest from a height } h \text{ and it travels a distance of } \frac{9h}{25} \text{ in the last second. The value of } h \text{ is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$145 \text{ m}$, $100 \text{ m}$...
3
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8868
$\text{The velocity of a particle moving along a straight line with constant acceleration } a \text{ reduces to } \frac{1}{5} \text{ of its initial velocity in time } \tau\text{. The total time taken by the body till its velocity becomes zero is:}$
1
102
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$\frac{4\tau}{3}$, $\frac{5\tau}{4}$...
2
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8867
$\text{Four marbles are dropped from the top of a tower one after the other at a one-second interval. The first one reaches the ground after 4 seconds. When the first one reaches the ground the distances between the first and second, the second and third, and the third and fourth will be, respectively:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$35 \text{ m, } 25 \text{ m, and } 15 \text{ m}$, $30 \text{ m, } 20 \text{ m, and } 10 \text{ m}$...
1
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8866
$\text{A particle starts from rest (with constant acceleration) and acquires velocity 20 m/s in 5 s. The distance travelled by the particle in the next 2 s will be:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$50 \text{ m}$, $48 \text{ m}$...
2
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8865
$\text{A boy standing on a stationary lift (open from above) throws a ball upwards with the maximum initial speed he can, equal to 49 ms}^{-1}\text{. How much time does the ball take to return to his hands?}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$5 \text{ s}$, $10 \text{ s}$...
2
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8864
$\text{A stone dropped from a building of height } h \text{ and reaches the earth after } t \text{ seconds. From the same building, if two stones are thrown (one upwards and other downwards) with the same velocity } u \text{ and they reach the earth surface after } t_1 \text{ and } t_2 \text{ seconds respectively, then:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$t = t_1 - t_2$, $t = \frac{t_1 + t_2}{2}$...
3
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8863
$\text{A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10 ms}^{-1} \text{ to 20 ms}^{-1} \text{ while covering a distance of 135 m in } t \text{ seconds. The value of } t \text{ is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$10$, $1.8$...
4
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8862
$\text{A body starting from rest moves with uniform acceleration on a horizontal surface. The body covers 3 consecutive equal distances from the beginning in time } t_1, t_2, \text{ and } t_3 \text{ seconds. The ratio of } t_1 : t_2 : t_3 \text{ is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$1 : 2 : 3$, $1 : \sqrt{2} : \sqrt{3}$...
3
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8861
$\text{A car travelling at a speed of 30 km/h is brought to rest at a distance of 8 m by applying brakes. If the same car is moving at a speed of 60 km/h, then it can be brought to rest with the same brakes in:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$64 \text{ m}$, $32 \text{ m}$...
2
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8860
$\text{A body is thrown vertically up from the ground. It reaches a maximum height of 100 m in 5 s. After what time will it reach the ground from the position of maximum height?}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$1.2 \text{ s}$, $5 \text{ s}$...
2
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8859
$\text{A particle is dropped vertically from rest from a height. The time taken by it to fall through successive distances of 1 m each will then be:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{All equal, being equal to } \sqrt{\frac{2}{g}} \text{ s.}$, $\text{In the ratio of the square roots of the integers } 1, 2, 3\ldots$...
3
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8858
$\text{A ball is thrown vertically downwards with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after some time with the velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is: (assuming } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\text{)}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$340 \text{ m}$, $320 \text{ m}$...
3
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8857
$\text{A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances } h_1, h_2 \text{ and } h_3 \text{ in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between } h_1, h_2 \text{ and } h_3 \text{ is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$h_1 = \frac{h_2}{3} = \frac{h_3}{5}$, $h_2 = 3h_1 \text{ and } h_3 = 3h_2$...
1
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8856
$\text{A body is thrown upwards and reaches its maximum height. At that position:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{its velocity is zero and its acceleration is also zero.}$, $\text{its velocity is zero but its acceleration is maximum.}$...
4
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8855
$\text{A particle is thrown vertically upward. Its velocity at half of the height is 10 m/s, then the maximum height attained by it is: } (g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2)$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$8 \text{ m}$, $20 \text{ m}$...
3
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8854
$\text{If a body is thrown up with the velocity of 15 m/s, then the maximum height attained by the body is: (assume } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\text{)}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$11.25 \text{ m}$, $16.2 \text{ m}$...
1
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8853
$\text{A boy standing at the top of a tower of 20 m height drops a stone. Assuming } g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\text{, the velocity with which it hits the ground will be:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$20 \text{ m/s}$, $40 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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8852
$\text{The figure gives a speed-time graph of a particle in motion along the same direction. Three equal intervals of time are shown. In which interval is the average acceleration greatest in magnitude?}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Interval 2}$, $\text{Interval 1}$...
1
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8851
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): A particle having zero acceleration must have a constant speed.}$ $\text{Reason (R): A particle having constant speed must have zero acceleration.}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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8850
$\text{A point moves in a straight line so that its displacement is } x \text{ m at time } t \text{ sec, given by } x^2 = t^2 + 1\text{. Its acceleration in m/s}^2 \text{ at time 1 sec is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{x}$, $\frac{1}{x} - \frac{1}{x^3}$...
2
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8849
$\text{A particle moves with velocity } v_1 \text{ for time } t_1 \text{ and } v_2 \text{ for time } t_2 \text{ along a straight line. The magnitude of its average acceleration is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\frac{v_2-v_1}{t_1-t_2}$, $\frac{v_2-v_1}{t_1+t_2}$...
2
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8848
$\text{If a particle is moving along a straight line with increasing speed, then:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{its acceleration is negative.}$, $\text{its acceleration may be decreasing.}$...
4
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8847
$\text{The velocity } v \text{ of an object varies with its position } x \text{ on a straight line as } v = 3\sqrt{x}\text{. Its acceleration versus time } (a-t) \text{ graph is best represented by:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Decreasing linear graph}$, $\text{Increasing linear graph}$...
3
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8846
$\text{A body is projected vertically in the upward direction from the surface of the earth. If the upward direction is taken as positive, then the acceleration of the body during its upward and downward journey is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Positive, negative}$, $\text{Negative, negative}$...
2
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8845
$\text{If a particle has negative velocity and negative acceleration, its speed:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{increases}$, $\text{decreases}$...
1
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8844
$\text{A particle moves a distance } x \text{ in time } t \text{ according to equation } x = (t + 5)^{-1}\text{. The acceleration of the particle is proportional to:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$(\text{velocity})^{\frac{3}{2}}$, $(\text{distance})^{2}$...
1
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8843
$\text{If the velocity of a particle is given by } v = (180 - 16x)^{1/2} \text{ m/s, then its acceleration will be:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $8 \text{ m/s}^2$...
3
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8842
$\text{When the velocity of a body is variable, then:}$
1
102
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$\text{its speed may be constant}$, $\text{its acceleration may be constant}$...
4
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8841
$\text{The acceleration } a \text{ in m/s}^2 \text{ of a particle is given by } a = 3t^2 + 2t + 2 \text{ where } t \text{ is the time. If the particle starts out with a velocity, } u = 2 \text{ m/s at } t = 0\text{, then the velocity at the end of 2 seconds will be:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$12 \text{ m/s}$, $18 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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8840
$\text{A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time } t \text{ is given by } S = t^3 - 6t^2 + 3t + 4 \text{ metres. The velocity when the acceleration is zero is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$4 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $-12 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
4
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8839
$\text{A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time } t \text{ is given by } S = t^3 - 6t^2 + 3t + 4 \text{ metres. The velocity when the acceleration is zero is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$4 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $-12 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
4
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8838
$\text{A body is moving along a straight line according to the equation of motion, } x = t^2 - 3t + 4, \text{ where } x \text{ is in metre and } t \text{ is in seconds.}$ $\text{What is the acceleration of the body when it comes to rest?}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $2 \text{ m/s}^2$...
2
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8837
$\text{The position } x \text{ of a particle varies with time } t \text{ as } x = at^2 - bt^3. \text{ The acceleration of the particle will be zero at time } t \text{ equal to:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\frac{a}{b}$, $\frac{2a}{3b}$...
3
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8836
$\text{The motion of a particle is given by the equation } S = (3t^3 + 7t^2 + 14t + 8) \text{ m}. \text{ The value of the acceleration of the particle at } t = 1 \text{ is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ m/s}^2$, $32 \text{ m/s}^2$...
2
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8835
$\text{Two buses } P \text{ and } Q \text{ start from a point at the same time and move in a straight line and their positions are represented by}$ $X_p(t) = \alpha t + \beta t^2 \text{ and } X_Q(t) = ft - t^2.$ $\text{At what time, do both the buses have the same velocity?}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\alpha - f}{1 + \beta}$, $\frac{\alpha + f}{2(\beta - 1)}$...
4
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8834
$\text{A particle moves along a straight line } OX. \text{ At a time } t \text{ (in seconds), the displacement } x \text{ (in metres) of the particle from } O \text{ is given by } x = 40 + 12t - t^3. \text{ How long would the particle travel before coming to rest?}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$24 \text{ m}$, $40 \text{ m}$...
4
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8833
$\text{A particle is moving along a straight line such that its position depends on time as } x = 1 - at + bt^2, \text{ where } a = 2 \text{ m/s}, b = 1 \text{ m/s}^2. \text{ The distance covered by the particle during the first 3 seconds from start of the motion will be:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ m}$, $5 \text{ m}$...
2
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8831
$\text{A particle moves along a straight line and its position as a function of time is given by } x = t^3 - 3t^2 + 3t + 3 \text{ then particle:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{stops at } t = 1 \text{ s and reverses its direction of motion.}$, $\text{stops at } t = 1 \text{ s and continues further without a change of direction.}$...
2
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8829
$\text{The displacement } x \text{ of a particle varies with time } t \text{ as } x = ae^{-\alpha t} + be^{\beta t}, \text{ where } a, b, \alpha, \text{ and } \beta \text{ are positive constants. The velocity of the particle will:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{be independent of } \alpha \text{ and } \beta.$, $\text{go on increasing with time.}$...
2
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8828
$\text{If in one-dimensional motion, instantaneous speed } v \text{ satisfies } 0 \leq v < v_0, \text{ then:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{the displacement in time } T \text{ must always take non-negative values.}$, $\text{the displacement } x \text{ in time } T \text{ satisfies } -v_0T < x < v_0T.$...
2
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8827
$\text{The position-time } (x-t) \text{ graphs for two children } A \text{ and } B \text{ returning from their school } O \text{ to their homes } P \text{ and } Q \text{ respectively are shown in the graph. Choose the incorrect statement.}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$B \text{ reaches home faster than } A\text{.}$, $B \text{ overtakes } A \text{ on the road twice.}$...
2
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8826
$\text{The position of an object moving along the x-axis is given by } x = a + bt^2 \text{ where } a = 10 \text{ m}, b = 2 \text{ ms}^{-2} \text{ and } t \text{ is in seconds. The velocity at } t = 3.0 \text{ s is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$12 \text{ ms}^{-1}$, $20 \text{ ms}^{-1}$...
2
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8825
$\text{The position } x \text{ of a particle moving along the x-axis varies with time } t \text{ as } x = 20t - 5t^2\text{, where } x \text{ is in meters and } t \text{ is in seconds. The particle reverses its direction of motion at:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$x = 40 \text{ m}$, $x = 10 \text{ m}$...
1
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8824
$\text{For a particle, displacement time relation is given by; } t = \sqrt{x} + 3\text{. Its displacement, when its velocity is zero will be:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ m}$, $4 \text{ m}$...
3
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8823
$\text{The position of an object moving along the x-axis is given by, } x = a + bt^2\text{, where } a = 8.5 \text{ m}, b = 2.5 \text{ m/s}^2\text{, and } t \text{ is measured in seconds. Its velocity at } t = 2.0 \text{ s will be:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$13 \text{ m/s}$, $17 \text{ m/s}$...
3
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8822
$\text{If the velocity of a particle is } v = At + Bt^2\text{, where } A \text{ and } B \text{ are constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1 s and 2 s is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$3A + 7B$, $\frac{3}{2}A + \frac{7}{3}B$...
2
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8821
$\text{A particle starts from rest with constant acceleration. The ratio of space-average velocity to the time-average velocity is:}$ $\text{where time-average velocity and space-average velocity, respectively, are defined as follows:}$ $\langle v \rangle_{time} = \frac{\int v dt}{\int dt}$ $\langle v \rangle_{space} = \frac{\int v ds}{\int ds}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2}$, $\frac{3}{4}$...
3
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8820
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): If the average velocity of a particle is zero in a time interval, it is possible that the instantaneous velocity is never zero in the interval.}$ $\text{Reason (R): If the average velocity of a particle moving on a straight line is zero in a time interval then at least for one moment the instantaneous velocity will also be zero in the interval.}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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8819
$\text{A particle moves with a velocity } v = \alpha t^3 \text{ along a straight line. The average speed in time interval } t = 0 \text{ to } t = T \text{ will be:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\alpha T^3$, $\frac{\alpha T^3}{2}$...
4
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8818
$\text{The position of an object moving along x-axis is given by } x = a + bt^2\text{, where } a = 8.5 \text{ m}, b = 2.5 \text{ ms}^{-2} \text{ and } t \text{ is measured in seconds. Its average velocity between } t = 2.0 \text{ s and } t = 4.0 \text{ s is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ m/s}$, $15 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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8817
$\text{A car is moving along a straight line, say OP in the figure. It moves from O to P in 18 s and returns from P to O in 6.0 s. The average velocity and average speed of the car in going from O to P and back to O respectively are:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ m/s \& } 10 \text{ m/s}$, $20 \text{ m/s \& } 30 \text{ m/s}$...
4
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8816
$\text{A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance with a speed of } 3 \text{ m/s. The other half of the distance is covered in two equal time intervals with speeds of } 4.5 \text{ m/s and } 7.5 \text{ m/s respectively. The average speed of the particle during this motion is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$4.0 \text{ m/s}$, $5.0 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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8815
$\text{A passenger arriving in a new town wishes to go from the station to a hotel located } 10 \text{ km away on a straight road from the station. A dishonest cabman takes him along a circuitous path } 23 \text{ km long and reaches the hotel in } 28 \text{ min. The average speed of the taxi is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$30 \text{ km/h}$, $49.3 \text{ km/h}$...
2
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8814
$\text{The coordinate of an object is given as a function of time by } x = 7t - 3t^2, \text{ where } x \text{ is in metres and } t \text{ is in seconds. Its average velocity over the interval } t = 0 \text{ to } t = 4 \text{ is will be:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$5 \text{ m/s}$, $-5 \text{ m/s}$...
2
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8813
$\text{A vehicle travels half the distance } L \text{ with speed } v_1 \text{ and the other half with speed } v_2, \text{ then its average speed is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\frac{v_1 + v_2}{2}$, $\frac{2v_1 + v_2}{v_1 + v_2}$...
3
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8812
$\text{A car moves from } X \text{ to } Y \text{ with a uniform speed } v_u \text{ and returns to } X \text{ with a uniform speed } v_d. \text{ The average speed for this round trip is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\frac{2v_dv_u}{v_d + v_u}$, $\sqrt{v_u v_d}$...
1
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8811
$\text{If a body travels some distance in a given time interval, then for that time interval, its:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Average speed} \geq |\text{Average velocity}|$, $|\text{Average velocity}| \geq \text{Average speed}$...
1
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8810
$\text{The figure gives the } (x-t) \text{ plot of a particle in a one-dimensional motion. Three different equal intervals of time are shown. The signs of average velocity for each of the intervals } 1, 2 \text{ and } 3, \text{ respectively are:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$-, -, +$, $+, -, +$...
4
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8809
$\text{An object moves along a straight line. It travels } 30 \text{ m in } 5 \text{ s and } 60 \text{ m in the next } 10 \text{ seconds. The average speed of the object is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$6 \text{ m/s}$, $10 \text{ m/s}$...
1
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8808
$\text{The displacement } x \text{ of a particle moving in one dimension under the action of a constant force is related to time } t \text{ by the equation } t = \sqrt{x} + 3, \text{ where } x \text{ is in meters and } t \text{ is in seconds. What is the displacement of the particle from } t = 0 \text{ s to } t = 6 \text{ s?}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$0$, $12 \text{ m}$...
1
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8807
$\text{A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward, followed again by 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward, and so on. Each step is 1 m long and requires 1 s. There is a pit on the road 13 m away from the starting point. The drunkard will fall into the pit after:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$37 \text{ s}$, $31 \text{ s}$...
1
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8806
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\textbf{Assertion (A):} \text{ Adding a scalar to a vector of the same dimension is a meaningful algebraic operation.}$ $\textbf{Reason (R):} \text{ Displacement can be added to distance.}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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8805
$\text{A body is projected vertically upwards with a speed } v. \text{ The distance travelled by the body in the last second of upward journey is the same as that of:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{distance travelled in last second of downward journey}$, $\text{distance travelled in first second of upward journey}$...
3
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Delete
8804
$\text{A particle moves along a path } ABCD \text{ as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the displacement of the particle from } A \text{ to } D \text{ is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$(5 + 10\sqrt{2}) \text{ m}$, $10 \text{ m}$...
4
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8803
$\text{A car moves with a speed of 60 km/h for 1 hour in the east direction and with the same speed for 30 min in the south direction. The displacement of the car from the initial position is:}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$60 \text{ km}$, $30\sqrt{2} \text{ km}$...
3
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8802
$\textbf{Assertion (A):} \text{ Displacement of a body may be zero when distance travelled by it is not zero.}$ $\textbf{Reason (R):} \text{ The displacement is the longest distance between initial and final position.}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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8801
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\textbf{Assertion (A):} \text{ Position-time graph of a stationary object is a straight line parallel to the time axis.}$ $\textbf{Reason (R):} \text{ For a stationary object, the position does not change with time.}$
1
102
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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Delete
8800
85
1
101
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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8799
\text{The angle of } 1^\circ \text{ (degree) will be equal to:}
\text{(Use } 360^\circ = 2\pi \text{ rad)}
1
101
Recommended Questions
$1.034 \times 10^{-3} \text{ rad}$, $1.745 \times 10^{-2} \text{ rad}$...
2
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Delete
8798
$\text{A light-year is a unit of:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\text{Time}$, $\text{Mass}$...
3
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8797
$\text{The numbers 2.745 and 2.735 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give respectively,}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$2.75 \text{ and } 2.74$, $2.74 \text{ and } 2.73$...
4
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8796
$\text{The numbers 2.745 and 2.735 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give respectively,}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$2.75 \text{ and } 2.74$, $2.74 \text{ and } 2.73$...
1
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Delete
8795
$\text{For a real gas the equation of gas is given by;}$ $\left(P + \frac{an^2}{V^2}\right)(V - bn) = nRT. \text{ If symbols have their usual meaning, then the dimensions of } \frac{V^2}{an^2} \text{ is same as that of:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\text{compressibility}$, $\text{bulk modulus}$...
1
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8794
$\text{The pitch of the screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 divisions on the circular scale. When nothing is put in between the jaws, the zero of the circular scale lies 8 divisions below the reference line. When a wire is placed between the jaws, the first linear scale division is clearly visible while the } 72^{\text{nd}} \text{ division on a circular scale coincides with the reference line. The radius of the wire is:}$
1
101
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$1.64 \text{ mm}$, $0.82 \text{ mm}$...
2
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8793
$\text{Find the thickness of the wire. The least count is 0.01 mm. The main scale reads: (in mm)}$ $\text{The diagrams show a measuring instrument in two positions - one without the wire and one with the wire placed between the jaws.}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$7.62$, $7.63$...
3
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8792
$\text{A screw gauge has some zero error but its value is unknown. We have two identical rods. When the first rod is inserted in the screw, the state of the instrument is shown by diagram (I). When both the rods are inserted together in series then the state is shown by the diagram (II). What is the zero error of the instrument?}$ $1 \text{ msd} = 100 \text{ csd} = 1 \text{ mm}$
1
101
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$-0.16 \text{ mm}$, $+0.16 \text{ mm}$...
3
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8791
$\text{Consider a screw gauge without any zero error. What will be the final reading corresponding to the final state as shown?}$ $\text{It is given that the circular head translates } P \text{ MSD in } N \text{ rotations. (1 MSD} = 1 \text{ mm.)}$ $\text{The circular scale has 100 divisions}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\left(\frac{P}{N}\right)\left(2 + \frac{45}{100}\right) \text{ mm}$, $\left(\frac{N}{P}\right)\left(2 + \frac{45}{N}\right) \text{ mm}$...
2
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8790
$\text{Consider a screw gauge without any zero error. What will be the final reading corresponding to the final state as shown?}$ $\text{It is given that the circular head translates } P \text{ MSD in } N \text{ rotations. (1 MSD} = 1 \text{ mm.)}$ $\text{The circular scale has 100 divisions}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\left(\frac{P}{N}\right)\left(2 + \frac{45}{100}\right) \text{ mm}$, $\left(\frac{N}{P}\right)\left(2 + \frac{45}{N}\right) \text{ mm}$...
4
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8789
$\text{The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 divisions on the circular scale. While measuring the diameter of a wire, the linear scale reads 1 mm and } 47^{\text{th}} \text{ division on the circular scale coincides with the reference line. The length of the wire is 5.6 cm. Curved surface area (in cm}^2\text{) of the wire in appropriate number of significant figures will be:}$
1
101
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$2.4 \text{ cm}^2$, $2.56 \text{ cm}^2$...
3
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8788
$\text{A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm.}$ $\text{The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the reference level.}$ $\text{If the screw gauge has a zero error of } -0.004 \text{ cm, the correct diameter of the ball is:}$
1
101
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$0.521 \text{ cm}$, $0.525 \text{ cm}$...
4
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8787
$\text{A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire:}$ $\text{Main scale reading: 0 mm}$ $\text{Circular scale reading: 52 divisions}$ $\text{Given that 1 mm on the main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale, the diameter of the wire that can be inferred from the given data is:}$
1
101
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$0.26 \text{ cm}$, $0.052 \text{ cm}$...
2
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8786
$\text{In a vernier calliper, } N \text{ divisions of vernier scale coincide with } (N-1) \text{ divisions of the main scale}$ $\text{(in which the length of one division is 1 mm). The least count of the instrument should be:}$
1
101
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$N \text{ mm}$, $(N-1) \text{ mm}$...
3
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8785
$\text{In certain vernier callipers, 25 divisions on the vernier scale have the same length as 24 divisions on the main scale. One division on the main scale is 1 mm long. The least count of the instrument is:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$0.04 \text{ mm}$, $0.01 \text{ mm}$...
1
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8784
$\text{A screw gauge has the least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.}$ $\text{The pitch of the screw gauge is:}$
1
101
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$0.25 \text{ mm}$, $0.5 \text{ mm}$...
2
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8783
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Statement A: In a number less than 1, all zeros on the right of decimal point are significant.}$ $\text{Statement B: Zeros between two non-zero numbers are not significant.}$
1
101
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$\text{Statement A is correct.}$, $\text{Statement B is correct.}$...
4
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8782
$\text{If } x = 10.0 \pm 0.1 \text{ and } y = 10 \pm 0.1, \text{ then } 2x - 2y \text{ with consideration of significant figures is equal to:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\text{zero}$, $0.0 \pm 0.1$...
4
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8781
$\text{The mass of a box measured by the grocer's balance is 2.300 kg. Two gold pieces of masses 20.15 g and 20.17 g are added to the box. The total mass of the box and the difference in the masses of the gold piece should be recorded to correct significant figures will be respectively:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\text{2340.32 g, 0.002 g}$, $\text{2.340 kg, 0.02 g}$...
2
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8780
$\text{The sum of the numbers 436.32, 227.2, and 0.301 in the appropriate significant figures is:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$663.821$, $664$...
3
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8779
$\text{A thin wire has a length of 21.7 cm and a radius of 0.46 mm. The volume of the wire to correct significant figures is:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$0.15 \text{ cm}^3$, $0.1443 \text{ cm}^3$...
3
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8778
$\text{The measurements are made as 18.425 cm, 7.21 cm, and 5.0 cm.}$ $\text{The addition of these measurements should be written as:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$30.635 \text{ cm}$, $30.64 \text{ cm}$...
4
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8777
$\text{Taking into account the significant figures, what is the value of } (9.99 \text{ m} - 0.0099 \text{ m})?$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$9.98 \text{ m}$, $9.980 \text{ m}$...
1
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8776
$\text{The decimal equivalent of } \frac{1}{20} \text{ up to three significant figures is:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$0.0500$, $0.05000$...
1
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8775
$\text{If 97.52 is divided by 2.54, the correct result in terms of significant figures is:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$38.4$, $38.3937$...
1
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8774
$\text{Each side of a cube is measured to be 7.203 m. What are the total surface area and the volume respectively of the cube to appropriate significant figures?}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$373.7 \text{ m}^2 \text{ and } 311.3 \text{ m}^3$, $311.3 \text{ m}^2 \text{ and } 373.7 \text{ m}^3$...
2
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8773
$\text{What is the number of significant figures in } 0.310 \times 10^3?$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$2$, $3$...
2
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8772
$\text{The number of significant figures in } 0.0006032 \text{ m}^2 \text{ is:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$4$, $5$...
1
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8771
$\text{The mass and volume of a body are 4.237 grams and 2.5 cm}^3\text{, respectively. The density of the material of the body in correct significant figures will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$1.6048 \text{ grams cm}^{-3}$, $1.69 \text{ grams cm}^{-3}$...
3
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8770
$\text{In which of the following, the number of significant figures is different from that in the others?}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\text{2.303 kg}$, $\text{12.23 m}$...
3
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8769
$\text{The number of significant figures in the numbers 25.12, 2009, 4.156 and } 1.217 \times 10^{-4} \text{ is:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$1$, $2$...
4
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8768
$\text{The length and breadth of a rectangular sheet are 16.2 cm and 10.1 cm, respectively. The area of the sheet in appropriate significant figures and error would be, respectively}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$164 \pm 3 \text{ cm}^2$, $163.62 \pm 2.6 \text{ cm}^2$...
1
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8767
\text{Two resistors } R_1 = (3.0 \pm 0.3) \, \Omega \text{ and } R_2 = (5.0 \pm 0.1) \, \Omega \text{ are connected in parallel.}
\text{The equivalent resistance, } R_{\text{eq}}\text{, will be:}
\text{Hint: } \frac{1}{R_{\text{eq}}} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2}
1
101
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$1.9 \pm 0.07 \Omega$, $1.9 \pm 0.1 \Omega$...
2
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8766
\text{In an experiment, the following observations were recorded: initial length } L = 2.820 \text{ m, mass } M = 3.00 \text{ kg, change in length } \Delta l = 0.087 \text{ cm, diameter } D = 0.041 \text{ cm. Taking } g = 9.81 \text{ m/s}^2 \text{ and using the formula } Y = \frac{4MgL}{\pi D^2 \Delta l}\text{, the maximum permissible error in } Y \text{ will be:}
1
101
Recommended Questions
$7.96\%$, $4.56\%$...
3
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8765
$\text{The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is given by } T = 2\pi\sqrt{\frac{L}{g}} \text{ where } L \text{ is about 100 cm and is known to have 1 mm accuracy. The period is about 2 s. The time of 100 oscillations is measured by a stopwatch of least count 0.1 s. The percentage error in } g \text{ is:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$0.1\%$, $1\%$...
3
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8764
$\text{A wire has a mass of } (0.3 \pm 0.003) \text{ grams, a radius of } (0.5 \pm 0.005) \text{ mm, and a length of } (0.6 \pm 0.006) \text{ cm. The maximum percentage error in the measurement of its density will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$1$, $2$...
4
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8763
$\text{The length of a cylinder is measured with a meter rod having the least count of 0.1 cm. Its diameter is measured with vernier calipers having the least count of 0.01 cm. Given that the length is 5.0 cm and the radius is 2.0 cm. The percentage error in the calculated value of the volume will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$1\%$, $2\%$...
3
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8762
$\text{A physical quantity } P \text{ is given by } P = \frac{A^3 B^{1/2}}{C^{-4} D^{3/2}}. \text{ The quantity which contributes the maximum percentage error in } P \text{ is:}$
1
101
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$A$, $B$...
3
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8761
$\text{A physical parameter 'a' can be determined by measuring the parameters } b, c, d \text{ and } e \text{ using the relation, } a = \frac{b^\alpha c^\beta}{d^\gamma e^\delta}. \text{ If the maximum errors in the measurement of } b, c, d, \text{ and } e \text{ are } b_1\%, c_1\%, d_1\% \text{ and } e_1\% \text{, then the maximum error in the value of 'a' determined by the experiment is:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$(b_1 + c_1 + d_1 + e_1)\%$, $(b_1 + c_1 - d_1 - e_1)\%$...
4
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8760
$\text{The thickness of a pencil measured by using a screw gauge (least count 0.001 cm) comes out to be 0.802 cm. The percentage error in the measurement is:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$0.125\%$, $2.43\%$...
1
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8759
$\text{The mean length of an object is 5 cm. Which of the following measurements is the most accurate?}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$4.9 \text{ cm}$, $4.805 \text{ cm}$...
1
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8758
$\text{A physical quantity } A \text{ is related to four observable quantities } a, b, c \text{ and } d \text{ as follows, } A = \frac{a^2 b^3}{c\sqrt{d}}, \text{ the percentage errors of measurement in } a, b, c \text{ and } d \text{ are } 1\%, 3\%, 2\% \text{ and } 2\% \text{ respectively. The percentage error in quantity } A \text{ will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$12\%$, $7\%$...
4
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8757
$\text{The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed are 2\% and 3\% respectively. How much will be the maximum error in the estimation of the kinetic energy obtained by measuring mass and speed:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$11\%$, $8\%$...
2
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8756
$\text{If the error in the measurement of the radius of a sphere is 2\%, then the error in the determination of the volume of the sphere will be:}$
1
101
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$4\%$, $6\%$...
2
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8755
$\text{Match the physical quantities given in Column I with the physical dimensions in Column II:}$ $\text{Column I:}$ $\text{(A) Torque}$ $\text{(B) Stress}$ $\text{(C) Pressure Gradient}$ $\text{(D) Angular momentum}$ $\text{Column II:}$ $\text{(P) } ML^{-1}T^{-2}$ $\text{(Q) } ML^2T^{-2}$ $\text{(R) } ML^{-2}T^{-2}$ $\text{(S) } ML^{-1}T^{-1}$
1
101
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$\text{A - S, B - P, C - R, D - Q}$, $\text{A - Q, B - P, C - R, D - S}$...
2
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8754
$\text{The quantities } A \text{ and } B \text{ are related by the relation, } m = \frac{A}{B}, \text{ where } m \text{ is the linear density and } A \text{ is the force. The dimensions of } B \text{ are of:}$
1
101
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$\text{Pressure}$, $\text{Work}$...
3
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8753
$\text{The number of particles crossing a unit area perpendicular to the } x\text{-axis in unit time is given by } n = -D \frac{n_2-n_1}{x_2-x_1}, \text{ where } n_1 \text{ and } n_2 \text{ are the number of particles per unit volume for the value of } x \text{ equal to } x_1 \text{ and } x_2 \text{ respectively. The dimensions of } D, \text{ known as the diffusion constant, will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[M^0LT^{-2}]$, $[M^0L^2T^{-4}]$...
4
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8752
$\text{A small steel ball of radius } r \text{ is allowed to fall under gravity through a column of a viscous liquid of coefficient of viscosity } \eta. \text{ After some time the velocity of the ball attains a constant value known as terminal velocity } v_T. \text{ The terminal velocity depends on (i) the mass of the ball } m \text{ (ii) } \eta \text{ (iii) } r \text{ and (iv) acceleration due to gravity } g. \text{ Which of the following relations is dimensionally correct:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$v_T \propto \frac{mg}{\eta r}$, $v_T \propto \frac{\eta r}{mg}$...
1
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8751
$\text{Given the equation } \left(P + \frac{a}{V^2}\right)(V - b) = \text{constant}. \text{ The units of } a \text{ will be: (where } P \text{ is pressure and } V \text{ is volume)}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\text{dyne} \times \text{cm}^5$, $\text{dyne} \times \text{cm}^4$...
2
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8750
$\text{The density of a material in a CGS system of units is 4 grams/cm}^3. \text{ In a system of units in which the unit of length is 10 cm and the unit of mass is 100 grams, the value of the density of the material will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$0.04$, $0.4$...
3
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8749
$\text{The displacement } (Y) \text{ as a function of position } (x) \text{ and time } (t) \text{ is given as } Y = Ae^{(bx+Ct)}. \text{ Which of the following expressions has dimensions different from others?}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$YC$, $AC$...
4
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8748
$\text{The dimensions of resistivity in terms of } M, L, T, \text{ and } Q \text{ where } Q \text{ stands for the dimensions of charge, will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[ML^3T^{-1}Q^{-2}]$, $[ML^3T^{-2}Q^{-1}]$...
1
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8747
\text{On the basis of dimensions, decide which of the following relations for the displacement of a particle undergoing simple harmonic motion is/are not correct.}
\text{(a) } y = a \sin\left(\frac{2\pi t}{T}\right)
\text{(b) } y = a \sin(vt)
\text{(c) } y = \frac{a}{T} \sin\left(\frac{t}{a}\right)
\text{(d) } y = a\sqrt{2} \left(\sin\left(\frac{2\pi t}{T}\right) - \cos\left(\frac{2\pi t}{T}\right)\right)
\text{(Symbols have their usual meanings.)}
\text{Choose the correct option:}
1
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$\text{(a), (c)}$, $\text{(a), (b)}$...
3
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8746
$\text{The dimensions of a couple are:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[ML^2T^{-2}]$, $[MLT^{-2}]$...
1
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8745
$\text{An object is moving through a liquid. The viscous damping force acting on it is proportional to the velocity. Then the dimensions of the constant of proportionality are:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[ML^{-1}T^{-1}]$, $[MLT^{-1}]$...
4
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8744
$\text{If } x = \frac{a \sin \theta + b \cos \theta}{a + b}, \text{ then:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\text{the dimensions of } x \text{ and } a \text{ must be the same}$, $\text{the dimensions of } a \text{ and } b \text{ are not the same}$...
3
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8743
$\text{The frequency of vibration } f \text{ of a mass } m \text{ suspended from a spring of spring constant } k \text{ is given by a relation of type } f = Cm^x k^y\text{; where } C \text{ is a dimensionless quantity. The values of } x \text{ and } y \text{ will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$x = \frac{1}{2}, y = \frac{1}{2}$, $x = -\frac{1}{2}, y = -\frac{1}{2}$...
4
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8742
$\text{Which of the following relations is dimensionally wrong? [The symbols have their usual meanings]}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$s = ut + \frac{1}{6}at^2$, $v^2 = u^2 + \frac{2as^2}{\pi}$...
2
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8741
$\text{If dimensions of critical velocity } v_c \text{ of a liquid flowing through a tube are expressed as } \eta^x \rho^y r^z\text{, where } \eta\text{, } \rho \text{ and } r \text{ are the coefficient of viscosity of the liquid, the density of the liquid, and the radius of the tube respectively, then the values of } x\text{, } y\text{, and } z\text{, respectively, will be:}$
1
101
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$1, -1, -1$, $-1, -1, 1$...
1
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8740
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): When we change the unit of measurement of a quantity, its numerical value changes.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Smaller the unit of measurement, smaller is its numerical value.}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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8739
$\text{The dimensions of the Planck constant are equal to that of:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\text{energy}$, $\text{momentum}$...
3
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8738
$\text{If } y = a \sin(bt - cx)\text{, where } y \text{ and } x \text{ represent length and } t \text{ represents time, then which of the following has the same dimensions as that of } \frac{ab^2}{c}\text{?}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\text{(speed)}^2$, $\text{momentum}$...
1
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8737
$\text{The position of a particle at time } t \text{ is given by the relation } x(t) = \left(\frac{v_0}{\alpha}\right)\left(1 - e^{-\alpha t}\right)\text{, where } v_0 \text{ is a constant and } \alpha > 0\text{. The dimensions of } v_0 \text{ and } \alpha \text{ are respectively:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[M^0L^1T^{-1}] \text{ and } [T^{-1}]$, $[M^0L^1T^0] \text{ and } [T^{-1}]$...
1
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8736
$\text{If force (F), velocity (v), and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, the dimensions of mass will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[FvT^{-1}]$, $[FvT^{-2}]$...
4
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8735
$\text{If energy (E), velocity (v) and time (T) are chosen as the fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula of surface tension will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[Ev^{-2}T^{-1}]$, $[Ev^{-1}T^{-2}]$...
3
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8734
$\text{Planck's constant (h), speed of light in the vacuum (c), and Newton's gravitational constant (G) are the three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of length?}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\sqrt{hG}}{c^{3/2}}$, $\frac{\sqrt{hG}}{c^{5/2}}$...
1
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8733
$\text{Temperature can be expressed as a derived quantity in terms of any of the following:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\text{length and mass}$, $\text{mass and time}$...
4
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8732
$\text{For the expression, } 10^{(at+3)}\text{, the dimensions of } a \text{ will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[M^0L^0T^0]$, $[M^0L^0T^1]$...
3
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8731
$\text{In } S = a + bt + ct^2\text{, } S \text{ is measured in metres and } t \text{ in seconds. The unit of } c \text{ will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\text{none}$, $\text{m}$...
4
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8730
$\text{When units of mass, length, and time are taken as 10 kg, 60 m and 60 s respectively, the new unit of energy becomes } x \text{ times the initial SI unit of energy. The value of } x \text{ will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$10$, $20$...
1
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8729
$\text{The dimensions of } (\mu_0\varepsilon_0)^{-\frac{1}{2}} \text{ are:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[L^{-1}T]$, $[LT^{-1}]$...
2
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8728
$\text{In the relation, } y = a \cos(\omega t - kx)\text{, the dimensional formula for } k \text{ will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[M^0L^{-1}T^{-1}]$, $[M^0LT^{-1}]$...
3
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8727
$\text{The position of a body with acceleration } a \text{ is given by } x = Ka^m t^n \text{ (assume } t \text{ to be time). The values of } m \text{ and } n \text{ will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$m = 1, n = 1$, $m = 1, n = 2$...
2
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8726
$\text{If the units of force and length, are increased by four times, then the unit of energy increases by:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$16 \text{ times}$, $8 \text{ times}$...
1
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8725
$\text{The dimensional formula for impulse is:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[MLT^{-2}]$, $[MLT^{-1}]$...
2
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8724
$\text{The dimensional formula of pressure is:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[MLT^{-2}]$, $[ML^{-1}T^2]$...
3
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8723
$\text{Which, among the pairs of quantities has the same dimensions?}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\text{force}}{\text{volume}}\text{, surface tension}$, $\text{torque, pressure } \times \text{ volume}$...
2
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8722
\text{The force } F \text{ acting on a body as a function of position } (x) \text{ and time } (t) \text{ is expressed as:}
F = A \sin(k_{1} x) + B \cos(k_{2} t)
\text{From the given information, match Column I with Column II.}
\text{Column I:}
\text{(A) Dimensions of } A
\text{(B) Dimensions of } k_{1}
\text{(C) Dimensions of } k_{2}
\text{(D) Dimensions of } k_{1} k_{2}
\text{Column II:}
\text{(P) } [M^{0} L^{0} T^{-1}]
\text{(Q) } [M^{0} L^{-1} T^{-1}]
\text{(R) } [MLT^{-2}]
\text{(S) } [M^{0} L^{-1} T^{0}]
1
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Recommended Questions
$A \rightarrow R, B \rightarrow S, C \rightarrow P, D \rightarrow Q$, $A \rightarrow P, B \rightarrow Q, C \rightarrow R, D \rightarrow S$...
1
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8721
$\text{The universal gravitational constant is dimensionally represented as:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[ML^2T^{-1}]$, $[M^{-2}L^3T^{-2}]$...
4
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8720
$\text{If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by } [M^a L^b T^c]\text{, then the physical quantity will be:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\text{pressure if } a = 1, b = -1, c = -2$, $\text{velocity if } a = 1, b = 0, c = -1$...
1
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8719
$\text{The velocity } v \text{ of a particle at time } t \text{ is given by } v = at + \frac{b}{t+c}\text{. The dimensions of } a\text{, } b\text{, and } c \text{ are respectively:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[LT^{-2}], [L], [T]$, $[L^2], [T] \text{ and } [LT^2]$...
1
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8718
$\text{The dimensional formula of modulus of rigidity is:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$[ML^{-1}T^{-2}]$, $[ML^{-2}T^{2}]$...
1
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8717
$\text{If } u_1 \text{ and } u_2 \text{ are the units selected in two systems of measurement and } n_1 \text{ and } n_2 \text{ are their numerical values, then:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$n_1u_1 = n_2u_2$, $n_1u_1 + n_2u_2 = 0$...
1
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8716
$\text{Identify the pair whose dimensions are equal:}$
1
101
Recommended Questions
$\text{stress and energy}$, $\text{force and work}$...
3
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8715
$\text{Hydrogen exists in diatomic form rather than monoatomic form under normal conditions -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Due to high ionization enthalpy}$, $\text{Due to low ionization enthalpy}$...
1
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8714
$\text{The colour of hydrogen is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Blue}$, $\text{Yellow}$...
4
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8713
$\text{Hydrogen is placed separately in the periodic table because :}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{It resembles alkali metals.}$, $\text{It shows the same reactions as halogens.}$...
3
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8712
$\text{The isotopes of hydrogen and their mass ratio are -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Protium, Deuterium, Tritium ; 3:2:3}$, $\text{Protium, Deuterium, Tritium ; 1:2:3}$...
2
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8711
$\text{The temporary and permanent hardness of water is caused by -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Permanent hardness is caused by hydrogen carbonates and temporary hardness is caused by chlorides.}$, $\text{Temporary hardness is caused by dihydrogen and permanent hardness is caused by oxides.}$...
4
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8710
$\text{An industrial method of preparation of Hydrogen peroxide is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Action of H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{ on barium peroxide}$, $\text{Action of H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{ on sodium peroxide}$...
3
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8709
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following regarding reaction of H}_2\text{O}_2\text{ is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{S}^{-2}\rightarrow\text{S (acidic medium)}$, $\text{Pb}\rightarrow\text{PbSO}_4$...
3
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8708
$\text{The role of H}_2\text{O}_2\text{ when added to a solution containing KMnO}_4\text{ and H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{ is of-}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{An oxidizing agent}$, $\text{A reducing agent}$...
2
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8707
$\text{10 volumes of H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ has a strength of approximately:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$3\%$, $30\%$...
1
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8706
$\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ is stored in:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Iron container after the addition of stabilizer}$, $\text{Glass container after the addition of stabilizer}$...
3
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8705
$\text{Reaction among the following where H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ acts as a reducing agent is-}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{a, b}$, $\text{c, d}$...
4
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8704
$\text{The oxidation states of the most electronegative element in the products of the reaction between BaO}_2 \text{ with dil. H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ are-}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$0, \text{ and } -1$, $-1, \text{ and } -2$...
2
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8703
$\text{Calcium carbide with heavy water generates-}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ca}(\text{OH})_2$, $\text{C}_2\text{D}_2$...
2
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8702
$\text{The correct statement among the following regarding H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ is-}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Two hydrogen atoms are connected to one oxygen atom.}$, $\text{All the four atoms are in the same plane.}$...
3
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8701
$\text{The following reaction is an example of:}$ $2\text{MnO}_4^- + 6\text{H}^+ + 5\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{Mn}^{2+} + 8\text{H}_2\text{O} + 5\text{O}_2$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Hydrolysis reaction}$, $\text{Redox reaction}$...
2
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8700
$\text{The bleaching properties of H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ are due to its:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Reducing properties}$, $\text{Oxidising properties}$...
2
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8699
$\text{Decolourisation of acidified potassium permanganate by H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ is due to:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Oxidation of KMnO}_4$, $\text{Reduction of KMnO}_4$...
2
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8698
$\text{The reaction of aqueous KMnO}_4 \text{ with H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ in acidic condition gives:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Mn}^{4+} \text{ and O}_2$, $\text{Mn}^{2+} \text{ and O}_2$...
2
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8697
$\text{The oxidising nature of H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ is shown in the reaction-}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 + 2\text{KI} \rightarrow 2\text{KOH} + \text{I}_2$, $\text{Cl}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{HCl} + \text{O}_2$...
1
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8696
$\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ is prepared in the laboratory by the reaction of:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{MnO}_2 \text{ with dilute cold } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4$, $\text{BaO}_2 \text{ and } \text{CO}_2 \text{ bubbling through cold water}$...
2
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8695
$\text{On bubbling } \text{CO}_2 \text{ through a solution of barium peroxide in water:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{O}_2 \text{ is formed}$, $\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3 \text{ is formed}$...
3
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8694
$\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ act as a reducing agent in:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Reaction with a ferrous salt.}$, $\text{Reaction with iodides.}$...
4
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8693
$\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ restores the colour of old lead paintings by:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Converting } \text{PbO}_2 \text{ to } \text{Pb}$, $\text{Oxidising } \text{PbS} \text{ to } \text{PbSO}_4$...
2
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8692
$\text{A compound that has both polar and non-polar bonds is –}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_4\text{Cl}$, $\text{HCN}$...
3
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8691
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following regarding }\text{H}_2\text{O}_2\text{ is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{It can only act as an oxidising agent}$, $\text{It decomposes on exposure to light}$...
1
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8690
$\text{The correct statement among the following regarding perhydrol is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{It is } 30\% \text{ H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ or } 100 \text{ vol. H}_2\text{O}_2$, $\text{Its molarity is } 8.8 \text{ M}$...
4
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8689
$\text{For the bleaching of hair, the substance used is:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{SO}_2$, $\text{Bleaching powder}$...
3
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8688
\text{The correct match among the following is -}
\text{(a) CO}_{(g)} + \text{H}_2\text{}_{(g)} \quad \text{(i) Mg(HCO}_3\text{)}_2 + \text{Ca(HCO}_3\text{)}_2
\text{(b) Temporary hardness of water} \quad \text{(ii) An electron deficient hydride}
\text{(c) B}_2\text{H}_6 \quad \text{(iii) Synthesis gas}
\text{(d) H}_2\text{O}_2 \quad \text{(iv) Non-planar structure}
2
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$\text{(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)}$, $\text{(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)}$...
4
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8687
$\text{A compound that acts as both reducing and oxidising agent is-}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4$, $\text{H}_2\text{O}_2$...
2
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8686
$\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ acts as a -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Bleaching agent}$, $\text{Oxidising agent}$...
4
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8685
$\text{A compound that can remove both temporary and permanent hardness of water is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{NaHCO}_3$, $\text{Boiling}$...
4
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8684
$\text{The formula of exhausted permutit is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{K}_2\text{Al}_2\text{Si}_2\text{O}_8 \cdot x\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{CaAl}_2\text{Si}_2\text{O}_8 \cdot x\text{H}_2\text{O}$...
2
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8683
$\text{Exhausted permutit does not contain -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}^+ \text{ ion}$, $\text{Mg}^{2+} \text{ ion}$...
1
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8682
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following options is:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{K}^+ \text{ ions react with alkaline water and give K(OH)}_3$, $\text{KCl is a salt of strong acid and strong base.}$...
1
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8681
$\text{A 1000 g aqueous solution of CaCO}_3 \text{ contains 10 g of calcium carbonate. The hardness of the solution is:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ ppm}$, $100 \text{ ppm}$...
4
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8680
$\text{When zeolites (hydrated sodium aluminum silicate) is treated with hard water,}$ $\text{the sodium ions are exchanged with:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}^+\text{ ion}$, $\text{Ca}^{2+}\text{ ion}$...
2
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8679
$\text{Permutit is chemically known as:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Hydrated sodium aluminium silicate}$, $\text{Sodium hexa meta-phosphate}$...
1
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8678
$\text{The method used to remove the temporary hardness of water is-}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Synthetic resins method}$, $\text{Calgon's method}$...
3
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8677
$\text{A water softening reagent among the following is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ca}_3(\text{PO}_4)_2$, $\text{Na}_3\text{PO}_4$...
3
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8676
$\text{Hardness of water cannot be removed by -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Clark's method}$, $\text{Adding washing soda}$...
4
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8675
$\text{The softening of hard water by synthetic ion-exchange resins is based on -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Increasing the lattice energy.}$, $\text{Physical separation.}$...
4
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8674
$\text{Match the items in Column I with the relevant items in Column II.}$ $\text{Column I}$ $\text{A. Hydrogen peroxide is used as a}$ $\text{B. Used in Calgon method}$ $\text{C. Temporary hardness of hard water is removed by}$ $\text{Column II}$ $\text{1. Sodium hexametaphosphate}$ $\text{2. Clark's method}$ $\text{3. Reducing agent}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{A-3, B-2, C-1}$, $\text{A-1, B-2, C-3}$...
3
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8673
\text{Match the column:-}
\text{Column I} \qquad \text{Column II}
\text{A. Heavy water} \qquad \text{P. Bicarbonates of Ca and Mg}
\text{B. Temporary hardness} \qquad \text{Q. No foreign ions}
\text{C. Soft water} \qquad \text{R. } \text{D}_2\text{O}
\text{D. Permanent Hardness} \qquad \text{S. Sulphates of Ca and Mg}
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R}$, $\text{A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S}$...
2
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8672
$\text{The freezing point of heavy water in comparison to normal water is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Higher}$, $\text{Lower}$...
1
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8671
$\text{The correct classification of }\text{H}_2\text{O}, \text{B}_2\text{H}_6, \text{ and }\text{NaH}\text{ respectively is-}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
{Covalent, Covalent, & Covalent.}, {Covalent, Covalent, & Ionic.}...
2
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8670
$\text{The hydride formed by an element having valence shell electronic configuration } 3d^6 4s^2 \text{ is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Saline hydride.}$, $\text{Electron rich hydride.}$...
4
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8669
$\text{The correct order of increasing electrical conductance is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{BeH}_2 > \text{CaH}_2 > \text{TiH}_2$, $\text{BeH}_2 < \text{CaH}_2 > \text{TiH}_2$...
4
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8668
$\text{The hydrides of carbon } (\text{C}_n\text{H}_{2n+2}) \text{ can act as -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Lewis acid.}$, $\text{Lewis base.}$...
4
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8667
$\text{“Non-stoichiometric hydrides” are :}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Hydrogen-deficient compounds formed by the reaction of a hydrogen atom}$ $\text{with d-block and f-block elements.}$, $\text{Hydrogen-deficient compounds formed by the reaction of dihydrogen with}$ $\text{d-block and f-block elements.}$...
2
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8666
$\text{A molten ionic hydride on electrolysis gives:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}^+ \text{ ion moving towards the cathode.}$, $\text{H}^+ \text{ ion moving towards the anode.}$...
3
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8665
$\text{Metallic hydrides are useful for hydrogen storage because :}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Metallic hydrides are oxygen-rich.}$, $\text{Metallic hydrides are oxygen-deficient.}$...
4
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8664
$\text{The correct order of increasing reducing nature is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{NaH} > \text{H}_2\text{O} < \text{MgH}_2$, $\text{H}_2\text{O} > \text{MgH}_2 > \text{NaH}$...
3
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8663
$\text{Ionic hydrides react with water to give:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Acidic solutions.}$, $\text{Basic solutions.}$...
2
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8662
$\text{Atomic hydrogen or oxy-hydrogen torch is used for cutting and welding purposes because:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Atomic hydrogen converts into molecular hydrogen and generates a large amount of energy.}$, $\text{Atomic hydrogen converts into molecular hydrogen and generates a low amount of energy.}$...
1
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8661
$\text{Hydrogen combines directly with:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ca}$, $\text{Cu}$...
1
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8660
$\text{Covalent hydride among the following is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_3 \text{ and } \text{B}_2\text{H}_6$, $\text{CaH}_2 \text{ and } \text{B}_2\text{H}_6$...
1
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8659
$\text{The group that has hydride formed by only one member is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$6$, $7$...
1
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8658
$\text{Ionic hydrides are formed by:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Transition metals.}$, $\text{Elements of very high electropositivity.}$...
2
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8657
$\text{The correct statement about electron-deficient hydride is that it:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Does not have sufficient electrons to form a regular bond.}$, $\text{Cannot be represented by conventional Lewis structures.}$...
4
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8656
$\text{CO}_2 \text{ is used as a fire extinguisher because -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{CO}_2 \text{ has high lattice energy.}$, $\text{CO}_2 \text{ will be effective in isolating the burning surface from dihydrogen and dioxygen.}$...
2
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8655
$\text{Correlate the items listed in Column I with those listed in Column II.}$
$\text{Column I} \qquad \text{Column II}$
$\text{A. Synthesis gas} \qquad 1.\text{ Na}_2[\text{Na}_4(\text{PO}_3)_6]$
$\text{B. Heavy water} \qquad 2.\text{ Mixture of CO and H}_2$
$\text{C. Calgon} \qquad 3.\text{ Prolonged electrolysis of water}$
$\text{D. Salt like hydrides} \qquad 4.\text{ Stoichiometric compounds of s-block elements}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1}$, $\text{A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4}$...
2
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8654
$\text{Fe} + \text{H}_2\text{O} \xrightarrow{1023-1073\text{K}} \text{Product}$ $\left(\text{Steam}\right)$ $\text{Product formed is -}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{FeO} + \text{H}_2$, $\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + \text{H}_2\text{O}$...
4
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8653
$\text{Hydrogen adsorbed on palladium is known as:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Atomic H}$, $\text{Nascent H}$...
3
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8652
$\text{A compound among the following that has hydrogen in the atomic state is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Metallic hydrides}$, $\text{Ionic hydrides}$...
1
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8651
$\text{The first ionization energy value (kJ) mol}^{-1} \text{ for H, Li, F, and Na is given below but not in a correct order}$ $1681, 520, 1312, 495.$ $\text{The ionization energy value of H would be -}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$1681$, $1312$...
2
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8650
$\text{Ice melts at a temperature lower than its usual melting point when the pressure is increased. This is because-}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ice has less density than water}$, $\text{Pressure generates heat}$...
1
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8649
$\text{When substance A reacts with water, it produces a combustible gas B and a}$ $\text{solution of substances 'C' in water. When another substance 'D' reacts with this}$ $\text{solution of C, it produces the same gas 'B' on warming but 'D' can produce gas}$ $\text{'B' on reaction with dilute sulphuric acid at room temperature. 'A' imparts a}$ $\text{deep golden yellow colour to a smokeless flame of a bunsen burner. A, B, C}$ $\text{and D respectively are -}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Na, H}_2, \text{NaOH, Zn}$, $\text{K, H}_2, \text{KOH, Al}$...
1
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8648
$\text{The correct statement among the following regarding hydrogen is-}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{It can form a bond in +1 as well as -1 oxidation state}$, $\text{It is always collected at the cathode}$...
1
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8647
$\text{The products obtained on the completion of the following reactions (i) and (ii)}$ $\text{respectively are :}$
$\text{i. }\text{C}_3\text{H}_{8\text{(g)}} + 3\text{H}_2\text{O}_{\text{(g)}} \xrightarrow{\substack{\Delta \\ \text{Catalyst} \\ \text{Heat}}} \text{A}$
$\text{ii. }\text{Zn}_{\text{(s)}} + \text{NaOH}_{\text{(aq)}} \xrightarrow{\text{Heat}} \text{B}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{A = CO, and H}_2\text{; B = Na}_2\text{ZnO}_2$, $\text{A = CO}_2\text{; B = Na}_4\text{ZnO}_4$...
1
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8646
$\text{The most abundant isotope of hydrogen is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Tritium}$, $\text{Deuterium}$...
3
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8645
$\text{The role of an electrolyte in the preparation of }\text{H}_2\text{ by electrolytic method is:}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{It lowers the availability of ions available in the process for the conduction}$ $\text{of electricity.}$, $\text{It makes the ions available in the process for conduction of electricity.}$...
2
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8644
$\text{Para hydrogen is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Less stable than ortho hydrogen.}$, $\text{More stable than ortho hydrogen.}$...
1
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8643
$\text{An isotope that is used as a tracer in a chemical reaction is-}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_1^1$, $\text{H}_1^2$...
3
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8642
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following regarding hydrogen is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Hydrogen never acts as a cation in ionic salts}$, $\text{Hydronium ion, } \text{H}_3\text{O}^+\text{, exists freely in a solution}$...
3
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8641
$\text{The catalyst used to increase the production of }\text{H}_2\text{, by 'coal gasification'}$ $\text{process is -}$
2
209
Recommended Questions
$\text{Copper}$, $\text{FeCr}_2\text{O}_4\text{ (iron chromate)}$...
2
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8640
$\text{The correct statement about the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of AgNO}_3 \text{ with Ag electrode is:}$
2
208
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ag}^+ \text{ ion gets oxidised at cathode; Ag(s) is reduced at anode.}$, $\text{H}_2\text{O gets reduced at cathode; H}_2\text{O gets oxidised at anode.}$...
4
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8639
$\text{From the following, identify the reaction having the top position in the EMF series (standard reduction potential) according to their electrode potential at 298 K.}$
2
208
Recommended Questions
$\text{Mg}^{2+} + 2\text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{Mg}_{(\text{s})}$, $\text{Fe}^{2+} + 2\text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{Fe}_{(\text{s})}$...
3
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8638
$\text{In the reaction:}$ $\text{Al} + \text{Fe}_3\text{O}_4 \rightarrow \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 + \text{Fe}$ $\text{How many electrons are transferred in total during the reaction?}$
2
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$6$, $8$...
4
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8637
$\text{Consider the given data:}$ $\text{E}_{\text{Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}^{2+}} = 0.77; \text{E}_{\text{I}^-/\text{I}_2} = -0.54$ $\text{E}_{\text{Ag}^+/\text{Ag}} = 0.80; \text{E}_{\text{Cu}/\text{Cu}^{2+}} = -0.34$ $\text{E}_{\text{Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}^{2+}} = 0.77; \text{E}_{\text{Cu}/\text{Cu}^{2+}} = -0.34$ $\text{E}_{\text{Ag}/\text{Ag}^+} = -0.80; \text{E}_{\text{Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}^{2+}} = 0.77$ $\text{Using the electrode potential values given above, identify the reaction which is not feasible:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe}^{3+}_{(\text{aq})} \text{ and I}^-_{\text{aq})}$, $\text{Ag}^+_{(\text{aq})} \text{ and Cu}_{(\text{s})}$...
4
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8636
$\text{In the given reaction,}$ $x\text{BrO}_3^- + y\text{Cr}^{+3} + z\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{Br}_2 + \text{CrO}_4^{2-} + \text{H}^+$ $\text{The coefficients x, y, and z are respectively-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$6, 10, 11$, $6, 10, 20$...
4
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8635
$\text{Using the standard electrode potentials of the redox couples given below, which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?}$ $\text{E}^\circ \text{ values : Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}^{2+} = +0.77\text{ V}$ $\text{I}_2\text{(s)}/\text{I}^- = +0.54\text{ V}$ $\text{Cu}^{2+}/\text{Cu} = +0.34\text{ V}$ $\text{Ag}^+/\text{Ag} = 0.80\text{ V}$
2
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$\text{Fe}^{3+}$, $\text{I}_2\text{(s)}$...
4
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8634
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): Among halogens, fluorine is the best oxidant.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Fluorine is the most electronegative atom.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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8633
\text{Given: } \text{E}^\circ_{\text{Cl}_2/\text{Cl}^-} = 1.36 \text{ V}, \text{E}^\circ_{\text{Cr}^{3+}/\text{Cr}} = -0.74 \text{ V}
\text{E}^\circ_{\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-}/\text{Cr}^{3+}} = 1.33 \text{ V}, \text{E}^\circ_{\text{MnO}_4^-/\text{Mn}^{2+}} = 1.51 \text{ V}
\text{Among the following, the strongest reducing agent is:}
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$\text{Mn}^{2+}$, $\text{Cr}^{3+}$...
4
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8632
$\text{The strongest oxidizing agent is the one which gets reduced most easily (as oxidizing agent itself gets reduced while oxidizing other species) or in other words, has the highest reduction potential.}$ $\text{During reduction,}$ $\text{Oxidized form} + n\text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{Reduced form}$ $\text{Take note that the species which have lower reduction potential are stronger reducing agents while the species which have higher reduction potential are stronger oxidizing agents.}$ $[\text{Fe}(\text{CN})_6]^{3-} + \text{e}^- \rightarrow [\text{Fe}(\text{CN})_6]^{4-} ; \text{E}^\circ = 0.35\text{ V}$ $\text{Fe}^{3+} + \text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{Fe}^{2+} ; \text{E}^\circ = 0.77\text{ V}$ $\text{Here Fe}^{+3} \text{ has the highest reduction potential of 0.77 V. Hence, Fe}^{3+} \text{ is strongest oxidizing agent.}$ $\text{The strongest oxidizing agent in the above equation is:}$
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$[\text{Fe}(\text{CN})_6]^{4-}$, $\text{Fe}^{2+}$...
3
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8631
$\text{A solution contains Fe}^{2+}, \text{Fe}^{3+} \text{ and I}^- \text{ ions. This solution was treated with iodine at 35}^\circ\text{C. E}^\circ \text{ for Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}^{2+} \text{ is +0.77 V and E}^\circ \text{ for I}_2/2\text{I}^- = 0.536\text{ V.}$ $\text{The favourable redox reaction is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe}^{2+} \text{ will be oxidized to Fe}^{3+}.$, $\text{I}_2 \text{ will be reduced to I}^-.$...
4
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8630
$\text{The correct statement about the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of AgNO}_3 \text{ with Pt electrode is:}$
2
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$\text{Pt(s) gets oxidized at cathode whereas Ag}^+\text{(aq) gets reduced at anode}$, $\text{Ag}^+\text{(aq) gets reduced at cathode and is oxidized at anode}$...
3
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8629
$\text{E}^\Theta \text{ values of some redox couples are given below. On the basis of these values choose the correct option.}$ $\text{E}^\Theta \text{ values : Br}_2/\text{Br}^- = +1.90$ $\text{Ag}^+/\text{Ag}_{(\text{s})} = +0.80$ $\text{Cu}^{2+}/\text{Cu}_{(\text{s})} = +0.34;$ {I}_2_{(\text{s})}/\text{I}^- = +0.54$
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$\text{Cu will reduce Br}^-$, $\text{Cu will reduce Ag}$...
4
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8628
$\text{The correct statement about electrolysis of an aqueous solution of CuCl}_2 \text{ with Pt electrode is-}$
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208
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cu}^{2+} \text{ ion reduced at the cathode; Cl}^- \text{ ion oxidized at the anode}$, $\text{Cu}^{2+} \text{ ion reduced at the anode; Cl}^- \text{ ion oxidized at the cathode}$...
1
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8627
$\text{Based on standard electrode potentials given above, the correct arrangement for increasing order of reducing power of elements is:}$ $\text{(a) } E^o_{K^+/K} = -2.93 \text{ V}; E^o_{Ag^+/Ag} = 0.80 \text{ V}$ $\text{(b) } E^o_{Hg^{2+}/Hg} = 0.79 \text{ V}; E^o_{Mg^{2+}/Mg} = -2.37 \text{ V}$ $\text{(c) } E^o_{Cr^{3+}/Cr} = -0.74 \text{ V}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Ag} < \text{Hg} < \text{Cr} < \text{Mg} < \text{K}$, $\text{Ag} > \text{Cr} > \text{Mg} > \text{Hg} > \text{K}$...
1
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8626
$\text{The standard electrode potential (E}^\circ\text{) values of Al}^{3+}\text{/ Al, Ag}^+\text{ / Ag, K}^+\text{ / K, and Cr}^{3+}\text{ / Cr are -1.66 V, 0.80 V, -2.93 V \& -0.79 V respectively. The correct decreasing order of the reducing power of the metal is:}$
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$\text{Ag} > \text{Cr} > \text{Al} > \text{K}$, $\text{K} > \text{Al} > \text{Cr} > \text{Ag}$...
2
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8625
$\text{The correct statement about the given reaction is-}$ $(\text{CN})_2\text{(g)} + 2\text{OH}^-\text{(aq)} \rightarrow \text{CN}^-\text{(aq)} + \text{CNO}^-\text{(aq)} + \text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}$
2
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$\text{The reaction is an example of a disproportionation reaction.}$, $\text{Hydrogen atom gets oxidized.}$...
$\text{The reaction is an example of a disproportionation reaction.}$
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8624
$\text{The strongest oxidising agent among the following is :}$
2
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$\text{BrO}_3^- / \text{Br}^{2+}, E^o = +1.50$, $\text{Fe}^{3+} / \text{Fe}^{2+}, E^o = +0.76$...
3
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8623
$\text{The Mn}^{3+} \text{ ion is unstable in solution and undergoes disproportionation reaction to give Mn}^{2+}\text{, MnO}_2 \text{ and H}^+ \text{ ion. The balanced ionic equation for the reaction is-}$
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$2\text{Mn}^{3+}_{(aq)} + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)} \rightarrow \text{MnO}_{2(s)} + \text{Mn}^{2+}_{(aq)} + 4\text{H}^+_{(aq)}$, $\text{Mn}^{3+}_{(aq)} + \text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)} \rightarrow \text{MnO}_{2(s)} + 2\text{Mn}^{2+}_{(aq)} + 4\text{H}^+_{(aq)}$...
1
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8622
\text{Standard reduction potentials of the half-reactions are given below:}
\text{F}_2\text{(g)} + 2e^- \rightarrow 2\text{F}^-\text{(aq)} ; E^\circ = +2.85 \text{ V}
\text{Cl}_2\text{(g)} + 2e^- \rightarrow 2\text{Cl}^-\text{(aq)} ; E^\circ = +1.36 \text{ V}
\text{Br}_2\text{(g)} + 2e^- \rightarrow 2\text{Br}^-\text{(aq)} ; E^\circ = +1.06 \text{ V}
\text{I}_2\text{(g)} + 2e^- \rightarrow 2\text{I}^-\text{(aq)} ; E^\circ = +0.53 \text{ V}
\text{The strongest oxidizing and reducing agents, respectively, are:}
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$\text{Br}_2 \text{ and Cl}^-$, $\text{Cl}_2 \text{ and Br}^-$...
4
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8621
$\text{The number of moles of MnO}_4^- \text{ required to oxidise one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in an acidic medium is-}$
2
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$0.6 \text{ mole}$, $0.4 \text{ mole}$...
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8620
$\text{The set of metals that can show disproportionation reaction is:}$
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$\text{Cu, Na, Li}$, $\text{Mg, F, Ne}$...
4
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8619
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): In the reaction between potassium permanganate and potassium iodide, permanganate ions act as an oxidising agent.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The oxidation state of manganese changes from +2 to +7 during the reaction.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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8618
$\text{The oxidising agent and reducing agent in the given reaction are}$ $5\text{P}_4\text{(s)} + 12\text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)} + 12\text{HO}^-\text{(aq)} \rightarrow 8\text{PH}_3\text{(g)} + 12\text{HPO}_2^-\text{(aq)}$
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$\text{Oxidising agent = P}_4\text{; Reducing agent = P}_4$, $\text{Oxidising agent = P}_4\text{; Reducing agent = H}_2\text{O}$...
1
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8617
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide to form water and oxygen is an example of a disproportionation reaction.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The oxygen of peroxide is in -1 oxidation state and it is converted to zero oxidation state in O}_2 \text{ and -2 oxidation state in H}_2\text{O.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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8616
$\text{In the conversion, } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_8 \text{ which process occurs?}$
2
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$\text{Oxidation}$, $\text{Reduction}$...
1
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8615
$\text{In the given reaction, what is the name of the species that bleaches the substances due to its oxidising action?}$ $\text{Cl}_2\text{(g)} + 2\text{OH}^-\text{(aq)} \rightarrow \text{ClO}^-\text{(aq)} + \text{Cl}^-\text{(aq)} + \text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}$
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$\text{ClO}^-$, $\text{Cl}_2$...
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8614
$\text{In the reactions given below, thiosulphate reacts differently with iodine than with bromine.}$
$2\text{S}_2\text{O}_3^{2-} + \text{I}_2 \rightarrow \text{S}_4\text{O}_6^{2-} + 2\text{I}^{-}$
$\text{S}_2\text{O}_3^{2-} + 2\text{Br}_2 + 5\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow 2\text{SO}_4^{2-} + 2\text{Br}^{-} + 10\text{H}^{+}$
$\text{Choose the statements among the following that best describe the above dual behaviour of thiosulphate.}$
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$\text{Bromine is a stronger oxidant than iodine.}$, $\text{Bromine is a weaker oxidant than iodine.}$...
1
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8613
$\text{Which of the following does not represent a redox reaction?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-} + 2\text{OH}^- \rightarrow \text{CrO}_4^{2-} + \text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{SO}_4^{2-} + 2\text{I}^- + 2\text{H}^+ \rightarrow \text{I}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{S} + \text{H}_2\text{O}$...
1
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8612
$\text{The compound having oxygen in } -1 \text{ oxidation state is:-}$
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$\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{O}_2\text{F}_2$...
4
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8611
$\text{Which of the following does not represent a redox reaction?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-} + 2\text{OH}^- \rightarrow \text{CrO}_4^{2-} + \text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{SO}_4^{2-} + 2\text{I}^- + 2\text{H}^+ \rightarrow \text{I}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{S} + \text{H}_2\text{O}$...
1
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8610
$\text{Identify the disproportionation reaction among the following:}$
2
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$\text{CH}_4 + 2\text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{CO}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{CH}_4 + 4\text{Cl}_2 \rightarrow \text{CCl}_4 + 4\text{HCl}$...
4
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8609
$\text{Reducing agent among the following is -}$
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$\text{HNO}_3$, $\text{KMnO}_4$...
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8608
$\text{The highest oxidation number of nitrogen among the following compounds is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{N}_2\text{H}_4$, $\text{NH}_3$...
3
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8607
$\text{The oxidation number of phosphorous in ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is -}$
2
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$2$, $3$...
4
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8606
$\text{The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{HNO}_3\text{, NO, N}_2\text{, NH}_4\text{Cl}$, $\text{HNO}_3\text{, NO, NH}_4\text{Cl, N}_2$...
1
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8605
$\text{Which is the correct set that can only act as an oxidant?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{NO}_3^-, \text{SO}_3, \text{Na}$, $\text{Fe}^{+3}, \text{NO}_3^-, \text{SO}_3$...
2
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8604
$\text{Sn}^{++} \text{ loses two electrons in a reaction. The final oxidation number of tin will be:}$
2
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$+2$, $\text{Zero}$...
3
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8603
$\text{Among the following hydrohalic compounds, the best reductant is -}$
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$\text{HCl}$, $\text{HBr}$...
3
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8602
$\text{The oxidation number of S in } \text{H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_8 \text{ is:}$
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$+2$, $+4$...
3
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8601
$\text{The oxidation number of phosphorus in } \text{Ba}(\text{H}_2\text{PO}_2)_2 \text{ is-}$
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$-1$, $+1$...
2
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8600
$\text{The oxidation state of Cr in } \text{CrO}_6 \text{ is -}$
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$-6$, $+12$...
3
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8599
$\text{The change in oxidation number of chlorine when } \text{Cl}_2 \text{ gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution is:}$
2
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$\text{Zero to +1 and Zero to -5}$, $\text{Zero to -1 and Zero to +5}$...
2
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8598
$\text{The incorrect statement regarding the rule to find the oxidation number among the following is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The oxidation number of hydrogen is always } +1\text{.}$, $\text{The algebraic sum of all the oxidation numbers carried by elements in a compound is zero.}$...
1
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8597
$\text{The oxidation number of the atom (in bold) in the following species is given. Identify, which one is incorrectly related?}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Cu}_2\text{O} \text{ is } -1$, $\text{ClO}_3^- \text{ is } +5$...
1
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8596
$\text{The oxidising agent and reducing agent in the given reaction are:}$
$\text{Cl}_2\text{O}_{7(g)} + 4\text{H}_2\text{O}_{2(aq)} + 2\text{OH}^{-}_{(\text{aq})} \rightarrow 2\text{ClO}_{2(aq)}^{-} + 4\text{O}_{2(g)} + 5\text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Oxidizing agent } = \text{H}_2\text{O}_2\text{; Reducing agent } = \text{Cl}_2\text{O}_7$, $\text{Oxidizing agent } = \text{Cl}_2\text{O}_7\text{; Reducing agent } = \text{H}_2\text{O}_2$...
2
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8595
\text{The oxidizing agent and reducing agent in the given reaction are:}
3\text{N}_2\text{H}_4\text{(l)} + 4\text{ClO}_3^-\text{(aq)} \rightarrow 6\text{NO}\text{(g)} + 4\text{Cl}^-\text{(aq)} + 6\text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Oxidising agent = N}_2\text{H}_4\text{; Reducing agent = ClO}_3^-$, $\text{Oxidising agent = ClO}_3^-\text{; Reducing agent = N}_2\text{H}_4$...
2
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8594
$\text{What is the alteration in the oxidation state of carbon in the given reaction?}$
$\text{CH}_{4(g)} + 4\text{Cl}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \text{CCl}_{4(l)} + 4\text{HCl}_{(g)}$
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$0 \text{ to } +4$, $-4 \text{ to } +4$...
2
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8593
$\text{Oxidation number of oxygen in potassium super oxide (KO}_2\text{) is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$-2$, $-1$...
3
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8592
$\text{Among the following, identify the species with an atom in } +6 \text{ oxidation state-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{MnO}_4^{-}$, $\text{Cr}(\text{CN})_6^{3-}$...
4
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8591
$\text{The element that does not show a disproportionation tendency is/are:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl}$, $\text{Br}$...
3
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8590
\text{The correct statement(s) about the given reaction is -}
\text{XeO}_6^{4-}\text{(aq)} + 2\text{F}^-\text{(aq)} + 6\text{H}^+\text{(aq)} \rightarrow \text{XeO}_3\text{(g)} + \text{F}_2\text{(g)} + 3\text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}
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Recommended Questions
$ \text{XeO}_6^{4-} \text{ oxidises F}^- $, $ \text{The oxidation number of F increases from -1 to zero} $...
4
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8589
$\text{The oxidation states of P in } \text{H}_4\text{P}_2\text{O}_5, \text{H}_4\text{P}_2\text{O}_6, \text{H}_4\text{P}_2\text{O}_7, \text{ are respectively -}$
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Recommended Questions
$+3, +5, +4$, $+5, +3, +4$...
4
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8588
$ \text{Among the following the correct order of acidity is-} $
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Recommended Questions
$ \text{HClO} < \text{HClO}_2 < \text{HClO}_3 < \text{HClO}_4 $, $ \text{HClO}_2 < \text{HClO} < \text{HClO}_3 < \text{HClO}_4 $...
1
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8587
$\text{The oxidation number of oxygen in } \text{KO}_3 \text{ and } \text{Na}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ is respectively -}$
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Recommended Questions
$3, \text{ and } 2$, $1, \text{ and } 0$...
4
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8586
$ \text{Which of the following arrangements represents the increasing oxidation number of the central atom?} $
2
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Recommended Questions
$ \text{CrO}_2^-, \text{ClO}_3^-, \text{CrO}_4^{2-}, \text{MnO}_4^- $, $ \text{ClO}_3^-, \text{CrO}_4^{2-}, \text{MnO}_4^-, \text{CrO}_2^- $...
1
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8585
$\text{The oxidation number of carbon in } \text{C}_3\text{O}_2 \text{ and } \text{Mg}_2\text{C}_3 \text{ are respectively:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$-\frac{4}{3}, +\frac{4}{3}$, $+\frac{4}{3}, -\frac{4}{3}$...
2
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8584
$ \text{The oxidation number of P in Mg}_2\text{P}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ is -} $
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$ +3 $, $ +2 $...
3
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8583
$\text{The oxidation number of carbon in } \text{C}_3\text{O}_2 \text{ and } \text{Mg}_2\text{C}_3 \text{ are respectively:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$-\frac{4}{3}, +\frac{4}{3}$, $+\frac{4}{3}, -\frac{4}{3}$...
1
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8582
$ \text{Which of the following is not an intramolecular redox reaction?} $
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Recommended Questions
$ \text{NH}_4\text{NO}_2 \rightarrow \text{N}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O} $, $ 2\text{Mn}_2\text{O}_7 \rightarrow 4\text{MnO}_2 + 3\text{O}_2 $...
4
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8581
$\text{In an alkaline medium } \text{ClO}_2 \text{ oxidize } \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ in } \text{O}_2 \text{ and reduces itself in } \text{Cl}^-. \text{ How many moles of } \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \text{ will be oxidized by one mole of } \text{ClO}_2?$
2
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$1.0$, $1.5$...
3
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8580
$\text{The maximum weight of nitric oxide that can be obtained starting only with 10.00 g of ammonia and 20.00 g of oxygen is:}$
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$9 \text{ g}$, $15 \text{ g}$...
$15 \text{ g}$
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8579
$\text{Balance the following equation and choose the quantity that is the sum of the coefficients of reactants and products:}$ $\ldots\text{PtCl}_4 + \ldots\text{XeF}_2 \rightarrow \text{PtF}_6 + \ldots\text{ClF} + \ldots\text{Xe}$
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$16$, $13$...
1
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8578
\text{Balance the following reaction and find the values of a, b and g, respectively:}
\\[0.5em]
a\text{KMnO}_4 + b\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 + 3\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow d\text{MnSO}_4 + e\text{K}_2\text{SO}_4 + f\text{O}_2 + g\text{H}_2\text{O}
2
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Recommended Questions
$ 2, 4, 8 $, $ 2, 5, 8 $...
2
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8577
$2\text{MnO}_4^- + 5\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 + 6\text{H}^+ \rightarrow 2\text{Z} + 5\text{O}_2 + 8\text{H}_2\text{O}. \text{ In this reaction, Z is:}$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Mn}^{2+}$, $\text{Mn}^{4+}$...
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8576
\text{For the redox reaction,}
a\text{MnO}_4^- + b\text{C}_2\text{O}_4^{2-} + c\text{H}^+ \rightarrow d\text{Mn}^{2+} + e\text{CO}_2 + f\text{H}_2\text{O}
\text{the correct stoichiometric coefficients of the reactants a, b, and c respectively for the balanced equation are:}
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Recommended Questions
$ 16, 5, 2 $, $ 2, 5, 16 $...
2
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8575
$\text{The balanced equation for the reaction between chlorine and sulphur dioxide in water is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
\text{Cl}_2\text{(s)} + \text{SO}_2\text{(aq)} + 2\text{H}_2\text{O(l)} \rightarrow 2\text{Cl}^-\text{(aq)} + \text{SO}_4^{2-}\text{(aq)} + 4\text{H}^+\text{(aq)}, 3\text{Cl}_2\text{(s)} + \text{SO}_2\text{(aq)} + 2\text{H}_2\text{O(l)} \rightarrow \text{Cl}^-\text{(aq)} + \text{SO}_4^{2-}\text{(aq)} + 3\text{H}^+\text{(aq)}...
$\text{Cl}_2\text{(s)} + \text{SO}_2\text{(aq)} + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}_{\text{(l)}} \rightarrow 2\text{Cl}^-_{\text{(aq)}} + \text{SO}_4^{2-}_{\text{(aq)}} + 4\text{H}^+_{\text{(aq)}}$
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8574
$\text{The oxidation state of Cu in } \text{YBa}_2\text{Cu}_3\text{O}_7 \text{ is -}$ $\text{(Yttrium = +3)}$
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$\frac{3}{7}$, $\frac{7}{3}$...
2
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8573
\text{In the equation, } \text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-} + \text{Fe}^{2+} + \text{H}^+ \rightarrow \text{Cr}^{3+} + \text{Fe}^{3+} + \text{H}_2\text{O} \text{, the coefficients of } \text{Fe}^{2+} \text{ and } \text{H}^+ \text{ are respectively:}
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208
Recommended Questions
$6, 7$, $6, 14$...
$6, 14$
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8572
\text{In the given balanced chemical reaction: } \text{IO}_3^- + a\text{I}^- + b\text{H}^+ \rightarrow c\text{H}_2\text{O} + d\text{I}_2 \text{. The values of a, b, c, and d respectively are:}
2
208
Recommended Questions
$5, 6, 3, 3$, $5, 3, 6, 3$...
1
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8571
$\text{The oxidation number and covalency of sulphur in the sulphur molecule (S}_8\text{) are respectively:}$
2
208
Recommended Questions
$0, \text{ and } 2$, $+6, \text{ and } 8$...
1
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8570
$\text{The oxidation state of two S-atoms in Na}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_3 \text{ is:}$
2
208
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$+2 \text{ and } +4$, $+3 \text{ and } -2$...
4
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8569
$\text{The compound AgF}_2 \text{ (unstable) acts as a/an:}$
2
208
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$\text{Oxidising agent.}$, $\text{Reducing agent.}$...
1
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8568
$\text{Disproportionation reactions are:}$ $(\text{a}) \, 2\text{Cu}^+ \rightarrow \text{Cu}^{2+} + \text{Cu}^0$ $(\text{b}) \, 3\text{MnO}_4^{2-} + 4\text{H}^+ \rightarrow 2\text{MnO}_4^- + \text{MnO}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$ $(\text{c}) \, 2\text{KMnO}_4 \xrightarrow{\Delta} \text{K}_2\text{MnO}_4 + \text{MnO}_2 + \text{O}_2$ $(\text{d}) \, 2\text{MnO}_4^- + 3\text{Mn}^{2+} + 2\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow 5\text{MnO}_2 + 4\text{H}^{\oplus}$
2
208
Recommended Questions
$(\text{a}) \text{ and } (\text{d}) \text{ only}$, $(\text{a}) \text{ and } (\text{b}) \text{ only}$...
2
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8567
$\text{The formulas for the following compounds are:}$ $(\text{a}) \text{ Mercury(II) chloride and } (\text{b}) \text{ Thallium(I) sulphate}$
2
208
Recommended Questions
$\text{HgCl}_2, \text{Tl}_2\text{SO}_4$, $\text{Hg}_2\text{Cl}_2, \text{Tl}_2\text{SO}_4$...
1
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8566
$\text{Which element exhibits both positive and negative oxidation states?}$
2
208
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cs}$, $\text{Ne}$...
3
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8565
\text{Fluorine reacts with ice as per the following reaction:}
\text{H}_2\text{O (s) + F}_2\text{ (g) → HF (g) + HOF (g)}
\text{This reaction is a redox reaction because-}
2
208
Recommended Questions
$\text{F}_2 \text{ is getting oxidized.}$, $\text{F}_2 \text{ is getting reduced.}$...
3
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8564
$\text{Which of the following reactions does not represent a redox change?}$
2
208
Recommended Questions
$\text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2$, $2\text{H}_2 + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$...
$\text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2$
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8563
$\text{The oxidation number of sulphur and nitrogen in } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_5 \text{ and } \text{NO}_3^- \text{ are respectively-}$
2
208
Recommended Questions
$+6, +5$, $-6, -6$...
$+6, +5$
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8562
\text{Assertion (A): In the presentation } E^{\ominus}_{\text{Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}^{2+}} \text{ and } E^{\ominus}_{\text{Cu}^{2+}/\text{Cu}}\text{, } \text{Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}^{2+} \text{ and } \text{Cu}^{2+}/\text{Cu} \text{ are redox couples.}
\text{Reason (R): A redox couple is the combination of the oxidised and reduced forms of a substance involved in an oxidation or reduction half cell.}
2
208
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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8561
$\text{Which of the following reactions does not involve disproportionation process?}$
2
208
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl}_2 + \text{OH}^- \rightarrow \text{Cl}^- + \text{ClO}_3^- + \text{H}_2\text{O}$, $2\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{O}_2$...
4
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8560
$\text{Why does the MnO}_4^{2-} \text{ ion undergo disproportionation in an acidic medium, whereas the MnO}_4^- \text{ ion does not?}$
2
208
Recommended Questions
$\text{Due to manganese being in its highest oxidation state in MnO}_4^{2-}\text{.}$, $\text{Due to manganese being in its highest oxidation state in MnO}_4^-\text{.}$...
2
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8559
$\text{The oxidation state of P in HPO}_3^{2-} \text{ is-}$
2
208
Recommended Questions
$+3$, $+4$...
1
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8558
$\text{The oxidation states of the central atom in the given species are, respectively:}$ $\text{H}_4\text{P}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ and H}_2\text{S}_2\text{O}_7$
2
208
Recommended Questions
$0 \text{ and } +6$, $+3 \text{ and } +4$...
4
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8557
$\text{H}_2\text{S gas when passed through a solution of cations containing HCl precipitates the cations of the second group in qualitative analysis but not those belonging to the fourth group. It is because:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Presence of HCl decreases the sulphide ion concentration}$, $\text{Presence of HCl increases the sulphide ion concentration}$...
1
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8556
$\text{Among the following solvents, silver chloride is most soluble in:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$0.1 \text{ mol dm}^{-3} \text{ AgNO}_3 \text{ solution}$, $0.1 \text{ mol dm}^{-3} \text{ HCl solution}$...
4
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8555
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): The ionisation of hydrogen sulphide in water is low in the presence of hydrochloric acid.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Hydrogen sulphide is a weak acid.}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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8554
$\text{In an acidic Buffer solution (CH}_3\text{COOH + CH}_3\text{COONa), the species mainly present in the solution are:}$ $\text{(Ignore negligible amount)}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3\text{COOH, CH}_3\text{COO}^-, \text{CH}_3\text{COONa, H}^+$, $\text{CH}_3\text{COO}^-, \text{Na}^+, \text{CH}_3\text{COOH}$...
2
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8553
$\text{Out of } \text{Ca}^{2+}, \text{ Al}^{3+}, \text{ Cr}^{3+}, \text{ Mg}^{2+}, \text{ and } \text{Zn}^{2+}, \text{ the reagents } \text{NH}_4\text{Cl and aqueous } \text{NH}_3 \text{ will precipitate}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ca}^{2+}, \text{ Al}^{3+}$, $\text{Al}^{3+}, \text{ Cr}^{3+}$...
2
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8552
$\text{When NH}_4\text{Cl is added to an aqueous solution of NH}_4\text{OH, then}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Concentration of } [\text{OH}^-] \text{ ions decreases.}$, $\text{Concentration of } [\text{OH}^-] \text{ ions increases.}$...
1
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8551
$\text{The addition of } \text{HCl does not suppress the ionization of:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Acetic acid}$, $\text{Benzoic acid}$...
4
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8550
$\text{The dissociation of } \text{NH}_4\text{OH can be suppressed by the addition of}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_4\text{Cl}$, $\text{NH}_4\text{NO}_3$...
2
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8549
$\text{The dissociation of } \text{NH}_4\text{OH can be suppressed by the addition of}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_4\text{Cl}$, $\text{NH}_4\text{NO}_3$...
4
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8548
$\text{Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ and HNO}_3\text{. If a large amount of KHSO}_4 \text{ is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be:}$
2
207
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$\text{Slower}$, $\text{Unchanged}$...
1
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8547
$\text{In which of the following will the solubility of } \text{AgCl be the minimum?}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{0.1 M } \text{NaNO}_3$, $\text{Water}$...
3
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8546
$\text{Salting out action of the soap is based on:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Complex ion formation}$, $\text{Common ion effect}$...
4
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8545
$\text{Salting out action of the soap is based on:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Complex ion formation}$, $\text{Common ion effect}$...
3
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8544
$\text{The standard reduction potential for Cu}^{2+}/\text{Cu is 0.34 V. The reduction potential at pH = 14 for the above couple given } (K_{sp}[\text{Cu}(\text{OH})_2] = 1 \times 10^{-19}) \text{ is:}$
2
207
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$-0.22 \text{ V}$, $+0.22 \text{ V}$...
1
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8543
$\text{The } \text{K}_{sp} \text{ of } \text{Ag}_2\text{CrO}_4\text{, } \text{AgCl, } \text{AgBr and } \text{AgI are, respectively, } 1.1\text{x}10^{-12}\text{, } 1.8\text{x}10^{-10}\text{, } 5.0\text{x}10^{-13}\text{, and } 8.3\text{x}10^{-17}. \text{ The salt precipitates that last if the } \text{AgNO}_3 \text{ solution is added to the solution containing equal moles of } \text{NaCl, } \text{NaBr, } \text{NaI and } \text{Na}_2\text{CrO}_4 \text{ is -}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{AgI}$, $\text{AgCl}$...
4
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8542
$\text{When equal volumes of 0.002 M solutions of sodium iodate and cupric chlorate are mixed together } (K_{sp} \text{ (cupric iodate)} = 7.4 \times 10^{-8}), \text{ from the following, the correct observation would be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Precipitation will occur}$, $\text{Precipitation will not occur}$...
2
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8541
\text{The } K_{sp} \text{ of Ag}_2\text{CrO}_4 \text{ and AgBr is } 1.1 \times 10^{-12} \text{ and } 5.0 \times 10^{-13} \text{ respectively. The molarity ratio of saturated solutions of Ag}_2\text{CrO}_4 \text{ and AgBr will be:}
2
207
Recommended Questions
$91.9$, $108.6$...
$91.9$
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8540
$\text{The solubility product of silver chromate is } 1.1 \times 10^{-12}\text{. The solubility of silver chromate will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$6.5 \times 10^{-5} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$, $6.5 \times 10^{-6} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$...
1
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8539
\text{The maximum concentration of equimolar solutions, of ferrous sulphate and sodium sulphide, so that when mixed in equal volumes, there is no precipitation of iron sulphide, will be:}
\text{(For iron sulphide, } K_{sp} = 6.3 \times 10^{-18}\text{).}
2
207
Recommended Questions
$5.02 \times 10^{-9} \text{ M}$, $5.02 \times 10^{9} \text{ M}$...
1
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8538
$\text{A saturated solution of Ba(OH)}_2 \text{ has a pH of 12. The value of its } K_{sp} \text{ will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$4.00 \times 10^{-6} M^3$, $4.00 \times 10^{-7} M^3$...
4
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8537
$\text{The solubility of } \text{BaSO}_4 \text{ in water is } 2.42 \times 10^{-3} \text{ g/ litre at } 298 \text{ K. The value of the solubility product will be: (Molar mass of } \text{BaSO}_4 = 233 \text{ g mol}^{-1})$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$1.08 \times 10^{-10} \text{ mol}^2 \text{ L}^{-2}$, $1.08 \times 10^{-12} \text{ mol}^2 \text{ L}^{-2}$...
1
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8536
$\text{The solubility product of mercurous iodide is } 4.5 \times 10^{-29}. \text{ The solubility of mercurous iodide will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$6.5 \times 10^{-7} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$, $4.09 \times 10^{-8} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$...
2
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8535
$\text{The molar solubility of CaF}_2 \text{ (K}_{\text{sp}} = 5.3 \times 10^{-11}) \text{ in } 0.1 \text{ M solution of NaF will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$5.3 \times 10^{-11} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$, $5.3 \times 10^{-8} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$...
3
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8534
\text{The minimum volume of water required to dissolve } 1\text{g of calcium sulphate at } 298 \text{ K is}
(\text{For } \text{CaSO}_4, \text{ K}_{\text{sp}} \text{ is } 9.1 \times 10^{-6})
2
207
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$1.22 \text{ L}$, $0.69 \text{ L}$...
3
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8533
$\text{If the solubility of a } \text{M}_2\text{S salt is } 3.5 \times 10^{-6} \text{ mol litre}^{-1}, \text{ then the solubility product of } \text{M}_2\text{S will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$1.7 \times 10^{-6} \text{ mol}^3 \text{ litre}^{-3}$, $1.7 \times 10^{-16} \text{ mol}^3 \text{ litre}^{-3}$...
2
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8532
$\text{At room temperature, MY and NY}_3, \text{ two nearly insoluble salts, have the same K}_{\text{sp}} \text{ values of } 6.2 \times 10^{-13}. \text{ The true statement regarding MY and NY}_3 \text{ is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY}_3.$, $\text{The salts MY and NY}_3 \text{ are more soluble in } 0.5 \text{ M KY than in pure water.}$...
1
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8531
$\text{The solubility of } \text{Ni (OH)}_2 \text{ in } 0.1 \text{ M NaOH is:}\text{K}_{\text{sp}} (\text{Ni (OH)}_2) = 2 \times 10^{-15}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$2 \times 10^{-8} \text{ M.}$, $1 \times 10^{-13} \text{ M}$...
4
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8530
$\text{The solubility product for a salt of type AB is } 4 \times 10^{-8}. \text{ The molarity of its standard solution will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$2 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol/L}$, $16 \times 10^{-16} \text{ mol/L}$...
1
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8529
\text{The most hydrolyzed salt among the following is-}
\text{(Assume that } K_b \text{ of all weak bases is the same)}
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_4\text{Cl}$, $\text{CuSO}_4$...
1
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8528
$\text{A } 0.02 \text{ M solution of pyridinium hydrochloride has a pH of } 3.44. \text{ The ionization constant of pyridine will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$6.6 \times 10^{-6}$, $1.51 \times 10^{-9}$...
2
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8527
$\text{The ionization constant of nitrous acid is } 4.5 \times 10^{-4}. \text{ The pH of a } 0.04 \text{ M sodium nitrite solution will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$2.56$, $6.14$...
3
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8526
$\text{If the pH of } 0.1 \text{ M NaCN solution is } 11, \text{ then the percentage hydrolysis will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$0.1\%$, $1\%$...
2
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8525
$\text{The percentage degree of hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid (HA) and weak base (BOH) in its } 0.1 \text{ M solution is found to be } 10\%. \text{ If the molarity of the solution is } 0.05 \text{ M, the percentage hydrolysis of the salt should be -}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$5\%$, $10\%$...
2
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8524
$\text{The ionization constant of chloroacetic acid is } 1.35 \times 10^{-3}. \text{ The pH of a } 0.1 \text{ M acid solution will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$1.94$, $6.14$...
1
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8523
\text{Assertion (A): The aqueous solution of } \text{CH}_3\text{COONa is alkaline in nature.}
\text{Reason (R): Sodium acetate undergoes anionic hydrolysis.}
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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8522
$\text{The salt that gives a neutral solution in water is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{KBr}$, $\text{NH}_4\text{NO}_3$...
1
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8521
$\text{The degree of hydrolysis of the salt is independent of the concentration of a solution:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_4\text{Cl}$, $\text{NH}_4\text{CN}$...
2
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8520
$\text{The salt solution that is basic in nature is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ammonium chloride.}$, $\text{Ammonium sulphate.}$...
4
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8519
$\text{When } 10 \text{ ml of } 0.1 \text{ M acetic acid (p}K_a=5.0) \text{ is titrated against } 10 \text{ ml of } 0.1 \text{ M ammonia solution (p}K_b=5.0), \text{ the pH at equivalence point will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$9.0$, $6.0$...
4
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8518
$\text{The mixture that shows the maximum buffer capacity is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{0.1 M } \text{CH}_3\text{COOH} + \text{0.2 M } \text{CH}_3\text{COONa}$, $\text{0.1 M } \text{CH}_3\text{COOH} + \text{0.15 M } \text{CH}_3\text{COONa}$...
4
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8517
$\text{Which of the following cannot act as a buffer?}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{NaH}_2\text{PO}_4 + \text{H}_3\text{PO}_4$, $\text{NH}_4\text{OH} + \text{NH}_4\text{Cl}$...
3
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8516
$\text{K}_\text{a} \text{ for HCN is } 5 \times 10^{-10} \text{ at } 25^{\circ}\text{C}. \text{ For maintaining a constant pH of } 9, \text{ the volume of } 5 \text{ M KCN solution required to be added to } 10 \text{ mL of } 2 \text{ M HCN solution is-}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$2 \text{ mL}$, $3 \text{ mL}$...
1
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8515
$\text{Assertion (A): An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate can act as a buffer.}$ $\text{Reason (R): Acetic acid is a weak acid and } \text{NH}_4\text{OH} \text{ is a weak base.}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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8514
$\text{The pH of a solution containing 0.1 mol of }\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}\text{, 0.2 mol of }\text{CH}_3\text{COONa}\text{, and 0.05 mol of NaOH in 1 L of solution is-}$ $(\text{p}K_a \text{ of }\text{CH}_3\text{COOH} = 4.74 \text{ and log 5} = 0.7)$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$4.56$, $5.44$...
2
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8513
$\text{A solution of benzoic acid (a weak monobasic acid) is titrated with NaOH. The pH of the solution is 4.2 when half of the acid is neutralized. The dissociation constant of the acid will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$3.2 \times 10^{-5}$, $6.42 \times 10^{-4}$...
3
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8512
$\text{The mixture that will produce a buffer solution when mixed in equal volumes is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$0.1 \text{ mol dm}^{-3} \text{ NH}_4\text{OH and } 0.1 \text{ mol dm}^{-3} \text{ HCl}$, $0.05 \text{ mol dm}^{-3} \text{ NH}_4\text{OH and } 0.1 \text{ mol dm}^{-3} \text{ HCl}$...
3
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8511
$\text{The following pair constitutes a buffer is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{HNO}_2 \text{ and } \text{NaNO}_2$, $\text{NaOH and NaCl}$...
1
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8510
$\text{If a solution of 0.1 M NH}_4\text{OH and 0.1 M NH}_4\text{Cl has pH 9.25, then the pK}_b \text{ of NH}_4\text{OH will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$9.25$, $4.75$...
2
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8509
$\text{An acidic buffer cannot be formed by which of the following combinations is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{HClO}_4 \text{ and NaClO}_4$, $\text{CH}_3\text{COOH and CH}_3\text{COONa}$...
1
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8508
$\text{The mixture that can act like a buffer is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3\text{COOH} + \text{CH}_3\text{COONa}$, $\text{NH}_4\text{NO}_3 + \text{NH}_4\text{OH}$...
4
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8507
$\text{In a buffer solution containing an equal concentration of B}^- \text{ and HB, the } K_b \text{ for B}^- \text{ is } 10^{-10}\text{. pH of the buffer solution is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$10$, $7$...
4
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8506
$\text{The pair that represents a buffer solution among the following pairs is?}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{HNO}_3 \text{ and NH}_4\text{NO}_3$, $\text{HCl and KCl}$...
3
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8505
$\text{The concentration of }[\text{H}^+]\text{ ion in a solution containing 0.1 M HCN and 0.2 M NaCN will be:}$ $(K_a \text{ for HCN} = 6.2 \times 10^{-10})$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$3.1 \times 10^{10}$, $6.2 \times 10^{5}$...
4
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8504
138
2
207
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
8503
137
2
207
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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8502
$\text{An acidic buffer solution can be prepared by mixing the solutions of:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide}$, $\text{Sulphuric acid and sodium sulphate}$...
4
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8501
$\text{If the pH of an acidic buffer is 5.7 and p}K_a \text{ is 5 then the ratio of } \frac{[\text{Salt}]}{[\text{Acid}]} \text{ will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$3$, $4$...
3
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8500
$\text{At 25°C, the pH of a solution containing 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.03 M acetic acid will be:}$ $[\text{pK}_a \text{ value of } \text{CH}_3\text{COOH} = 4.57]$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$3.24$, $4.59$...
3
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8499
$\text{The basic buffer solution among the following is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_4\text{Cl} + \text{NH}_4\text{OH}$, $\text{NaCl} + \text{NaOH}$...
1
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8498
$\text{The p}K_a \text{ of HCN is 9.30. The pH of a solution prepared by mixing 2.5 moles of KCN and 2.5 moles of HCN in water and making up the total volume to 500 ml will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$9.30$, $8.30$...
1
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8497
131
2
207
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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8496
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): A solution containing a mixture of acetic acid and sodium acetate maintains a constant value of pH on the addition of small amounts of acid or alkali.}$ $\text{Reason (R): A solution containing a mixture of acetic acid and sodium acetate acts as a buffer solution.}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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8495
$\text{The pH of a 0.05 M aqueous solution of diethylamine is 12. Its }K_b\text{ value will be:}$
2
207
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$2 \times 10^{-3}$, $2.5 \times 10^{-3}$...
2
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8494
$\text{The percentage ionization of 0.02 M dimethylamine solution if it also contains 0.1 M NaOH solution }(K_b \text{ of dimethylamine} = 5.4 \times 10^{-4})\text{ will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$0.54\%$, $0.05\%$...
1
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8493
$\text{The self-ionization constant for pure formic acid, } K = [\text{HCOOH}_2^+][\text{HCOO}^-] \text{ has been estimated as } (10)^{-4} \text{ at room temperature. The percentage of formic acid molecules in pure formic acid that are converted to formate ions is}$ $\text{(Given: } d_{\text{HCOOH}} = 1.22 \text{ g/cc})$
2
207
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$0.0185\%$, $0.0073\%$...
4
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8492
$\text{A 0.001 M aniline solution has a pH of:}$ $(K_b = 4.27 \times 10^{-10})$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$6.19$, $7.81$...
2
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8491
$\text{Which of the following is an amphiprotic (can accept and give protons) ion?}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{HPO}_3^-$, $\text{H}_2\text{PO}_2^-$...
4
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8490
$\text{The pH value of a 0.01 M solution of an organic acid is 4.15. The pK}_a \text{ of the acid will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$8.95$, $1.43$...
4
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8489
$\text{The first ionization constant of H}_2\text{S is } 9.1 \times 10^{-8}\text{. The concentration of HS}^- \text{ ion in its 0.1 M solution will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$12.3 \times 10^{-7} \text{ M}$, $11.4 \times 10^{-6} \text{ M}$...
4
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8488
$\text{The degree of ionization of 0.05 M acetic acid is:}$ $(\text{pK}_a = 4.74)$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$1.91 \times 10^{-2}$, $2.46 \times 10^{2}$...
1
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8487
$\text{The ionization constants of HCOOH, and HCN at 298K are } 1.8 \times 10^{-4} \text{ and } 4.8 \times 10^{-9} \text{ respectively. The ionization constants of the corresponding conjugate bases of HCOOH and HCN will be}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$5.6 \times 10^{-11}, 2.08 \times 10^{-6}$, $2.4 \times 10^{-11}, 4.2 \times 10^{-6}$...
1
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8486
$\text{The ionization constant of phenol is } 1.0 \times 10^{-10}\text{. The concentration of phenolate ion in 0.05 M solution of phenol will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$4.2 \times 10^{-4} \text{ M}$, $3.6 \times 10^{-5} \text{ M}$...
4
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8485
$\text{The pH of a 0.1 M solution of cyanic acid (HCNO) is 2.34. The ionization constant of the acid will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$2.02 \times 10^{4}$, $3.14 \times 10^{3}$...
3
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8484
$\text{The ionization constant of propanoic acid is } 1.32 \times 10^{-5}\text{. The degree of ionization of 0.05M acid solution will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\alpha = 0.63 \times 10^{-2}$, $\alpha = 1.63 \times 10^{-4}$...
3
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8483
$\text{The ionization constant of acetic acid is } 1.74 \times 10^{-5}\text{. The pH of acetic acid in its 0.05 M solution will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$7.81$, $3.03$...
2
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8482
$\text{The strongest acid among the following compounds is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{HClO}_3$, $\text{HClO}_4$...
2
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8481
$\text{The concentration of CH}_3\text{COOH that will have the same [H}^+\text{] as obtained from } 10^{-2} \text{ M HCOOH, is-}$ $\text{(Ka(CH}_3\text{COOH}) = 10^{-5}, \text{Ka(HCOOH}) = 10^{-4}\text{)}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ M}$, $5 \text{ M}$...
3
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8480
$\text{How much water should be added to 400 mL of HCl solution in order to raise the pH by one unit?}$
2
207
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$360 \text{ mL}$, $1000 \text{ mL}$...
4
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8479
$\text{When 0.1 mol of } \text{CH}_3\text{NH}_2 (K_b = 5 \times 10^{-4}) \text{ is mixed with 0.08 mol of HCl and diluted to 1 L, the } \text{H}^+ \text{ ion concentration in the solution will be:}$
2
207
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$8 \times 10^{-11} \text{ M}$, $6 \times 10^{-5} \text{ M}$...
1
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8478
$\text{A mixture of 10 mL of 0.2 M Ca(OH)}_2 \text{ and 25 mL of 0.1 M HCl is prepared. The pH of the resultant mixture would be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$1.90$, $13.42$...
4
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8477
$\text{The solution with pH value close to 1.0 among the following is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$100 \text{ ml of } (\text{M}/10) \text{HCl} + 100 \text{ ml of } (\text{M}/10) \text{NaOH}$, $55 \text{ ml of } (\text{M}/10) \text{HCl} + 45 \text{ ml of } (\text{M}/10) \text{NaOH}$...
4
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8476
$\text{The pH of neutral water at } 25^\circ\text{C} \text{ is } 7.0. \text{ As the temperature increases, ionisation of water increases. However, the concentration of } \text{H}^+ \text{ ions and } \text{OH}^- \text{ ions is equal. What will be the pH of pure water at } 60^\circ\text{C} \text{?}$
2
207
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$\text{Equal to } 7.0$, $\text{Greater than } 7.0$...
3
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8475
$\text{A solution containing 2 g of TlOH in 2 litres of water has a pH of?}$ $\text{(Atomic wt of Tl = 204)}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
11.65, 12.45...
1
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8474
$\text{At 298 K, the solubility of Sr(OH)}_2 \text{ is 19.23 g/L. The pH of the solution will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$1.50$, $13.50$...
2
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8473
$0.561 \text{ g of } \text{KOH} \text{ is dissolved in water to give } 200 \text{ mL of solution at } 298 \text{ K}. \text{ The pH of the solution will be}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$12.70$, $1.30$...
1
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8472
$\text{The value of the pH of 0.01 mol dm}^{-3} \text{CH}_3\text{COOH } (K_a = 1.74 \times 10^{-5}) \text{ is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
3.4, 3.6...
1
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8471
$\text{When 1 mL of 13.6 M HCl is diluted with water to give 1 litre of solution, the pH of the resultant solution will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$11.87$, $3.46$...
3
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8470
$\text{The solution that has the lowest pH is:}$ $\text{(assuming 100\% dissociation)}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$0.003 \text{ M HCl}$, $0.005 \text{ M NaOH}$...
1
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8469
$\text{The ionisation constant of an acid, } K_a\text{, is the measure of the strength of an acid. The } K_a \text{ values of acetic acid, hypochlorous acid and formic acid are } 1.74 \times 10^{-5}\text{, } 3.0 \times 10^{-8} \text{ and } 1.8 \times 10^{-4}\text{, respectively. The correct order of pH value of } 0.1 \text{ mol dm}^{-3} \text{ solutions of these acids is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Acetic acid} > \text{Hypochlorous acid} > \text{Formic acid}$, $\text{Hypochlorous acid} < \text{Acetic acid} > \text{Formic acid}$...
4
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8468
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is basic.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The acidic or basic nature of a salt solution of a salt of a weak acid and a weak base depends on the Ka and Kb values of the acid and the base forming it.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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8467
$\text{The pH of } 0.1 \text{ M solution of the following compounds increases in the order of}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{NaCl} < \text{NH}_4\text{Cl} < \text{NaCN} < \text{HCl}$, $\text{HCl} < \text{NH}_4\text{Cl} < \text{NaCl} < \text{NaCN}$...
2
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8466
$\text{The pH of a sample of vinegar is 3.76. The concentration of H}^+ \text{ ions in the sample will be -}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$1.74 \times 10^{-4} \text{ M}$, $2.34 \times 10^{-11} \text{ M}$...
1
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8465
$\text{The ionic product of water at 310 K is } 2.7 \times 10^{-14}\text{.}$ $\text{The pH of neutral water at this temperature will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$2.56$, $6.78$...
2
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8464
$\text{The number of } \text{H}^+ \text{ ions present in } 1 \text{ mL of a solution whose pH} = 4, \text{ is given as:}$ $(N_A = \text{Avogadro's number})$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$10^{-7} N_A$, $10^{-8} N_A$...
1
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8463
$\text{When equal volumes of 0.1 M NaOH and 0.01 M HCl are mixed, the pH of the resulting solution will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
12.65, 2.0...
1
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8462
$\text{The concentration of hydrogen ion in a sample of soft drink is } 3.8 \times 10^{-3} \text{ M.}$ $\text{The pH of the soft drink will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$3.14$, $2.42$...
2
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8461
$(\text{a}) \text{ Human muscle-fluid, pH} = 6.83$ $(\text{b}) \text{ Human stomach fluid, pH} = 1.2$ $(\text{c}) \text{ Human blood, pH} = 7.38$ $(\text{d}) \text{ Human saliva, pH} = 6.4$ $\text{Out of the above mentioned biological fluids, the one with the minimum concentration of hydrogen ions is:}$
2
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$\text{Human blood}$, $\text{Human muscle fluid}$...
1
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8460
$\text{The pH of a 0.01 M NaOH}_{(\text{aq})} \text{ solution will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
7.01, 2...
3
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8459
$\text{The pOH of a solution at 25°C that contains } 1 \times 10^{-10} \text{ M of hydronium ions is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$7.00$, $4.00$...
2
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8458
$\text{The pH of a solution made by mixing } 50 \text{ mL of } 0.01 \text{ M barium hydroxide solution with } 50 \text{ mL of } \text{H}_2\text{O} \text{ is}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$3.0$, $6.0$...
3
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8457
$\text{The pH values of milk, tomato juice, lemon juice, and egg are 6.8, 4.2, 2.2, and 7.8 respectively.}$ $\text{The corresponding hydrogen ion concentration is maximum in:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
Lemon juice, Milk...
1
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8456
$\text{Which of the following compounds is in the correct sequence in terms of relative basic strength?}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{O}^- > \text{CH} \equiv \text{C}^- > \text{OH}^-$, $\text{CH} \equiv \text{C}^- > \text{OH}^- > \text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{O}^-$...
3
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8455
$\text{The ionic species that has the greatest proton affinity to form stable compound is:}$
2
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$\text{HS}^-$, $\text{NH}_2^-$...
2
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8454
$\text{The oxoacid that has the highest } K_a \text{ value is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{HClO}_3$, $\text{HBrO}_3$...
1
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8453
$\text{Conjugate base of hydrazoic acid is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{HN}_3^-$, $\text{N}_2^-$...
3
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8452
$\text{The tendency of } \text{BF}_3, \text{BCl}_3 \text{ and } \text{BBr}_3 \text{ to behave as Lewis acids decreases in the sequence:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{BCl}_3 > \text{BF}_3 > \text{BBr}_3$, $\text{BBr}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BF}_3$...
2
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8451
$\text{The conjugate bases of Bronsted acids H}_2\text{O and HF are respectively:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_3\text{O}^+ \text{ and H}_2\text{F}^+\text{, respectively.}$, $\text{OH}^- \text{ and H}_2\text{F}^+\text{, respectively.}$...
4
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8450
$\text{Assertion: } \text{H}^- \text{ acts as both Brønsted Lowry base as well as Lewis base.}$ $\text{Reason: It acts as both } \text{H}^+ \text{ acceptor and a lone pair donor.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
{Both assertion & reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.}, {Both assertion & reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.}...
1
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8449
$\text{Which of the following is/are the Lewis acids?}$ $(\text{i}) \text{ BF}_3 \quad (\text{ii}) \text{ H}_2\text{O} \quad (\text{iii}) \text{ H}^+ \quad (\text{iv}) \text{ AlCl}_3$
2
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$\text{Only (i)}$, $\text{(i) and (ii) only}$...
3
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8448
$\text{Litmus is not affected by hydracids when they are}$
2
207
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$\text{In contact with water}$, $\text{Dry}$...
2
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8447
$\text{Acidity of BF}_3 \text{ can be explained on the basis of:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Arrhenius concept}$, $\text{Brønsted Lowry concept}$...
3
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8446
$\text{The species that can act as Brønsted acids as well as bases is/are:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{HCO}_3^-, \text{HSO}_4^-$...
4
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8445
$\text{OH}^-, \text{F}^-, \text{H}^+ \text{ and BCl}_3$ $\text{The species described above that contain Lewis acids are:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{BCl}_3 \text{ and F}^-$, $\text{OH}^- \text{ and F}^-$...
3
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8444
$\text{The molecule that cannot function as both Brønsted acid and base:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{HCO}_3^-$, $\text{NH}_3$...
3
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8443
$\text{The species that can act as Brønsted acids as well as bases is/are:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{HCO}_3^-, \text{HSO}_4^-$...
1
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8442
$\text{The conjugate bases for Bronsted acids, H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{ and HCO}_3 \text{ will be, respectively:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{HSO}_4^-, \text{CO}_3^{2-}$, $\text{HSO}_4^-, \text{CO}_3^-$...
1
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8441
$\text{The conjugate acid-base pair is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{A pair that differs only by one proton}$, $\text{A pair that differs only by the size}$...
1
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8440
$\text{The conjugate acids for the Brönsted bases NH}_2^-, \text{NH}_3 \text{ and HCOO}^- \text{ will be respectively:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{N}_2\text{H}_6, \text{NH}_4^+, \text{HCOOH}$, $\text{NH}_3, \text{NH}_4^+, \text{HCOOH}$...
2
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8439
$\text{Match the following species with the corresponding conjugate acid:}$ $\text{Species: A. NH}_3\text{, B. HCO}_3^-\text{, C. H}_2\text{O, D. HSO}_4^-$ $\text{Conjugate acid: 1. CO}_3^{2-}\text{, 2. NH}_4^+\text{, 3. H}_3\text{O}^+\text{, 4. H}_2\text{CO}_3\text{, 5. H}_2\text{SO}_4$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{A-2, B-5, C-1, D-5}$, $\text{A-2, B-4, C-3, D-5}$...
2
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8438
$\text{Which of the following alternatives best describes the reaction } \text{A} \rightleftharpoons \text{B} \text{ at its halfway point?}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\Delta G^{\circ} = 0$, $\Delta G^{\circ} > 0$...
1
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8437
At 1127 K and 1 atm pressure, a gaseous mixture of CO and CO}_2 \text{ in equilibrium with solid carbon has 90.55% CO by mass.}$ $\text{C}_{(s)} + \text{CO}_2_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{CO}_{(g)}$ $\text{At the specified temperature, } K_c \text{ for this reaction would be:}$
2
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$0.25 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$, $0.34 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$...
3
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8436
$\text{The equilibrium constant for the following reaction is } 1.6 \times 10^5 \text{ at } 1024\text{K}$ $\text{H}_2\text{(g)} + \text{Br}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{HBr}\text{(g)}$ $\text{If HBr at pressure 10.0 bar is introduced into a sealed container at 1024 K, the equilibrium pressure of HBr will be:}$
2
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$11.20 \text{ bar}$, $5.56 \text{ bar}$...
4
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8435
$\text{Given the reaction:}$ $\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}_{(l)} + \text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH}_{(l)} \rightleftharpoons \text{CH}_3\text{COOC}_2\text{H}_5_{(l)} + \text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)}$ $\text{At 293 K, if one starts with 1.00 mol of acetic acid and 0.18 mol of ethanol, there is 0.171 mol of ethyl acetate in the final equilibrium mixture. The equilibrium constant of the reaction will be:}$
2
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$0.78$, $1.3$...
4
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8434
$\text{Given the reaction:}$ $2\text{BrCl}_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{Br}_2\text{(g)} + \text{Cl}_2\text{(g)}; K_c = 32 \text{ at } 500 \text{ K. If the initial concentration of BrCl is } 3.3 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1}\text{, the molar concentration of BrCl in the mixture at equilibrium would be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$3.0 \times 10^{-2} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$, $2.0 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$...
4
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8433
\text{At a certain temperature and pressure of } 10^5 \text{ Pa, iodine vapour contains 40% by volume of I atoms. The } K_p \text{ for the equilibrium of the reaction would be:}
\text{I}_2\text{(g)} \leftrightarrow 2\text{I}\text{(g)}
2
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Recommended Questions
$2.67 \times 10^4 \text{ Pa}$, $1.00 \times 10^5 \text{ Pa}$...
1
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8432
\text{For the reaction:}
\text{NO(g) + (1/2)O₂(g) ⇌ NO₂(g)}
\text{Given:}
\text{ΔfG°(NO₂) = 52.0 kJ/mol}
\text{ΔfG°(NO) = 87.0 kJ/mol}
\text{ΔfG°(O₂) = 0 kJ/mol}
\text{The equilibrium constant for the formation of NO₂ from NO and O₂ at 298K would be:}
2
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Recommended Questions
$2.36 \times 10^4$, $3.10 \times 10^{-7}$...
3
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8431
\text{Given the reaction: } 2\text{N}_2\text{(g)} + \text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{N}_2\text{O(g)}
\text{If a mixture of } 0.482 \text{ mol N}_2 \text{ and } 0.933 \text{ mol of O}_2 \text{ is placed in a } 10 \text{ L vessel and allowed to form N}_2\text{O (K}_c = 2.0 \times 10^{-37} \text{ L mol}^{-1}\text{), the concentration of N}_2\text{O at equilibrium will be:}
2
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Recommended Questions
$6.6 \times 10^{-21} \text{M}$, $0.6 \times 10^{-21} \text{M}$...
$6.6 \times 10^{-21} \text{M}$
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8430
$\text{Pure liquids and solids are ignored while writing the expression for the equilibrium constant because:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Size and shape of a pure substance are always fixed.}$, $\text{Volume of solids and liquids is relatively fixed.}$...
2
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8429
\text{When the initial concentration of ICl is 0.78 M, the equilibrium concentration of ICl will be:}
2\text{ICl}_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{I}_{2(g)} + \text{Cl}_{2(g)}; \quad K_c = 0.14
2
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Recommended Questions
$0.446 \text{ M}$, $0.876 \text{ M}$...
1
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8428
$\text{For the reaction: FeO}_{(s)} + \text{CO}_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{Fe}_{(s)} + \text{CO}_2\text{(g)}, K_p = 0.265 \text{ at } 1050 \text{ K. If the initial partial pressures are } p_{\text{CO}} = 1.4 \text{ atm and } p_{\text{CO}_2} = 0.80 \text{ atm, the partial pressure of CO}_2 \text{ at equilibrium at } 1050 \text{ K would be:}$
2
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$4.61 \text{ atm}$, $1.74 \text{ atm}$...
3
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8427
\text{A mixture of } 1.57 \text{ mol of } \text{N}_2\text{, } 1.92 \text{ mol of } \text{H}_2\text{, and } 8.13 \text{ mol of } \text{NH}_3 \text{ is introduced into a } 20 \text{ L vessel at } 500 \text{ K.}
\text{At this temperature, the equilibrium constant, } K_c \text{ for the reaction}
\text{N}_{2(g)} + 3\text{H}_{2(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NH}_{3(g)}
\text{is } 1.7 \times 10^2\text{.}
\text{The direction of the net reaction is:}
2
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$\text{Reaction is at equilibrium.}$, $\text{Reaction will proceed in forwarding direction.}$...
3
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8426
$\text{Assertion (A): The reaction for which } \Delta n = 0 \text{ there is no effect of pressure on equilibrium.}$ $\text{Reason (R): A change in pressure results in no change in the value of the equilibrium constant.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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8425
\text{For the reaction: } \text{H}_2\text{(g)} + \text{I}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{HI}\text{(g)} ; K_c = 54.8 \text{ at } 700\text{K}.
\text{If } 0.5 \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ of HI}\text{(g)} \text{ is present at equilibrium at } 700 \text{K, the concentration of } \text{H}_2\text{(g)} \text{ and } \text{I}_2\text{(g)} \text{ would be:}
2
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Recommended Questions
$[\text{H}_2] = [\text{I}_2] = 0.05 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$, $[\text{H}_2] = 0.5 \text{ mol L}^{-1}, [\text{I}_2] = 0.05 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$...
4
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8424
\text{The equilibrium pressure of C}_2\text{H}_6\text{ when it is placed in a flask at 4.0 atm pressure at 899 K would be:}
\text{C}_2\text{H}_6\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{C}_2\text{H}_4\text{(g)} + \text{H}_2\text{(g)}
K_p = 0.04 \text{ atm at } 899 \text{ K}
2
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$4.12 \text{ atm}$, $3.62 \text{ atm}$...
2
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8423
$\text{Assertion (A): A catalyst does not influence the values of the equilibrium constant.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The catalyst affects the rate of both forward and reverse reactions equally.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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8422
\text{The dissociation of solid NH}_4\text{SH in a closed container produces a pressure of 4 atm at 95}^\circ\text{C, then } K_p \text{ for the reaction will be:}
\text{NH}_4\text{SH}_{(\text{s})} \rightleftharpoons \text{NH}_3\text{(g)} + \text{H}_2\text{S}_{(\text{g})}
2
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$4$, $8$...
1
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8421
\text{(a) } \mathrm{Cl_2(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\mathrm{Cl(g)} ; K_c = 5.0 \times 10^{-39} \text{ mol/L}
\text{(b) } \mathrm{Cl_2(g)} + 2\mathrm{NO(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\mathrm{NOCl(g)} ; K_c = 3.7 \times 10^8 \text{ mol/L}
\text{(c) } \mathrm{Cl_2(g)} + 2\mathrm{NO_2(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\mathrm{NO_2Cl(g)} ; K_c = 1.8 \text{ mol/L}
\text{In which of the reactions given above, will there be an appreciable concentration of both reactant(s) and product(s)?}
2
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$\text{Only reaction (a)}$, $\text{Both reactions (a) and (b)}$...
3
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8420
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A): In the dissociation of PCl}_5 \text{ at constant pressure and temperature, the addition of helium at equilibrium increases the dissociation of PCl}_5.$ $\text{Reason (R): Helium reacts with Cl}_2.$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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8419
$\text{At } 450 \text{ K, } K_p = 2.0 \times 10^{10} \text{ bar}^{-1} \text{ for the given reaction at equilibrium}$ $2\text{SO}_2\text{(g)} + \text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{SO}_3\text{(g)}$ $\text{The value of } K_c \text{ at this temperature would be:}$
2
207
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$7.48 \times 10^{12} \text{ M}^{-1}$, $6.56 \times 10^{11} \text{ M}^{-1}$...
3
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8418
$\text{For the equilibrium of the reaction, } \text{HgO}_{\text{(s)}} \rightleftharpoons \text{Hg}_{\text{(g)}} + \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_2\text{(g)}, K_p \text{ for the reaction at a total pressure of }\text{\"P\"} \text{ will be:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$K_P = \frac{2}{3^{3/2}} \text{P}^{3/2}$, $K_P = \frac{2}{3^{1/2}} \text{P}^{1/2}$...
1
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8417
$\text{For the reaction, } 3\text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{O}_3\text{(g)}, K_c = 2.0 \times 10^{-50} \text{ L/mol at } 25°\text{C. If the equilibrium concentration of O}_2 \text{ in air at } 25°\text{C is } 1.6 \times 10^{-2}, \text{ the concentration of O}_3 \text{ would be:}$
2
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$2.86 \times 10^{28} \text{ M}$, $28.66 \times 10^{-28} \text{ M}$...
4
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8416
\text{Match the standard free energy of the reaction with the corresponding equilibrium constant.}
\text{A. } \Delta G^{\circ} > 0 \text{ 1. } K > 1
\text{B. } \Delta G^{\circ} < 0 \text{ 2. } K = 1
\text{C. } \Delta G^{\circ} = 0 \text{ 3. } K = 0
\text{ 4. } K < 1
\text{Codes:}
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$\text{A-4, B-1, C-2}$, $\text{A-1, B-2, C-3}$...
1
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8415
\text{Consider the following reaction: CO(g) + 3H}_2\text{(g) } \leftrightarrow \text{ CH}_4\text{(g) + H}_2\text{O(g). If the reaction mixture contains 0.30 mol of CO, 0.10 mol of H}_2\text{, and 0.02 mol of H}_2\text{O, and an unknown amount of CH}_4\text{ at equilibrium at 1300 K in a 1L flask, the concentration of CH}_4\text{ in the mixture will be (Kc = 3.90 at 1300 K)}
2
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$5.85 \times 10^2 \text{ M}$, $5.85 \times 10^{-1} \text{ M}$...
4
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8414
\text{One mole of H}_2\text{O and one mole of CO are taken in a 10 L vessel and heated to 725 K.}
\text{At equilibrium, 40\% of water (by mass) reacts with CO according to the equation:}
\text{H}_2\text{O(g) + CO(g) } \rightleftharpoons \text{ H}_2\text{(g) + CO}_2\text{(g)}
\text{The equilibrium constant for the above-mentioned reaction would be:}
2
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$0.66$, $0.35$...
3
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8413
\text{Assertion: The equilibrium constant of a reaction changes by changing the stoichiometric coefficients of the reaction.}
\text{Reason: The reaction, } 2\text{NO}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons \text{N}_2\text{O}_4(g) \text{ and } \text{NO}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons \frac{1}{2}\text{N}_2\text{O}_4(g) \text{ have the same equilibrium constant.}
2
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$\text{Both assertion & reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.}$, $\text{Both assertion & reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.}$...
3
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8412
$\text{A sample of pure PCl}_5 \text{ was introduced into an evacuated vessel at 473 K. After equilibrium was attained, a concentration of PCl}_5 \text{ was found to be } 0.5 \times 10^{-1} \text{ mol L}^{-1}. \text{ If the value of } K_c \text{ is } 8.3 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1}, \text{ the concentrations of PCl}_3 \text{ and Cl}_2 \text{ at equilibrium would be:}$
$\text{PCl}_5\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{PCl}_3\text{(g)} + \text{Cl}_2\text{(g)}$
2
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$[\text{PCl}_3] = 0.02 \text{ mol L}^{-1}, [\text{Cl}_2] = 0.04 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$, $[\text{PCl}_3] = [\text{Cl}_2] = 0.02 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$...
2
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8411
$\text{Assertion (A): For a reaction, the concentration quotient (Q) is equal to K when the reaction is in equilibrium.}$ $\text{Reason (R): If a catalyst is added to the reaction at equilibrium, the value of Q remains unchanged and is no longer equal to K.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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8410
$\text{For the given reaction:}$ $\text{PCl}_5\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{PCl}_3\text{(g)} + \text{Cl}_2\text{(g)}, \Delta_r H° = 124.0 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ and } K_c = 8.3 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$ $\text{at 473 K}$ $\text{The effect on } K_c \text{ if (i) pressure is increased and (ii) the temperature is increased will be, respectively-}$
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$\text{(i) Will increase; (ii) will decrease}$, $\text{(i) Will decrease; (ii) will remain the same}$...
3
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8409
$\text{For the reaction,}$ $\text{N}_2\text{(g)} + 3\text{H}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NH}_3\text{(g)};$ $K_c = 0.061 \text{ mol}^{-2}\text{L}^2 \text{ at 500K. At a particular instant of time, [N}_2\text{] = 3.0 mol L}^{-1}\text{, [H}_2\text{] = 2.0 mol L}^{-1}\text{ and}$ $\text{[NH}_3\text{] = 0.5 mol L}^{-1}\text{.}$ $\text{True statement among the following is:}$
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$\text{Reaction is at equilibrium.}$, $\text{Reaction will proceed in the forward direction.}$...
2
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8408
$\text{Hint: At equilibrium } K_c = Q_c.$ $\text{At equilibrium, the value of } K_c \text{ and } Q_c \text{ is the same. When } K_c > Q_c, \text{ the reaction mainly goes in the forward direction and when } K_c < Q_c, \text{ the reaction mainly goes in the backward direction.}$
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Both assertion & reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion., Both assertion & reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion....
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8407
\text{The value of the equilibrium constant for a particular reaction is } 1.6 \times 10^{12}. \text{ When the system is in equilibrium, it will include:}
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$\text{All reactants}$, $\text{Mostly reactants}$...
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8406
\text{For the following reaction:}
2\text{SO}_2\text{(g)} + \text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{SO}_3\text{(g)}
\text{The value of } K_c \text{ at equilibrium with a concentration of } [\text{SO}_2] = 0.60\text{M}, [\text{O}_2] = 0.82\text{M} \text{ and } [\text{SO}_3] = 1.90\text{M}
\text{would be:}
2
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$8.5$, $9.4$...
3
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8405
\text{For the reaction, } 2\text{NOCl(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NO(g)} + \text{Cl}_2\text{(g)}; K_p = 1.8 \times 10^{-2} \text{ atm at } 500 \text{ K.}
\text{The value of } K_c \text{ for above mentioned reaction would be:}
2
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$4.33 \times 10^{-4} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$, $4.33 \times 10^{4} \text{ mol L}^{-1}$...
1
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8404
\text{Given the reaction: } 2\text{HI(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{H}_2\text{(g)} + \text{I}_2\text{(g)}
\text{A sample of HI(g) is placed in a flask at a pressure of 0.2 atm.}
\text{At equilibrium, the partial pressure of HI(g) is 0.04 atm.}
\text{The } K_P \text{ for the given equilibrium would be:}
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$2.0$, $3.5$...
3
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8403
\text{Assertion (A): For any chemical reaction at a particular temperature, the equilibrium constant is fixed and is a characteristic property.}
\text{Reason (R): Equilibrium constant is independent of temperature.}
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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8402
$\text{For the reaction } \text{H}_2\text{(g)} + \text{I}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{HI}\text{(g)}, \text{ the standard free energy is}$ $\Delta G^\Theta > 0. \text{ The equilibrium constant (}K_c\text{) would be :}$
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$K_c = 0$, $K_c > 1$...
4
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8401
$\text{Some reactions are written below in Column I and their equilibrium constants in terms of } K_c \text{ are written in Column II.}$ $\text{Match the following reactions with the corresponding equilibrium constant.}$ $\begin{array}{ll} \text{Column I (Reaction)} & \text{Column II (Equilibrium constant)} \\ \text{A. } 2\text{N}_2\text{(g)} + 6\text{H}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 4\text{NH}_3\text{(g)} & \text{1. } 2K_c \\ \text{B. } 2\text{NH}_3\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{N}_2\text{(g)} + 3\text{H}_2\text{(g)} & \text{2. } K_c^{1/2} \\ \text{C. } \frac{1}{2}\text{N}_2\text{(g)} + \frac{3}{2}\text{H}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{NH}_3\text{(g)} & \text{3. } \frac{1}{K_c} \\ & \text{4. } K_c^2 \end{array}$
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$\text{A-4, B-3, C-2}$, $\text{A-1, B-2, C-3}$...
1
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8400
\text{PCl}_5\text{, PCl}_3\text{, and Cl}_2\text{ are at equilibrium at 500 K in a closed container and their concentrations are }0.8 \times 10^{-3}\text{ mol L}^{-1}\text{, }1.2 \times 10^{-3}\text{ mol L}^{-1}\text{ and }1.2 \times 10^{-3}\text{ mol L}^{-1}\text{, respectively.}
\text{The value of }K_c\text{ for the reaction }\text{PCl}_5(g) \rightleftharpoons \text{PCl}_3(g) + \text{Cl}_2(g)\text{ will be:}
2
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$1.8 \times 10^3 \text{ mol L}^{-1}$, $1.8 \times 10^3$...
3
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8399
$\text{For the reaction } 2\text{NOCl}_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NO}_{(g)} + \text{Cl}_2\text{(g)}, K_C \text{ at } 427°\text{C is } 3 \times 10^{-6} \text{ mol L}^{-1}\text{. The value of } K_P \text{ will be:}$
2
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$1.72 \times 10^{-4}$, $7.50 \times 10^5$...
$1.72 \times 10^{-4}$
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8398
\text{The value of } \Delta n \text{ for the following reaction will be:}
\text{NH}_4\text{Cl}_{(\text{s})} \rightleftharpoons \text{NH}_3_{(\text{g})} + \text{HCl}_{(\text{g})}
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$1$, $0.5$...
$2$
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8397
\text{For the following equilibrium, } K_c = 6.3 \times 10^{14} \text{ at 1000 K}
\text{NO(g) + O}_3\text{(g) } \to \text{ NO}_2\text{(g) + O}_2\text{(g)}
\text{The value of } K_c \text{ for the reverse reaction is:}
2
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$2.33 \times 10^{-16}$, $1.59 \times 10^{-15}$...
$1.59 \times 10^{-15}$
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8396
$\text{The value of the equilibrium constant of the reaction}$
$\text{HI(g)} \rightleftharpoons \frac{1}{2}\text{H}_2\text{(g)} + \frac{1}{2}\text{I}_2 \text{ is 8.0.}$
$\text{The equilibrium constant of the reaction}$
$\text{H}_2\text{(g)} + \text{I}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{2HI(g) will be-}$
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$\frac{1}{16}$, $\frac{1}{64}$...
2
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8395
$\text{For the reaction } \text{N}_2\text{(g)} + \text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NO}\text{(g)} \text{ the equilibrium constant is } K_1.$
$\text{The equilibrium constant is } K_2 \text{ for the reaction } 2\text{NO}\text{(g)} + \text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NO}_2\text{(g)}$
$\text{The value of K for the reaction given below will be:}$
$\text{NO}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \frac{1}{2}\text{N}_2\text{(g)} + \text{O}_2\text{(g)}$
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$\frac{1}{4}(4)K_1K_2$, $\left[\frac{1}{K_1K_2}\right]^{1/2}$...
2
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8394
$\text{The equilibrium reaction that doesn't have equal values for K}_C \text{ and K}_P \text{ is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{2NO(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{N}_2\text{(g)} + \text{O}_2\text{(g)}$, $\text{SO}_2\text{(g)} + \text{NO}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{SO}_3\text{(g)} + \text{NO(g)}$...
4
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8393
$K_c = \frac{[\text{NH}_3]^4[\text{O}_2]^5}{[\text{NO}]^4[\text{H}_2\text{O}]^6}$
$\text{The balanced chemical equation corresponding to the above-mentioned expression is:}$
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$4\text{NO}_{(g)} + 6\text{H}_2\text{O}_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 4\text{NH}_3\text{(g)} + 5\text{O}_2\text{(g)}$, $4\text{NH}_3\text{(g)} + 5\text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 4\text{NO}_{(g)} + 6\text{H}_2\text{O}_{(g)}$...
1
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8392
$\text{The ratio of }\frac{K_P}{K_C}\text{ for the reaction}$
$\text{CO(g)} + \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{CO}_2\text{(g) is:}$
2
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$(\text{RT})^{1/2}$, $(\text{RT})^{-1/2}$...
2
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8391
$\text{When hydrochloric acid is added to cobalt nitrate solution at room temperature, the following reaction takes place and the reaction mixture becomes blue. On cooling the mixture it becomes pink}$
$[\text{Co}(\text{H}_2\text{O})_6]^{3+}\text{(aq)} + 4\text{Cl}^-\text{(aq)} \rightleftharpoons [\text{CoCl}_4]^{2-}\text{(aq)} + 6\text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}$
$\text{(Pink)} \qquad\qquad\qquad\qquad\qquad\qquad \text{(Blue)}$
$\text{On the basis of the information given above, mark the correct answer:}$
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$\Delta H > 0 \text{ for the reaction}$, $\Delta H < 0 \text{ for the reaction}$...
1
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8390
$\text{On increasing the pressure, the direction in which the gas phase reaction proceeds to re-establish equilibrium is predicted by applying Le-Chatelier's principle. Consider the reaction,}$
$\text{N}_2\text{(g)} + \text{3H}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{2NH}_3\text{(g)}$
$\text{Which of the following is correct, if the total pressure at which the equilibrium is established is increased without changing the temperature?}$
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$\text{K will remain the same.}$, $\text{K will decrease.}$...
1
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8389
$\text{According to Le-Chatelier's principle, adding heat to a solid} \rightleftharpoons \text{liquid equilibrium will cause the:}$
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$\text{Temperature to increase}$, $\text{Temperature to decrease}$...
4
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8388
$\text{Inert gas is added to the equilibrium PCl}_5\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{PCl}_3\text{(g) + Cl}_2\text{(g) at constant pressure. The degree of dissociation will:}$
2
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$\text{Remain unchanged}$, $\text{Decrease}$...
3
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8387
$\text{For the reaction,}$
$\text{PCl}_5\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{PCl}_3\text{(g)} + \text{Cl}_2\text{(g)}$
$\text{The forward reaction at constant temperature is favoured by:}$
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$\text{Introducing an inert gas at a constant volume}$, $\text{Introducing chlorine gas at a constant volume}$...
3
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8386
$\text{(a) PCl}_5\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{PCl}_3\text{(g)} + \text{Cl}_2\text{(g)}$
$\text{(b) CaO}_{\text{(s)}} + \text{CO}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{CaCO}_3\text{(s)}$
$\text{(c) 3Fe}_{\text{(s)}} + 4\text{H}_2\text{O}_{\text{(g)}} \rightleftharpoons \text{Fe}_3\text{O}_4\text{(s)} + 4\text{H}_2\text{(g)}$
$\text{The effect of an increase in the volume on the number of moles of products in the above-mentioned reactions would be, respectively:}$
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$\text{a) Increase, b) decrease, c) same}$, $\text{a) Decrease, b) same, c) increase}$...
1
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8385
$\text{Consider the following reactions:}$
$\text{(i) COCl}_2 \text{ (g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{CO (g) + Cl}_2 \text{ (g)}$
$\text{(ii) CO}_2 \text{ (g) + C (s)} \rightleftharpoons \text{2CO (g)}$
$\text{(iii) 2H}_2 \text{ (g) + CO (g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{CH}_3\text{OH (g)}$
$\text{Which reaction(s) will shift in a backward direction when the pressure is increased?}$
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$\text{Only (iii)}$, $\text{Only (ii)}$...
3
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8384
$\text{The addition of a small amount of argon at a constant volume will not affect the equilibrium of the following reaction:}$
2
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$\text{H}_2\text{(g)}+\text{I}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{2HI(g)}$, $\text{PCl}_5\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{PCl}_3\text{(g)}+\text{Cl}_2\text{(g)}$...
4
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8383
$\text{Mark the conditions that favour the maximum product formation in the given reaction.}$
$\text{A}_2\text{(g)} + \text{B}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{X}_2\text{(g)}, \Delta_r H = -X \text{ kJ}$
2
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$\text{Low temperature and High pressure}$, $\text{Low temperature and Low pressure}$...
1
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8382
$\text{Given a hypothetical reaction :}$
$\text{AB}_2\text{(g)}+\frac{1}{2}\text{B}_2\text{(g)}\rightleftharpoons \text{AB}_3\text{(g)}; \Delta\text{H} = -\text{x kJ}$
$\text{More AB}_3 \text{ could be produced at equilibrium by :}$
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$\text{Using a catalyst}$, $\text{Removing some of B}_2 \text{ gas}$...
4
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8381
$\text{Given an endothermic reaction:}$
$\text{CH}_4\text{(g)} + \text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{CO}\text{(g)} + 3\text{H}_2\text{(g)}$
$\text{If the temperature is increased, then:}$
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$\text{The equilibrium will not be disturbed.}$, $\text{The equilibrium will shift in the backward direction.}$...
3
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8380
$\text{For the following reaction,}$
$\text{H}_2\text{(g)}+\text{I}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{2HI(g)} \text{ at } 250^{\circ} \text{C,}$
$\text{The effect on the state of equilibrium on doubling the volume of the system will be:}$
2
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$\text{Shift to the reactant side}$, $\text{Shift to the product side}$...
3
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8379
$\text{The volume of the container containing a liquid and its vapours at a constant temperature is suddenly increased. What would be the effect of the change on vapour pressure?}$
2
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$\text{It would decrease initially.}$, $\text{It would increase initially.}$...
1
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8378
$\text{An incorrect statement about equilibrium among the following is:}$
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$\text{In equilibrium mixture of ice and water kept in perfectly insulated flask, the mass of ice and water does not change with time.}$, $\text{The intensity of the red colour increases when oxalic acid is added to a solution containing iron (III) nitrate and potassium thiocyanate.}$...
2
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8377
$\text{HI was heated in a sealed tube at 440}^{\circ} \text{C till the equilibrium was reached. At this point, HI was found to be 22 \% decomposed. The equilibrium constant for this dissociation is:}$
2
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$0.28$, $0.08$...
3
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8376
$\text{Which of the following is an example of a reversible reaction?}$
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$\text{KNO}_3\text{(aq)} + \text{NaCl}\text{(aq)} \rightleftharpoons \text{KCl}\text{(aq)} + \text{NaNO}_3\text{(aq)}$, $2\text{Na}\text{(s)} + \text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NaOH}\text{(aq)} + \text{H}_2\text{(g)}$...
1
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8375
$\text{In the reaction A(g) + 2B(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{2C(g) + D(g), the initial concentration of B is twice that of A and, at equilibrium, the concentrations of A and D are equal. The value of the equilibrium constant will be:}$
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$4$, $16$...
4
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8374
\text{For a reaction, } 2\text{NO}_{(g)} + \text{Br}_{2(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NOBr}_{(g)}
\text{When 0.087 mol of NO and 0.0437 mol of Br}_2 \text{ are mixed in a closed container at a constant temperature, 0.0518 mol of NOBr is obtained at equilibrium. The concentration of NO and Br}_2 \text{ at equilibrium will be:}
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Recommended Questions
$\text{NO} = 0.0352 \text{ mol}; \text{Br}_2 = 0.0178 \text{ mol}$, $\text{NO} = 0.352 \text{ mol}; \text{Br}_2 = 0.178 \text{ mol}$...
1
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8373
$\text{An incorrect statement about equilibrium among the following is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a constant temperature.}$, $\text{All measurable properties of the system remain constant.}$...
3
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8372
$\text{Reaction quotient for the reaction, } \text{N}_2\text{(g)} + 3\text{H}_2\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NH}_3\text{(g)} \text{ is given by}$
$Q = \frac{[\text{NH}_3]^2}{[\text{N}_2][\text{H}_2]^3}. \text{The reaction will proceed from right to left if } K_c \text{ value is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$Q < K_c$, $Q = 0$...
3
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8371
$\text{If the molar concentration of SnCl}_4 \text{ is } 1.5 \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1}\text{, the concentration of chloride ions will be:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$3.0 \times 10^{-3}$, $6.0 \times 10^{-3}$...
2
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8370
K_{a1}, K_{a2} \text{ and } K_{a3} \text{ are the respective ionisation constants for the following reactions:}
\text{H}_2\text{S} \rightleftharpoons \text{H}^+ + \text{HS}^-
\text{HS}^- \rightleftharpoons \text{H}^+ + \text{S}^{2-}
\text{H}_2\text{S} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{H}^+ + \text{S}^{2-}
\text{The correct relationship between } K_{a1}, K_{a2} \text{ and } K_{a3} \text{ is:}
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{K}_{a_3} = \text{K}_{a_1} \times \text{K}_{a_2}$, $\text{K}_{a_3} = \text{K}_{a_1} + \text{K}_{a_2}$...
1
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8369
$\text{I}_2\text{(s)} + 5\text{F}_2\text{(g)} \rightarrow 2\text{IF}_5\text{(g)}$
$\text{The equilibrium constant } K_C \text{ expression for the above mentioned reaction is:}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$K_C = \frac{[\text{IF}_5]^2}{[\text{F}_2]^5}$, $K_C = \frac{[\text{IF}_5]^2}{[\text{F}_2]^5 [\text{I}_2]}$...
1
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8368
$\text{In the reaction, } \text{N}_2\text{O}_4\text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{NO}_2\text{(g)}, \alpha \text{ is that part of } \text{N}_2\text{O}_4 \text{ which dissociates.}$
$\text{The number of moles at equilibrium will be:}$
2
207
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$(1 - \alpha)^2$, $3\alpha$...
4
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8367
$\text{Match the following equilibria with the corresponding condition.}$
$\text{A. Liquid} \rightleftharpoons \text{Vapour}$
$\text{B. Solid} \rightleftharpoons \text{Liquid}$
$\text{C. Solid} \rightleftharpoons \text{Vapour}$
$\text{D. Solute (s)} \rightleftharpoons \text{Solute (solution)}$
$\text{1. Saturated solution}$
$\text{2. Boiling point}$
$\text{3. Sublimation point}$
$\text{4. Melting point}$
$\text{5. Unsaturated solution}$
2
207
Recommended Questions
$\text{A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1}$, $\text{A-1, B-2, C-3, D-5}$...
1
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8366
$\text{Equilibrium is represented by:}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\Delta H = 0$, $\Delta G_{\text{Total}} = 0$...
3
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8365
$\text{For the reaction } 2\text{A}_{\text{(g)}} + \text{B}_{\text{(g)}} \rightarrow 2\text{D}_{\text{(g)}}; \Delta U^o = -10.5 \text{ kJ and } \Delta S^o = -44.1 \text{ J K}^{-1}\text{, the value of } \Delta G^o \text{ for the given reaction would be-}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$1.6 \text{ J}$, $-0.16 \text{ kJ}$...
3
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8364
\text{Calculate } \Delta_r H° \text{ (in kJ/mol) for Cr}_2\text{O}_3 \text{ from the } \Delta_r G° \text{ and the } S° \text{ values provided at 27°C}
4\text{Cr(s)} + 3\text{O}_2\text{(g)} → 2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_3\text{(s)}
\Delta_r G° = -2093.4 \text{ kJ/mol}
\text{S° (J/K·mol): Cr(s) = 24}
\text{O}_2\text{(g) = 205; Cr}_2\text{O}_3\text{(s) = 81}
2
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Recommended Questions
$-2258.1 \text{ kJ/mol}$, $-1129.05 \text{ kJ/mol}$...
2
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8363
$\text{In the reaction, } \Delta H \text{ and } \Delta S \text{ both are positive. The condition under which the reaction would not be spontaneous is -}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\Delta H > T\Delta S$, $\Delta S = \Delta H/T$...
4
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8362
$\text{The standard free energies of formation (in kJ/mol) at 298 K are -237.2, -394.4, and -8.2 for H}_2\text{O}_{\text{(l)}}\text{, CO}_{2\text{(g)}}\text{, and pentane (g), respectively. The value of E}_{\text{cell}} \text{ for the pentane-oxygen fuel cell is:}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$1.968 \text{ V}$, $2.0968 \text{ V}$...
3
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8361
$\text{The free energy change } (\Delta G^o) \text{ is negative when -}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\text{The surroundings do no electrical work on the system.}$, $\text{The surroundings do electrical work on the system.}$...
3
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8360
\text{Given the Gibbs free energy change, } \Delta G^{\circ} = +63.3 \text{ kJ, for the following reaction,}
\text{Ag}_2\text{CO}_3\text{(s)} \rightarrow 2\text{Ag}^+\text{(aq)} + \text{CO}_3^{2-}\text{(aq)}
K_{\text{sp}} \text{ of Ag}_2\text{CO}_3\text{(s)} \text{ in water at } 25°\text{C is:}
(R = 8.314 \text{ J K}^{-1} \text{mol}^{-1})
2
206
Recommended Questions
$3.2 \times 10^{26}$, $8.0 \times 10^{-12}$...
2
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8359
$\text{The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 10. The value of } \Delta G^o \text{ will be:}$\n\n$(R = 8.314 \text{ J K}^{-1} \text{mol}^{-1}; T = 300 \text{ K})$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$-5.74 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $-5.74 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$...
1
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8358
$\text{For a given reaction, } \Delta H = 35.5 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ and } \Delta S = 83.6 \text{ J K}^{-1} \text{mol}^{-1}\text{. The reaction is spontaneous at:}$\n\n$\text{(Assume that } \Delta H \text{ and } \Delta S \text{ do not vary with temperature)}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$T < 425 \text{ K}$, $T > 425 \text{ K}$...
2
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8357
$\text{Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction}$\n\n$\text{Sucrose} + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightleftharpoons \text{Glucose} + \text{Fructose}$\n\n$\text{If the equilibrium constant (K}_c\text{) is } 2 \times 10^{13} \text{ at 300 K, the value of } \Delta_r G^o \text{ at the same temperature will be:}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$8.314 \text{ J mol}^{-1} \text{K}^{-1} \times 300 \text{ K} \times \ln(2 \times 10^{13})$, $8.314 \text{ J mol}^{-1} \text{K}^{-1} \times 300 \text{ K} \times \ln(3 \times 10^{13})$...
4
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8356
$\text{The correct statement for a reversible process in a state of equilibrium is:}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\Delta G = -2.30RT \log K$, $\Delta G = 2.30RT \log K$...
3
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8355
$\text{The free energy change due to a reaction is zero when-}$
2
206
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$\text{The reactants are initially mixed}$, $\text{A catalyst is added}$...
3
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8354
$\text{The values of } \Delta H \text{ and } \Delta S \text{ for the given reaction are 170 kJ and 170 J K}^{-1}\text{, respectively.}$\n\n$\text{C}_{\text{(graphite)}} + \text{CO}_{2\text{(g)}} \rightarrow 2\text{CO}_{\text{(g)}}$\n\n$\text{This reaction will be spontaneous at:}$
2
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$710 \text{ K}$, $910 \text{ K}$...
3
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8353
$\text{The entropy change in the surroundings when 1.00 mol of H}_2\text{O}_{(l)} \text{ is formed under standard conditions is:}$
$\Delta_f H^\theta = -286 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$952.5 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$, $979.7 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$...
4
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8352
$\text{An enthalpy diagram for a particular reaction is given below:}$
$\text{[Enthalpy diagram showing reactants at energy level H}_r\text{, products at energy level H}_p\text{, with }\Delta_f\text{H indicated as net heat absorbed from surroundings. The diagram shows H}_p > \text{H}_r\text{]}$
$\text{The correct statement among the following is-}$
$\text{1. Reaction is spontaneous}$
$\text{2. Reaction is non-spontaneous}$
$\text{3. Cannot predict spontaneity of the reaction from the graph given above}$
$\text{4. None of the above}$
2
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$\text{Reaction is spontaneous}$, $\text{Reaction is non-spontaneous}$...
3
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8351
$\text{For the reaction A + B}$ $\rightarrow$ $\text{C + D + q (kJ/mol), entropy change is positive. The reaction will be}$
$\text{1. Possible only at high temperature}$
$\text{2. Possible only at low temperature}$
$\text{3. Not possible at any temperature}$
$\text{4. Possible at any temperature}$
2
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$\text{Possible only at high temperature}$, $\text{Possible only at low temperature}$...
4
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8350
$\text{Entropy decreases in which of the following reactions?}$
$\text{1. Boiling of egg}$
$\text{2. Combustion of benzene at 127}^{\circ}\text{C}$
$\text{3. Stretching of rubber band}$
$\text{4. Dissolution of sugar in water}$
2
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$\text{Boiling of egg}$, $\text{Combustion of benzene at 127}^{\circ}\text{C}$...
3
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8349
\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}
\textbf{Assertion (A):} \text{Spontaneous process is an irreversible process and may be reversed by some external agency.}
\textbf{Reason (R):} \text{A decrease in enthalpy is a contributing factor to spontaneity.}
\text{1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}
\text{2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}
\text{3. (A) is True but (R) is False.}
\text{4. (A) is False but (R) is True.}
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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8348
\text{For } A \rightarrow B, \Delta H = 4 \text{ kcal mol}^{-1}, \Delta S = 10 \text{ cal mol}^{-1} \text{ K}^{-1}, \text{ the reaction is spontaneous when the temperature is:}
\text{1. 400 K}
\text{2. 300 K}
\text{3. 500 K}
\text{4. None of the above}
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{400 K}$, $\text{300 K}$...
3
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8347
\text{The entropy change can be calculated by using the expression } \Delta S = \frac{q_{rev}}{T}
\text{When water freezes in a glass beaker, the correct statement among the following is:}
\text{1. } \Delta S \text{ (system) decreases but } \Delta S \text{ (surroundings) remains the same.}
\text{2. } \Delta S \text{ (system) increases but } \Delta S \text{ (surroundings) decreases.}
\text{3. } \Delta S \text{ (system) decreases but } \Delta S \text{ (surroundings) increases.}
\text{4. } \Delta S \text{ (system) decreases but } \Delta S \text{ (surroundings) also decreases.}
2
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Recommended Questions
$\Delta \text{ S (system) decreases but } \Delta \text{ S (surroundings) remains the same.}$, $\Delta \text{ S (system) increases but } \Delta \text{ S (surroundings) decreases.}$...
3
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8346
$\text{The entropy change in the conversion of one mole of liquid water at 373 K to vapour at the same temperature would be: (Latent heat of vaporization of water,}$ $\Delta H_{vap} = 2.257 \text{ kJ/g)}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$105.9 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$, $107.9 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$...
3
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8345
$\text{For the reaction, 2Cl(g)} \rightarrow \text{Cl}_2\text{(g), the correct option is:}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\Delta_r\text{H} > 0 \text{ and } \Delta_r \text{S} < 0$, $\Delta_r\text{H} < 0 \text{ and } \Delta_r \text{S} > 0$...
3
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8344
$\text{For the conversion }\text{C}_{(\text{graphite})} \rightarrow \text{C}_{(\text{diamond})}\text{ the }\Delta S\text{ is:}$
2
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$\text{Zero}$, $\text{Positive}$...
3
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8343
\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}
\text{Assertion (A): Dissolution of sugar in water proceeds via an increase in entropy.}
\text{Reason (R): Entropy decreases, when an egg is boiled hard.}
\text{1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}
\text{2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}
\text{3. (A) is true but (R) is false.}
\text{4. Both (A) and (R) are false.}
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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8342
\text{The molar entropy of the vapourization of acetic acid is } 14.4 \text{ cal K}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1} \text{ at its boiling point } 118°\text{C}.
\text{The latent heat of vapourization of acetic acid is:}
\text{1. } 49 \text{ cal g}^{-1} \quad \text{2. } 64 \text{ cal g}^{-1}
\text{3. } 94 \text{ cal g}^{-1} \quad \text{4. } 84 \text{ cal g}^{-1}
2
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Recommended Questions
$49 \text{ cal g}^{-1}$, $64 \text{ cal g}^{-1}$...
3
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8341
$\text{1 mole of an ideal gas at 25}^{\circ} \text{C is subjected to expand reversibly ten times of its initial volume. The change in entropy of expansion is:}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$19.15 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$, $16.15 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$...
1
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8340
\text{For exothermic reaction to be spontaneous } (\Delta S \text{ = negative}) \text{ temperature must be:}
\begin{array}{cccc}
\text{1. High} & \text{2. Zero} & \text{3. Constant} & \text{4. Low}
\end{array}
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{High}$, $\text{Zero}$...
4
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8339
$\text{The occurrence of a reaction is impossible if:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\Delta\text{H is +ve ; }\Delta\text{S is also + ve but }\Delta\text{H < T}\Delta\text{S}$, $\Delta\text{H is - ve ; }\Delta\text{S is also - ve but }\Delta\text{H > T}\Delta\text{S}$...
4
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8338
$\text{Change in entropy is negative for:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Bromine (l)}\rightarrow\text{Bromine(g)}$, $\text{C(s) + H}_2\text{O(g)} \rightarrow\text{CO(g) + H}_2\text{(g)}$...
4
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8337
$\text{The entropy change in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas from 10 to 100 L at 300 K is}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$42.3 \text{ J K}^{-1}$, $35.8 \text{ J K}^{-1}$...
3
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8336
$\text{H}^+_{(aq)} + \text{OH}^-_{(aq)} \rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)} \quad \text{S}^{\circ}(298 \text{ K})$
$\quad -10.7 \text{ JK}^{-1} \quad\quad +70 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{ mol}^{-1}$
$\text{Standard entropy change for the above reaction is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$60.3 \text{ JK}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1}$, $80.7 \text{ JK}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1}$...
2
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8335
$\text{Which of the following thermodynamic quantities is an outcome of the second law of thermodynamics?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Work}$, $\text{Enthalpy}$...
4
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8334
\text{Match the following parameters with a description for spontaneity.}
\text{A. } \Delta_r H^{\circ} = +, \Delta_r S^{\circ} = -, \Delta_r G^{\circ} = + \text{ → Non-spontaneous at high temperature}
\text{B. } \Delta_r H^{\circ} = -, \Delta_r S^{\circ} = -, \Delta_r G^{\circ} = \text{+ at high T} \text{ → Spontaneous at all temperatures}
\text{C. } \Delta_r H^{\circ} = -, \Delta_r S^{\circ} = +, \Delta_r G^{\circ} = - \text{ → Non-spontaneous at all temperatures}
\text{Codes:}
\text{1. A-3, B-1, C-2}
\text{2. A-1, B-2, C-3}
\text{3. A-1, B-3, C-2}
\text{4. A-3, B-2, C-1}
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{A} \rightarrow 3, \text{B} \rightarrow 1, \text{C} \rightarrow 2$, $\text{A} \rightarrow 1, \text{B} \rightarrow 2, \text{C} \rightarrow 3$...
1
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8333
$\text{For the reaction,}$ $2\text{Cl}(g) \rightarrow \text{Cl}_2(g)$, $\text{the value of}$ $\Delta\text{H}$ $\text{and}$ $\Delta\text{S}$ $\text{are respectively:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\Delta\text{H} = 0$, $\Delta\text{S} = -\text{ve}$, $\Delta\text{H} = 0$, $\Delta\text{S} = 0$...
3
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8332
$\text{Match the following process with entropy change:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline & A & B & C \\ \hline 1. & 2 & 3 & 1 \\ \hline 2. & 1 & 2 & 3 \\ \hline 3. & 1 & 3 & 2 \\ \hline 4. & 3 & 2 & 1 \\ \hline \end{array}$, $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline & A & B & C \\ \hline 1. & 1 & 2 & 3 \\ \hline 2. & 1 & 2 & 3 \\ \hline 3. & 1 & 3 & 2 \\ \hline 4. & 3 & 2 & 1 \\ \hline \end{array}$...
1
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8331
$\text{At a temperature of 300K, what is the entropy change for the reaction given below?}$
$2\text{H}_2 \text{ (g)} + \text{O}_2 \text{ (g)} \rightarrow 2\text{H}_2\text{O(l)}$
$\text{Standard entropies of H}_2 \text{ (g), O}_2\text{(g) and H}_2\text{O(l) are 126.6, 201.20 and 68.0 JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1} \text{ respectively.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$-318.4 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$, $318.4 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$...
1
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8330
$\text{The entropy change in the fusion of one mole of a solid melting at } 27^{\circ} \text{C is:}$
$(\text{the latent heat of fusion is } 2930 \text{ J mol}^{-1})$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$9.77 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$, $19.73 \text{ JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$...
1
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8329
$\text{Entropy decreases during:}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\text{Crystallization of sucrose from solution}$, $\text{Rusting of iron}$...
1
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8328
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$
$\text{Assertion (A): A liquid crystallizes into a solid and is accompanied by a decrease in entropy.}$
$\text{Reason (R): In crystals, molecules organize in an ordered manner.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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8327
$\text{Which of the following is not correct?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\Delta\text{G is zero for a reversible reaction.}$, $\Delta\text{G is positive for a spontaneous reaction.}$...
2
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8326
$\text{The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction:}$
$\text{Br}_2 \text{(l)} + \text{Cl}_2 \text{(g)}\rightarrow 2\text{BrCl (g)}$
$\text{are } 30 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ and } 105 \text{ J K}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1} \text{ respectively.}$
$\text{The temperature at which the reaction will be in equilibrium is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$285.7 \text{ K}$, $273.4 \text{ K}$...
1
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8325
$\text{The unit of entropy is -}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\text{J mol}^{-1}$, $\text{JK mol}^{-1}$...
3
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8324
$\text{The maximum work done in expanding 16g O}_2 \text{ isothermally at 300 K and occupying a volume of}$
$\text{5 dm}^3 \text{ until the volume becomes 25 dm}^3 \text{ is:}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$-2.01 \times 10^3 \text{ J}$, $2.01 \times 10^{-3} \text{ J}$...
1
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8323
$\text{For the reaction}$
$\text{CH}_3\text{COOH (l)} + 2\text{O}_2 \text{(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{CO}_2 \text{(g)} + 2\text{H}_2\text{O(l)}$
$\text{at } 25^{\circ}\text{C and 1 atm. pressure, } \Delta\text{H} = -874 \text{ kJ. The change in internal energy (}\Delta\text{E) is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$-874 \text{ kJ}$, $-971.53 \text{ kJ}$...
1
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8322
$\text{4.8 g of C(diamond) on complete combustion evolves 1584 kJ of heat. The standard heat of the formation of gaseous carbon is 725 kJ/mol. The energy required for the given process will be:}$
$(i) \text{ C(graphite)} \rightarrow \text{C(gas)}$
$(ii) \text{ C(diamond)} \rightarrow \text{C(gas)}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$725, 727$, $727, 725$...
3
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8321
$\text{What is the value of } \Delta\text{H for the reaction } 2\text{Al} + \text{Cr}_2\text{O}_3 \rightarrow 2\text{Cr} + \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3\text{, knowing that the enthalpies of}$
$\text{formation of Al}_2\text{O}_3 \text{ and Cr}_2\text{O}_3 \text{ are } -1596 \text{ kJ and } -1134 \text{ kJ, respectively?}$
2
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$-1365 \text{ kJ}$, $2730 \text{ kJ}$...
4
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8320
$\text{The enthalpy of formation of CO}_2\text{(g), H}_2\text{O(l) and propene (g) are } -393.5\text{, } -285.8\text{, and } 20.42 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ respectively. The enthalpy change for the combustion of cyclopropane at 298 K will be:}$
$(\text{The enthalpy of isomerization of cyclopropane to propene is } -33.0 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\text{. })$
2
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Recommended Questions
$-1021.32 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $-2091.32 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
2
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8319
$\text{The standard heat of combustion of propane is } -2220.1 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\text{. The standard heat of vaporisation of liquid water is } 44.0 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\text{. The enthalpy change for the reaction is−}$
$\text{C}_3\text{H}_8 \text{ (g)} + 5\text{O}_2 \text{ (g)} \rightarrow 3\text{CO}_2 \text{ (g)} + 4\text{H}_2\text{O(g)}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$-2220.1 \text{ kJ}$, $-2044.1 \text{ kJ}$...
2
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8318
$\text{The enthalpies of elements in their standard states are taken as zero. The enthalpy of formation of a compound is-}$
2
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$\text{Generally negative}$, $\text{Always positive}$...
1
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8317
$\text{At standard conditions, if the change in the enthalpy for the following reaction is } -109 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\text{H}_{2(g)}+\text{Br}_{2(g)}\rightarrow 2\text{HBr}_{(g)} \text{ and the bond energy of H}_2 \text{ and Br}_2 \text{ is } 435 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ and } 192 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ respectively, what is the bond energy (in kJ mol}^{-1}\text{) of HBr?}$
2
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$368$, $736$...
1
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8316
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$
$\text{Assertion (A): Combustion is an exothermic process.}$
$\text{Reason (R): Combustion is a spontaneous process.}$
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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8315
$\text{The bond energy of H}−\text{H and Cl-Cl is } 430 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ and } 240 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ respectively}$
$\text{and } \Delta H_f \text{ for HCl is } -90 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\text{. The bond enthalpy of HCl is:}$
2
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$290 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $380 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
3
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8314
$\text{Determine the enthalpy of formation for } \text{H}_2\text{O}_2\text{(l), using the following enthalpies of reaction:}$
$\text{N}_2\text{H}_4\text{(l)}+2\text{H}_2\text{O}_2\text{(l)}\rightarrow \text{N}_2\text{(g)}+4\text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}; \Delta \text{H}_1^0 = -818 \text{ kJ/mol}$
$\text{N}_2\text{H}_4\text{(l)}+\text{O}_2\text{(g)}\rightarrow \text{N}_2\text{(g)}+2\text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}; \Delta \text{H}_2^0 = -622 \text{ kJ/mol}$
$\text{H}_2\text{(g)}+\frac{1}{2}\text{O}_2\text{(g)}\rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}; \Delta \text{H}_3^0 = -285 \text{ kJ/mol}$
2
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$-383 \text{ kJ/mol}$, $-187 \text{ kJ/mol}$...
2
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8313
$\text{The standard enthalpy of the formation of CH}_3\text{OH}_{(l)} \text{ from the following data is:}$
$\text{CH}_3\text{OH}_{(l)} + \frac{3}{2}\text{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \text{CO}_{2(g)} + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)}; \Delta_r\text{H}^{\circ} = -726 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\text{C(s)} + \text{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \text{CO}_{2(g)}; \Delta_c\text{H}^{\circ} = -393 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\text{H}_{2(g)} + \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)}; \Delta_f\text{H}^{\circ} = -286 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
2
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$-239 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $+239 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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8312
$\text{The enthalpy of combustion of methane, graphite, and dihydrogen at 298 K are, } -890.3 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\text{, } -393.5 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\text{, and } -285.8 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ respectively. The enthalpy of formation of CH}_4\text{(g) is-}$
2
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$-74.8 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $-52.27 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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8311
$\Delta_{\text{vap}}\text{H}^{\circ} (\text{CCl}_4) = 30.5 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\Delta_f\text{H}^{\circ} (\text{CCl}_4) = -135.5 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\Delta_a\text{H}^{\circ} (\text{C}) = 715.0 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\Delta_a\text{H}^{\circ} (\text{Cl}_2) = 242 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\text{The enthalpy change for the reaction}$
$\text{CCl}_4 \text{ (g)} \rightarrow \text{C(g)} + 4 \text{ Cl (g) would be:}$
2
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$326 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $1304 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
2
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8310
$\text{When 4 g of iron is burnt to ferric oxide at a constant pressure, 29.28 kJ of heat is evolved.}$
$\text{The enthalpy of formation of ferric oxide will be-}$
$\text{(At. mass of Fe = 56) ?}$
2
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$-81.98 \text{ kJ}$, $-819.8 \text{ kJ}$...
2
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8309
$\text{Which of the following is not an endothermic reaction?}$
2
206
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$\text{Combustion of methane}$, $\text{Decomposition of water}$...
1
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8308
$\text{The enthalpy of combustion of carbon to CO}_2 \text{ is } -393.5 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\text{. The amount of heat released upon formation of } 35.2 \text{ g of CO}_2 \text{ from carbon and dioxygen gas would be:}$
2
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$-393.5 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $-314.8 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
2
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8307
$\text{The enthalpy of formation of CO}_{(g)}\text{, CO}_{2(g)}\text{, N}_2\text{O}_{(g)}\text{, and N}_2\text{O}_{4(g)}\text{ are } -110\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\text{, } -393\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\text{, } 81\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\text{, and } 9.7\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\text{ respectively.}$
$\text{The value of } (\Delta)_r H \text{ for the reaction would be:}$
$\text{N}_2\text{O}_{4(g)} + 3\text{(CO)}_{(g)} \rightarrow \text{N}_2\text{O}_{(g)} + 3\text{(CO)}_{2(g)}$
2
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$-777.7\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $+777.7\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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8306
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements given below:}$
$\text{Assertion (A): Combustion of all organic compounds is an exothermic reaction.}$
$\text{Reason (R): The enthalpies of all elements in their standard state are zero.}$
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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8305
$\Delta\text{H}^0_\text{f} (298\text{K}) \text{ of methanol is given by the chemical equation:}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\text{C(diamond)} + \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_{2(g)} + 2\text{H}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \text{CH}_3\text{OH}_{(l)}$, $\text{CH}_{4(g)} + \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \text{CH}_3\text{OH}_{(g)}$...
4
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8304
$\text{Consider the following reaction,}$
$\text{S} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{SO}_2, \Delta\text{H} = - 298.2 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\text{SO}_2 + 1/2 \text{ O}_2 \rightarrow \text{SO}_3, \Delta\text{H} = - 98.7\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\text{SO}_3 + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4, \Delta\text{H} = - 130.2 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\text{H}_2 + 1/2 \text{ O}_2 \rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{O}, \Delta\text{H} = - 287.3 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\text{the enthalpy of formation of H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ at 298 K will be}−$
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$− 814.4 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $+ 814.4 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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8303
\text{From the following bond energies:}
\text{H-H bond energy: } 431.37 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}
\text{C=C bond energy: } 606.10 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}
\text{C-C bond energy: } 336.49 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}
\text{C-H bond energy: } 410.50 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}
\text{Enthalpy for the reaction:}
\text{C}_2\text{H}_4 + \text{H}_2 \rightarrow \text{C}_2\text{H}_6
\text{will be:}
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$1523.6\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $-243.6\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
3
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8302
$\text{N}_2 + 3 \text{ H}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{NH}_3; \quad \Delta_\text{r} \text{H}^{\circ} = -92.4 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}. \text{ The standard enthalpy of formation of NH}_3 \text{ gas in the above reaction would be:}$
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$-92.4 \text{ J (mol)}^{-1}$, $-46.2 \text{ kJ (mol)}^{-1}$...
2
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8301
$\text{The enthalpy of sublimation of a substance is equal to:}$
2
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$\text{Enthalpy of fusion} + \text{Enthalpy of vaporization}$, $\text{Enthalpy of fusion}$...
1
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8300
$\text{The standard enthalpy of combustion at }25^{\circ}C\text{ of hydrogen, cyclohexene }(\text{C}_6\text{H}_{10}),\text{ and cyclohexane }(\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12})\text{ are }-241, -3800\text{ and }-3920\text{ kJ mol}^{-1},\text{ respectively. Calculate the standard enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene.}$
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$-131\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $-155\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
4
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8299
$\text{An ideal gas is expanded irreversibly against 10 bar pressure from 20 litres to 30 litres. Calculate 'w' if the process is isenthalpic.}$
2
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$0$, $+100\text{ J}$...
4
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8298
$\text{When 1 g H}_2 \text{ gas at S.T.P is expanded to twice its initial volume, then the work done is:}$
2
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$22.4 \text{ L atm}$, $5.6 \text{ L atm}$...
3
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8297
$\text{Consider the following graph.}$
$[\text{P-V diagram showing expansion from volume } V_i \text{ to } V_f \text{ with decreasing pressure curve}]$
$\text{The work done shown by the above-mentioned graph is-}$
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$\text{Positive}$, $\text{Negative}$...
2
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8296
$\text{To calculate the amount of work done in joules during reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, the volume must be expressed in:}$
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$\text{m}^3 \text{ only}$, $\text{dm}^3 \text{ only}$...
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8295
$\text{Which of the following is correct for isothermal expansion of an ideal gas:}$
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$W_{\text{rev}} = W_{\text{irr}}$, $W_{\text{rev}} + W_{\text{irr}} = 0$...
3
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8294
$\text{For the graph given below, it can be concluded that work done during the process shown will be-}$
$[\text{P-V diagram showing compression process from volume } V_i \text{ to } V_f \text{ with a stepped decrease in pressure}]$
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$\text{Zero}$, $\text{Negative}$...
3
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8293
$\text{The pressure-volume work for an ideal gas can be calculated by using the expression } W = \int_{V_i}^{V_f} P_{\text{ex}} \text{ d}V\text{.}$
$\text{The work can also be calculated from the pV-plot by using the area under the curve within the specified limits.}$
$\text{An ideal gas is compressed (a) reversibly or (b) irreversibly from volume } V_i \text{ to } V_f\text{.}$
$\text{The correct option is:}$
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$W \text{ (reversible)} = W \text{ (irreversible)}$, $W \text{ (reversible)} < W \text{ (irreversible)}$...
2
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8292
$\text{The work done in ergs for the reversible expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from a volume of 10 liters to 20 liters at } 25^{\circ}\text{C is -}$
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$-2.303 \times 298 \times 0.082 \log 2$, $-298 \times 10^7 \times 8.31 \times 2.303 \log 2$...
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8291
$\text{An ideal gas expands isothermally from } 10^{-3}m^3 \text{ to } 10^{-2} m^3 \text{ at 300 K against a constant pressure of } 10^5 \text{ Nm}^{-2}\text{. The work done by the gas is:}$
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$+270 \text{ kJ}$, $-900 \text{ J}$...
2
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8290
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$
$\begin{array}{|l|l|} \hline \text{Assertion (A):} & \text{Work done in an irreversible isothermal process at constant volume is zero.} \\ \hline \text{Reason (R):} & \text{Work is assigned a negative sign during expansion and is assigned a positive sign during compression.} \\ \hline \end{array}$
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8289
$\text{701 J of heat is absorbed by a system and 394 J of work is done by the system. The change in internal energy for the process is:}$
2
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$307 \text{ J}$, $-307 \text{ J}$...
1
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8288
$\text{A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a constant temperature of } 37.0^{\circ}\text{C. As it does so, it absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and w for the process will be-}$
$(\text{R} = 8.314 \text{ J/mol K}) (\ln 7.5 = 2.01)$
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Recommended Questions
$\text{q} = +208 \text{ J}, \text{w} = -208 \text{ J}$, $\text{q} = -208 \text{ J}, \text{w} = -208 \text{ J}$...
1
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8287
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$
$\begin{array}{|l|l|} \hline \text{Statement I:} & \text{Total enthalpy change of a multistep process is the sum of } \Delta H_1 + \Delta H_2 + \Delta H_3 + \ldots \\ \hline \text{Statement II:} & \text{When heat is absorbed by the system, the sign of q is taken to be negative.} \\ \hline \end{array}$
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$\text{Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect.}$...
2
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8286
$\text{Two moles of an ideal gas is heated at a constant pressure of one atmosphere from } 27^{\circ} \text{C to } 127^{\circ} \text{C. If } C_{v, m} = 20 + 10^{-2} \text{ T JK}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1}\text{, then q and } \Delta \text{ U for the process are respectively:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$6362.8 \text{ J}, 4700 \text{ J}$, $3037.2 \text{ J}, 4700 \text{ J}$...
1
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8285
$\text{The factor } \left(\frac{\partial Q}{\partial T}\right)_P - \left(\frac{\partial Q}{\partial T}\right)_V \text{ is equal to:}$
2
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$\gamma$, $\text{R}$...
2
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8284
$\text{Based on the reactions, ascertain the valid algebraic relationship:}$
$(i) \text{ C}(g) + 4\text{H}(g) \rightarrow \text{CH}_4(g);$
$\Delta H_r = x \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$(ii) \text{ C(graphite)} + 2\text{H}_2(g) \rightarrow \text{CH}_4;$
$\Delta H_r = y \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
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$x = y$, $x = 2y$...
3
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8283
$\text{2.1 g of Fe combines with S evolving 3.77 kJ. The heat of formation of FeS in kJ/mole is-}$
2
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$- 3.77$, $- 1.79$...
3
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8282
$\text{The lattice energy of NaCl is 780 kJ mol}^{-1}\text{. The enthalpy of hydration of Na}^{+}\text{(g) and Cl}^{-}\text{(g) ions are -406 kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ and -364 kJ mol}^{-1}\text{. The enthalpy of the solution of NaCl(s) is-}$
2
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$\text{23 kJ mol}^{-1}$, $\text{10 kJ mol}^{-1}$...
2
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8281
$\text{The standard enthalpy of vaporisation } \Delta_{\text{vap}}H^{\circ} \text{ for water at } 100^{\circ} \text{C is } 40.66 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\text{. The internal energy of vaporisation of water at } 100^{\circ} \text{C (in kJ mol}^{-1}\text{) is-}$
$\text{(Assume water vapour to behave like an ideal gas)}$
2
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$+37.56$, $-43.76$...
1
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8280
$\text{The difference in } \Delta H \text{ and } \Delta U \text{ for combustion of benzoic acid at 300 K is equal to-}$
2
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$-1.247 \text{ kJ}$, $+1.247 \text{ kJ}$...
1
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8279
$\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}$
$\begin{array}{|l|l|} \hline \text{Assertion (A):} & \text{C}_{\text{diamond}} \rightarrow \text{C}_{\text{graphite}} \text{ } \Delta H \text{ and } \Delta U \text{ are the same for this reaction.} \\ \hline \text{Reason (R):} & \text{Entropy increases during the conversion of diamond to graphite.} \\ \hline \end{array}$
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2
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8278
$\Delta U^{\circ} \text{ for combustion of methane is } -x \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}. \text{ The value of } \Delta H^{\circ} \text{ for the same reaction would be:}$
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$= \Delta U^{\circ}$, $> \Delta U^{\circ}$...
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8277
$\text{An ideal gas absorbs 2000 cal of heat from a heat reservoir and does mechanical work equivalent to 4200 J. The change in internal energy of the gas is:}$
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$\text{3000 cal}$, $\text{2000 cal}$...
4
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8276
$\Delta_f\text{U}^\circ \text{ of formation of } \text{CH}_4\text{(g) at certain temperature is } -393 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\text{. The value of } \Delta_f\text{H}^\circ \text{ is-}$
2
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$\text{Zero}$, $< \Delta_f\text{U}^\circ$...
2
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8275
$\text{For the reaction, } 2\text{N}_2\text{(g)}+\text{O}_2\text{(g)}\rightarrow 2\text{N}_2\text{O(g)}, \text{ at 298K } \Delta\text{H} \text{ is } 164 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}. \text{ The } \Delta\text{E} \text{ of the reaction is-}$
2
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$166.5 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $141.5 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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8274
$\text{Determine the enthalpy change for the specified reaction:}$
$2\text{H}_2\text{O}_2(l) \rightarrow 2\text{H}_2\text{O}(l) + \text{O}_2(g).$
$(\text{Given the heat of formation of H}_2\text{O}_2(l) \text{ and H}_2\text{O}(l) \text{ are } -188 \text{ and } -286 \text{ kJ/mol respectively})$
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$-196 \text{ kJ/mol}$, $+196 \text{ kJ/mol}$...
1
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8273
$\text{The } \Delta\text{H for vaporization of a liquid is 20 kJ/mol. Assuming ideal behaviour, the change in internal energy for the vaporization of 1 mol of the liquid at } 60^{\circ}\text{C and 1 bar is close to:}$
2
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$13.2 \text{ kJ/mol}$, $17.2 \text{ kJ/mol}$...
2
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8272
$\text{The reaction of cyanamide, NH}_2 \text{CN (s) with dioxygen, was carried out in a bomb calorimeter, and } \Delta\text{U was found to be } -742.7 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1} \text{ at 298 K.}$
$\text{NH}_2\text{CN(s)} + \frac{3}{2}\text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightarrow \text{N}_2\text{(g)} + \text{CO}_2\text{(g)} + \text{H}_2\text{O(l)}$
$\text{The enthalpy change for the reaction at 298 K would be:}$
2
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$-741.3 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$, $+ 753.9 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$...
1
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8271
\frac{1}{2}\text{N}_2\text{(g)} + \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightarrow \text{NO(g)}; \quad \Delta_r\text{H}^{\circ} = 90 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}
\text{NO(g)} + \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightarrow \text{NO}_2\text{(g)}; \quad \Delta_r\text{H}^{\circ} = -74 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}
\text{The thermodynamic stability of NO(g) based on the above data is:}
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$\text{Less than NO}_2\text{(g)}$, $\text{More than NO}_2\text{(g)}$...
1
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8270
$\text{Given the following reaction:}$
$4\text{H}(g) \rightarrow 2\text{H}_2(g)$
$\text{The enthalpy change for the reaction is -869.6 kJ. The dissociation energy of the H-H bond is:}$
2
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$-869.6 \text{ kJ}$, $+434.8 \text{ kJ}$...
2
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8269
\text{Consider the following diagram for a reaction A } \rightarrow \text{ C.}
\text{[Energy diagram showing reactant A at a lower enthalpy level (}H_r\text{) and product C at a higher enthalpy level (}H_p\text{), with an arrow pointing upward from A to C along the reaction coordinate axis]}
\text{The nature of the reaction is-}
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$\text{Exothermic}$, $\text{Endothermic}$...
2
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8268
$\text{For the given reaction}$
$2\text{H}_2\text{O}_2(l) \rightarrow 2\text{H}_2\text{O}(l) + \text{O}_2(g), \text{ the heat of formations of H}_2\text{O}_2(l) \text{ and H}_2\text{O (l) are -188 kJ/mol \& -286 kJ/mol respectively. The change in the enthalpy of the reaction will be:}$
2
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$- 196 \text{ kJ/mol}$, $+ 196 \text{ kJ/mol}$...
1
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8267
$\text{As an isolated box, equally partitioned, contains two ideal gasses A and B as shown:}$
$\text{[Box diagram showing two compartments: left compartment contains gas A at 1 atm, 25°C, right compartment contains gas B at 1 atm, 25°C]}$
$\text{When the partition is removed, the gases mix. The changes in enthalpy (}\Delta\text{H) and entropy (}\Delta\text{S) in the process, respectively, are}$
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$\text{Zero, positive}$, $\text{Zero, negative}$...
1
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8266
\text{Consider the following diagram for a reaction A} \rightarrow \text{C:}
\text{[Energy diagram showing reactant A at a higher enthalpy level (}H_r\text{) and product C at a lower enthalpy level (}H_p\text{), with an arrow pointing downward from A to C along the reaction coordinate axis]}
\text{The nature of the reaction is-}
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$\text{Exothermic}$, $\text{Endothermic}$...
1
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8265
$\text{Which plot represents an exothermic reaction?}$
2
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$\text{A graph with enthalpy (H) on y-axis and time on x-axis, showing a downward arrow from point R (reactants) at higher enthalpy to point P (products) at lower enthalpy.}$, $\text{A graph with enthalpy (H) on y-axis and time on x-axis, showing an upward arrow from point R (reactants) at lower enthalpy to point P (products) at higher enthalpy.}$...
1
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8264
$\text{During the complete combustion of one mole of butane, 2658 kJ of heat is released. The thermochemical reaction for this change is:}$
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Recommended Questions
2\text{C}_4\text{H}_{10}\text{(g)} + 13\text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightarrow 8\text{CO}_2\text{(g)} + 10\text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}; \quad \Delta_c\text{H} = -2658.0 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}, \text{C}_4\text{H}_{10}\text{(g)} + \frac{13}{2}\text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightarrow 4\text{CO}_2\text{(g)} + 5\text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}; \quad \Delta_c\text{H} = -1329.0 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}...
3
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8263
$\text{The bond energies of C} \equiv \text{C, C-H, H-H, and C=C are 198, 98, 103 and 145 kcal respectively.}$
$\text{The enthalpy change of the reaction HC} \equiv \text{CH + H}_2 \rightarrow \text{C}_2\text{H}_4 \text{ would be-}$
2
206
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$48 \text{ kcal}$, $96 \text{ kcal}$...
3
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8262
\text{Select the correct option based on statements below:}
\text{Assertion (A): }\Delta H\text{ is positive for endothermic reactions.}
\text{Reason (R): If the total enthalpy of reactants and products are }H_r\text{ and }H_p\text{ respectively, then for an endothermic reaction }H_r < H_p\text{.}
2
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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8261
$\text{For the following given equations and } \Delta\text{H}^{\circ} \text{ values, determine the enthalpy of reaction at 298 K for the reaction:}$
$\text{C}_2\text{H}_4(g) + 6\text{F}_2(g) \rightarrow 2\text{CF}_4(g) + 4\text{HF}(g)$
$\text{H}_2(g) + \text{F}_2(g) \rightarrow 2\text{HF}(g) \quad \Delta\text{H}^{\circ}_1 = -537 \text{ kJ}$
$\text{C}(s) + 2\text{F}_2(g) \rightarrow \text{CF}_4(g) \quad \Delta\text{H}^{\circ}_2 = -680 \text{ kJ}$
$2\text{C}(s) + 2\text{H}_2(g) \rightarrow \text{C}_2\text{H}_4(g) \quad \Delta\text{H}^{\circ}_3 = 52 \text{ kJ}$
2
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$-1165 \text{ kJ}$, $-2486 \text{ kJ}$...
2
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8260
\text{For the reaction:}
\text{C}_3\text{H}_8(g) + 5\text{O}_2(g) \rightarrow 3\text{CO}_2(g) + 4\text{H}_2\text{O}(l) \text{ at constant temperature, }\Delta\text{H} - \Delta\text{E} \text{ is:}
2
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Recommended Questions
$+ \text{RT}$, $- 3\text{RT}$...
2
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8259
$\text{Combustion of glucose takes place according to the equation,}\n\n\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2 \rightarrow 6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O}, \Delta H = -72 \text{ K cal}\n\n\text{Energy required for the production of 1.6 g of glucose is -}\n\n\text{(Molecular mass of glucose = 180 g)}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$0.064 \text{ kcal}$, $0.64 \text{ kcal}$...
2
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8258
$\text{Assume each reaction is carried out in an open container. For which of the following reactions will } \Delta H \text{ be equal to } \Delta U?$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\text{PCl}_5(\text{g}) \rightarrow \text{PCl}_3(\text{g}) + \text{Cl}_2(\text{g})$, $2\text{CO}(\text{g}) + \text{O}_2(\text{g}) \rightarrow 2\text{CO}_2(\text{g})$...
3
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8257
$\text{For an isolated system with } \Delta U = 0, \text{ the } \Delta S \text{ value will be:}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\text{Positive}$, $\text{Negative}$...
1
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8256
$\text{Pairs correctly represent intensive property among the following is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Entropy, Gibb's energy}$, $\text{Enthalpy, Heat capacity}$...
3
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8255
\text{Select the correct option based on the statements given below:}
\textbf{Statement I.} \text{ Specific heat is an intensive property.}
\textbf{Statement II.} \text{ Heat capacity is an extensive property.}
2
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$\text{Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct.}$, $\text{Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect.}$...
1
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8254
$\text{Plants and living beings are examples of:}$
2
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$\text{Isolated system}$, $\text{Adiabatic system}$...
3
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8253
$\text{Which among the following state functions is an extensive property of the system?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Temperature}$, $\text{Volume}$...
2
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8252
$\text{If the volume of a gas is reduced to half from its original volume, then the specific heat will:}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\text{Reduce to half}$, $\text{Be Doubled}$...
3
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8251
$\text{Which of the following is not a state function?}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\Delta S$, $\Delta G$...
4
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8250
$\text{When a gas undergoes adiabatic expansion, it gets cooled due to -}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\text{Loss of energy}$, $\text{Fall in pressure}$...
1
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8249
$\text{Work done is maximum in -}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\text{Isobaric work}$, $\text{Isothermal work}$...
1
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8248
$\text{A Beckmann thermometer is used to measure -}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\text{High temperature}$, $\text{Low temperature}$...
2
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8247
$\text{The correct statement among the following is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The presence of reacting species in a covered beaker is an example of an open system.}$, $\text{There is an exchange of energy as well as matter between the system and the surroundings in a closed system.}$...
3
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8246
$\text{The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of } 60.0 \, \text{g of aluminium from } 35°\text{C to } 55°\text{C would be:}$\n\n$(\text{Molar heat capacity of Al is } 24 \, \text{J mol}^{-1} \text{K}^{-1})$
2
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$1.07 \, \text{J}$, $1.07 \, \text{kJ}$...
2
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8245
$\text{In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes place between the system and its surroundings. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the following is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$q = 0, \, \Delta T \neq 0, \, W = 0$, $q \neq 0, \, \Delta T = 0, \, W = 0$...
3
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8244
$\text{Thermodynamics is not concerned about:}$
2
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$\text{Energy changes involved in a chemical reaction.}$, $\text{The extent to which a chemical reaction proceeds.}$...
2
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8243
$\text{The enthalpy of formation of all elements in their standard state is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Unity}$, $\text{Zero}$...
2
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8242
$\text{Identify the false statement among the following.}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Temperature is a state function.}$, $\text{Work is a state function.}$...
2
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8241
$\text{Which, among the following, is not a state function?}$
2
206
Recommended Questions
$\text{Internal energy}$, $\text{Free energy}$...
3
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8240
$\text{What is a necessary condition for an adiabatic process to occur?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\Delta T = 0$, $\Delta P = 0$...
3
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8239
$\text{Dipole-dipole forces act between the molecules possessing permanent dipole. Ends of dipoles possess 'partial charges'. The partial charge will be-}$
2
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$\text{More than unit electronic charge.}$, $\text{Equal to unit electronic charge.}$...
3
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8238
$\text{The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular weight of X is}$
2
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$64.0$, $32.0$...
1
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8237
$\text{In which case is the rate of diffusion highest if all are present in the same container at the same temperature:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$4 \text{ g H}_2$, $32 \text{ g O}_2$...
1
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8236
$\text{Density ratio of O}_2 \text{ and H}_2 \text{ is 16 : 1. The ratio of their r.m.s. velocities will be-}$
2
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$4 : 1$, $1 : 16$...
3
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8235
$20 \text{ L of SO}_2 \text{ diffuses through a porous partition in 60s. The volume of O}_2 \text{ that will diffuse under similar condition in 30s will be:-}$
2
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$12.14 \text{ L}$, $14.14 \text{ L}$...
2
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8234
$\text{The temperature at which the r.m.s velocity of carbon dioxide becomes the same as that of nitrogen at }21^0\text{C is-}$
2
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$462 ^{\circ}\text{C}$, $273 \text{ K}$...
3
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8233
$\text{At }27^{\circ} \text{ C, the ratio of root mean square speeds of ozone to oxygen is-}$
2
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$\sqrt{(3/5)}$, $\sqrt{(4/3)}$...
3
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8232
$\text{At room temperature, the average speed of Helium is higher than that of Oxygen by a factor of - }$
2
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$2\sqrt{2}$, $6/ \sqrt{2}$...
1
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8231
$\text{The gas among the following that can be most steadily liquefied is - }$
2
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$\text{NH}_3$, $\text{Cl}_2$...
3
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8230
$\text{Choose the correct statement for viscosity } (\eta) \text{ variation with T and P for an ideal gas-}$
2
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$\eta \text{ of a gas increases with increase in temperature (T), but it is independent of pressure}$, $\eta \text{ of a gas decreases with increase in T and increases with increase in P}$...
1
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8229
$\text{The correct order of temperature of a real gas is-}$
$\text{I. Boyle's temperature}$
$\text{II. Critical temperature}$
$\text{III. Inversion temperature}$
2
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$\text{III} > \text{I} > \text{II}$, $\text{I} > \text{II} > \text{III}$...
1
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8228
$\text{A gas cannot be liquefied if:}$
2
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$\text{Forces of attraction are low under ordinary conditions}$, $\text{Forces of attraction are high under ordinary conditions}$...
3
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8227
$\text{The correct statement regarding the van der Waal constant of } \text{N}_2 \text{ \& } \text{NH}_3 \text{ is -}$
2
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$a_{\text{NH}_3} > a_{\text{N}_2}, b_{\text{NH}_3} < b_{\text{N}_2}$, $a_{\text{NH}_3} < a_{\text{N}_2}, b_{\text{NH}_3} < b_{\text{N}_2}$...
1
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8226
$\text{Maximum deviation from ideal gas is shown by-}$
2
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$\text{H}_2\text{(g)}$, $\text{N}_2\text{(g)}$...
4
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8225
$\text{As per Charles's law, } -273^\circ\text{C} \text{ is the lowest possible temperature because:}$
2
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$\text{All gases get liquefied before reaching a temperature of } -273^\circ\text{C}.$, $\text{All gases get liquefied after reaching a temperature of } -273^\circ\text{C}.$...
1
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8224
\text{Atmospheric pressure recorded in different cities:}
\text{Shimla: } 1.01 \times 10^5 \text{ N/m}^2
\text{Bangalore: } 1.2 \times 10^5 \text{ N/m}^2
\text{Delhi: } 1.02 \times 10^5 \text{ N/m}^2
\text{Mumbai: } 1.21 \times 10^5 \text{ N/m}^2
\text{The liquid will boil first at -}
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$\text{Shimla}$, $\text{Bangalore}$...
1
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8223
$\text{The SI unit of viscosity coefficient } (\eta) \text{ is-}$
2
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$\text{Pascal}$, $\text{Nsm}^{-2}$...
2
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8222
$\text{Among water, ether, and acetone, water has the maximum boiling point and ether has the minimum boiling point. The correct order of vapour pressure of water, acetone and ether at } 30^\circ\text{C} \text{ is-}$
2
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$\text{Water}<\text{ether}<\text{acetone}$, $\text{Water}<\text{acetone}<\text{ether}$...
2
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8221
$\text{Increase in kinetic energy can overcome intermolecular forces of attraction. How will increase in temperature effect the viscosity of liquid-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Increase}$, $\text{No effect}$...
3
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8220
$\text{With increase in temperature the surface tension of a liquid will:}$
2
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$\text{Remains same}$, $\text{Decreases}$...
2
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8219
\text{Gases possess characteristic critical temperature which depends upon the magnitude of intermolecular forces between the particles. Following are the critical temperatures of some gases:}
\text{H}_2\text{: 33.2 K}
\text{He: 5.3 K}
\text{O}_2\text{: 154.3 K}
\text{N}_2\text{: 126 K}
\text{From the above data, the order of liquefaction of the given gases is-}
\text{(write the order from the gas liquefying first)}
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Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2, \text{He}, \text{O}_2, \text{N}_2$, $\text{He}, \text{O}_2, \text{H}_2, \text{N}_2$...
4
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8218
$\text{The spherical shape of rain droplets is due to-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Viscosity}$, $\text{surface tension}$...
2
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8217
The density of a gaseous substance at 1 atm pressure and 773 K is 0.4 g/L. If the molecular weight of the substance is 30, the dominant force existing among gas molecules is/are-
2
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Recommended Questions
Repulsive, Attractive...
1
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8216
The compressibility factor for $\text{H}_2$ and He is usually-
2
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$>1$, $=1$...
1
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8215
The compressibility factor for 1 mol of a van der Waals gas at $0°\text{C}$ and 100 atmospheric pressure is found to be 0.5. The volume of gas is-
2
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Recommended Questions
$2.0224$ L, $1.4666$ L...
4
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8214
In the given figure, the curve representing an ideal gas is-
2
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Recommended Questions
B only, C and D only...
1
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8213
At high pressure, the compressibility factor 'Z' is equal to -
2
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Recommended Questions
Unity, $1 - \frac{Pb}{RT}$...
3
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8212
Consider the following graph: [Graph showing Z vs p/bar with curves X and Y]
The curve that represents $\text{CO}_2$ gas is -
2
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X, Y...
2
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8211
The compressibility factor of a gas is less than unity at STP. The correct statement among the following is -
2
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Recommended Questions
$V_m > 22.4$ L, $V_m < 22.4$ L...
2
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8210
The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is:
2
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Recommended Questions
zero, infinite...
3
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8209
At relatively high pressure, van der Waals' equation reduces to-
2
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Recommended Questions
$PV = RT$, $PV = RT + a/v$...
3
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8208
The van der Waals' equation for real gas is:
2
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Recommended Questions
$(P + a/V^2)(V-b) = RT$, $(P+n^2a/V^2)(V-nb) = nRT$...
4
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8207
The ratio a/b (the terms used in van der Waals' equation) has the unit-
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{atm litre mol}^{-1}$, $\text{atm dm}^3 \text{mol}^{-1}$...
4
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8206
At lower temperature, all gases except $\text{H}_2$ and He show:
2
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Recommended Questions
Negative deviation, Positive deviation...
1
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8205
Van der Waals equation at low pressure is -
2
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Recommended Questions
$PV = RT - Pb$, $PV = RT - \frac{a}{V}$...
2
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8204
If pressure is in atmosphere and volume in $\text{dm}^3$, then the unit of 'a' is-
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{atm dm}^6 \text{mol}^{-2}$, $\text{atm dm}^4 \text{mol}^{-2}$...
1
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8203
At moderate pressure, the van der Waal's equation becomes:
2
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Recommended Questions
$PV_m = RT$, $P(V_m-b) = RT$...
3
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8202
For one mole of van der Waal's gas when $b=0$ and $T=300$ K, the PV vs. $1/V$ plot is shown below. The value of the van der Waal's constant 'a' ($\text{atm. litre}^2 \text{mol}^{-2}$) is-
2
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$1.0$, $4.5$...
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8201
The unit of van der Waals' constant 'b' is -
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{cm}^3 \text{mol}^{-1}$, $\text{litre mol}^{-1}$...
4
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8200
In van der Waal's equation of state for a non-ideal gas, the term that accounts for the intermolecular force is-
2
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Recommended Questions
$V-b$, $(P+a/V^2)$...
2
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8199
The maximum deviation from ideal gas behaviour takes place -
2
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Recommended Questions
At high temperature and low pressure., At low temperature and high pressure....
2
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8198
With 100% increase in temperature, the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increases by -
2
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Recommended Questions
$2.8$ times, $4.0$ times...
3
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8197
$\text{At 298 K, assuming ideal behaviour, the average kinetic energy of a deuterium molecule is -}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Two times that of a hydrogen molecule}$, $\text{Four times that of a hydrogen molecule}$...
4
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8196
$\text{A helium atom is two times heavier than a hydrogen molecule. At 298 K, the average kinetic energy of a helium atom is-}$
2
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$\text{Same as that of a hydrogen molecule}$, $\text{Half that of a hydrogen molecule}$...
1
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8195
$\text{Pressure versus volume graph for a real gas and an ideal gas is shown below:}$\n\n$\text{[The graph shows two curves representing pressure vs. volume: a blue curve labeled "Real gas" and a red curve labeled "Ideal gas". At high pressures (low volumes), the real gas curve is higher than the ideal gas curve, showing significant deviation. As pressure decreases (volume increases), the two curves converge and nearly coincide at low pressures (high volumes).]}$\n\n$\text{The correct statement among the following is -}$
2
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$\text{Real gases show a large deviation from ideal behaviour at low pressure.}$, $\text{Real gases show a very small deviation from ideal behaviour at low pressure.}$...
2
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8194
$\text{The kinetic energy for 14 }\textit{grams}\text{ of nitrogen gas at }127^{\circ}\text{C is nearly - }$\n\n$(\text{mol. mass of nitrogen = 28 and gas constant = 8.31JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1})$
2
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$1.0 \text{ J}$, $4.15 \text{ J}$...
3
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8193
$\text{A gas such as carbon monoxide would be most likely to obey the ideal gas law at-}$
2
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$\text{High temperature and low pressure}$, $\text{Low temperature and high pressure}$...
1
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8192
$\text{The pressure of a 1 : 4 mixture of dihydrogen and dioxygen enclosed in a vessel is one atmosphere. The partial pressure of dioxygen is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$0.8 \times 10^5 \text{ atm}$, $0.008 \text{ Nm}^{-2}$...
3
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8191
$\text{At STP, a container has 1 mole of He, 2 moles Ne, 3 moles of } \text{O}_2\text{, and 4 moles } \text{N}_2\text{. Without changing total pressure if 2 moles of } \text{O}_2 \text{ is removed, the partial pressure of } \text{O}_2 \text{ will be decreased by-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$26 \%$, $40 \%$...
3
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8190
$\text{In water-saturated air, the mole fraction of water vapor is 0.02. If the total pressure of the saturated air is 1.2 atm, the partial pressure of dry air is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$1.17 \text{ atm}$, $1.76 \text{ atm}$...
1
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8189
$\text{Equal weights of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty container at } 25^{\circ}\text{C}. \text{ The fraction of the total pressure exerted by oxygen is-}$
2
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$1/3$, $1/2$...
1
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8188
$\text{Which among the following mixtures of gases at room temperature does not obey Dalton's law of partial pressure-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{He and } \text{O}_2$, $\text{NH}_3 \text{ and HCl}$...
2
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8187
$\text{The partial pressure of } \text{H}_2 \text{ in a flask containing 2 g of } \text{H}_2\text{, 14 g of } \text{N}_2\text{, and 16 g of } \text{O}_2 \text{ is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$1/2 \text{ of the total pressure}$, $1/3 \text{ of the total pressure}$...
1
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8186
$\text{Equal weights of ethane and hydrogen gas are mixed in an empty container at } 25^{\circ} \text{C}. \text{ The fraction of total pressure exerted by hydrogen is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$1:2$, $1:1$...
4
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8185
$\text{In a flask of volume V litres, 0.2 mol of oxygen, 0.4 mol of nitrogen, 0.1 mol of ammonia and 0.3 mol of helium are enclosed at } 27^{\circ}\text{C}. \text{ If the total pressure exerted by these non-reacting gases is one atmosphere, the partial pressure exerted by nitrogen is-}$
2
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$1 \text{ atm}$, $0.1 \text{ atm}$...
4
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8184
$\text{The partial pressure of oxygen in a flask containing 16 g } \text{O}_2 \text{ and 32 g } \text{SO}_2 \text{ is-}$
2
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$1/16 \text{ of total pressure}$, $1/2 \text{ of total pressure}$...
2
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8183
$\text{A gaseous mixture contains 56 g of } \text{N}_2\text{, 44 g of } \text{CO}_2 \text{ and 16 g of } \text{CH}_4\text{. The total pressure of the mixture is 720 mm Hg. The partial pressure of } \text{CH}_4 \text{ is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$180 \text{ mm}$, $360 \text{ mm}$...
1
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8182
$\text{The volume of 0.0168 mol of } \text{O}_2 \text{ obtained by decomposition of } \text{KClO}_3 \text{ and collected by displacement of water is 428 ml at a pressure of 754 mm Hg at } 25^{\circ}\text{C}. \text{ The pressure of water vapour at } 25^{\circ}\text{C} \text{ is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$18 \text{ mm Hg}$, $20 \text{ mm Hg}$...
4
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8181
$\text{The condition that favour a pure sample of an ideal gas to have pressure of 1 atm and a concentration of}$\n\n$1 \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ is - }$\n\n$(\text{R}=0.082 \text{ L atm mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1})$
2
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$\text{At STP}$, $\text{When V = 22.4 L}$...
3
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8180
$\text{6.4 grams of a gas , at } 0^{\circ}\text{C and 0.99 atm pressure occupies a volume of 2.241 L. The correct statement about this gas is-}$\n\n$\text{[Molecular mass of gas A = 64]}$
2
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$\text{The gas is ideal}$, $\text{The gas is real with intermolecular attraction}$...
1
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8179
$\text{A certain hydrate has the formula } \text{MgSO}_4 \cdot \text{x} \text{H}_2 \text{O}. \text{ A quantity of 54.2 g of the compound is heated in an oven to drive off the water. If the water vapour generated exerts a pressure of 24.8 atm in a 2.0 L container at } 120^{\circ} \text{C}, \text{ the value of x is-}$
2
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$2$, $5$...
4
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8178
$\text{A mixture of carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide is found to have a density of 1.7 g/L at S.T.P. The mole fraction of carbon monoxide is-}$
2
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$0.37$, $0.40$...
1
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8177
\text{A collapsed polythene bag of 30 litre capacity is partially blown up by the addition of 10 litre of } N_2 \text{ at 0.965 atm at 298 K. Subsequently, enough } O_2 \text{ is pumped into the bag so that at 298 K and external pressure of 0.990 atm, the bag contains full 30 litre. The final pressure of } O_2 \text{ in the following experiment is-}
2
205
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0.67 atm, 0.52 atm...
1
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8176
A flask containing air (open to atmosphere) is heated from 300 K to 500 K. The percentage of air escaped to the atmosphere is nearly-
2
205
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16.6, 40...
2
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8175
A vessel of volume 0.02 m^{3} contains a mixture of hydrogen and helium at 20°C and 2 atm pressure. The mass of the mixture is 5 g. The ratio of the mass of hydrogen to that of helium in the mixture, is -
2
205
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1:2, 1:3...
1
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8174
Find the mass of payload of a balloon of radius 10 m, if a mass of 100 kg is filled with helium at 1.66 bar and 27°C temperature. (Density of air = 1.2 kg/m³ and R = 0.083 bar·dm³·K⁻¹·mol⁻¹).
2
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2905 Kg, 3811 Kg...
2
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8173
\text{A mixture of He and Ar weighing } 5.0 \text{ g occupies a volume of } 10 \, \text{dm}^3 \text{ at } 27°\text{C} \text{ and } 1 \text{ atm pressure. The composition of the mixture is respectively -}
2
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70%, 30%, 25%, 75%...
2
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8172
H_{2}
CO_{2}
2
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10%, 13%...
2
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8171
An open flask containing air is heated from 300 K to 500 K. The percentage of air that will escape into the atmosphere if pressure is kept constant is-
2
205
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80, 40...
2
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8170
If an open container is heated from 300 K to 400 K, then the % of gas that remains in the container is-
2
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25%, 50%...
3
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8169
The pressure of 1 gm of an ideal gas A at 27 °C is found to be 2 bar. When 2 g of another ideal gas B is introduced in the same flask at the same temperature, the pressure becomes 3 bar. The correct relationship between their molecular masses is -
2
205
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M_A = M_B, 4M_A = M_B...
2
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8168
1.6 g \( O_2 \) gas and 0.1 g \( H_2 \) gas are placed in a 1.12 L flask at \( 0^\circ C \). The total pressure of the gas mixture will be-
2
205
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2 atm, 3 atm...
1
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8167
Oxygen is present in a 1-litre flask at a pressure of \( 7.6 \times 10^{-10} \) mmHg. The number of oxygen molecules in the flask at \( 0^\circ C \) is -
2
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\( 2.686 \times 10^{10} \), \( 26.86 \times 10^{10} \)...
1
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8166
A 2.24 L cylinder of oxygen at STP is found to develop a leakage. When the leakage was plugged, the pressure dropped to 570 mm of Hg. The number of moles of gas that escaped will be:
2
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0.050, 0.025...
2
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8165
If density of vapours of a substance of molar mass 18 g/mole at 1 atm pressure and 500 K is 0.36 kg m\(^{-3}\), then the value of Z for the vapours is- (R = 0.082 L atm mole K\(^{-1}\))
2
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\(\frac{41}{50}\), \(\frac{50}{41}\)...
2
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8164
A mixture of dihydrogen and dioxygen at one bar pressure contains 20% by weight of dihydrogen. The partial pressure of dihydrogen is -
2
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0.2 bar, 0.7 bar...
3
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8163
The state of a gas can be described by quoting the relationship between:
2
205
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Pressure, volume, temperature, Temperature, amount, pressure...
4
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8162
34.05 mL of phosphorus vapour weighs 0.0625 g at 546 °C and 0.1 bar pressure. The molar mass of phosphorus would be -
2
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1247.5 g mol\(^{-1}\), 2234.7 g mol\(^{-1}\)...
1
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8161
$ \text{The graph that represents an isobar } \left(\frac{\text{nR}}{\text{P}} > 1\right) \text{ is-} $
2
205
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$ \text{Graph 1} $, $ \text{Graph 2} $...
2
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8160
\text{Equal masses of } H_2\text{, } O_2 \text{ and methane have been taken in a container of volume V at temperature 27°C in identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of gases } H_2:O_2:CH_4 \text{ would be-}
2
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\text{The ratio is } 8:16:1, \text{The ratio is } 16:8:1...
3
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8159
The pressure exerted by a mixture of 3.2 g of methane and 4.4 g of carbon dioxide contained in a 9 $\text{dm}^3$ flask at 27$^\circ$C would be:
2
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Recommended Questions
$8.31 \times 10^4 \text{ Pa}$, $7.43 \times 10^{-4} \text{ Pa}$...
1
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8158
The density of a gas is $1.964 \text{ g dm}^{-3}$ at $273 \text{ K}$ and $76 \text{ cm Hg}$. The gas is:
2
205
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$\text{CH}_4$, $\text{C}_2\text{H}_6$...
3
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8157
The volume of 2.8 g of carbon monoxide at 27$^\circ$C and 0.821 atm pressure is: \n\n($\text{R} = 0.0821 \text{ L atm K}^{-1} \text{mol}^{-1}$)
2
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$0.3 \text{ L}$, $1.5 \text{ L}$...
3
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8156
3.2 g of oxygen and 0.2 g of hydrogen are placed in a 1.12 litre flask at 0$^\circ$C. The total pressure of the gas mixture will be:
2
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$1 \text{ atm}$, $4 \text{ atm}$...
2
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8155
At a certain temperature for which $\text{RT} = 25 \text{ L atm mol}^{-1}$, the density of a gas, in $\text{g L}^{-1}$, is $\text{d} = 2.00\text{P} + 0.020 \text{P}^2$, where $\text{P}$ is the pressure in atmosphere. The molecular weight of the gas in $\text{g mol}^{-1}$ is:
2
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$25$, $50$...
2
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8154
The volume occupied by 8.8 g of $\text{CO}_2$ at 31.1$^\circ\text{C}$ and 1 bar pressure is: \n\n($\text{R} = 0.083 \text{ bar L K}^{-1} \text{mol}^{-1}$)
2
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$4.05 \text{ L}$, $3.05 \text{ L}$...
4
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8153
Two flasks of equal volume are connected by a narrow tube (of negligible volume) at $27^\circ\text{C}$ and contain $0.70$ mole of $\text{H}_2$ at $0.5$ atm. One of the flasks is then immersed in a hot bath, kept at $127^\circ\text{C}$, while the other remains at $27^\circ\text{C}$. The final pressure is -
2
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$5.714 \, \text{atm}$, $0.5714 \, \text{atm}$...
2
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8152
$\text{The volume occupied by 1.8 g of water vapour at 374 }^\circ\text{C and 1 bar pressure will be -}\n\n\text{[Use R=0.083 bar LK}^{-1}\text{ mol}^{-1}\text{]}$
2
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$96.66\text{ L}$, $55.87\text{ L}$...
4
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8151
$\text{2.9 g of a gas at 95 }^\circ\text{C occupies the same volume as 0.184 g of dihydrogen at 17 }^\circ\text{C, at the same pressure. The molar mass of the gas is -}$
2
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$20\text{ g mol}^{-1}$, $40\text{ g mol}^{-1}$...
2
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8150
$\text{Flask X is filled with 20 g of CH}_4\text{ gas at 100 }^\circ\text{C and another identical flask Y with 40 g O}_2\text{ gas at the same temperature. The correct statement among the following is -}$
2
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$\text{The pressure of the gases in the two flasks is identical}$, $\text{The pressure of CH}_4\text{ in flask X is higher than that of O}_2\text{ in flask Y}$...
1
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8149
$7.0\text{ g of gas occupies 5.6 L of volume at STP. The gas is-}$
2
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$\text{NO}$, $\text{N}_2 ext{O}$...
3
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8148
$\text{The temperature of 4.0 mole of a gas occupying 5 dm}^3 ext{ at 3.32 bar is - (R = 0.083 bar dm}^3 ext{ K}^{-1} ext{ mol}^{-1} ext{)}.$
2
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$40\text{ K}$, $30\text{ K}$...
4
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8147
$ \text{The number of moles of } \text{H}_2 \text{ in 0.224 litre of hydrogen gas at STP (273 K, 1 atm.) is-} $
2
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$ \text{1. 1} $, $ \text{2. 0.1} $...
3
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8146
\text{120 g of an ideal gas of molecular weight 40 g/mol are confined to a volume of 20 L at 400 K. The pressure of the gas is} \\
(R = 0.0821 \text{ L atm K}^{-1} \text{ mol}^{-1})
2
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$ \text{3.90 atm} $, $ \text{4.92 atm} $...
2
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8145
$ \text{The volume of } \text{H}_2 \text{ that would be released when 0.15 g of aluminium reacts at 20 } ^\circ \text{C and 1 bar pressure with caustic soda is-} $
2
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$ \text{2.25 L} $, $ \text{301 mL} $...
4
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8144
$ \text{The increase in pressure in order to decrease the volume of a gas by 5\% at a constant temperature will be -} $
2
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$ \text{5\%} $, $ \text{5.26\%} $...
2
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8143
$\text{The beans are cooked in pressure cooker, because -}$
2
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$\text{Boiling point increases with increasing pressure}$, $\text{Boiling point decreases with increasing pressure}$...
1
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8142
$\text{A mixture of CO and CO}_2 \text{ is found to have a density } 1.5\text{ g/litre at } 30^{\circ}\text{C and } 730\text{ mm. The composition of the mixture is-}$
2
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$\text{CO: } 44\%; \text{ CO}_2 = 56\%$, $\text{CO: } 32\%; \text{ CO}_2 = 68\%$...
2
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8141
$\text{A sealed tube which can withstand a pressure of } 3 \text{ atmosphere is filled with air at } 27^{\circ}\text{C and } 760\text{ mm pressure. The tube will burst at -}$
2
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$900^{\circ}\text{C}$, $627^{\circ}\text{C}$...
2
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8140
$\text{At constant temperature, } 200\text{ cm}^3 \text{ of N}_2 \text{ at } 720\text{ mm and } 400\text{ cm}^3 \text{ of O}_2 \text{ at } 750\text{ mm pressure are put together in a one-litre flask. The final pressure of the mixture is-}$
2
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$111\text{ mm}$, $222\text{ mm}$...
4
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8139
$\text{The density of }\text{O}_2\text{(g) is maximum at-}$
2
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$\text{STP}$, $273\ \text{K and } 2\ \text{atm}$...
2
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8138
\text{The volume of a gas is } 100 \text{ ml at } 100^{\circ}\text{C. If the pressure remains constant then the temperature at which the volume becomes } 200 \text{ ml is-}
2
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$200^{\circ}\text{C}$, $473^{\circ}\text{C}$...
2
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8137
$\text{The correct statement for an ideal gas equation is -}$
2
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$\text{n is the number of molecules of a gas.}$, $\text{V denotes the volume of 1 mole of the gas.}$...
3
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8136
$\text{The curve that can not represent Boyle's law is -}$
2
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$\text{A curve showing P inversely proportional to V (hyperbola)}$, $\text{A straight line graph of log P vs log V with a negative slope}$...
3
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8135
$\text{An ideal gas expands according to PV=constant. On expansion, the temperature of the gas:}$
2
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$\text{Will rise.}$, $\text{Will drop.}$...
3
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8134
$\text{The deviation of a gas from ideal behavior is expected to be minimum at -}$
2
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$\text{350 K and 3 atm}$, $\text{550 K and 1 atm}$...
2
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8133
$\text{The pressure-volume plot for an ideal gas at a given temperature has the form of a -}$
2
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$\text{Straight line}$, $\text{Exponential curve}$...
3
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8132
$\text{A person living in Shimla observed that cooking food without using a pressure cooker takes more time. The reason for this observation is-}$
2
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$\text{Pressure increases}$, $\text{Temperature decreases}$...
3
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8131
$\text{The density of methane at } 2.0 \text{ atmosphere pressure and } 27^{\circ}\text{C is-}$
2
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$0.13 \text{ gL}^{-1}$, $0.26 \text{ gL}^{-1}$...
3
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8130
\text{If } 1 \text{ g of each of the following gases are taken at STP, then the gas that will have the highest volume is - }
\text{CO, H}_2\text{O, CH}_4\text{, NO}
2
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$\text{CH}_4$, $\text{H}_2\text{O}$...
1
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8129
$\text{The variation of pressure with the volume of the gas at different temperatures can be graphically represented as per the following graph:}$
$\text{If the temperature increases from } 200\text{K to } 400\text{K (at constant pressure), the volume of a gas would-}$
2
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$\text{Increase}$, $\text{Decrease}$...
1
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8128
$\text{For a real gas, PV is a constant over a small range of pressures at-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Boyle's temperature}$, $\text{Critical temperature}$...
1
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8127
$\text{The plots of different values of pressure versus temperature are shown in the given figure. The correct order of volume for the following plot is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$V_4 < V_3 < V_2 < V_1$, $V_4 > V_3 < V_2 > V_1$...
3
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8126
$\text{A } 200 \text{ mL flask having oxygen at } 220 \text{ mm and a } 300 \text{ mL flask having nitrogen at } 100 \text{ mm are connected in such a way that } \text{O}_2 \text{ and } \text{N}_2 \text{ may combine in their volumes if temperature is kept constant. The total pressure of the gaseous mixture is-}$
2
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$158 \text{ mm}$, $138 \text{ mm}$...
3
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8125
$\text{At } 0^{\circ}\text{C, the density of a certain oxide of a gas at 2 bar is the same as that of dinitrogen at 5 bar.}$
$\text{The molecular mass of the oxide would be -}$
2
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$35 \text{ g/mol}$, $45 \text{ g/mol}$...
3
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8124
$\text{V versus T curves at constant pressure P}_1 \text{ and P}_2 \text{ for an ideal gas are as shown in the figure. The correct statement is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{P}_1 > \text{P}_2$, $\text{P}_1 < \text{P}_2$...
2
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8123
$\text{A plot of volume versus temperature (T) for a gas at constant pressure is a straight line passing through the origin. The plots at different values of pressure are shown in the figure given below.}$
$\text{The correct order of pressure is -}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$p_1 > p_2 > p_3 > p_4$, $p_1 = p_2 = p_3 = p_4$...
3
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8122
As the temperature increases, average kinetic energy of molecules increases. With increase in temperature at constant volume, the pressure -
2
205
Recommended Questions
$\text{Increases}$, $\text{Decreases}$...
1
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8121
$\text{Boyle's law is applicable in :}$
2
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$\text{Isobaric process}$, $\text{Isochoric process}$...
3
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8120
If $300 \text{ ml}$ of a gas at $27^\circ\text{C}$ is cooled to $7^\circ\text{C}$ at constant pressure, its final volume will be:
2
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Recommended Questions
$135 \text{ ml}$, $540 \text{ ml}$...
4
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8119
$\text{The condition of SATP refers to:}$
2
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$25^\circ\text{C and 2 atm}$, $25^\circ\text{C and 1 atm}$...
4
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8118
The interaction energy of London force is inversely proportional to sixth power of the distance between two interacting particles. Their magnitude depends upon-
2
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Charge of interacting particles., Mass of interacting particles....
3
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8117
The Lewis dot symbols for atoms of the elements $\text{Mg}$, $\text{Na}$, $\text{O}$, and $\text{N}$, respectively, would be:
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{O}$, $\text{N}$, $\text{Mg}$, $\text{Na}$, $\text{O}$, $\text{N}$, $\text{Mg}$, $\text{Na}$...
3
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8116
The correct statement about hydrolysis of $\text{BCl}_3$ and $\text{NCl}_3$ is-
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{NCl}_3$ is hydrolysed and gives $\text{HOCl}$ but $\text{BCl}_3$ is not hydrolysed, Both $\text{NCl}_3$ and $\text{BCl}_3$ on hydrolysis gives $\text{HCl}$...
3
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8115
The correct order of solubility in an aqueous medium is:
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{CuS} > \text{ZnS} > \text{Na}_2\text{S}$, $\text{ZnS} > \text{Na}_2\text{S} > \text{CuS}$...
4
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8114
$\text{O} - \text{O}$ bond length (in $\mathring{\text{A}}$) in $\text{H}_2\text{O}_2$ and $\text{O}_2\text{F}_2$ is respectively:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$1.22, 1.48$, $1.48, 1.22$...
2
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8113
Which is the least polarizable gas among the following?
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{He}$, $\text{Ne}$...
1
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8112
$\text{The correct order of acidic strength is :}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl}_2\text{O}_7 > \text{SO}_2 > \text{P}_4\text{O}_{10}$, $\text{CO}_2 > \text{N}_2\text{O}_5 > \text{SO}_3$...
1
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8111
$\text{PCl}_5 \text{ exists but } \text{NCl}_5 \text{ does not because:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Nitrogen has no vacant d-subshells.}$, $\text{NCl}_5 \text{ is unstable.}$...
1
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8110
$\text{The incorrect order of the force of attraction among the given species is :}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{HI} > \text{HBr} > \text{Cl}_2$, $\text{CCl}_4 > \text{CH}_2\text{Cl}_2 > \text{CH}_3\text{Cl} > \text{CH}_4$...
1
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8109
$\text{The compound that has the lowest boiling point is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{HF}$, $\text{HCl}$...
4
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8108
$\text{The correct order of H-bond strength in the following compounds is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{O} > \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 > \text{HF} > \text{H}_2\text{S}$, $\text{HF} > \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 > \text{H}_2\text{O} > \text{H}_2\text{S}$...
2
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8107
$\text{In which of the following compounds is an intramolecular hydrogen bond present?}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{O}_2$, $\text{HCN}$...
2
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8106
$\text{The incorrect order of boiling point is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{O} > \text{CH}_3\text{OH}$, $\text{N}(\text{CH}_3)_3 < \text{NH}(\text{CH}_3)_2$...
3
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8105
$\text{The correct order of the boiling points of } \text{H}_2\text{O}, \text{HF}, \text{ and } \text{NH}_3 \text{ is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{HF} > \text{H}_2\text{O} > \text{NH}_3$, $\text{H}_2\text{O} > \text{HF} > \text{NH}_3$...
4
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8104
$\text{Which molecule is least likely to form hydrogen bonds?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_3$, $\text{H}_2\text{NOH}$...
2
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8103
$\text{The type of molecular forces of attraction present in the following compound is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Intermolecular H-bonding.}$, $\text{Intramolecular H-bonding.}$...
4
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8102
$\text{Which of the following molecules exhibits H-bonding?}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_4$, $\text{H}_2\text{Se}$...
4
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8101
$\text{Compound that does not exhibit hydrogen bonding is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{OH}$, $\text{H}_3\text{C}—\text{C}(=\text{O})—\text{OH}$...
3
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8100
$\text{The strongest hydrogen bond present among the following is-}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{O}—\text{H}\cdots\text{S}$, $\text{S}—\text{H}\cdots\text{O}$...
3
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8099
$\text{Amongst } \text{H}_2\text{O}, \text{H}_2\text{S}, \text{H}_2\text{Se} \text{ and } \text{H}_2\text{Te} \text{ the one with the highest boiling point is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2\text{O} \text{ because of H-bonding.}$, $\text{H}_2\text{Te} \text{ because of higher molecular weight.}$...
3
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8098
142
2
204
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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8097
$\text{Assuming that Hund's rule is violated, the bond order and magnetic nature of the diatomic molecule } \text{B}_2 \text{ is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$1 \text{ and diamagnetic}$, $0 \text{ and diamagnetic}$...
3
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8096
$\text{A diatomic molecule, among the following species, that only has } \pi \text{ bonds according to the Molecular Orbital Theory (MOT) is:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{Be}_2$, $\text{O}_2$...
1
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8095
$\text{The plus and negative sign of the orbitals mean:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Wave function.}$, $\text{Probability density.}$...
4
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8094
$\text{Which of the following conversions demonstrates an increase in bond order and a change in magnetic behaviour?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{NO} \rightarrow \text{NO}^+$, $\text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{O}_2^+$...
1
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8093
$\text{The species that does not have unpaired electrons is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{N}_2^+$, $\text{O}_2$...
1
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8092
$\text{N}_2 \text{ and } \text{O}_2 \text{ are converted to monocations } \text{N}_2^+ \text{ and } \text{O}_2^+ \text{ respectively. Which of the following is incorrect?}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{In } \text{N}_2^+, \text{ the } \text{N} - \text{N} \text{ bond weakens.}$, $\text{In } \text{O}_2^+, \text{ the } \text{O} - \text{O} \text{ bond order increases.}$...
3
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8091
$\text{From the perspective of molecular orbital theory, which statement is false?}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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8090
$\text{A molecule/ion among the following species that does not exist under normal conditions is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Be}_2^+$, $\text{Be}_2$...
4
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8089
$\text{The decreasing order of stability of } \text{O}_2, \text{O}_2^-, \text{O}_2^+ \text{ and } \text{O}_2^{2-} \text{ is:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{O}_2^+ > \text{O}_2 > \text{O}_2^- > \text{O}_2^{2-}$, $\text{O}_2^{2-} > \text{O}_2^- > \text{O}_2 > \text{O}_2^+$...
2
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Delete
8088
$\text{Combination of atoms A and B that forms an anti-bonding molecular orbital is:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\frac{\Psi_A^2}{\Psi_B^2}$, $\Psi_A^2 \times \Psi_B^2$...
1
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Edit
Delete
8087
Which of the following has the minimum bond length?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{O}_2^-$, $\text{O}_2^{2-}$...
4
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Delete
8086
The specie with the shortest bond length is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{O}_2^+$, $\text{O}_2^-$...
4
View
Edit
Delete
8085
The correct order of bond order in the following species is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{O}_2^{2+} > \text{O}_2^+ > \text{O}_2^-$, $\text{O}_2^{2+} < \text{O}_2^- < \text{O}_2^+$...
4
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Delete
8084
In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, the central atoms have $\text{sp}^2$ hybridisation?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{NO}_2^-$ and $\text{NH}_3$, $\text{BF}_3$ and $\text{NO}_2^-$...
1
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Delete
8083
The relative order of stability of the following species: $\text{O}_2$, $\text{O}_2^+$, $\text{O}_2^-$, and $\text{O}_2^{2-}$ is -
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{O}_2^+ > \text{O}_2 > \text{O}_2^- > \text{O}_2^{2-}$, $\text{O}_2^{2-} > \text{O}_2 > \text{O}_2^- > \text{O}_2^+$...
2
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8082
The bond order of $1.5$ is shown by:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{O}_2^{+}$, $\text{O}_2^{-}$...
1
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Edit
Delete
8081
The bond order of $1.5$ is shown by:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{O}_2^{+}$, $\text{O}_2^{-}$...
2
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Edit
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8080
A pair in which both species are not likely to exist is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2^{+}, \text{He}_2^{2-}$, $\text{H}_2^{-}, \text{He}_2^{2+}$...
3
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Delete
8079
What is the correct sequence of bond order for the specified species?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{O}_2^{-} > \text{O}_2 > \text{O}_2^{+}$, $\text{O}_2^{-} < \text{O}_2 < \text{O}_2^{+}$...
2
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8078
Which of the following is a diamagnetic species?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{O}_2$, $\text{O}_2^{2-}$...
2
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8077
Paramagnetic species among the following is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$ \text{CO} $, $ \text{O}_2^{-} $...
2
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8076
In the option are given sequences of increasing bond order for the following species. The correct option is :
$ \text{O}_2, \text{N}_2, \text{O}_2^{+} \text{ and } \text{O}_2^{-} $
2
204
Recommended Questions
$ \text{O}_2 > \text{N}_2 > \text{O}_2^{+} > \text{O}_2^{-} $, $ \text{O}_2^{-} > \text{O}_2 > \text{O}_2^{+} > \text{N}_2 $...
3
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8075
Molecule/Ion that is diamagnetic in nature is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$ \text{H}_2^{-} $, $ \text{H}_2 $...
2
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8074
A paramagnetic molecule among the following is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$ \text{O}_2^{-} $, $ \text{CN}^{-} $...
1
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8073
The bond angle between two hybrid orbitals is $105^{\circ}$. The $ \% $ s character in orbital is-
2
204
Recommended Questions
Between 30-31%, Between 9-12%...
4
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8072
In $\text{BrF}_3$ molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize:
2
204
Recommended Questions
Lone pair-bond pair repulsion., Bond pair-bond pair repulsion....
3
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8071
Which of the following compounds is a planar and a polar compound?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{TeCl}_4$, $\text{SO}_2$...
2
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8070
Which species lacks tetrahedral geometry?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{BH}_4^{-}$, $\text{NH}_2^{-}$...
3
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8069
The 'S' atom among the following that does not have $\text{sp}^3$ hybridization is
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{SO}_4^{2-}$, $\text{SF}_4$...
2
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8068
From the following pairs, the two species that are not isostructural are :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{PF}_5\text{ and BrF}_5$, $\text{PCl}_4^{+}\text{ and SiCl}_4$...
1
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Edit
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8067
A molecule that has an unequal bond length is :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{ClF}_3$, $\text{BF}_3$...
1
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Edit
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8066
The incorrect statement about $\text{NH}_3$ and $\text{H}_2\text{O}$ is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
The bond angle in $\text{NH}_3$ is less than in $\text{H}_2\text{O}$., Both have distorted tetrahedral geometries....
1
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8065
A bent T-shape molecule among the following is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{ICl}_4^{-}$, $\text{PCl}_3$...
3
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Edit
Delete
8064
$\text{Which of the following species has a linear shape?}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{NO}_2^{-}$, $\text{SO}_2$...
3
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Edit
Delete
8063
$\text{In which of the following molecules are all the bonds not equal?}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{ClF}_3$, $\text{BF}_3$...
1
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8062
$\text{The correct order of increasing s-character (in percentage) in the hybrid orbitals of the following molecules/ions is:}$
$\text{(i) } \text{CO}_3^{2-}$
$\text{(ii) } \text{XeF}_4$
$\text{(iii) } \text{I}_3^{-}$
$\text{(iv) } \text{NCl}_3$
$\text{(v) } \text{BeCl}_2$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{(ii)}<\text{(iii)}<\text{(iv)}<\text{(i)}<\text{(v)}$, $\text{(ii)}<\text{(iv)}<\text{(iii)}<\text{(v)}<\text{(i)}$...
1
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8061
$\text{The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF}_4 \text{ are :}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{Octahedral, sp}^3\text{d}^2$, $\text{Trigonal bipyramidal, sp}^3\text{d}^3$...
4
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8060
$\text{Mg}_2\text{C}_3$ reacts with water forming propyne $\text{C}_3^{4-}$. The number of sigma and pie bonds in $\text{C}_3^{4-}$ is-
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{Two sigma and two pi bonds.}$, $\text{Three sigma and one pi bonds.}$...
1
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Delete
8059
The maximum number of $90^\circ$ angles between bond pair-bond pair of electrons is observed in:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{sp}^3\text{d}^2\text{-hybridization.}$, $\text{sp}^3\text{d-hybridization.}$...
1
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8058
$\text{CH}_4\text{ does not exhibit square planar geometry because:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{For square planar geometry, 5 bonds are required.}$, $\text{Carbon does not have d-orbitals to undergo dsp}^2\text{ hybridization.}$...
2
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8057
Match the compounds given in Column I with the hybridization and shape given in Column II and mark the correct option.
$\text{Column I}\hspace{20mm}\text{Column II}$
$\text{A. }\text{XeF}_6\hspace{20mm}1.\text{ Distorted octahedral}$
$\text{B. }\text{XeO}_3\hspace{20mm}2.\text{ Square planar}$
$\text{C. }\text{XeOF}_4\hspace{18mm}3.\text{ Pyramidal}$
$\text{D. }\text{XeF}_4\hspace{20mm}4.\text{ Square pyramidal}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3, A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2...
4
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8056
Match the compounds of $\text{Xe}$ in column $\text{I}$ with the molecular structure in column $\text{II}.$
$\text{Column-I}\hspace{20mm}\text{Column-II}$
$(\text{a})\text{ }\text{XeF}_2\hspace{20mm}(\text{i})\text{ Square planar}$
$(\text{b})\text{ }\text{XeF}_4\hspace{20mm}(\text{ii})\text{ Linear}$
$(\text{c})\text{ }\text{XeO}_3\hspace{20mm}(\text{iii})\text{ Square pyramidal}$
$(\text{d})\text{ }\text{XeOF}_4\hspace{18mm}(\text{iv})\text{ Pyramidal}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv), (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)...
4
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8055
The pair of electrons in the given carbanion, $\text{CH}_3\text{C}\equiv\text{C}^{-}$, is present in which of the following orbitals?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{sp}^3$, $\text{sp}^2$...
3
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8054
$\text{Considering the X-axis as the internuclear axis, a sigma bond will not be formed in:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$1s \text{ and } 2s$, $1s \text{ and } 2p_x$...
3
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8053
$\text{Which of the following pairs of species have similar shapes?}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{PCl}_3, \text{NH}_3$, $\text{CF}_4, \text{SF}_4$...
3
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Delete
8052
$\text{Which of the following species has a bond angle of } 120^{\circ}?$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{SF}_6$, $\text{NCl}_3$...
1
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8051
$\text{The geometry and the dipole moment of } \text{H}_2\text{S is:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{Angular (distorted tetrahedral) and non-zero.}$, $\text{Angular and zero.}$...
3
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8050
$\text{AlCl}_3 + \text{Cl}^- \rightarrow \text{AlCl}_4^-$
$\text{The change in the hybridization of the Al atom in the above reaction is:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$sp^2 \text{ to } sp^3$, $sp^3 \text{ to } sp^2$...
1
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8049
The correct order of electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$sp > sp^2 < sp^3$, $sp > sp^2 > sp^3$...
1
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Delete
8048
A pair of species that have identical shapes is :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{NO}_2^+$ and $\text{NO}_2^-$, $\text{PCl}_5$ and $\text{BrF}_5$...
2
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8047
Given the following hydrocarbon:
$\text{CH}_3 - \text{C}(\text{CH}_3)_2 - \text{CH} = \text{CH} - \text{CH}(\text{CH}_3) - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH}$
The state of hybridisation of carbons marked 2, 3, 5 and 6 in the following hydrocarbon are, respectively :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{sp}$, $\text{sp}^3$, $\text{sp}^2$ and $\text{sp}^3$, $\text{sp}^3$, $\text{sp}^2$, $\text{sp}^2$ and $\text{sp}$...
3
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8046
Isostructural pair among the following is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{BCl}_3$ and $\text{BrCl}_3$, $\text{NH}_3$ and $\text{NO}_3^-$...
1
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8045
In which of the following molecules/ions $\text{BF}_3$, $\text{NO}_2^-$, $\text{NH}_2^-$ and $\text{H}_2\text{O}$, the central atom is $\text{sp}^2$ hybridized?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{NO}_2^-$ and $\text{NH}_2^-$, $\text{NH}_2^-$ and $\text{H}_2\text{O}$...
4
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Delete
8044
${XeF}_2 \text{ is isostructural with :}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{TeF}_2$, $\text{ICl}_2^{-}$...
4
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Delete
8043
Among the following molecules/ions $\text{BF}_3$, $\text{NO}_2^-$, $\text{NH}_2^-$, and $\text{H}_2\text{O}$, the central atom is $\text{sp}^2$ hybridized in :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{NO}_2^-$ and $\text{NH}_2^-$, $\text{NH}_2^-$ and $\text{H}_2\text{O}$...
2
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Delete
8042
$\text{XeF}_2$ is isostructural with :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{SbCl}_3$, $\text{BCl}_3$...
4
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Delete
8041
The hybridization of nitrogen in $\text{NO}_2^+$, $\text{NO}_3^-$ and $\text{NH}_4^+$ respectively is :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{sp}$, $\text{sp}^3$, and $\text{sp}^2$, $\text{sp}$, $\text{sp}^2$, and $\text{sp}^3$...
4
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Delete
8040
The correct bond angle for $\text{sp}^2$ hybridization is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$90^\circ$, $120^\circ$...
2
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Delete
8039
The hybridization of orbitals of $\text{N}$ atom in $\text{NO}_3^ -$, $\text{NO}_2^+$, and $\text{NH}_4^+$ are respectively:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{sp}$, $\text{sp}^2$, $\text{sp}^3$, $\text{sp}^2$, $\text{sp}$, $\text{sp}^3$...
2
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8038
The $\text{BF}_3$ is a planar molecule whereas $\text{NF}_3$ is pyramidal because:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{B} - \text{F}$ bond is more polar than $\text{N} - \text{F}$ bond., Boron atom is bigger than nitrogen atom....
2
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8037
The correct increasing order of bond angles in the following species is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl}_2\text{O} < \text{ClO}_2 < \text{ClO}_2^-$, $\text{ClO}_2^ - < \text{Cl}_2\text{O} < \text{ClO}_2$...
4
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Delete
8036
A molecule having the smallest bond angle among the following is :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{SO}_2$, $\text{H}_2\text{O}$...
4
View
Edit
Delete
8035
The molecular geometry that is least likely to result from a trigonal bipyramidal electron geometry is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
Trigonal planar, See-saw...
3
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Edit
Delete
8034
A molecule or ion that has an unequal bond length is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{SF}_4$, $\text{SiF}_4$...
1
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Edit
Delete
8033
The incorrect statement among the following regarding the molecules of $\text{CH}_4$, $\text{NH}_3$, and $\text{H}_2\text{O}$ is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
The $\text{H-O-H}$ bond angle in $\text{H}_2\text{O}$ is larger than the $\text{H-C-H}$ bond angle in $\text{CH}_4$., The $\text{H-O-H}$ bond angle in $\text{H}_2\text{O}$ is smaller than the $\text{H-N-H}$ bond angle in $\text{NH}_3$....
1
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Delete
8032
The molecule having the smallest bond angle is-
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{PCl}_3$, $\text{NCl}_3$...
1
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Edit
Delete
8031
The bond angles of $\text{NH}_3$, $\text{NH}_4^+$ and $\text{NH}_2^-$ are in the order :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{NH}_2^- > \text{NH}_3 > \text{NH}_4^+$, $\text{NH}_4^+ > \text{NH}_3 > \text{NH}_2^-$...
4
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8030
The correct order of the increasing bond angles in the following triatomic species is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{NO}_2^- < \text{NO}_2^+ < \text{NO}_2$, $\text{NO}_2^- < \text{NO}_2 < \text{NO}_2^+$...
2
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Delete
8029
Correct statement among the following regarding the shape of $\text{HgCl}_2$, $\text{SnCl}_2$ and $\text{F}_2\text{O}$ is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
All have a linear shape., $\text{SnCl}_2$ are linear and $\text{HgCl}_2$ is V-shaped....
2
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Delete
8028
The shape of $\text{XeF}_3^+$ is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
Trigonal planar, Pyramidal...
3
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Edit
Delete
8027
Which among the following species has a triangular planar shape?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$N_3^{-}$, $NO_3^{-}$...
3
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Delete
8026
The shape of $AsF_5$ is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
Pentagonal bipyramidal., Trigonal bipyramidal....
2
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Delete
8025
The correct relationship for the bond angle of water and dimethyl ether $(\text{CH}_3 - \ddot{\text{O}} - \text{CH}_3)$ is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
Water $>$ Dimethyl ether, Dimethyl ether $>$ Water...
2
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8024
The compound that has the highest ionic character associated with the X-Cl bond is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$PCl_5$, $BCl_3$...
2
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Delete
8023
Which of the following is not a perfect nonpolar molecule?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$B_3N_3H_6$, $CCl_4$...
4
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Delete
8022
A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of $1.2 \text{ D}$. If its bond length is equal to $10^{-10} \text{ m}$, then the fraction of an electronic charge on each atom will be:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$42\%$, $52\%$...
1
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8021
The correct sequence of the polarity of the following molecule is
a. Benzene
b. Inorganic Benzene
c. $\text{PCl}_3\text{F}_2$
d. $\text{PCl}_2\text{F}_3$
(Where $\text{P=polar, NP=non-polar}$)
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{a: P, b: NP, c: NP, d: P}$, $\text{a: NP, b: NP, c: NP, d: P}$...
4
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8020
Molecule that has $\mu \text{ (observed)}$ greater than $\mu \text{ (theoretical)}$ is :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{CHCl}_3$, $\text{o-dichlorobenzene}$...
2
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8019
Choose the correct option for the following molecule:
$\text{Cl} \text{H} \text{C} = \text{C} = \text{C} = \text{C} \text{H} \text{Cl}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{Non planar}$, $\mu \neq 0$...
4
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8018
A gas that should not be collected over water is-
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}_2$, $\text{N}_2$...
4
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8017
The set of isomers of $ \text{C}_6\text{H}_4 \text{Cl}_2 $ that have an equal dipole moment with $ \text{C}_6\text{H}_5 \text{Cl} $ & $ \text{C}_6\text{H}_6 $ respectively is :
2
204
Recommended Questions
Ortho and Meta, Meta and Para...
4
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Delete
8016
The correct order of the dipole moment of the following molecules is :
2
204
Recommended Questions
I > II > III, I = II = III...
2
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Delete
8015
The least polar bond is present in which of the following?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$ \text{O}-\text{F} $, $ \text{P}-\text{F} $...
1
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8014
Which of the following species has a zero dipole moment?
(i) $ \text{CO}_2 $ (ii) $ \text{COCl}_2 $ (iii) $ \text{CH}_2\text{Cl}_2 $ (iv) $ \text{BCl}_3 $
2
204
Recommended Questions
(i) and (iv), (ii) and (iv)...
1
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8013
Which of the following is a polar molecule?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$ \text{SF}_4 $, $ \text{SiF}_4 $...
1
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8012
The molecule among the following having the highest dipole moment is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$ \text{CO}_2 $, $ \text{HI} $...
1
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Delete
8011
The correct order of increasing dipole moment is :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{CF}_4 < \text{NH}_3 < \text{NF}_3 < \text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{CF}_4 < \text{NH}_3 < \text{H}_2\text{O} < \text{NF}_3$...
3
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8010
Which of the following is a pair of polar molecules?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{CO}_2 \text{ and } \text{H}_2\text{O}$, $\text{BF}_3 \text{ and } \text{PCl}_3$...
4
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8009
A molecule among the following with non-zero dipole moment is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{C}_6 \text{Cl}_6$, $\text{C}_2 \text{Cl}_6$...
3
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8008
The molecule/s that will have non zero dipole moments is /are :
2
204
Recommended Questions
1,2-dichloro benzene., Cis-3-hexene....
4
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8007
Non-Zero dipole moment is shown by :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{CO}_2$, p-Dichlorobenzene...
4
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8006
The correct increasing order of the polarizing power of the cationic species $\text{K}^{+}$, $\text{Ca}^{2+}$, $\text{Mg}^{2+}$, $\text{Be}^{2+}$ is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{Be}^{2+} < \text{K}^{+} < \text{Ca}^{2+} < \text{Mg}^{2+}$, $\text{K}^{+} < \text{Ca}^{2+} < \text{Mg}^{2+} < \text{Be}^{2+}$...
4
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8005
The correct statement among the following for a compound having a higher dipole moment is-
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{Greater will the ionic nature.}$, $\text{Lesser will be the polarity.}$...
2
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Delete
8004
A molecule among the following that has the maximum dipole moment is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{CO}_2$, $\text{CH}_4$...
1
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8003
$\text{H}_2\text{O}$ has a net dipole moment while $\text{BeF}_2$ has zero dipole moment because :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{F is more electronegative than oxygen.}$, $\text{Be is more electronegative than oxygen.}$...
3
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Delete
8002
The application of dipole moment is/are :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{It is used to differentiate polar and non-polar bonds.}$, $\text{It is helpful in calculating the percentage ionic character of a molecule.}$...
4
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8001
Which of the following has a maximum 'Cl-O' bond order?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{ClO}_3^{-}$, $\text{ClO}_3$...
3
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8000
The correct order of 'S—O' bond length is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$SO_3^{2-} > SO_4^{2-} > SO_3 > SO_2$, $SO_3^{2-} > SO_4^{2-} > SO_2 > SO_3$...
2
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7999
$H_3PO_3$ can be represented by structures 1 and 2 shown below.
These two structures cannot be taken as the canonical forms of the resonance hybrid, because :
2
204
Recommended Questions
The positions of the atoms have changed., The positions of the atoms are constant....
2
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7998
An incorrect statement regarding resonating structures is :
2
204
Recommended Questions
The contributing structure must have the same number of unpaired electrons., The contributing structures should have similar energies....
1
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Delete
7997
The most preferred structure among the following with the lowest energy for $SO_3$ is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\begin{matrix} :\overset{..}{O} \\ =\underset{..}{S} - \overset{..}{O}: \\ :\overset{..}{O}: \end{matrix}$, $\begin{matrix} :\overset{..}{O} \\ =\underset{..}{S} - \overset{..}{O}:^{-} \\ :\overset{..}{O}:: \end{matrix}$...
3
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7996
$\text{The total number of possible resonance forms for the nitrate ion, } (\text{NO}_3^{-}) \text{ is:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$1$, $2$...
1
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7995
$\text{The number of }\pi \text{ bonds and } \sigma \text{ bonds in the following structure is :}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{6, 19}$, $\text{4, 20}$...
3
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7994
$\text{On the left are given decreasing orders of elements for a certain property and on right side is given the property. The incorrect order for the given properties is:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{AlF}_3 > \text{MgO} > \text{MgF}_2 \text{ : Lattice energy}$, $\text{Li} > \text{Na} > \text{Al} > \text{Mg} \text{ : Electron affinity}$...
3
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7993
$\text{The incorrect order of lattice energy among the following set is:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{AlF}_3 > \text{MgF}_2$, $\text{Li}_3\text{N} > \text{Li}_2\text{O}$...
3
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7992
$\text{Which of the following compounds has a higher hydration energy than the lattice energy?}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{BaSO}_4$, $\text{MgSO}_4$...
3
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7991
Compounds that have a maximum value of lattice energy among the following, is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$1.\ \text{NaF}$, $2.\ \text{NaCl}$...
2
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7990
A Compound with maximum ionic character is formed from:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$1.\ \text{Na and I}$, $2.\ \text{Cs and F}$...
1
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7989
Which of the following pair of elements can form an ionic compound?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$1.\ \text{Na and Ca}$, $2.\ \text{K and O}_2$...
2
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7988
The correct increasing order of ionic character of the following molecule is:
$\text{LiF, K}_2\text{O, N}_2\text{, SO}_2\text{, ClF}_3$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$1.\ \text{N}_2 < \text{SO}_2 < \text{ClF}_3 < \text{K}_2\text{O} < \text{LiF}$, $2.\ \text{N}_2 > \text{SO}_2 > \text{ClF}_3 > \text{K}_2\text{O} < \text{LiF}$...
2
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7987
The favourable factors for the formation of an ionic bond would be:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$1.\ \text{Low ionization enthalpy, High negative electron gain enthalpy, High lattice energy.}$, $2.\ \text{High ionization enthalpy, High electron gain enthalpy, High lattice energy.}$...
1
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7986
The decreasing order of ionic character of the $\text{N-H}$, $\text{F-H}$, $\text{C-H}$, and $\text{O-H}$, is :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{N-H} > \text{F-H} > \text{C-H} > \text{O-H}$, $\text{F-H} > \text{N-H} > \text{C-H} > \text{O-H}$...
1
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7985
Which of the following atomic orbitals would have the greatest overlap to form the strongest covalent bond?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$2s-2s (\sigma)$, $2s-2p (\sigma)$...
4
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7984
The following graph captures potential energy on the y-axis for hydrogen gas formation as a function of the internuclear distance on the x-axis:
The bond energy of $\text{H}_2$ can be represented by-
2
204
Recommended Questions
$(c - a)$, $(b - a)$...
4
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7983
Among the following, the maximum covalent character is shown by which compound:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{MgCl}_2$, $\text{FeCl}_2$...
2
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7982
The correct order of covalent bond character among $\text{LiCl}$, $\text{BeCl}_2$, $\text{BCl}_3$ and $\text{CCl}_4$, is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{LiCl} < \text{BeCl}_2 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{CCl}_4$, $\text{LiCl} > \text{BeCl}_2 < \text{BCl}_3 < \text{CCl}_4$...
3
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7981
Most covalent compound among the following is :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{AlF}_3$, $\text{AlCl}_3$...
3
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7980
The electronic configurations of the elements $\text{A}$, $\text{B}$, and $\text{C}$ are given below.
$\text{A} = 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6$
$\text{B} = 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^3$
$\text{C} = 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^5$
The bond between $\text{B}$ and $\text{C}$ will be :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ionic.}$, $\text{Covalent.}$...
4
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7979
23
2
204
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7978
The electronic configurations of the elements $\text{A}$, $\text{B}$, and $\text{C}$ are given below.
$\text{A} = 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6$
$\text{B} = 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^3$
$\text{C} = 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^5$
The stable form of $\text{C}$ may be represented by the formula :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{C}$, $\text{C}_2$...
2
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7977
The electronic configurations of the elements $\text{A}$, $\text{B}$, and $\text{C}$ are given below.
$\text{A} = 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6$
$\text{B} = 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^3$
$\text{C} = 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^5$
The stable form of $\text{A}$ may be represented by the formula:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{A}$, $\text{A}_2$...
1
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7976
If the electronic configuration of an element is $1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6 3d^2 4s^2$, the four electrons that participate in the chemical bond formation will be from :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$3p^6$, $3p^6, 4s^2$...
4
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7975
A compound having a metal-to-metal bond is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
Cupric chloride, Stannous chloride...
3
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7974
The bond length can be defined as -
2
204
Recommended Questions
The equilibrium distance between the nuclei of two bonded atoms in a molecule., The farthest distance between the nuclei of two bonded atoms in a molecule....
1
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7973
The correct order of $\text{C} - \text{O}$ bond length among $\text{CO}$, $\text{CO}_3^{2-}$, and $\text{CO}_2$ is :
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{CO}_2 < \text{CO}_3^{2-} < \text{CO}$, $\text{CO} < \text{CO}_3^{2-} < \text{CO}_2$...
4
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7972
When two atoms combine to form a molecule, energy is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
Released., Absorbed....
1
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7971
The number of sigma ($\sigma$) and pi ($\pi$) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$13\ \sigma$ bonds and no $\pi$ bond., $10\ \sigma$ bonds and $3\ \pi$ bonds....
2
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7970
A molecule that has a complete octet is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{BeCl}_2(\text{dimer})$, $\text{BeH}_2(\text{dimer})$...
4
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7969
Compound that is isoelectronic with an adduct of "Diborane and Ammonia" is-
2
204
Recommended Questions
Hydrogen peroxide., Diborane (at absolute zero temp.)....
1
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7968
Which of the following species deviates from the octet rule?
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{CO}_3^{2-}$, $\text{H}_2\text{SO}_3$...
2
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7967
In $\text{PO}_4^{3-}$ ion, the formal charge on the oxygen atom of the $\text{P-O}$ bond is:
2
204
Recommended Questions
$+1$, $-1$...
3
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7966
$\text{The set of oxides of nitrogen that are paramagnetic in nature is:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{NO}, \text{N}_2\text{O}$, $\text{N}_2\text{O}_3, \text{NO}$...
3
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7965
$\text{Which pair of ions from the following list do not constitute an iso-electronic pair?}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{Mn}^{2+}, \text{Fe}^{3+}$, $\text{Fe}^{2+}, \text{Mn}^{2+}$...
2
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7964
$\text{The significance of the octet rule is:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{To determine the stability of atoms.}$, $\text{To find the hybridization of elements.}$...
1
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7963
$\text{Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{CO}_3^{2-}, \text{SO}_3^{2-}$, $\text{ClO}_3^{-}, \text{CO}_3^{2-}$...
4
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7962
$\text{Identify the wrong statement among the following:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{Amongst isoelectronic species, the smaller the positive charge on the cation, the smaller the ionic radius.}$, $\text{Amongst isoelectronic species, the greater the negative charge on the anion, the larger is the ionic radius.}$...
1
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7961
$\text{Which among the following does not contain a set of isoelectronic species?}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{SO}_3^{2-}\text{, CO}_3^{2-}\text{, NO}_3^-$, $\text{CN}^-\text{, N}_2\text{, CO}$...
1
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7960
$\text{Lewis symbols for the atoms and ions: S and S}^{2-}\text{; Al and Al}^{3+}\text{; H and H}^-\text{ respectively, would be:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{S with 6 dots around it; [S with 8 dots around it]}^{2-}\text{; Al}^{3+}\text{; Al with 1 dot; H with 1 dot; [H with 2 dots]}^-$, $\text{S with 6 dots around it; [S with 8 dots around it]}^{2-}\text{; Al with 1 dot; Al}^{3+}\text{; H with 1 dot; [H with 2 dots]}^-$...
2
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7959
$\text{An electron-deficient compound among the following is:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{(SiH}_3\text{)}_2$, $\text{(BH}_3\text{)}_2$...
2
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7958
$\text{The correct Lewis structure of acetic acid is:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{H} = \text{C} - \text{C} - \text{O} - \text{H}$ with lone pairs shown as dots, $\text{H} = \text{C} - \text{C} = \text{O} - \text{H}$ with lone pairs shown as dots...
3
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7957
$\text{The lone pairs of electrons can be defined as:}$
2
204
Recommended Questions
$\text{Electron pairs that participate in bonding.}$, $\text{Electron pairs that do not participate in bonding.}$...
2
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7956
$\text{The order of basic character of given oxides is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}_2\text{O} > \text{MgO} > \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 > \text{CuO}$, $\text{MgO} > \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 > \text{CuO} > \text{Na}_2\text{O}$...
$\text{Na}_2\text{O} > \text{MgO} > \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 > \text{CuO}$
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7955
$\text{The correct order among the following options is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{F} > \text{N} > \text{C} > \text{Si} > \text{Ga - Non-metallic character.}$, $\text{F} > \text{Cl} > \text{O} > \text{N - Oxidising property.}$...
$\text{All of the above.}$
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7954
$\text{Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s}^2\text{2s}^2\text{2p}^3\text{, the simplest formula for this compound is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Mg}_2\text{X}_3$, $\text{MgX}_2$...
$\text{Mg}_3\text{X}_2$
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7953
$\text{The increasing order of non-metallic character of the elements N, P, O, and S is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{P} < \text{S} < \text{N} < \text{O}$, $\text{O} < \text{S} < \text{N} < \text{P}$...
$\text{P} < \text{S} < \text{N} < \text{O}$
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7952
$\text{The correct order of metallic character of elements B, Al, Mg and K is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{B} > \text{Al} > \text{Mg} > \text{K}$, $\text{Al} > \text{Mg} > \text{B} > \text{K}$...
$\text{K} > \text{Mg} > \text{Al} > \text{B}$
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7951
$\text{Incorrect statement about metal is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Metals can donate electrons.}$, $\text{Metals form ionic compounds.}$...
$\text{Metals are more electronegative.}$
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7950
$\text{Percentage ionic character, if electronegativity value of X=2.1 \& Y=3.0, is :-}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$20$, $30$...
$17$
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7949
$\text{The statement that "the electronegativity of N on the Pauling scale is 3.0 in all the nitrogen compounds" is incorrect because:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Electronegativity of an element is a variable property.}$, $\text{Pauling scale is not used to measure electronegativity.}$...
$\text{Electronegativity of an element is a variable property.}$
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7948
$\text{The incorrect order of electronegativity is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl} > \text{S} > \text{P} > \text{Si}$, $\text{Si} > \text{Al} > \text{Mg} > \text{Na}$...
$\text{None of the above.}$
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7947
$\text{Allred Rochow's scale is related to:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Electronegativity, radius, and Z}^*$, $\text{Resonance energy of the molecule, ionisation potential and electron affinity.}$...
$\text{Electronegativity, radius, and Z}^*$
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7946
$\text{The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order of:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{S} < \text{P} < \text{N} < \text{O}$, $\text{P} < \text{S} < \text{N} < \text{O}$...
$\text{P} < \text{S} < \text{N} < \text{O}$
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7945
$\text{The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order of:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{S} < \text{P} < \text{N} < \text{O}$, $\text{P} < \text{S} < \text{N} < \text{O}$...
$\text{P} < \text{S} < \text{N} < \text{O}$
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7944
$\text{The basic difference between the electron gain enthalpy (E}_a\text{) and electronegativity (E}_N\text{) is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{E}_a \text{ is the tendency to lose electrons, while E}_N \text{ is the tendency to repel the shared pairs of electrons.}$, $\text{E}_a \text{ is the tendency to gain neutrons, while E}_N \text{ is the tendency to attract the shared pairs of electrons.}$...
$\text{E}_a \text{ is the tendency to gain electrons, while E}_N \text{ is the tendency to attract the shared pairs of electrons.}$
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7943
$\text{The basic difference between the electron gain enthalpy (E}_a\text{) and electronegativity (E}_N\text{) is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{E}_a \text{ is the tendency to lose electrons, while E}_N \text{ is the tendency to repel the shared pairs of electrons.}$, $\text{E}_a \text{ is the tendency to gain neutrons, while E}_N \text{ is the tendency to attract the shared pairs of electrons.}$...
$\text{E}_a \text{ is the tendency to gain electrons, while E}_N \text{ is the tendency to attract the shared pairs of electrons.}$
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7942
$\text{Assertion (A): Fluorine forms only one oxoacid, HOF.}$\n\n$\text{Reason (R): Fluorine has a small size and high electronegativity.}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$
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7941
$\text{Element/Ion that has the highest electron affinity is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{F}^-$, $\text{O}^-$...
$\text{O}$
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7940
$\text{Incorrect statement about characteristics regarding halogens is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ionization energy decreases with increase in atomic number.}$, $\text{Electronegativity decreases with increase in atomic number.}$...
$\text{Electron affinity decreases with increase in atomic number.}$
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7939
$\text{Electronic configuration of four elements A, B, C and D are given below :}$\n\n$\text{A. }1s^2 2s^2 2p^6$\n\n$\text{B. }1s^2 2s^2 2p^4$\n\n$\text{C. }1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^1$\n\n$\text{D. }1s^2 2s^2 2p^5$\n\n$\text{The correct order of increasing tendency to gain electron is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{A} < \text{C} < \text{B} < \text{D}$, $\text{A} < \text{B} < \text{C} < \text{D}$...
$\text{A} < \text{C} < \text{B} < \text{D}$
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7938
$\text{The process that requires absorption of energy is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{N} \rightarrow \text{N}^-$, $\text{F} \rightarrow \text{F}^-$...
$\text{N} \rightarrow \text{N}^-$
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7937
$\text{The group of metals having the positive value of electron gain enthalpy is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cr, Fe}$, $\text{Mn, Zn}$...
$\text{Mn, Zn}$
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7936
$\text{Element of the third period that is expected to exhibit positive electron gain enthalpy is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}$, $\text{Al}$...
$\text{Ar}$
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7935
$\text{Elements}\quad\Delta H_1\quad\Delta H_2\quad\Delta_{eg}H$\n\n$\text{I}\quad\quad\quad 520\quad 7300\quad -60$\n\n$\text{II}\quad\quad\quad 419\quad 3051\quad -48$\n\n$\text{III}\quad\quad 1681\quad 3374\quad -328$\n\n$\text{IV}\quad\quad 1008\quad 1846\quad -295$\n\n$\text{V}\quad\quad 2372\quad 5251\quad +48$\n\n$\text{VI}\quad\quad\quad 738\quad 1451\quad -40$\n\n$\text{The least reactive element based on the above data is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{III}$, $\text{IV}$...
$\text{V}$
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7934
$\text{An element with higher negative electron gain enthalpy in the given pair is:}\n\text{(i) O or F (ii) F or Cl}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{O, Cl}$, $\text{F, F}$...
$\text{F, Cl}$
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7933
$\text{The correct order for electron affinity of halogens is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Br} > \text{F}$, $\text{F} > \text{Cl}$...
$\text{F} > \text{I}$
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7932
$\text{The incorrect match among the following is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{B} < \text{C} < \text{N} < \text{O}\text{ (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)}$, $\text{I} < \text{Br} < \text{F} < \text{Cl}\text{ (increasing electron gain enthalpy)}$...
$\text{B} < \text{C} < \text{N} < \text{O}\text{ (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)}$
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7931
$\text{The reactivity of alkali metals increases, whereas halogen decreases down the group, because:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{On moving down, ionization enthalpy decreases in group 1 while the electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative in group 17.}$, $\text{On moving down, ionization enthalpy increases in group 1 while the electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative in group 17.}$...
$\text{On moving down, ionization enthalpy decreases in group 1 while the electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative in group 17.}$
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7930
$\text{The electron gain enthalpies of halogens in kJ mol}^{-1}\text{ are given below.}$
$\text{F} = -332, \text{Cl} = -349, \text{Br} = -325, \text{I} = -295.$
$\text{The lesser negative value for F as compared to that of Cl is due to:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Strong electron-electron repulsions in the compact 2p-subshell of F.}$, $\text{Weak electron-electron repulsions in the bigger 3p-subshell of Cl.}$...
$\text{1 & 2 both}$
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7929
$\text{The correct order of increasing electron affinity for the elements, O, S, F and Cl is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl} < \text{F} < \text{O} < \text{S}$, $\text{O} < \text{S} < \text{F} < \text{Cl}$...
$\text{O} < \text{S} < \text{F} < \text{Cl}$
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7928
$\text{The correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with a negative sign for the elements O, S, F, and Cl is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl} < \text{F} < \text{S} < \text{O}$, $\text{O} < \text{S} < \text{F} < \text{Cl}$...
$\text{O} < \text{S} < \text{F} < \text{Cl}$
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7927
$\text{The formation of the oxide ion O}^{2-}\text{(g), from the oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below,}$
$\text{O(g) + e}^- \rightarrow \text{O}^-; \Delta_f H^0 = -141 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\text{O}^-\text{(g) + e}^- \rightarrow \text{O}^{2-}\text{(g)}; \Delta_f H^0 = +780 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\text{Thus, the process of formation of O}^{2-}\text{ in the gas phase is unfavorable even though O}^{2-}\text{ is isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.}$, $\text{O}^-\text{ ion has a comparatively smaller size than the oxygen atom.}$...
$\text{Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.}$
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7926
$\text{Among halogens, the correct order of amount of energy released in electron gain (electron gain enthalpy) is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{F} > \text{Cl} > \text{Br} > \text{I}$, $\text{F} < \text{Cl} < \text{Br} < \text{I}$...
$\text{F} < \text{Cl} > \text{Br} > \text{I}$
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7925
$\text{The atomic species that has the maximum ionization energy is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{O}^-$, $\text{S}^-$...
$\text{S}^-$
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7924
$\text{1st }(\Delta H_1)\text{ and 2nd }(\Delta H_2)\text{ Ionization Enthalpies (in kJ mol}^{-1})\text{ and the }(\Delta_{eg}H)\text{ Electron Gain Enthalpy (in kJ mol}^{-1})\text{ of a few elements are given below:}$
$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|}
\hline
\text{Elements} & \Delta H_1 & \Delta H_2 & \Delta_{eg}H \\
\hline
\text{I} & 520 & 7300 & -60 \\
\text{II} & 419 & 3051 & -48 \\
\text{III} & 1681 & 3374 & -328 \\
\text{IV} & 1008 & 1846 & -295 \\
\text{V} & 2372 & 5251 & +48 \\
\text{VI} & 738 & 1451 & -40 \\
\hline
\end{array}$
$\text{The most reactive metal is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{VI}$, $\text{III}$...
$\text{II}$
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7923
$\text{The element having very high electron affinity but zero ionisation enthalpy is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{He (due to inert gas configuration)}$, $\text{Be (due to fully filled subshell)}$...
$\text{None of the above}$
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7922
$\text{First three ionisation energies (in kJ/mol) of three representative elements are given below:}$
$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|}
\hline
\text{Element} & IE_1 & IE_2 & IE_3 \\
\hline
\text{P} & 495.8 & 4562 & 6910 \\
\text{Q} & 737.7 & 1451 & 7733 \\
\text{R} & 577.5 & 1817 & 2745 \\
\hline
\end{array}$
$\text{Then incorrect option is :}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{Q: Alkaline earth metal.}$, $\text{P: Alkali metal.}$...
$\text{R: s-block element.}$
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7921
$\text{If the ionization enthalpy and negative electron gain enthalpy of an element are 275 and 86 kcal mol}^{-1} \text{ respectively, then the electronegativity of the element on the Pauling scale is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$2.8$, $0.0$...
$2.8$
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7920
$\text{The energy of an electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom is } -2.18 \times 10^{-18} \text{ J. The ionization enthalpy of atomic hydrogen in terms of J mol}^{-1} \text{ is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$2.81 \times 10^6 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$, $1.31 \times 10^6 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$...
$1.31 \times 10^6 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$
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7919
$\text{The correct graph depicting ionization energies for } 2^{\text{nd}} \text{ period elements is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Shows smooth increasing trend with slight dip at B, then continues increasing to Ne}$, $\text{Graph 2: Shows increasing trend with dip at B and another dip at O, then increases to Ne}$...
$\text{Graph 3: Shows increasing trend with dip at B and peak at N higher than O, then increases to Ne}$
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7918
$\text{In the following graph of variation of ionization energy with atomic number, X, Y, and Z represent elements.}$\n\n$\text{[Graph shows ionization energy vs atomic number with peaks labeled X (~2300 kJ/mol), Y (~1300 kJ/mol), and Z (~1000 kJ/mol) representing the highest points in their respective periods]}$\n\n$\text{The group number of X, Y, and Z elements is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$1^{\text{st}} \text{ group}$, $15^{\text{th}} \text{ group}$...
$18^{\text{th}} \text{ group}$
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7917
Element that has the greatest tendency to lose an electron is :
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{F}$, $\text{Fr}$...
$\text{Fr}$
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7916
The first ionisation enthalpies of $\text{Na, Mg, Al,}$ and $\text{Si}$ are in the order of:
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na} < \text{Al} < \text{Mg} < \text{Si}$, $\text{Na} > \text{Mg} > \text{Al} > \text{Si}$...
$\text{Na} < \text{Al} < \text{Mg} < \text{Si}$
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7915
The correct order of ionization energy of $\text{W, X, Y}$ and $\text{Z}$ is-
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{W} > \text{X} > \text{Y} > \text{Z}$, $\text{W} < \text{X} < \text{Y} > \text{Z}$...
$\text{W} < \text{X} > \text{Y} < \text{Z}$
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7914
The values of the first ionization enthalpies for two isotopes would be:
2
203
Recommended Questions
Same., Different....
Same.
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7913
Amongst the following electronic configurations, the highest ionization energy is represented by:
2
203
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Ne}]3s^23p^3$, $[\text{Ne}]3s^23p^2$...
$[\text{Ne}]3s^23p^3$
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7912
For the second-period elements, the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Li} < \text{Be} < \text{B} < \text{C} < \text{O} < \text{N} < \text{F} < \text{Ne}$, $\text{Li} < \text{Be} < \text{B} < \text{C} < \text{N} < \text{O} < \text{F} < \text{Ne}$...
$\text{Li} < \text{B} < \text{Be} < \text{C} < \text{O} < \text{N} < \text{F} < \text{Ne}$
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7911
The incorrect statement about ionization enthalpy is:
2
203
Recommended Questions
Ionization enthalpy increases for each successive electron., Noble gases have the highest ionization enthalpy....
Ionization enthalpy of oxygen is higher than that of nitrogen.
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7910
$\text{IP}_1$ and $\text{IP}_2$ for $\text{Mg}$ are $178 \text{ Kcal mol}^{-1}$ and $348 \text{ Kcal mol}^{-1}$, respectively. The energy required for the reaction, $\text{Mg} \rightarrow \text{Mg}^{2+} + 2e^{-}$ will be:
2
203
Recommended Questions
$+170 \text{ Kcal mol}^{-1}$, $+526 \text{ Kcal mol}^{-1}$...
$+526 \text{ Kcal mol}^{-1}$
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7909
Abnormally high ionization enthalpy of $\text{B}$ as depicted in the graph below can be due to :
2
203
Recommended Questions
Completely filled $2p$ subshell., Completely filled $2s$ subshell....
Completely filled $2s$ subshell.
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7908
$\text{A configuration with the lowest ionization enthalpy among the following is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$1s^2 2s^2 2p^5$, $1s^2 2s^2 2p^3$...
$1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^1$
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7907
$\text{The graph between ionization energy and atomic number for the first group elements is shown below:}$\n\n$\text{[Graph shows points: Li (~525 kJ/mol), X (~495 kJ/mol), Y (~420 kJ/mol), Z (~400 kJ/mol), and Cs (~375 kJ/mol) with decreasing ionization energy as atomic number increases]}$\n\n$\text{The element represented by Y in the graph above is -}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cs}$, $\text{Rb}$...
$\text{K}$
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7906
$\text{Boron has lesser ionization enthalpy than Beryllium, because:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{It is easier to remove electrons from p - a subshell than a filled s - subshell.}$, $\text{The s-electron can be removed easier than the p-electron.}$...
$\text{It is easier to remove electrons from p - a subshell than a filled s - subshell.}$
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7905
$\text{The first ionization enthalpy values (in kJ mol}^{-1}\text{) of group 13 elements are:}$\n\n$\text{B} \quad \text{Al} \quad \text{Ga} \quad \text{In} \quad \text{Tl}$\n\n$801 \quad 577 \quad 579 \quad 558 \quad 589$\n\n$\text{The explanation for the deviation from the general trend can be -}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ga has lower ionization enthalpy than Al.}$, $\text{Ga has higher ionization enthalpy than Al.}$...
$\text{Ga has higher ionization enthalpy than Al.}$
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7904
$\text{The radius of which ion is closest to that of } \text{Li}^+ \text{ ion?}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}^+$, $\text{Be}^{2+}$...
$\text{Mg}^{2+}$
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7903
$\text{Consider the following curve showing atomic radius vs atomic number. X represents group with highest atomic radius. The element that belongs to Y group can be:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}$, $\text{Mg}$...
$\text{Br}$
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7902
$\text{The correct sequence of increasing order of density is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Li} < \text{K} < \text{Na} < \text{Rb} < \text{Cs}$, $\text{Li} < \text{Na} < \text{K} < \text{Rb} < \text{Cs}$...
$\text{Li} < \text{K} < \text{Na} < \text{Rb} < \text{Cs}$
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7901
$\text{Given below are four orders for the size of the species. Choose the correct ones:}$
$\text{(a) Al}^{3+} < \text{Mg}^{2+} < \text{Na}^+ < \text{F}^-$
$\text{(b) Al}^{3+} < \text{Mg}^{2+} < \text{Li}^+ < \text{K}^+$
$\text{(c) Fe}^{4+} < \text{Fe}^{3+} < \text{Fe}^{2+} < \text{Fe}$
$\text{(d) Mg} > \text{Al} > \text{Si} > \text{P}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{(a), (b) & (c)}$, $\text{(b), (c) & (d)}$...
$\text{(a), (b), (c) & (d)}$
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7900
$\text{Isoelectronic pair, among the following, is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{ClO}_2^-, \text{ClF}_2^+$, $\text{IF}_2^-, \text{I}_3^-$...
$\text{ClO}_2^-, \text{ClF}_2^+$
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7899
$\text{The size of isoelectronic species: F}^-, \text{Ne and Na}^+, \text{ is affected by:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Nuclear charge (Z)}$, $\text{Valence principal quantum number (n)}$...
$\text{Nuclear charge (Z)}$
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7898
$\text{The trend of atomic radius in a period and a group is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Generally decreases from right to left across a period and increases down a group.}$, $\text{Generally increases from left to right across a period and decreases down a group.}$...
$\text{Generally decreases from left to right across a period and increases down a group.}$
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7897
$\text{The correctly matched option is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe}^{3+} > \text{Fe}^{2+} > \text{Fe}^+ \text{ : Order of atomic radius}$, $\text{O} > \text{C} > \text{B} > \text{N} \text{ : Order of ionisation energy}$...
$\text{O}^{2-} < \text{O}^- < \text{O} < \text{O}^+ \text{ : Increasing order of } Z_{\text{eff}}$
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7896
$\text{The ionic radius indicates the distance between the nucleus and:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Outermost shell of an atom.}$, $\text{Outermost shell of an ion.}$...
$\text{Outermost shell of an ion.}$
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7895
$\text{The correct order of ionic radii is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}^- > \text{H}^+ > \text{H}$, $\text{Na}^+ > \text{F}^- > \text{O}^{2-}$...
$\text{N}^{3-} > \text{Mg}^{2+} > \text{Al}^{3+}$
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7894
$\text{Increasing order of ionic radii and decreasing order of number of protons of the given isoelectronic species is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ca}^{2+}, \text{K}^+, \text{Cl}^-, \text{S}^{2-}$, $\text{Cl}^-, \text{Ca}^{2+}, \text{K}^+, \text{S}^{2-}$...
$\text{Ca}^{2+}, \text{K}^+, \text{Cl}^-, \text{S}^{2-}$
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7893
$\text{A common trend in both groups I and II elements in the periodic table, as the atomic number increases, is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Oxidizing power increases}$, $\text{Atomic radius increases}$...
$\text{Atomic radius increases}$
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7892
$\text{In alkaline earth metals, the properties, from the following, that will increase from Be to Ba are:}$
$\text{(i) Atomic radius}$
$\text{(ii) Ionisation energy}$
$\text{(iii) Nuclear charge}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{(i) and (ii)}$, $\text{(i) and (iii)}$...
$\text{(i) and (iii)}$
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7891
$\text{The correct sequence of increasing radii is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ar} < \text{K}^+ < \text{Ca}^{2+}$, $\text{Ca}^{2+} < \text{Ar} < \text{K}^+$...
$\text{Ca}^{2+} < \text{K}^+ < \text{Ar}$
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7890
$\text{Among the following species, the smallest ion is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}^+$, $\text{F}^-$...
$\text{Na}^+$
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7889
$\text{Match the following isoelectronic species in Column I and Column II:}$
$\text{Column I: (i) F}^- \text{, (ii) Ar, (iii) Mg, (iv) Rb}^+$
$\text{Column II: (a) Br}^- \text{, (b) Si}^{2+} \text{, (c) O}^{2-} \text{, (d) S}^{2-}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{(i) b, (ii) c, (iii) a, (iv) d}$, $\text{(i) c, (ii) b, (iii) a, (iv) d}$...
$\text{(i) c, (ii) d, (iii) b, (iv) a}$
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7888
$\text{The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following isoelectronic species is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ca}^{2+} > \text{K}^+ > \text{S}^{2-} > \text{Cl}^-$, $\text{Cl}^- > \text{S}^{2-} > \text{Ca}^{2+} > \text{K}^+$...
$\text{S}^{2-} > \text{Cl}^- > \text{K}^+ > \text{Ca}^{2+}$
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7887
$\text{The correct statement about the radius of a species is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Radius increases during cation and anion formation.}$, $\text{Radius increases during anion formation and decreases during cation formation.}$...
$\text{Radius increases during anion formation and decreases during cation formation.}$
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7886
$\text{The correct order of size of the given species is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{I} > \text{I}^- > \text{I}^+$, $\text{I}^+ > \text{I}^- > \text{I}$...
$\text{I}^- > \text{I} > \text{I}^+$
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7885
$\text{The screening effect of 'd' electrons is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Much less than s-electrons.}$, $\text{Much more than s-electrons.}$...
$\text{Much less than s-electrons.}$
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7884
$\text{The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals of a given shell of an atom on electrons in its outer shell is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{s} > \text{p} > \text{d} > \text{f}$, $\text{f} > \text{d} > \text{p} > \text{s}$...
$\text{s} > \text{p} > \text{d} > \text{f}$
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7883
$\text{The most common oxidation state of cerium (Ce) is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$+5, +3$, $+5, +4$...
$+3, +4$
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7882
$\text{The statement that is incorrect for the periodic classification of elements is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{The properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic number.}$, $\text{Non-metallic elements are lesser in number than metallic elements.}$...
$\text{For transition elements, the d-subshells are filled with electrons monotonically with an increase in atomic number.}$
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7881
$\text{The incorrect match among the following options is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Ar}]3\text{d}^5 4\text{s}^1 \rightarrow 4^{\text{th}} \text{period}, 6^{\text{th}} \text{group}$, $[\text{Kr}]4\text{d}^{10} \rightarrow 5^{\text{th}} \text{period}, 12^{\text{th}} \text{group}$...
$[\text{Kr}]4\text{d}^{10} \rightarrow 5^{\text{th}} \text{period}, 12^{\text{th}} \text{group}$
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7880
$\text{The electronic configuration of the most electropositive element is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$[\text{He}]2\text{s}^1$, $[\text{Xe}]6\text{s}^1$...
$[\text{Xe}]6\text{s}^1$
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7879
$\text{The electronic configuration of Palladium is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Kr}] 5\text{f}^3 6\text{d}^1 7\text{s}^2$, $[\text{Kr}] 5\text{f}^5 6\text{d}^1 7\text{s}^2$...
$\text{None of the above.}$
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7878
$\text{The factor that does not affect the valence electron is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Azimuthal quantum number}$, $\text{Nuclear charge (Z)}$...
$\text{Nuclear mass}$
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7877
$\text{Element}$ $_{58}\text{Ce}$ $\text{belongs to:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{s-block elements}$, $\text{p-block elements}$...
$\text{f-block elements}$
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7876
$\text{Among the following, the most characteristic oxidation states for lead and tin are, respectively:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$+4, +2$, $+2, +4$...
$+2, +4$
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7875
$\text{Consider the following electronic configuration of an element (P):}$\n\n$[\text{Xe}]4\text{f}^{14}5\text{d}^16\text{s}^2$\n\n$\text{The correct statement about element 'P' is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{It belongs to the 6th period and the 1st group.}$, $\text{It belongs to the 6th period and the 2nd group.}$...
$\text{It belongs to the 6th period and the 3rd group.}$
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7874
$\text{The electronic configuration of chalcogens in their outermost shell is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{ns}^2 \text{np}^3$, $\text{ns}^2 \text{np}^4$...
$\text{ns}^2 \text{np}^4$
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7873
$\text{The position of elements with an outer electronic configuration as}$ $(\text{n} - 2) \text{f}^7 (\text{n} - 1) \text{d}^1 \text{ns}^2$, $\text{n} = 6$ $\text{:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$6^{\text{th}} \text{period and } 10^{\text{th}} \text{group.}$, $7^{\text{th}} \text{period and } 3^{\text{rd}} \text{group.}$...
$6^{\text{th}} \text{period and } 3^{\text{rd}} \text{group.}$
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7872
$\text{The general outer electronic configuration of s, p, d, and f-block elements respectively would be:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{ns}^{1-2}, \text{nd}^2\text{np}^{1-6}, (\text{n}-1)\text{d}^{1-10}\text{np}^{0-2}, (\text{n}-2)\text{f}^{1-14}(\text{n}-1)\text{d}^{0-10}\text{ns}^2$, $\text{ns}^{1-2}, \text{ns}^2\text{np}^{1-6}, (\text{n}-1)\text{f}^{1-10}\text{ns}^{0-2}, (\text{n}-2)\text{g}^{1-14}(\text{n}-1)\text{d}^{0-1}\text{ns}^2$...
$\text{ns}^{1-2}, \text{ns}^2\text{np}^{1-6}, (\text{n}-1)\text{d}^{1-10}\text{ns}^{1-2}, (\text{n}-2)\text{f}^{1-14}(\text{n}-1)\text{d}^{0-1} \text{ns}^2$
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7871
$\text{The electronic configuration that represents the d-block element is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$1\text{s}^2 2\text{s}^2 2\text{p}^6 3\text{s}^2 3\text{p}^6 3\text{d}^{10} 4\text{s}^2 4\text{p}^6$, $1\text{s}^2 2\text{s}^2 2\text{p}^6 3\text{s}^2 3\text{p}^6 3\text{d}^{10} 4\text{s}^2 4\text{p}^1$...
$1\text{s}^2 2\text{s}^2 2\text{p}^6 3\text{s}^2 3\text{p}^6 3\text{d}^{10} 4\text{s}^2$
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7870
$\text{The pair that has both members from the same period of the Periodic Table is}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl, Br}$, $\text{Ca, Cl}$...
$\text{Na, Cl}$
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7869
$\text{Sodium generally does not show an oxidation state of +2, because of:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{High first ionization potential.}$, $\text{High second ionization potential.}$...
$\text{High second ionization potential.}$
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7868
$\text{The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{ns}^2, \text{np}^3$, $\text{ns}^2, \text{np}^6\text{n} - 1\text{d}^5$...
$\text{ns}^2, \text{np}^5$
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7867
$\text{Elements with an electronic configuration}$ $1\text{s}^2 2\text{s}^2 2\text{p}^6 3\text{s}^2 3\text{p}^6 3\text{d}^{10} 4\text{s}^2 4\text{p}^6 4\text{d}^{10} 5\text{s}^2 5\text{p}^3$ $\text{belong to the group:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$3^{\text{rd}}$, $15^{\text{th}}$...
$15^{\text{th}}$
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7866
$\text{The period and group number of the element with Z = 114 are:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{8th period and 16th group}$, $\text{7th period and 14th group}$...
$\text{7th period and 14th group}$
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7865
$\text{The maximum number of elements that can be accommodated in the sixth period are:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$8$, $18$...
$32$
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7864
$\text{Match Column I with Column II.}$\n\n$\text{Column-I}$\n$\text{(a) Copper}$\n$\text{(b) Fluorine}$\n$\text{(c) Silicon}$\n$\text{(d) Cerium}$\n\n$\text{Column-II}$\n$\text{(i) Non-metal}$\n$\text{(ii) Transition metal}$\n$\text{(iii) Lanthanoid}$\n$\text{(iv) Metalloid}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)}$, $\text{(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)}$...
$\text{(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)}$
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7863
$\text{The lightest metal in the periodic table is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}$, $\text{Mg}$...
$\text{Li}$
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7862
$\text{Which among the following elements is the bridge element?}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{K}$, $\text{O}$...
$\text{Mg}$
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7861
$\text{Considering the elements B, C, N, F, and Si; the correct order of their non-}$ $\text{metallic character is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{B} > \text{C} > \text{Si} > \text{N} > \text{F}$, $\text{Si} > \text{C} > \text{B} > \text{N} > \text{F}$...
$\text{F} > \text{N} > \text{C} > \text{B} > \text{Si}$
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7860
$\text{The formula of the stable binary compounds that would be formed by an}$ $\text{element having atomic number 71 and fluorine:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{LuF}_6$, $\text{LuF}_2$...
$\text{LuF}_3$
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7859
$\text{The group number that has non-metal, liquid as well as gas at room temperature is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$15$, $14$...
$17$
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7858
$\text{The total number of 3rd period elements with more than one electron in a 3d orbital is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$9$, $11$...
$0$
View
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Delete
7857
$\text{Identify the INCORRECT match.}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{(b)- (ii)}$, $\text{(c)- (iii)}$...
$\text{(d) -(iv)}$
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Delete
7856
$\text{The correct statement among the following regarding the element Unununium " is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{It is an inner transition element.}$, $\text{It belongs to the 8th period in the periodic table.}$...
$\text{It is a transition element.}$
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7855
$\text{Elements of group IB is called as:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Normal elements.}$, $\text{Transition elements.}$...
$\text{Transition elements.}$
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Delete
7854
$\text{The period number and group number of "Tantalum" (Z=73) are respectively :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$5, 7$, $6, 13$...
$6, 5$
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7853
$\text{Which among the following is not a representative element?}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Tellurium}$, $\text{Tantalum}$...
$\text{Tantalum}$
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7852
$\text{An element whose IUPAC name is Ununtrium (Uut) belongs to:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{s-Block elements}$, $\text{p-Block elements}$...
$\text{p-Block elements}$
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7851
$\text{Which among the following options is a nonmetal?}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Gold}$, $\text{Mercury}$...
$\text{Selenium}$
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7850
$\text{The most non-metallic element among the given elements is}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Be}$, $\text{B}$...
$\text{B}$
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7849
$\text{The elements in which electrons are progressively filled in 4f-orbitals are called:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Actinoids}$, $\text{Transition elements}$...
$\text{Lanthanoids}$
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7848
$\text{The following property/ies decrease from left to right across the periodic table and increase from top to bottom:}$ $\text{(i) Atomic radius (ii) Electronegativity (iii) Ionisation energy (iv) Metallic character}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{(i) only}$, $\text{(i), (ii), and (iii)}$...
$\text{(i), and (iv)}$
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Delete
7847
$\text{Which of the following exhibits variable oxidation states?}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}$, $\text{Cu}$...
$\text{Cu}$
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7846
$\text{Correct statement regarding transuranic elements is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{They have higher atomic number than uranium.}$, $\text{They are lighter than uranium.}$...
$\text{They have higher atomic number than uranium.}$
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Delete
7845
$\text{The elements with atomic numbers 35, 53, and 85 are:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Noble gases}$, $\text{Halogens}$...
$\text{Halogens}$
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Delete
7844
$\text{Among the following elements, identify the one that is not an actinoid:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Curium (Z = 96)}$, $\text{Californium (Z = 98)}$...
$\text{Terbium (Z = 65)}$
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7843
$\text{The outermost electronic configuration of the last element of the p-block in the 6th period is represented by:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$7\text{s}^2 7\text{p}^6$, $5\text{f}^{14} 6\text{d}^{10} 7\text{s}^2 7\text{p}^0$...
$4\text{f}^{14} 5\text{d}^{10} 6\text{s}^2 6\text{p}^6$
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Delete
7842
$\text{Among the following elements whose atomic numbers are given below, which cannot be accommodated in the present set up of the long periodic table?}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$107$, $118$...
$126$
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Delete
7841
$\text{The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Magnetic quantum number of any element of the period.}$, $\text{Atomic number of any element of the period.}$...
$\text{Maximum principal quantum number of any element of the period.}$
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7840
$\text{The element named after Lawrence Berkeley Laboratory is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Seaborgium}$, $\text{Lawrencium}$...
$\text{Lawrencium}$
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7839
$\text{All the non-metals in the long form of the periodic table are placed under:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$s\text{-Block}$, $p\text{-Block}$...
$p\text{-Block}$
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7838
$\text{An example of metalloid elements in the periodic table is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na and K}$, $\text{Cu and Al}$...
$\text{As and Si}$
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7837
$\text{Eka aluminium and Eka silicon are now known as:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ga and Ge}$, $\text{Al and Si}$...
$\text{Ga and Ge}$
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Delete
7836
$\text{Those in a group that falls under the law of triads include:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl, Br, I}$, $\text{C, N, O}$...
$\text{Cl, Br, I}$
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Delete
7835
$\text{The basic theme of the periodic table is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{To classify the elements in a period according to their properties.}$, $\text{To classify the elements in a group according to their ionization enthalpy.}$...
$\text{To classify the elements in periods and groups according to their properties.}$
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Delete
7834
$\text{The formula for the oxide formed by Eka-aluminum is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{EO}_4$, $\text{E}_2\text{O}_3$...
$\text{E}_2\text{O}_3$
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7833
$\text{The basic difference between Mendeleev's Periodic Law (A) and Modern Periodic Law (B) is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{A is based on atomic weights while B is based on atomic numbers.}$, $\text{B is based on atomic weights while A is based on atomic numbers.}$...
$\text{A is based on atomic weights while B is based on atomic numbers.}$
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Delete
7832
124
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7831
123
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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7830
122
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
7829
121
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
7828
120
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
7827
119
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7826
118
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7825
117
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7824
116
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
7823
115
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
7822
114
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7821
113
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Delete
7820
112
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
7819
111
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
7818
110
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7817
109
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7816
108
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7815
107
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7814
106
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
7813
105
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7812
104
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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7811
103
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
7810
102
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
7809
101
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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7808
100
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7807
99
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7806
98
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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7805
97
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7804
96
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7803
95
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7802
94
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7801
93
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7800
92
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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7799
91
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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7798
90
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7797
89
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7796
88
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Delete
7795
87
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7794
86
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
7793
85
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7792
84
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7791
83
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7790
82
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7789
81
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
7788
80
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7787
79
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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7786
78
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7785
77
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7784
76
2
203
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1, 2...
3
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7783
75
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
7782
74
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7781
73
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7780
72
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7779
71
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7778
70
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7777
69
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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7776
68
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
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7775
67
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7774
66
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7773
65
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7772
64
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7771
63
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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7770
62
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7769
61
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7768
60
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7767
59
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Edit
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7766
58
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7765
57
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7764
56
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7763
55
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7762
54
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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7761
53
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7760
52
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7759
51
2
203
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1, 2...
3
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7758
50
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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7757
49
2
203
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1, 2...
2
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7756
48
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7755
47
2
203
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1, 2...
4
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7754
46
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7753
45
2
203
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1, 2...
4
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7752
44
2
203
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1, 2...
2
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7751
43
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7750
42
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7749
41
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7748
40
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7747
39
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7746
38
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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7745
37
2
203
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1, 2...
2
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7744
36
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7743
35
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7742
34
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Delete
7741
33
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7740
32
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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7739
31
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
7738
30
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7737
29
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7736
28
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7735
27
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
7734
26
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7733
25
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7732
24
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7731
23
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Delete
7730
22
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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7729
21
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Delete
7728
20
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
7727
19
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
7726
18
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
7725
17
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Edit
Delete
7724
16
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
7723
15
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Delete
7722
14
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
7721
13
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Delete
7720
12
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
7719
11
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7718
10
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7717
9
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7716
8
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Delete
7715
7
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Delete
7714
6
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Edit
Delete
7713
5
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
7712
4
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
7711
3
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7710
2
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
7709
1
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
7708
$\text{The order of basic character of given oxides is:}$
2
203
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$\text{Na}_2\text{O} > \text{MgO} > \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 > \text{CuO}$, $\text{MgO} > \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 > \text{CuO} > \text{Na}_2\text{O}$...
$\text{Na}_2\text{O} > \text{MgO} > \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 > \text{CuO}$
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7707
$\text{The correct order among the following options is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{F} > \text{N} > \text{C} > \text{Si} > \text{Ga - Non-metallic character.}$, $\text{F} > \text{Cl} > \text{O} > \text{N - Oxidising property.}$...
$\text{All of the above.}$
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7706
$\text{Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s}^2\text{2s}^2\text{2p}^3\text{, the simplest formula for this compound is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Mg}_2\text{X}_3$, $\text{MgX}_2$...
$\text{Mg}_3\text{X}_2$
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7705
$\text{The increasing order of non-metallic character of the elements N, P, O, and S is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{P} < \text{S} < \text{N} < \text{O}$, $\text{O} < \text{S} < \text{N} < \text{P}$...
$\text{P} < \text{S} < \text{N} < \text{O}$
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7704
$\text{The correct order of metallic character of elements B, Al, Mg and K is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{B} > \text{Al} > \text{Mg} > \text{K}$, $\text{Al} > \text{Mg} > \text{B} > \text{K}$...
$\text{K} > \text{Mg} > \text{Al} > \text{B}$
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7703
$\text{Incorrect statement about metal is:}$
2
203
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$\text{Metals can donate electrons.}$, $\text{Metals form ionic compounds.}$...
$\text{Metals are more electronegative.}$
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7702
$\text{Percentage ionic character, if electronegativity value of X=2.1 \& Y=3.0, is :-}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$20$, $30$...
$17$
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7701
$\text{The statement that "the electronegativity of N on the Pauling scale is 3.0 in all the nitrogen compounds" is incorrect because:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Electronegativity of an element is a variable property.}$, $\text{Pauling scale is not used to measure electronegativity.}$...
$\text{Electronegativity of an element is a variable property.}$
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7700
$\text{The incorrect order of electronegativity is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl} > \text{S} > \text{P} > \text{Si}$, $\text{Si} > \text{Al} > \text{Mg} > \text{Na}$...
$\text{None of the above.}$
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7699
$\text{Allred Rochow's scale is related to:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Electronegativity, radius, and Z}^*$, $\text{Resonance energy of the molecule, ionisation potential and electron affinity.}$...
$\text{Electronegativity, radius, and Z}^*$
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7698
$\text{The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order of:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{S} < \text{P} < \text{N} < \text{O}$, $\text{P} < \text{S} < \text{N} < \text{O}$...
$\text{P} < \text{S} < \text{N} < \text{O}$
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Delete
7697
$\text{The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order of:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{S} < \text{P} < \text{N} < \text{O}$, $\text{P} < \text{S} < \text{N} < \text{O}$...
$\text{P} < \text{S} < \text{N} < \text{O}$
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Delete
7696
$\text{The basic difference between the electron gain enthalpy (E}_a\text{) and electronegativity (E}_N\text{) is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{E}_a \text{ is the tendency to lose electrons, while E}_N \text{ is the tendency to repel the shared pairs of electrons.}$, $\text{E}_a \text{ is the tendency to gain neutrons, while E}_N \text{ is the tendency to attract the shared pairs of electrons.}$...
$\text{E}_a \text{ is the tendency to gain electrons, while E}_N \text{ is the tendency to attract the shared pairs of electrons.}$
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Delete
7695
$\text{The basic difference between the electron gain enthalpy (E}_a\text{) and electronegativity (E}_N\text{) is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{E}_a \text{ is the tendency to lose electrons, while E}_N \text{ is the tendency to repel the shared pairs of electrons.}$, $\text{E}_a \text{ is the tendency to gain neutrons, while E}_N \text{ is the tendency to attract the shared pairs of electrons.}$...
$\text{E}_a \text{ is the tendency to gain electrons, while E}_N \text{ is the tendency to attract the shared pairs of electrons.}$
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Delete
7694
$\text{Assertion (A): Fluorine forms only one oxoacid, HOF.}$\n\n$\text{Reason (R): Fluorine has a small size and high electronegativity.}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$
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Delete
7693
$\text{Element/Ion that has the highest electron affinity is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{F}^-$, $\text{O}^-$...
$\text{O}$
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7692
$\text{Incorrect statement about characteristics regarding halogens is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ionization energy decreases with increase in atomic number.}$, $\text{Electronegativity decreases with increase in atomic number.}$...
$\text{Electron affinity decreases with increase in atomic number.}$
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7691
$\text{Electronic configuration of four elements A, B, C and D are given below :}$\n\n$\text{A. }1s^2 2s^2 2p^6$\n\n$\text{B. }1s^2 2s^2 2p^4$\n\n$\text{C. }1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^1$\n\n$\text{D. }1s^2 2s^2 2p^5$\n\n$\text{The correct order of increasing tendency to gain electron is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{A} < \text{C} < \text{B} < \text{D}$, $\text{A} < \text{B} < \text{C} < \text{D}$...
$\text{A} < \text{C} < \text{B} < \text{D}$
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Delete
7690
$\text{The process that requires absorption of energy is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{N} \rightarrow \text{N}^-$, $\text{F} \rightarrow \text{F}^-$...
$\text{N} \rightarrow \text{N}^-$
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Delete
7689
$\text{The group of metals having the positive value of electron gain enthalpy is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cr, Fe}$, $\text{Mn, Zn}$...
$\text{Mn, Zn}$
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Delete
7688
$\text{Element of the third period that is expected to exhibit positive electron gain enthalpy is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}$, $\text{Al}$...
$\text{Ar}$
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7687
$\text{Elements}\quad\Delta H_1\quad\Delta H_2\quad\Delta_{eg}H$\n\n$\text{I}\quad\quad\quad 520\quad 7300\quad -60$\n\n$\text{II}\quad\quad\quad 419\quad 3051\quad -48$\n\n$\text{III}\quad\quad 1681\quad 3374\quad -328$\n\n$\text{IV}\quad\quad 1008\quad 1846\quad -295$\n\n$\text{V}\quad\quad 2372\quad 5251\quad +48$\n\n$\text{VI}\quad\quad\quad 738\quad 1451\quad -40$\n\n$\text{The least reactive element based on the above data is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{III}$, $\text{IV}$...
$\text{V}$
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7686
$\text{An element with higher negative electron gain enthalpy in the given pair is:}\n\text{(i) O or F (ii) F or Cl}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{O, Cl}$, $\text{F, F}$...
$\text{F, Cl}$
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7685
$\text{The correct order for electron affinity of halogens is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Br} > \text{F}$, $\text{F} > \text{Cl}$...
$\text{F} > \text{I}$
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7684
$\text{The incorrect match among the following is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{B} < \text{C} < \text{N} < \text{O}\text{ (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)}$, $\text{I} < \text{Br} < \text{F} < \text{Cl}\text{ (increasing electron gain enthalpy)}$...
$\text{B} < \text{C} < \text{N} < \text{O}\text{ (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)}$
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7683
$\text{The reactivity of alkali metals increases, whereas halogen decreases down the group, because:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{On moving down, ionization enthalpy decreases in group 1 while the electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative in group 17.}$, $\text{On moving down, ionization enthalpy increases in group 1 while the electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative in group 17.}$...
$\text{On moving down, ionization enthalpy decreases in group 1 while the electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative in group 17.}$
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7682
$\text{The electron gain enthalpies of halogens in kJ mol}^{-1}\text{ are given below.}$
$\text{F} = -332, \text{Cl} = -349, \text{Br} = -325, \text{I} = -295.$
$\text{The lesser negative value for F as compared to that of Cl is due to:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Strong electron-electron repulsions in the compact 2p-subshell of F.}$, $\text{Weak electron-electron repulsions in the bigger 3p-subshell of Cl.}$...
$\text{1 & 2 both}$
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7681
$\text{The correct order of increasing electron affinity for the elements, O, S, F and Cl is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl} < \text{F} < \text{O} < \text{S}$, $\text{O} < \text{S} < \text{F} < \text{Cl}$...
$\text{O} < \text{S} < \text{F} < \text{Cl}$
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7680
$\text{The correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with a negative sign for the elements O, S, F, and Cl is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl} < \text{F} < \text{S} < \text{O}$, $\text{O} < \text{S} < \text{F} < \text{Cl}$...
$\text{O} < \text{S} < \text{F} < \text{Cl}$
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7679
$\text{The formation of the oxide ion O}^{2-}\text{(g), from the oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below,}$
$\text{O(g) + e}^- \rightarrow \text{O}^-; \Delta_f H^0 = -141 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\text{O}^-\text{(g) + e}^- \rightarrow \text{O}^{2-}\text{(g)}; \Delta_f H^0 = +780 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$
$\text{Thus, the process of formation of O}^{2-}\text{ in the gas phase is unfavorable even though O}^{2-}\text{ is isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.}$, $\text{O}^-\text{ ion has a comparatively smaller size than the oxygen atom.}$...
$\text{Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.}$
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7678
$\text{Among halogens, the correct order of amount of energy released in electron gain (electron gain enthalpy) is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{F} > \text{Cl} > \text{Br} > \text{I}$, $\text{F} < \text{Cl} < \text{Br} < \text{I}$...
$\text{F} < \text{Cl} > \text{Br} > \text{I}$
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7677
$\text{The atomic species that has the maximum ionization energy is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{O}^-$, $\text{S}^-$...
$\text{S}^-$
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7676
$\text{1st }(\Delta H_1)\text{ and 2nd }(\Delta H_2)\text{ Ionization Enthalpies (in kJ mol}^{-1})\text{ and the }(\Delta_{eg}H)\text{ Electron Gain Enthalpy (in kJ mol}^{-1})\text{ of a few elements are given below:}$
$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|}
\hline
\text{Elements} & \Delta H_1 & \Delta H_2 & \Delta_{eg}H \\
\hline
\text{I} & 520 & 7300 & -60 \\
\text{II} & 419 & 3051 & -48 \\
\text{III} & 1681 & 3374 & -328 \\
\text{IV} & 1008 & 1846 & -295 \\
\text{V} & 2372 & 5251 & +48 \\
\text{VI} & 738 & 1451 & -40 \\
\hline
\end{array}$
$\text{The most reactive metal is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{VI}$, $\text{III}$...
$\text{II}$
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7675
$\text{The element having very high electron affinity but zero ionisation enthalpy is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{He (due to inert gas configuration)}$, $\text{Be (due to fully filled subshell)}$...
$\text{None of the above}$
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7674
$\text{First three ionisation energies (in kJ/mol) of three representative elements are given below:}$
$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|}
\hline
\text{Element} & IE_1 & IE_2 & IE_3 \\
\hline
\text{P} & 495.8 & 4562 & 6910 \\
\text{Q} & 737.7 & 1451 & 7733 \\
\text{R} & 577.5 & 1817 & 2745 \\
\hline
\end{array}$
$\text{Then incorrect option is :}$
2
203
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$\text{Q: Alkaline earth metal.}$, $\text{P: Alkali metal.}$...
$\text{R: s-block element.}$
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7673
$\text{If the ionization enthalpy and negative electron gain enthalpy of an element are 275 and 86 kcal mol}^{-1} \text{ respectively, then the electronegativity of the element on the Pauling scale is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$2.8$, $0.0$...
$2.8$
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7672
$\text{The energy of an electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom is } -2.18 \times 10^{-18} \text{ J. The ionization enthalpy of atomic hydrogen in terms of J mol}^{-1} \text{ is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$2.81 \times 10^6 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$, $1.31 \times 10^6 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$...
$1.31 \times 10^6 \text{ J mol}^{-1}$
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7671
$\text{The correct graph depicting ionization energies for } 2^{\text{nd}} \text{ period elements is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph 1: Shows smooth increasing trend with slight dip at B, then continues increasing to Ne}$, $\text{Graph 2: Shows increasing trend with dip at B and another dip at O, then increases to Ne}$...
$\text{Graph 3: Shows increasing trend with dip at B and peak at N higher than O, then increases to Ne}$
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7670
$\text{In the following graph of variation of ionization energy with atomic number, X, Y, and Z represent elements.}$\n\n$\text{[Graph shows ionization energy vs atomic number with peaks labeled X (~2300 kJ/mol), Y (~1300 kJ/mol), and Z (~1000 kJ/mol) representing the highest points in their respective periods]}$\n\n$\text{The group number of X, Y, and Z elements is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$1^{\text{st}} \text{ group}$, $15^{\text{th}} \text{ group}$...
$18^{\text{th}} \text{ group}$
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7669
Element that has the greatest tendency to lose an electron is :
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{F}$, $\text{Fr}$...
$\text{Fr}$
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7668
The first ionisation enthalpies of $\text{Na, Mg, Al,}$ and $\text{Si}$ are in the order of:
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na} < \text{Al} < \text{Mg} < \text{Si}$, $\text{Na} > \text{Mg} > \text{Al} > \text{Si}$...
$\text{Na} < \text{Al} < \text{Mg} < \text{Si}$
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7667
The correct order of ionization energy of $\text{W, X, Y}$ and $\text{Z}$ is-
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{W} > \text{X} > \text{Y} > \text{Z}$, $\text{W} < \text{X} < \text{Y} > \text{Z}$...
$\text{W} < \text{X} > \text{Y} < \text{Z}$
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7666
The values of the first ionization enthalpies for two isotopes would be:
2
203
Recommended Questions
Same., Different....
Same.
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7665
Amongst the following electronic configurations, the highest ionization energy is represented by:
2
203
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Ne}]3s^23p^3$, $[\text{Ne}]3s^23p^2$...
$[\text{Ne}]3s^23p^3$
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7664
For the second-period elements, the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Li} < \text{Be} < \text{B} < \text{C} < \text{O} < \text{N} < \text{F} < \text{Ne}$, $\text{Li} < \text{Be} < \text{B} < \text{C} < \text{N} < \text{O} < \text{F} < \text{Ne}$...
$\text{Li} < \text{B} < \text{Be} < \text{C} < \text{O} < \text{N} < \text{F} < \text{Ne}$
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7663
The incorrect statement about ionization enthalpy is:
2
203
Recommended Questions
Ionization enthalpy increases for each successive electron., Noble gases have the highest ionization enthalpy....
Ionization enthalpy of oxygen is higher than that of nitrogen.
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7662
$\text{IP}_1$ and $\text{IP}_2$ for $\text{Mg}$ are $178 \text{ Kcal mol}^{-1}$ and $348 \text{ Kcal mol}^{-1}$, respectively. The energy required for the reaction, $\text{Mg} \rightarrow \text{Mg}^{2+} + 2e^{-}$ will be:
2
203
Recommended Questions
$+170 \text{ Kcal mol}^{-1}$, $+526 \text{ Kcal mol}^{-1}$...
$+526 \text{ Kcal mol}^{-1}$
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7661
Abnormally high ionization enthalpy of $\text{B}$ as depicted in the graph below can be due to :
2
203
Recommended Questions
Completely filled $2p$ subshell., Completely filled $2s$ subshell....
Completely filled $2s$ subshell.
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7660
$\text{A configuration with the lowest ionization enthalpy among the following is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$1s^2 2s^2 2p^5$, $1s^2 2s^2 2p^3$...
$1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^1$
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7659
$\text{The graph between ionization energy and atomic number for the first group elements is shown below:}$\n\n$\text{[Graph shows points: Li (~525 kJ/mol), X (~495 kJ/mol), Y (~420 kJ/mol), Z (~400 kJ/mol), and Cs (~375 kJ/mol) with decreasing ionization energy as atomic number increases]}$\n\n$\text{The element represented by Y in the graph above is -}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cs}$, $\text{Rb}$...
$\text{K}$
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7658
$\text{Boron has lesser ionization enthalpy than Beryllium, because:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{It is easier to remove electrons from p - a subshell than a filled s - subshell.}$, $\text{The s-electron can be removed easier than the p-electron.}$...
$\text{It is easier to remove electrons from p - a subshell than a filled s - subshell.}$
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7657
$\text{The first ionization enthalpy values (in kJ mol}^{-1}\text{) of group 13 elements are:}$\n\n$\text{B} \quad \text{Al} \quad \text{Ga} \quad \text{In} \quad \text{Tl}$\n\n$801 \quad 577 \quad 579 \quad 558 \quad 589$\n\n$\text{The explanation for the deviation from the general trend can be -}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ga has lower ionization enthalpy than Al.}$, $\text{Ga has higher ionization enthalpy than Al.}$...
$\text{Ga has higher ionization enthalpy than Al.}$
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7656
$\text{The radius of which ion is closest to that of } \text{Li}^+ \text{ ion?}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}^+$, $\text{Be}^{2+}$...
$\text{Mg}^{2+}$
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7655
$\text{Consider the following curve showing atomic radius vs atomic number. X represents group with highest atomic radius. The element that belongs to Y group can be:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}$, $\text{Mg}$...
$\text{Br}$
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7654
$\text{The correct sequence of increasing order of density is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Li} < \text{K} < \text{Na} < \text{Rb} < \text{Cs}$, $\text{Li} < \text{Na} < \text{K} < \text{Rb} < \text{Cs}$...
$\text{Li} < \text{K} < \text{Na} < \text{Rb} < \text{Cs}$
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7653
$\text{Given below are four orders for the size of the species. Choose the correct ones:}$
$\text{(a) Al}^{3+} < \text{Mg}^{2+} < \text{Na}^+ < \text{F}^-$
$\text{(b) Al}^{3+} < \text{Mg}^{2+} < \text{Li}^+ < \text{K}^+$
$\text{(c) Fe}^{4+} < \text{Fe}^{3+} < \text{Fe}^{2+} < \text{Fe}$
$\text{(d) Mg} > \text{Al} > \text{Si} > \text{P}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{(a), (b) & (c)}$, $\text{(b), (c) & (d)}$...
$\text{(a), (b), (c) & (d)}$
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7652
$\text{Isoelectronic pair, among the following, is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{ClO}_2^-, \text{ClF}_2^+$, $\text{IF}_2^-, \text{I}_3^-$...
$\text{ClO}_2^-, \text{ClF}_2^+$
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7651
$\text{The size of isoelectronic species: F}^-, \text{Ne and Na}^+, \text{ is affected by:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Nuclear charge (Z)}$, $\text{Valence principal quantum number (n)}$...
$\text{Nuclear charge (Z)}$
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7650
$\text{The trend of atomic radius in a period and a group is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Generally decreases from right to left across a period and increases down a group.}$, $\text{Generally increases from left to right across a period and decreases down a group.}$...
$\text{Generally decreases from left to right across a period and increases down a group.}$
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7649
$\text{The correctly matched option is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe}^{3+} > \text{Fe}^{2+} > \text{Fe}^+ \text{ : Order of atomic radius}$, $\text{O} > \text{C} > \text{B} > \text{N} \text{ : Order of ionisation energy}$...
$\text{O}^{2-} < \text{O}^- < \text{O} < \text{O}^+ \text{ : Increasing order of } Z_{\text{eff}}$
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7648
$\text{The ionic radius indicates the distance between the nucleus and:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Outermost shell of an atom.}$, $\text{Outermost shell of an ion.}$...
$\text{Outermost shell of an ion.}$
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7647
$\text{The correct order of ionic radii is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}^- > \text{H}^+ > \text{H}$, $\text{Na}^+ > \text{F}^- > \text{O}^{2-}$...
$\text{N}^{3-} > \text{Mg}^{2+} > \text{Al}^{3+}$
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7646
$\text{Increasing order of ionic radii and decreasing order of number of protons of the given isoelectronic species is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ca}^{2+}, \text{K}^+, \text{Cl}^-, \text{S}^{2-}$, $\text{Cl}^-, \text{Ca}^{2+}, \text{K}^+, \text{S}^{2-}$...
$\text{Ca}^{2+}, \text{K}^+, \text{Cl}^-, \text{S}^{2-}$
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7645
$\text{A common trend in both groups I and II elements in the periodic table, as the atomic number increases, is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Oxidizing power increases}$, $\text{Atomic radius increases}$...
$\text{Atomic radius increases}$
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7644
$\text{In alkaline earth metals, the properties, from the following, that will increase from Be to Ba are:}$
$\text{(i) Atomic radius}$
$\text{(ii) Ionisation energy}$
$\text{(iii) Nuclear charge}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{(i) and (ii)}$, $\text{(i) and (iii)}$...
$\text{(i) and (iii)}$
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7643
$\text{The correct sequence of increasing radii is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ar} < \text{K}^+ < \text{Ca}^{2+}$, $\text{Ca}^{2+} < \text{Ar} < \text{K}^+$...
$\text{Ca}^{2+} < \text{K}^+ < \text{Ar}$
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7642
$\text{Among the following species, the smallest ion is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}^+$, $\text{F}^-$...
$\text{Na}^+$
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7641
$\text{Match the following isoelectronic species in Column I and Column II:}$
$\text{Column I: (i) F}^- \text{, (ii) Ar, (iii) Mg, (iv) Rb}^+$
$\text{Column II: (a) Br}^- \text{, (b) Si}^{2+} \text{, (c) O}^{2-} \text{, (d) S}^{2-}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{(i) b, (ii) c, (iii) a, (iv) d}$, $\text{(i) c, (ii) b, (iii) a, (iv) d}$...
$\text{(i) c, (ii) d, (iii) b, (iv) a}$
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7640
$\text{The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following isoelectronic species is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ca}^{2+} > \text{K}^+ > \text{S}^{2-} > \text{Cl}^-$, $\text{Cl}^- > \text{S}^{2-} > \text{Ca}^{2+} > \text{K}^+$...
$\text{S}^{2-} > \text{Cl}^- > \text{K}^+ > \text{Ca}^{2+}$
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7639
$\text{The correct statement about the radius of a species is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Radius increases during cation and anion formation.}$, $\text{Radius increases during anion formation and decreases during cation formation.}$...
$\text{Radius increases during anion formation and decreases during cation formation.}$
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7638
$\text{The correct order of size of the given species is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{I} > \text{I}^- > \text{I}^+$, $\text{I}^+ > \text{I}^- > \text{I}$...
$\text{I}^- > \text{I} > \text{I}^+$
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7637
$\text{The screening effect of 'd' electrons is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Much less than s-electrons.}$, $\text{Much more than s-electrons.}$...
$\text{Much less than s-electrons.}$
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7636
$\text{The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals of a given shell of an atom on electrons in its outer shell is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{s} > \text{p} > \text{d} > \text{f}$, $\text{f} > \text{d} > \text{p} > \text{s}$...
$\text{s} > \text{p} > \text{d} > \text{f}$
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7635
$\text{The most common oxidation state of cerium (Ce) is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$+5, +3$, $+5, +4$...
$+3, +4$
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7634
50
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
View
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Delete
7633
$\text{The incorrect match among the following options is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Ar}]3\text{d}^5 4\text{s}^1 \rightarrow 4^{\text{th}} \text{period}, 6^{\text{th}} \text{group}$, $[\text{Kr}]4\text{d}^{10} \rightarrow 5^{\text{th}} \text{period}, 12^{\text{th}} \text{group}$...
$[\text{Kr}]4\text{d}^{10} \rightarrow 5^{\text{th}} \text{period}, 12^{\text{th}} \text{group}$
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7632
$\text{The electronic configuration of the most electropositive element is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$[\text{He}]2\text{s}^1$, $[\text{Xe}]6\text{s}^1$...
$[\text{Xe}]6\text{s}^1$
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7631
$\text{The electronic configuration of Palladium is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Kr}] 5\text{f}^3 6\text{d}^1 7\text{s}^2$, $[\text{Kr}] 5\text{f}^5 6\text{d}^1 7\text{s}^2$...
$\text{None of the above.}$
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7630
$\text{The factor that does not affect the valence electron is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Azimuthal quantum number}$, $\text{Nuclear charge (Z)}$...
$\text{Nuclear mass}$
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7629
$\text{Element}$ $_{58}\text{Ce}$ $\text{belongs to:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{s-block elements}$, $\text{p-block elements}$...
$\text{f-block elements}$
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7628
$\text{Among the following, the most characteristic oxidation states for lead and tin are, respectively:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$+4, +2$, $+2, +4$...
$+2, +4$
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7627
$\text{Consider the following electronic configuration of an element (P):}$\n\n$[\text{Xe}]4\text{f}^{14}5\text{d}^16\text{s}^2$\n\n$\text{The correct statement about element 'P' is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{It belongs to the 6th period and the 1st group.}$, $\text{It belongs to the 6th period and the 2nd group.}$...
$\text{It belongs to the 6th period and the 3rd group.}$
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7626
$\text{The electronic configuration of chalcogens in their outermost shell is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{ns}^2 \text{np}^3$, $\text{ns}^2 \text{np}^4$...
$\text{ns}^2 \text{np}^4$
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7625
$\text{The position of elements with an outer electronic configuration as}$ $(\text{n} - 2) \text{f}^7 (\text{n} - 1) \text{d}^1 \text{ns}^2$, $\text{n} = 6$ $\text{:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$6^{\text{th}} \text{period and } 10^{\text{th}} \text{group.}$, $7^{\text{th}} \text{period and } 3^{\text{rd}} \text{group.}$...
$6^{\text{th}} \text{period and } 3^{\text{rd}} \text{group.}$
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7624
$\text{The general outer electronic configuration of s, p, d, and f-block elements respectively would be:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{ns}^{1-2}, \text{nd}^2\text{np}^{1-6}, (\text{n}-1)\text{d}^{1-10}\text{np}^{0-2}, (\text{n}-2)\text{f}^{1-14}(\text{n}-1)\text{d}^{0-10}\text{ns}^2$, $\text{ns}^{1-2}, \text{ns}^2\text{np}^{1-6}, (\text{n}-1)\text{f}^{1-10}\text{ns}^{0-2}, (\text{n}-2)\text{g}^{1-14}(\text{n}-1)\text{d}^{0-1}\text{ns}^2$...
$\text{ns}^{1-2}, \text{ns}^2\text{np}^{1-6}, (\text{n}-1)\text{d}^{1-10}\text{ns}^{1-2}, (\text{n}-2)\text{f}^{1-14}(\text{n}-1)\text{d}^{0-1} \text{ns}^2$
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7623
$\text{The electronic configuration that represents the d-block element is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$1\text{s}^2 2\text{s}^2 2\text{p}^6 3\text{s}^2 3\text{p}^6 3\text{d}^{10} 4\text{s}^2 4\text{p}^6$, $1\text{s}^2 2\text{s}^2 2\text{p}^6 3\text{s}^2 3\text{p}^6 3\text{d}^{10} 4\text{s}^2 4\text{p}^1$...
$1\text{s}^2 2\text{s}^2 2\text{p}^6 3\text{s}^2 3\text{p}^6 3\text{d}^{10} 4\text{s}^2$
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Delete
7622
$\text{The pair that has both members from the same period of the Periodic Table is}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cl, Br}$, $\text{Ca, Cl}$...
$\text{Na, Cl}$
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7621
$\text{Sodium generally does not show an oxidation state of +2, because of:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{High first ionization potential.}$, $\text{High second ionization potential.}$...
$\text{High second ionization potential.}$
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7620
$\text{The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{ns}^2, \text{np}^3$, $\text{ns}^2, \text{np}^6\text{n} - 1\text{d}^5$...
$\text{ns}^2, \text{np}^5$
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7619
$\text{Elements with an electronic configuration}$ $1\text{s}^2 2\text{s}^2 2\text{p}^6 3\text{s}^2 3\text{p}^6 3\text{d}^{10} 4\text{s}^2 4\text{p}^6 4\text{d}^{10} 5\text{s}^2 5\text{p}^3$ $\text{belong to the group:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$3^{\text{rd}}$, $15^{\text{th}}$...
$15^{\text{th}}$
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7618
$\text{The period and group number of the element with Z = 114 are:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{8th period and 16th group}$, $\text{7th period and 14th group}$...
$\text{7th period and 14th group}$
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7617
$\text{The maximum number of elements that can be accommodated in the sixth period are:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$8$, $18$...
$32$
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7616
$\text{Match Column I with Column II.}$\n\n$\text{Column-I}$\n$\text{(a) Copper}$\n$\text{(b) Fluorine}$\n$\text{(c) Silicon}$\n$\text{(d) Cerium}$\n\n$\text{Column-II}$\n$\text{(i) Non-metal}$\n$\text{(ii) Transition metal}$\n$\text{(iii) Lanthanoid}$\n$\text{(iv) Metalloid}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)}$, $\text{(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)}$...
$\text{(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)}$
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7615
$\text{The lightest metal in the periodic table is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{H}$, $\text{Mg}$...
$\text{Li}$
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7614
$\text{Which among the following elements is the bridge element?}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{K}$, $\text{O}$...
$\text{Mg}$
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7613
$\text{Considering the elements B, C, N, F, and Si; the correct order of their non-}$ $\text{metallic character is :}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{B} > \text{C} > \text{Si} > \text{N} > \text{F}$, $\text{Si} > \text{C} > \text{B} > \text{N} > \text{F}$...
$\text{F} > \text{N} > \text{C} > \text{B} > \text{Si}$
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7612
$\text{The formula of the stable binary compounds that would be formed by an}$ $\text{element having atomic number 71 and fluorine:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{LuF}_6$, $\text{LuF}_2$...
$\text{LuF}_3$
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7611
$\text{The group number that has non-metal, liquid as well as gas at room temperature is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$15$, $14$...
$17$
View
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7610
$\text{The total number of 3rd period elements with more than one electron in a 3d orbital is:}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$9$, $11$...
3
View
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Delete
7609
$\text{Identify the INCORRECT match.}$
2
203
Recommended Questions
$\text{(b)- (ii)}$, $\text{(c)- (iii)}$...
3
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Delete
7608
24
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
7607
23
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Delete
7606
22
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Edit
Delete
7605
21
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Delete
7604
20
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
7603
19
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7602
18
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
7601
17
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Edit
Delete
7600
16
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
7599
15
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
7598
14
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
7597
13
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
7596
12
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7595
11
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Edit
Delete
7594
10
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Edit
Delete
7593
9
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Edit
Delete
7592
8
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
7591
7
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
7590
6
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Edit
Delete
7589
5
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7588
4
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
7587
3
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Edit
Delete
7586
2
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
7585
1
2
203
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
7584
$\text{When a photon with a wavelength of 150 pm strikes an atom, one of its inner}$ $\text{bound electrons is ejected at a velocity of } 1.5 \times 10^7 \text{ m s}^{-1}\text{. The energy with}$ $\text{which it is bound to the nucleus would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$32.22 \times 10^{-16} \text{ J}$, $12.22 \times 10^{-16} \text{ J}$...
2
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7583
$\text{Assertion (A): It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact}$ $\text{momentum of an electron simultaneously.}$\n\n$\text{Reason (R): The path of an electron in an atom is clearly defined.}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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7582
$\text{Identify the element with the highest number of unpaired electrons in its}$ $\text{ground state from the given options :}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{P}$, $\text{Fe}$...
4
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7581
$\text{The circumference of the Bohr orbit for the H atom is related to the de Broglie}$ $\text{wavelength associated with the electron revolving around the orbit by the}$ $\text{following relation:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$2\pi r = n\lambda$, $\pi r = 2n\lambda$...
1
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Delete
7580
$\text{The circumference of the Bohr orbit for the H atom is related to the de Broglie}$ $\text{wavelength associated with the electron revolving around the orbit by the}$ $\text{following relation:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$2\pi r = n\lambda$, $\pi r = 2n\lambda$...
3
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Delete
7579
$\text{The incorrect set of quantum numbers among the following is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = -1/2$, $n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2$...
3
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7578
$\text{The possible values of n, l, and m for the electron present in 3d would be}$ $\text{respectively:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$n = 3, l = 1, m = -2, -1, 3, 1, 2$, $n = 3, l = 3, m = -2, -1, 0, 1, 2$...
3
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7577
132
2
202
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
1
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7576
$\text{The magnetic moment of 2.84 BM can be shown by:}$\n\n$\text{(At. no. Ni = 28, Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27)}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ni}^{2+}$, $\text{Ti}^{3+}$...
2
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7575
$\text{In photoelectric effect, the kinetic energy of photoelectrons increases linearly}$ $\text{with the:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Wavelength of incident light.}$, $\text{Frequency of incident light.}$...
4
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7574
$\text{The atomic number of elements whose outermost electronic configuration are}$ $\text{represented by } 3\text{s}^1 \text{ and } 2\text{p}^5 \text{ respectively, is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$9, 7$, $9, 11$...
4
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7573
$\text{The orbital diagram in which both Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule}$ $\text{are violated is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{2s: } \uparrow\downarrow \quad \text{2p: } \uparrow\uparrow, \uparrow, \text{empty}$, $\text{2s: } \uparrow\downarrow \quad \text{2p: } \uparrow\downarrow, \text{empty}, \uparrow\downarrow$...
1
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7572
$\text{If the electronic structure of oxygen atom is written as } 1\text{s}^2, 2\text{s}^2 \uparrow\uparrow \text{ it}$ $\text{would violate:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Hund's rule.}$, $\text{Paulis exclusion principle.}$...
1
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7571
$\text{Match the ensuing rules with the corresponding statements:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2}$, $\text{A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4}$...
3
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7570
$\text{An electronic configuration representing an atom in the excited state is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$1\text{s}^2, 2\text{s}^22\text{p}^1$, $1\text{s}^2, 2\text{s}^22\text{p}^2$...
3
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Delete
7569
$\text{Match the following species with their corresponding ground state electronic}$ $\text{configuration.}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{A-4, B-2, C-5, D-1}$, $\text{A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5}$...
2
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7568
$\text{The number of unpaired electrons in } 1\text{s}^2 2\text{s}^2 2\text{p}^3 \text{ is -}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$2$, $0$...
3
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7567
$\text{The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic no. 63), Gd (Atomic no. 64) and Tb}$ $\text{(Tb Atomic no. 65) are}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$[\text{Xe}]4\text{f}^65\text{d}^16\text{s}^2, [\text{Xe}]4\text{f}^75\text{d}^16\text{s}^2 \text{ and } [\text{Xe}]4\text{f}^96\text{s}^2$, $[\text{Xe}]4\text{f}^65\text{d}^16\text{s}^2, [\text{Xe}]4\text{f}^75\text{d}^16\text{s}^2 \text{ and } [\text{Xe}]4\text{f}^85\text{d}^16\text{s}^2$...
3
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7566
$\text{If } n = 6, \text{ the correct sequence for the filling of electrons will be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{ns} \rightarrow (n-1)\text{d} \rightarrow (n-2)\text{f} \rightarrow \text{np}$, $\text{ns} - (n-2)\text{f} \rightarrow \text{np} \rightarrow (n-1)\text{d}$...
4
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7565
$\text{The number of d-electrons in } \text{Fe}^{2+} \text{ (atomic number Z = 26) is different from the number of:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)}$, $\text{p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17)}$...
2
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Delete
7564
$\text{The group number and electronic configuration of element Z =114 is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Halogen family, [Rn]5f}^{14}\text{6d}^{10}\text{7s}^2\text{7p}^5$, $\text{Carbon family, [Rn]5f}^{14}\text{6d}^{10}\text{7s}^2\text{7p}^2$...
2
View
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Delete
7563
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
3
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Edit
Delete
7562
$\text{The correct order of increasing energy of atomic orbital is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p}$, $\text{3s, 3p, 3d, 4s, 4p}$...
1
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Delete
7561
$\text{In a subshell, if the number of radial nodes is two times the number of angular nodes, then the minimum possible value of the principal quantum number (n) is:}$\n\n$\text{[angular nodes are non-zero]}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$1$, $2$...
4
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7560
$\text{Orbitals having two spherical nodes are:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{2s}$, $\text{4s}$...
4
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Delete
7559
$\text{Correct statement among the following is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Number of angular nodes = n - l - 1}$, $\text{Number of radial nodes = l}$...
3
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Delete
7558
$\text{Assertion (A): The number of radial nodes in } 3d_{z^2} \text{, is zero.}$\n\n$\text{Reason (R): The number of angular nodes of atomic orbitals is equal to the value of l.}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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Delete
7557
$\text{The correct order of the total number of nodes of atomic orbitals is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{4f} > \text{6s} > \text{5d}$, $\text{6s} > \text{5d} > \text{4f}$...
2
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Delete
7556
$\text{The incorrect statement about the nodal plane among the following is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{A plane on which there is a zero probability of finding an electron.}$, $\text{A plane on which there is maximum probability that the electron will be found.}$...
2
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7555
$\text{Assertion (A): All d orbitals are tetra-lobed structures having two nodal planes.}$\n\n$\text{Reason (R): Out of five, only four d-orbitals are degenerate orbitals.}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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Edit
Delete
7554
$\text{The rule used to determine the maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$4l+2$, $2l+1$...
1
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Edit
Delete
7553
$\text{The number of electrons with the azimuthal quantum number l = 1 and 2 for } \text{Cr}_{24} \text{ in ground state is}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$16 \text{ and } 5$, $12 \text{ and } 5$...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7552
$\text{The lowest value of n for 'g' orbitals is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$4$, $5$...
2
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Delete
7551
$\text{The number of electrons that can be present in the subshells having } m_s \text{ value of } -\frac{1}{2} \text{ for n = 4 are:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$36$, $4$...
3
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Delete
7550
$\text{Assertion (A): In the third energy level, there is no f subshell.}$\n\n$\text{Reason (R): For n = 3, the possible values of l are 0, 1, 2 and for f subshell l = 3.}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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Delete
7549
$\text{The maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$14$, $16$...
1
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Delete
7548
$\text{A pair of d-orbitals having electron density along the axes is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$d_{z^2}, d_{xz}$, $d_{xz}, d_{zy}$...
3
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7547
$\text{Orbital that does not exist:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{6p}$, $\text{2s}$...
3
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7546
$\text{The set of quantum numbers which represent 3p is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$n = 1, l = 0;$, $n = 3; l = 1$...
2
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7545
$\text{The number of electrons that can be fit into the orbital for which n = 3 and l = 1, is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$2$, $6$...
1
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7544
$\text{The quantum number of the most energetic electron in an Ne atom in the first excited state is}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$2, 1, 0, +\frac{1}{2}$, $3, 1, 1, +\frac{1}{2}$...
3
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Delete
7543
$\text{The number of orbitals that are possible at the L-energy level is}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$2$, $4$...
2
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7542
$\text{The excited state of an H atom emits a photon of wavelength } \lambda \text{ and returns to the ground state. The principal quantum number of the excited state is given by:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{\lambda R(\lambda R - 1)}$, $\sqrt{\frac{\lambda R}{(\lambda R - 1)}}$...
2
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7541
$\text{The wave mechanical model of the atom depends upon}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{De-Broglie concept of dual nature of electron}$, $\text{Heisenberg uncertainty principle}$...
4
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7540
$\text{The angular momentum of electrons in d orbital is equal to:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\sqrt{6} \hbar$, $\sqrt{2} \hbar$...
1
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7539
$\text{The total number of electrons in an atom with the following quantum numbers would be}$
$\text{(a) n = 4, m}_s = -\frac{1}{2}$
$\text{(b) n = 3, l = 0$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$16, 2$, $11, 8$...
1
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7538
$\text{The quantum number not obtained from Schrödinger's wave equation is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$n$, $l$...
4
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7537
$\text{The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of a rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$5, 1, 1, +\frac{1}{2}$, $6, 0, 0, +\frac{1}{2}$...
3
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7536
$\text{Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is possible:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{n = 0, l = 0, m}_l = 0, \text{m}_s = +\frac{1}{2}$, $\text{n = 1, l = 0, m}_l = 0, \text{m}_s = -\frac{1}{2}$...
2
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7535
$\text{Consider the following sets of quantum numbers:}$
$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|c|} \hline & \text{n} & \text{l} & \text{m} & \text{s} \\ \hline \text{(i)} & 3 & 0 & 0 & +1/2 \\ \hline \text{(ii)} & 2 & 2 & 1 & +1/2 \\ \hline \text{(iii)} & 4 & 3 & -2 & -1/2 \\ \hline \text{(iv)} & 1 & 0 & -1 & -1/2 \\ \hline \text{(v)} & 3 & 2 & 3 & +1/2 \\ \hline \end{array}$
$\text{Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible?}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{ii, iii and iv}$, $\text{i, ii, iii and iv}$...
3
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7534
$\text{Match the quantum numbers with the information provided by them:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3}$, $\text{A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4}$...
1
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7533
$\text{The characteristic velocity associated with a neutron that has a wavelength of 800 pm is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$496 \text{ m s}^{-1}$, $567 \text{ m s}^{-1}$...
1
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7532
$\text{The kinetic energy of an electron is } 3.0 \times 10^{-25} \text{ J. Its wave length would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$8.96 \times 10^{-7} \text{ m}$, $4.37 \times 10^{-6} \text{ m}$...
1
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7531
$\text{The velocity associated with a proton moving at a potential difference of 1000 V is } 4.37 \times 10^5 \text{ ms}^{-1}\text{. If the hockey ball of mass 0.1 kg is moving with this velocity, then the wavelength associated with this velocity would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$1.52 \times 10^{-38} \text{ m}$, $2.54 \times 10^{-32} \text{ m}$...
1
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Delete
7530
$\text{Incorrect statement among the following is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{The uncertainty principle is } \Delta x \cdot \Delta p \geq \frac{h}{4\pi}$, $\text{Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater symmetry, and a more balanced arrangement.}$...
1
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7529
$\text{The graphs that represents the variation of momentum of particle with de-Broglie wavelength is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Graph showing p vs } \lambda \text{ as a straight line with negative slope}$, $\text{Graph showing p vs } \lambda \text{ as a curve with increasing slope}$...
3
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7528
$\text{If the velocity of the electron is } 1.6 \times 10^6 \text{ ms}^{-1}\text{. The de Broglie wavelength associated with this electron is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$590 \text{ pm}$, $455 \text{ pm}$...
4
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Delete
7527
$\text{If the velocity of the electron is } 1.6 \times 10^6 \text{ ms}^{-1}\text{. The de Broglie wavelength associated with this electron is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$590 \text{ pm}$, $455 \text{ pm}$...
2
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Delete
7526
$\text{The wavelength of an electron moving with a velocity of } 2.05 \times 10^7 \text{ m s}^{-1} \text{ would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$4.65 \times 10^{-12} \text{ m}$, $3.55 \times 10^{-11} \text{ m}$...
2
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Delete
7525
$\text{The largest de Broglie wavelength among the following (all have equal velocity) is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{CO}_2 \text{ molecule}$, $\text{NH}_3 \text{ molecule}$...
3
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7524
$\text{If the position of the electron were measured with an accuracy of } \pm 0.002 \text{ nm, the uncertainty in the momentum of the electron would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$5.637 \times 10^{-23} \text{ kg m s}^{-1}$, $4.637 \times 10^{-23} \text{ kg m s}^{-1}$...
3
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7523
$\text{If uncertainty in position and momentum are both equal, then uncertainty in velocity will be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1}{2m} \sqrt{\frac{h}{\pi}}$, $\sqrt{\frac{h}{2\pi}}$...
1
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7522
$\text{Be}^{3+} \text{ ion and a proton are accelerated by the same potential. The ratio of their de-Broglie wavelengths is}$\n\n$\text{(assume mass of proton = mass of neutron)}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$1:2$, $1:4$...
4
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7521
$\text{If the size of the first orbit of the hydrogen atom is 5.29 nm, the size of the second orbit of He}^+ \text{ is}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$2.65 \text{ nm}$, $21.16 \text{ nm}$...
3
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7520
$\text{Assertion (A): The radius of the second orbit of He}^+ \text{ is equal to that of the first orbit of hydrogen.}$\n\n$\text{Reason (R): The radius of an orbit in hydrogen-like species is directly proportional to n and inversely proportional to Z.}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).}$...
4
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7519
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$\n\n$\text{Assertion (A): Bohr's orbits are also called stationary states.}$\n\n$\text{Reason (R): Electrons are stationary in an orbit.}$\n\n$\text{In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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7518
$\text{An ion among the following that has the same radius as a hydrogen atom, having n=1, is}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{He}^{+}, n = 2$, $\text{Li}^{2+}, n = 2$...
3
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7517
$\text{The concept that contradicts the Bohr Model of an atom is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Rutherford Model}$, $\text{Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle}$...
2
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7516
$\text{For any H-like system, the ratio of velocities of I, II & III orbit i.e., } V_1 : V_2 : V_3 \text{ will be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$1 : 2 : 3$, $1 : 1/2 : 1/3$...
2
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7515
$\text{Assertion (A): The angular momentum of an electron in an atom is quantized.}$\n\n$\text{Reason (R): In an atom, only those orbits are permitted in which the angular momentum of the electron is a natural number multiple of } h/2\pi.$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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7514
$\text{The energy of an electron in the first Bohr's orbit of an H-atom is -13.6 eV. The possible energy value(s) of the excited state(s) for electrons in Bohr's orbits of hydrogen is (are):}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$-3.4 \text{ eV}$, $-4.2 \text{ eV}$...
1
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7513
$\text{A dye absorbs a photon of wavelength } \lambda \text{ and re-emits the same energy into two photons of wavelengths } \lambda_1 \text{ and } \lambda_2 \text{ respectively. The wavelength } \lambda \text{ is related to } \lambda_1 \text{ and } \lambda_2 \text{ as:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\lambda = \frac{\lambda_1+\lambda_2}{\lambda_1\lambda_2}$, $\lambda = \frac{\lambda_1\lambda_2}{\lambda_1+\lambda_2}$...
2
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7512
$\text{An absorption line of the lowest frequency in the transition of hydrogen spectra is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$n=1 \text{ to } n=2$, $n=3 \text{ to } n=8$...
2
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7511
$\text{The mass ratio of photons corresponding to the first lines of the Lyman and the Balmer series of the atomic spectrum of hydrogen is :}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$5 : 27$, $1 : 4$...
3
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7510
$\text{The ionization energy for H atom in the ground state is } 2.18 \times 10^{-18} \text{ J. The process energy requirements will be: } (He^{+}(g) \rightarrow He^{2+}(g) + e^{-})$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$8.72 \times 10^{-18} \text{ J}$, $7.54 \times 10^{-18} \text{ J}$...
1
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7509
$\text{The transition in the He}^{+} \text{ ion in the balmer series that would have the same wave number as the first Lyman line in the hydrogen spectrum is-}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$2 \rightarrow 1$, $5 \rightarrow 3$...
3
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7508
$\text{The wavelength of the spectral line obtained in the spectrum of Li}^{+2} \text{ when the transition takes place between levels whose sum is 4 and the difference is 2, will be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$11.4 \times 10^{-6} \text{ cm}$, $1.14 \times 10^{-6} \text{ cm}$...
2
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7507
$\text{The wave number for the longest wavelength transition in the Balmer series of atomic hydrogen would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$1.52 \times 10^6 m^{-1}$, $3.14 \times 10^6 (cm)^{-1}$...
1
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7506
The energy of an electron in an $\text{H}$-atom is given by $E_n = (-2.18 \times 10^{-18})/\text{n}^2 \text{ J}$. The shortest wavelength of light that can be used to remove an electron completely from $\text{n} = 2$ orbit will be:
2
202
Recommended Questions
$3647 \mathring{\text{A}}$, $5132 \mathring{\text{A}}$...
1
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7505
Emission transitions in the Paschen series end at orbit $\text{n} = 3$ and start from orbit $\text{n}$ and can be represented as $\nu = 3.29 \times 10^{15} \left( \frac{1}{3^2} - \frac{1}{\text{n}^2} \right) \text{ Hz}$. The value of $\text{n}$ if the transition is observed at $1285 \text{ nm}$ is:
2
202
Recommended Questions
6, 5...
2
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7504
The maximum wavelength in the Lyman series of $\text{He}^{+}$ ion is-
2
202
Recommended Questions
$3\text{R}$, $1/(3\text{R})$...
2
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7503
The electronic transition in the hydrogen atom that emits maximum energy is:
2
202
Recommended Questions
$2 \rightarrow 1$, $1 \rightarrow 4$...
1
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7502
The transition in the hydrogen spectrum that would have the same wavelength as Balmer transition from $n = 4$ to $n = 2$ of $\text{He}^+$ spectrum is :
2
202
Recommended Questions
$n_1 = 3$ to $n_2 = 4$, $n_2 = 3$ to $n_1 = 2$...
4
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7501
The wavelength of light emitted when the electron in a H atom undergoes the transition from an energy level with $n = 4$ to an energy level with $n = 2$, is :
2
202
Recommended Questions
$586 \, \text{mm}$, $486 \, \text{nm}$...
2
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7500
The energy associated with the fifth orbit of a hydrogen atom is :
2
202
Recommended Questions
$-2.18 \times 10^{-18} \, \text{J}$, $-8.72 \times 10^{-20} \, \text{J}$...
2
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7499
When an electron jumps from n=5 to n=1 in a hydrogen atom, the number of spectral lines obtained is
2
202
Recommended Questions
3, 4...
4
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7498
The wavelength of the radiation emitted when in a H atom, the electron falls from infinity to stationary state (n=1), is:
2
202
Recommended Questions
15 $nm$, 192 $nm$...
4
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7497
The ratio of the wavelengths of the last lines of the Balmer to Lyman series is
2
202
Recommended Questions
4:1, 27:5...
1
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7496
Determine the maximum number of emission lines produced when an electron in a hydrogen atom transitions from the $n = 6$ energy level to the ground state:
2
202
Recommended Questions
30, 21...
3
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7495
The ratio of slopes of $K_{\text{max}}$ vs. $v$ and $V_0$ vs. $v$ curves in photoelectric effect gives - ($v$=frequency, $K_{\text{max}}= \text{maximum kinetic energy}$, $V_0$=stopping potential):
2
202
Recommended Questions
Charge of electron, Planck's constant...
1
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7494
The ejection of the photoelectron from the silver metal can be stopped by applying a voltage of 0.35 eV when the radiation having a wavelength of 256.7 nm is used. The work function for silver metal is:
2
202
Recommended Questions
3.40 eV, 5.18 eV...
3
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7493
A photon with an initial frequency of $10^{11} \, \text{Hz}$ scatters off an electron at rest. Its final frequency is $0.9 \times 10^{11} \, \text{Hz}$. The speed of scattered electron is close to:
2
202
Recommended Questions
$3 \times 10^2 \, \text{ms}^{-1}$, $3.8 \times 10^3 \, \text{ms}^{-1}$...
2
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7492
When a photon with a wavelength of $150$ pm strikes an atom, one of its inner bound electrons is ejected at a velocity of $1.5 \times 10^7 \, \text{m} \, \text{s}^{-1}$. The energy with which it is bound to the nucleus would be:
2
202
Recommended Questions
$32.22 \times 10^{-16} \, \text{J}$, $12.22 \times 10^{-16} \, \text{J}$...
2
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7491
The work function for the Cesium atom is 1.9 eV. The threshold frequency of the radiation is:
2
202
Recommended Questions
$4.59 \times 10^{14} \, \text{s}^{-1}$, $8.59 \times 10^{14} \, \text{s}^{-1}$...
1
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7490
A photon of wavelength $4 \times 10^{-7}$ m strikes a metal surface, the work function of the metal being 2.13 eV. The kinetic energy of emission would be:
2
202
Recommended Questions
0.97 eV, 97 eV...
1
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7489
The photoelectric emission from a surface starts only when the light incident upon the surface has a certain minimum:
2
202
Recommended Questions
Intensity, Wavelength...
3
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7488
Electrons are emitted with zero velocity from a metal surface when it is exposed to radiation of wavelength $6800$ Å. The work function $(W_0)$ of the metal is:
2
202
Recommended Questions
$3.109 \times 10^{-20} \, \text{J}$, $2.922 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{J}$...
2
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7487
Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength $242$ nm is just sufficient to ionise sodium atom. The ionisation energy of sodium in kJ mol$^{-1}$ is :
2
202
Recommended Questions
$494$, $4.94$...
1
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7486
$\text{Assertion (A): A black body is an ideal body that emits and absorbs radiation of all frequencies.}$\n\n$\text{Reason (R): The frequency of radiation emitted by a body goes from lower frequency to a higher frequency with an increase in temperature.}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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7485
$\text{A radiation source emitted } 2.5 \times 10^{15} \text{ photons in 2 nanoseconds. Energy of the source is :}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$8.28 \times 10^{-10} \text{ J}$, $8.24 \times 10^{10} \text{ J}$...
1
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7484
$\text{The number of photons of light with a wavelength of 4000 pm that provide 1J of energy would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$2.01 \times 10^{16}$, $2.01 \times 10^{19}$...
1
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7483
$\text{A 25-watt bulb emits monochromatic yellow light with a wave length of 0.57μm. The rate of emission of quanta per second would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$7.17 \times 10^{-19} \text{ s}^{-1}$, $4.13 \times 10^{16} \text{ s}^{-1}$...
3
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7482
$\text{The wavelength of the light emitted when the electron returns to the ground state in the H atom, from n = 5 to n = 1, would be: (The ground-state electron energy is } -2.18 \times 10^{-18} \text{ j)}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Wavelength} = 9.498 \times 10^{-8} \text{ km}$, $\text{Wavelength} = 12.498 \times 10^{-8} \text{ m}$...
3
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7481
$\text{The neon gas emits radiation of 616 nm. The number of quanta that are present in 2 J of energy is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$6.2 \times 10^{-18}$, $5.6 \times 10^{17}$...
3
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7480
$\text{If the photon detector receives a total of } 3.15 \times 10^{-18} \text{ J from the radiation of 600 nm, the number of photons received by the detector would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$10^2$, $10$...
2
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7479
$\text{A nitrogen laser produces radiation at a wavelength of 337.1 nm. If the number of photons emitted is } 5.6 \times 10^{24}\text{, the power of the laser is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$4.56 \times 10^7 \text{ J}$, $3.33 \times 10^6 \text{ J}$...
2
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7478
$\text{Photons of wavelength 4000 } \text{Å} \text{ are used to break } \text{I}_2 \text{ molecules. The percentage of energy converted to the kinetic energy of atoms will be:}$ $\text{(bond dissociation energy of the molecule is 246.5 kJ/mol)}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$12\%$, $8\%$...
4
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7477
$\text{The correct arrangement of the following electromagnetic spectrum in the increasing order of frequency is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Cosmic rays} < \text{Amber light} < \text{Radiation of FM radio} < \text{X-rays} < \text{Radiation from microwave ovens}$, $\text{Radiation from FM radio} < \text{Radiation from microwave oven} < \text{Amber light} < \text{X-rays} < \text{Cosmic rays}$...
2
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7476
$\text{Match the following electromagnetic radiations with their corresponding frequencies:}$ $\text{Column I:}$ $\text{A. X-rays}$ $\text{B. Ultraviolet wave (UV)}$ $\text{C. Long radio waves}$ $\text{D. Microwave}$ $\text{Column II:}$ $\text{1. } \nu = 10^0 - 10^4 \text{ Hz}$ $\text{2. } \nu = 10^{10} \text{ Hz}$ $\text{3. } \nu = 10^{16} \text{ Hz}$ $\text{4. } \nu = 10^{18} \text{ Hz}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2}$, $\text{A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3}$...
4
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7475
$\text{The energies E}_1 \text{ and E}_2 \text{ of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths } (\lambda_1 \text{ and } \lambda_2) \text{ will be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\lambda_1 = 2\lambda_2$, $\lambda_1 = 4\lambda_2$...
1
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7474
$\text{The energy of the photon with a frequency of } 3 \times 10^{15} \text{ Hz is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$1.988 \times 10^{-18} \text{ J}$, $1.588 \times 10^{-18} \text{ J}$...
1
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7473
$\text{The unpaired electrons in Al and Si are present in the 3p orbital. The electrons that will experience a more effective nuclear charge from the nucleus are:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Electrons in the 3p orbital of silicon}$, $\text{Electrons in the 5d orbital of aluminium}$...
1
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7472
$\text{The total number and mass of neutrons in 7 mg of }^{14}\text{C would be:}$ $\text{(Assume that mass of a neutron} = 1.675 \times 10^{-27} \text{ kg)}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$2.41 \times 10^{21}, 4.03 \times 10^{-6} \text{ kg}$, $6.23 \times 10^{23}, 1.67 \times 10^{-21} \text{ kg}$...
1
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7471
$\text{The total number of electrons present in one mole of methane is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$6.023 \times 10^{23}$, $6.023 \times 10^{24}$...
2
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7470
$\text{Assertion (A): All isotopes of a given element show the same type of chemical behaviour.}$ $\text{Reason (R): The chemical properties of an atom are controlled by the number of electrons in the atom.}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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7469
$\text{An ion with a mass number of 56 contains 3 units of positive charge and 30.4% more neutrons than electrons. The symbol of the ion is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$^{56}_{26}\text{Fe}^{+3}$, $^{57}_{26}\text{Fe}^{+3}$...
1
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7468
$\text{An element with a mass number of 81 contains 31.7% more neutrons as compared to protons. The atomic symbol of the element would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$^{81}_{35}\text{Br}$, $^{81}_{36}\text{Br}$...
1
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7467
$\text{An atom forms an ion by losing three electrons. The ion has an electronic configuration [Ar]3d}^6\text{. The symbol of the ion is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe}^{3+}$, $\text{Ni}^{3+}$...
3
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7466
$\text{The mass and charge of one mole of electrons are, respectively:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$5.48 \times 10^{-7} \text{ kg, } 9.65 \text{ C}$, $5.48 \times 10^{-7} \text{ C, } 1.098 \times 10^{27}$...
3
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7465
$\text{Which among the following are isoelectronic species?}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Na}^+, \text{K}^+, \text{Ca}^{2+}, \text{Mg}^{2+}$, $\text{Ca}^{2+}, \text{Mg}^{2+}, \text{S}^{2-}, \text{K}^+$...
3
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7464
$\text{The electron of a Br atom that experiences the lowest effective nuclear charge is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$2p \text{ and } 3p$, $4p$...
2
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7463
$\text{The number of electrons in } {}_{19}\text{K} \text{ with quantum numbers n=3; l=0 is/are:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$2$, $1$...
1
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7462
$\text{Which of the following has greater number of electrons than neutrons?}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Al}^{3+}$, $\text{O}^{2-}$...
2
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7461
$\text{The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in } {}^{175}_{71}\text{Lu} \text{ respectively, are:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$104, 71 \text{ and } 71$, $71, 71 \text{ and } 104$...
4
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7460
$\text{The charge on the oil drop is } -1.282 \times 10^{-18} \text{C. The number of electrons present in it would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$15$, $8$...
2
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7459
$\text{An atom of an element contains 29 electrons and 35 neutrons. The number of protons in the element would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$29$, $35$...
1
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7458
$\text{Property which is same for the following species is:}$ $\text{N}^{3-}, \text{O}^{2-}, \text{F}^-, \text{Na}^+, \text{Mg}^{2+} \text{ and } \text{Al}^{3+}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{Ionic radii}$, $\text{Number of electrons}$...
2
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7457
$\text{The complete symbol for the atom with the given atomic number (Z) and atomic mass (A) would be, respectively:}$ $\text{i. Z = 17, A = 35}$ $\text{ii. Z = 92, A = 233}$ $\text{iii. Z = 4, A = 9}$
2
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Recommended Questions
${}^9\text{Be}_4 \quad {}^{233}\text{U}_{92} \quad {}^9\text{Be}_4$, ${}^{35}\text{Cl}_{17} \quad {}^{233}\text{U}_{92} \quad {}^9\text{Be}_4$...
2
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7456
$\text{The maximum number of neutrons are present in the nuclei of:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
${}^{16}\text{O}_8$, ${}^{24}\text{Mg}_{12}$...
4
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7455
$\text{The number of electrons in the species } \text{H}_2^+, \text{H}_2, \text{O}_2^+, \text{ are respectively:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$15, 2, 1$, $15, 1, 2$...
3
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7454
$\text{The incorrect statement regarding the characteristics of X-rays is:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$\text{The radiation can ionize the gas}$, $\text{It causes a fluorescence effect on ZnS}$...
3
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7453
$\text{In Rutherford's experiment, generally, the thin foil of heavy atoms like gold, platinum, etc. have been used to be bombarded by the α-particles.}$ $\text{If the thin foil of light atoms like aluminum etc. is used in Rutherford's experiment, the difference that would be observed from the above results is:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The same results will be observed.}$, $\text{More deflection would be observed.}$...
3
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7452
$\text{The wave number of a light whose time period is } 2.0 \times 10^{-10} \text{ s would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$16.66 \text{ m}^{-1}$, $1.66 \text{ m}^{-1}$...
1
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7451
6
2
202
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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7450
$2 \times 10^8 \text{ atoms of carbon are arranged side by side. The radius of a carbon atom if the length of this arrangement is 2.4 cm would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$7.0 \times 10^{-11} \text{ m}$, $5.0 \times 10^{-11} \text{ m}$...
4
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7449
$\text{The diameter of a zinc atom is 2.6 Å. If zinc atoms are arranged side by side lengthwise, number of atoms present in a length of 1.6 cm would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$5.153 \times 10^7$, $6.153 \times 10^7$...
2
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7448
$\text{If the diameter of a carbon atom is 0.15 nm, the number of carbon atoms that can be placed side by side in a straight line across the length of the scale of length 20 cm long will be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$1.33 \times 10^7$, $5.46 \times 10^8$...
3
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7447
$\text{A certain particle carries } 2.5 \times 10^{-16} \text{ C of static electric charge. The number of electrons present in it would be:}$
2
202
Recommended Questions
$1460$, $1350$...
3
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7446
$\text{Symbols } ^{79}_{35}\text{Br} \text{ and } ^{79}\text{Br} \text{ can be written, whereas symbols } ^{35}_{79}\text{Br} \text{ and } ^{35}\text{Br} \text{ are not acceptable because:}$
2
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Recommended Questions
$\text{The general convention for representing an element along with its atomic number (A) and atomic mass (Z) is } ^{A}_{Z}\text{X}$, $\text{The general convention for representing an element along with its atomic mass (A) and atomic number (Z) is } ^{A}_{Z}\text{X}$...
2
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7445
$0.50 \text{ mol } \text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3 \text{ and } 0.50 \text{ M } \text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3 \text{ are different because:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both have different amounts of } \text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3.$, $\text{0.50 mol is the number of moles and 0.50 M is the molarity.}$...
2
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7444
\text{Match the following physical quantities with units:}
\text{A. Molarity - 2. mol/L}
\text{B. Molality - 1. mol/kg}
\text{C. Pressure - 4. Pascal}
\text{D. Luminous intensity - 3. Candela}
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3}$, $\text{A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3}$...
2
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7443
$\text{The mass of carbon present in 0.5 mole of K}_4\text{[Fe(CN)}_6\text{] is:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$1.8 \text{ g}$, $18 \text{ g}$...
4
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7442
$\begin{array}{|l|l|}\hline\text{Assertion (A):} & \text{The number of molecules in 2 moles of NH}_3\text{ is equal to the}\\& \text{number of molecules in 4 moles of CH}_4.\\\hline\text{Reason (R):} & \text{Both are chemically similar species.}\\\hline\end{array}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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7441
$\text{The weight of 1}\times10^{23} \text{ molecules of CuSO}_4\text{·5H}_2\text{O is:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$34.42 \text{ g}$, $41.42 \text{ g}$...
2
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7440
$\text{Which of the following is dependent on temperature?}$
$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|}\hline\text{1.} & \text{Molarity} & \text{2.} & \text{Mole fraction} \\ \hline\text{3.} & \text{Weight percentage} & \text{4.} & \text{Molality} \\ \hline\end{array}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{Molarity}$, $\text{Mole fraction}$...
1
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7439
$20 \text{ g of sugar is dissolved in enough water to make a final volume of 2L. The concentration of sugar } (\text{C}_{12}\text{H}_{22}\text{O}_{11}) \text{ in mol L}^{-1} \text{ will be:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$0.29 \text{ mol/L}$, $0.029 \text{ mol/L}$...
2
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7438
$\text{Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98\% H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{ by mass and has a density}$
$\text{of 1.80 g mL}^{-1}\text{. The volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1 M}$
$\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{ solution is:}$
2
201
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$11.10 \text{ mL}$, $16.65 \text{ mL}$...
4
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7437
109
2
201
Recommended Questions
1, 2...
4
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7436
$\text{A partially dried clay mineral contains 8\% water. The original sample contained 12\% water and 45\% silica. The percentage of silica in the partially dried sample is nearly:}$
2
201
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$50\%$, $49\%$...
4
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7435
The chloroform contamination level in water is 15 ppm (by mass of chloroform). The molality of chloroform in the water sample would be:
2
201
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$3.25 \times 10^{-4}$, $1.5 \times 10^{-3}$...
4
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7434
The molality of a 15\% (w/vol.) solution of $\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4$ of density 1.1g/cm$^3$ is-
2
201
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1.2, 1.4...
4
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7433
Concentrated nitric acid is 70\% $\text{HNO}_3$. The amount of concentrated nitric acid solution that should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M $\text{HNO}_3$ would be:
2
201
Recommended Questions
\text{90.0 g conc. HNO}_3, \text{70.0 g conc. HNO}_3...
4
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7432
The mass of $\text{CaCO}_3$ required to react completely with 25 mL of 0.75 M $\text{HCl}$ according to the given reaction would be:\n\n$\text{CaCO}_{3(s)} + \text{HCl}_{(aq)} \rightarrow \text{CaCl}_{2(aq)} + \text{CO}_{2(g)} + \text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
0.36 g, 0.09 g...
3
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7431
If the density of methanol is 0.793 kg L$^{-1}$, the volume needed for making 2.5 L of its 0.25 M solution would be:
2
201
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22.25 mL, 24.78 mL...
3
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7430
The total molarity of all the ions present in 0.1 M of $\text{CuSO}_4$ and 0.1 M of $\text{Al}_2(\text{SO}_4)_3$ solution is:
2
201
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0.2 M, 0.7 M...
3
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7429
The molality of a 20\% (by mass) $\text{CaCO}_3$ solution is : \n(Given: Density of solution is 1.2 gm/ml)
2
201
Recommended Questions
1.25 m, 2.5 m...
2
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7428
The density of a 2 M aqueous solution of $\text{NaOH}$ is 1.28 g/$cm^3$. The molality of the solution is:\n[molecular mass of $\text{NaOH} = 40 \text{ gmol}^{-1}$]
2
201
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1.20 m, 1.56 m...
2
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7427
$\text{The volume occupied by one water molecule (density} = 1 \text{ g cm}^{-3}\text{) is:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$9.0 \times 10^{-23} \text{ cm}^3$, $6.023 \times 10^{-23} \text{ cm}^3$...
3
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7426
$\text{If 4 g of NaOH dissolves in 36 g of H}_2\text{O, the molarity of the solution is: (specific gravity of solution is 1 g mL}^{-1}\text{) :}$
2
201
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$3 \text{ M}$, $3.5 \text{ M}$...
3
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7425
$25.3 \text{ g of sodium carbonate, } \text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3\text{, is dissolved in enough water to make } 250 \text{ mL of a solution. If sodium carbonate completely dissociates, the molar concentrations of sodium ion, } \text{Na}^+ \text{ and carbonate ion, } CO_3^{2-} \text{ are respectively:}$
$(\text{molar mass of } \text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3 = 106 \text{ g mol}^{-1})$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$0.955 \text{ M and } 1.910 \text{ M}$, $1.910 \text{ M and } 0.955 \text{ M}$...
3
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7424
$\text{The number of molecules of H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ present in 100 mL of 0.02 M H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ solution are:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$12.044 \times 10^{20} \text{ molecules}$, $6.022 \times 10^{23} \text{ molecules}$...
2
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7423
$\text{The molality of pure water is:}$
2
201
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$1 \text{ m}$, $18 \text{ m}$...
1
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7422
$\text{Which of the following is dependent on temperature?}$
2
201
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$\text{Molarity}$, $\text{Mole fraction}$...
3
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7421
$\text{At STP, the density of CCl}_4 \text{ vapour in g/L will be closest to:}$
2
201
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$8.67$, $6.87$...
1
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7420
$\text{If 500 mL of a 5 M solution is diluted to 1500 mL, the molarity of the resultant solution is:}$
2
201
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$1.5 \text{ M}$, $1.66 \text{ M}$...
2
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7419
$\text{The vapour density of a mixture containing } \text{NO}_2 \text{ and } \text{N}_2\text{O}_4 \text{ is } 38.3. \text{ The mole of } \text{NO}_2 \text{ in a } 100 \text{ g mixture is:}$
$[\text{Vapour density} = (\text{Molar mass} / 2)]$
2
201
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$0.437$, $0.347$...
2
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7418
$\text{When 50 mL of a 16.9\% (w/v) solution of AgNO}_3 \text{ is mixed with 50 mL of 5.8\% (w/v) NaCl solution, then the mass of precipitate formed is:}$
$(\text{Ag} = 107.8, \text{ N} = 14, \text{ O} = 16, \text{ Na}= 23, \text{ Cl}=35.5)$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$28 \text{ g}$, $3.5 \text{ g}$...
1
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7417
$\text{1 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56g of oxygen in a closed vessel. The left-out reactant and its quantity are}$
$(\text{At. weight of Mg} = 24, \text{O}=16)$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{Mg, 0.16g}$, $\text{O}_2\text{, 0.16g}$...
3
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7416
$\text{One mole of a mixture of CO and CO}_2 \text{ requires exactly 20g of NaOH in solution for the complete conversion of all the CO}_2 \text{ into Na}_2\text{CO}_3\text{. How much NaOH would it require for conversion into Na}_2\text{CO}_3\text{, if the mixture (one mole) is completely oxidised to CO}_2\text{?}$
2
201
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$60\text{ g}$, $80\text{ g}$...
1
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7415
$\text{Sulphur burns according to the reaction}$
$\frac{1}{8}\text{S}_8\text{(s)}+\text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightarrow \text{SO}_2\text{(g)}$
$\text{What volume of air, at 1 atm and 273 K, containing 21\% oxygen by volume is required to completely burn sulphur (S}_8\text{) present in 200 g of the sample?}$
$\text{(This sample contains 20\% inert material which does not burn)}$
2
201
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$23.52 \text{ litre}$, $320 \text{ litre}$...
2
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7414
$\text{The sulphate of the metal M contains } 9.87\% \text{ of M. This sulphate is isomorphous with } \text{ZnSO}_4 \cdot 7\text{H}_2\text{O}. \text{ The atomic weight of M is:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$40.3$, $36.3$...
4
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7413
$\begin{array}{|l|l|}\hline \text{Assertion (A):} & \text{When 4 moles of H}_2 \text{ reacts with 2 moles of O}_2\text{, then 4 moles of} \\ & \text{water are formed.} \\\hline \text{Reason (R):} & \text{O}_2 \text{ will act as a limiting reagent.} \\\hline\end{array}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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7412
$\text{On reduction with CO, } 200 \text{ kg of iron ore } (\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3) \text{ containing } 20\% \text{ impurities gives iron. The amount of iron produced will be-}$
2
201
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$84 \text{ kg}$, $200 \text{ kg}$...
3
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7411
$\text{Amount of HCl that would react with } 5.0 \text{ g of manganese dioxide, as per the given reaction will be:}$
$4\text{HCl}_{(aq)} + \text{MnO}_{2(s)} \rightarrow 2\text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)} + \text{MnCl}_{2(aq)} + \text{Cl}_{2(g)}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$4.8 \text{ g}$, $6.4 \text{ g}$...
4
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7410
$\text{A mixture of } 2.3 \text{ g formic acid and } 4.5 \text{ g oxalic acid is treated with conc. } \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\text{. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets.}\n\n\text{Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be:}$
2
201
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$1.4$, $3.0$...
4
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7409
$10 \text{ g of hydrogen and } 64 \text{ g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. The amount of water produced in this reaction will be:}$
2
201
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$2 \text{ mol}$, $3 \text{ mol}$...
3
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7408
$\text{Consider the given reaction, } 2\text{SO}_2 + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{SO}_3$\n\n$\text{6.4 g } \text{SO}_2 \text{ and 3.2 g } \text{O}_2 \text{ to form } \text{SO}_3 \text{. The mass of } \text{SO}_3 \text{ formed is:}$
2
201
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$32 \text{ g}$, $16 \text{ g}$...
3
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7407
$\text{In the reaction, } 4\text{NH}_3\text{(g)} + 5\text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightarrow 4\text{NO(g)} + 6\text{H}_2\text{O(l)}$\n\n$\text{When 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of } \text{O}_2 \text{ reacts to completion, then:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{1.0 mole of } \text{H}_2\text{O is produced.}$, $\text{1.0 mole of NO will be produced.}$...
3
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7406
$\text{10 g of a silver coin, when dissolved completely in excess of conc. } \text{HNO}_3 \text{ gives 8.5 g of silver nitrate.}$\n\n$\text{The percentage purity of the coin is:}$\n\n$\text{(Molar mass of silver is 108 g)}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$25\%$, $54\%$...
3
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7405
$\text{25.4 g of } \text{I}_2 \text{ and 14.2 g of } \text{Cl}_2 \text{ are made to react completely to yield a mixture of ICl and } \text{ICl}_3\text{. The mole of ICl and } \text{ICl}_3 \text{ formed, is respectively -}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$0.5, 0.2$, $0.1, 0.1$...
2
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7404
$\text{The volume of oxygen gas (} \text{O}_2 \text{) needed to completely burn 1 L of propane gas (} \text{C}_3\text{H}_8 \text{) (both } \text{O}_2 \text{ \& propane measured at } 0^{\circ}\text{C and 1 atm) will be:}$
2
201
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$7 \text{ L}$, $6 \text{ L}$...
2
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7403
$\text{Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds } \text{XY}_2 \text{ and } \text{X}_3\text{Y}_2\text{. If 0.1 mole of } \text{XY}_2 \text{ weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of } \text{X}_3\text{Y}_2 \text{ weighs 9 g, the atomic weight of X and Y respectively, will be:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$40, 30$, $60, 40$...
3
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7402
$\text{To produce 20 moles of ammonia via Haber's process, how many moles of hydrogen molecules are required?}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$40 \text{ mol}$, $10 \text{ mol}$...
1
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7401
$\text{If 10 volumes of } \text{H}_2 \text{ gas react with 5 volumes of } \text{O}_2 \text{ gas, the volumes of water vapor produced would be:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$9$, $8$...
4
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7400
$\text{If 10 volumes of } \text{H}_2 \text{ gas react with 5 volumes of } \text{O}_2 \text{ gas, the volumes of water vapor produced would be:}$
2
201
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$9$, $8$...
3
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7399
$\text{In the Haber process, 30 L of dihydrogen and 30 L of dinitrogen were taken for the reaction, which yielded only 50\% of the expected product. The composition of the gaseous mixture under the said conditions at the end is:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{20 L ammonia, 10 L nitrogen, 30 L hydrogen}$, $\text{20 L ammonia, 25 L nitrogen, 15 L hydrogen}$...
4
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7398
$\text{The moles of lead (II) chloride that will be formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO and 3.2 g of HCl are:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$0.044$, $0.333$...
4
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7397
$\text{20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and 8.0 g of magnesium oxide.}$\n\n$\text{The percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the sample is:}$\n\n$\text{(Atomic weight of Mg = 24)}$
2
201
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$75$, $96$...
4
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7396
$\text{In a reaction } \text{A} + \text{B}_2 \rightarrow \text{AB}_2\text{, A will act as a limiting reagent if:}$\n\n$\text{i. 300 atoms of A reacts with 200 molecules of B}_2$\n\n$\text{ii. 2 moles A reacts with 3 moles B}_2$\n\n$\text{iii. 100 atoms of A reacts with 100 molecules of B}_2$\n\n$\text{iv. 5 moles A reacts with 2.5 moles B}_2$\n\n$\text{v. 2.5 moles A reacts with 5 moles B}_2$\n\n$\text{Choose the correct option:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{(i), (ii)}$, $\text{(i), (ii), (v)}$...
3
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7395
$\text{If 0.5 moles of } \text{BaCl}_2 \text{ is reacted with 0.2 moles of } \text{Na}_3\text{PO}_4 \text{ then the maximum moles of } \text{Ba}_3\text{(PO}_4\text{)}_2 \text{ formed is:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$0.33$, $0.25$...
3
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7394
$\text{The mass of ammonia produced when } 2.00 \times 10^3 \text{ g dinitrogen reacts with } 1.00 \times 10^3 \text{ g of dihydrogen is:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$2338.11 \text{ g}$, $2428.57 \text{ g}$...
2
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7393
$\text{In a closed vessel, 50 ml of } \text{A}_2\text{B}_3 \text{ completely reacts with 200 ml of } \text{C}_2 \text{ according to the following equation:}$\n\n$2\text{A}_2\text{B}_3\text{(g)} + 5\text{C}_2\text{(g)} \rightarrow 3\text{C}_3\text{B}_2\text{(g)} + \text{CA}_4\text{(g)}$\n\n$\text{The composition of the gaseous mixture in the system will be:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$100 \text{ ml } \text{C}_2\text{, } 50 \text{ ml } \text{C}_3\text{B}_2\text{, } 50 \text{ ml } \text{CA}_4$, $25 \text{ ml } \text{C}_2\text{, } 75 \text{ ml } \text{C}_3\text{B}_2\text{, } 25 \text{ ml } \text{CA}_4$...
3
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7392
$\text{When 22.4 L of } \text{H}_2 \text{ (g) is mixed with 11.2 L of } \text{Cl}_2 \text{ (g), each at STP, the moles of } \text{HCl(g)} \text{ formed is equal to - }$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$1 \text{ mole of } \text{HCl} \text{ (g)}$, $2 \text{ moles of } \text{HCl} \text{ (g)}$...
1
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7391
$\text{Assertion (A): In Haber's process, starting with 5 moles of } \text{N}_2 \text{ and 2.5 mol of } \text{H}_2\text{, on complete reaction only 1.66 moles of } \text{NH}_3 \text{ were produced.}$\n\n$\text{Reason (R): } \text{H}_2 \text{ acts as a limiting reagent in this reaction.}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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7390
$\text{On complete decomposition, the volume of } \text{CO}_2 \text{ released at STP on heating } 9.85 \text{ g of } \text{BaCO}_3 \text{ (atomic mass, Ba = 137) will be:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$1.12 \text{ L}$, $4.84 \text{ L}$...
1
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7389
$\text{The amount of Zinc (atomic weight = 65) necessary to produce 224 mL of } \text{H}_2 \text{ (at STP) by the reaction with dilute sulphuric acid will be:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$0.65 \text{ g}$, $7.6 \text{ g}$...
1
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7388
$\text{The hydrated salt, Na}_2\text{SO}_4\text{.nH}_2\text{O, undergoes a 55\% loss in mass on heating and becomes anhydrous. The value of n will be:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$5$, $3$...
4
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7387
$\text{If 2.74 g of the metal oxide contains 1.53 g of metal, then the empirical formula of vanadium oxide is:}$
$(\text{Atomic Mass of V} = 52)$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{V}_2\text{O}_3$, $\text{VO}$...
3
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7386
$\text{In an iron oxide, the mass percent of iron and oxygen are 69.9 and 30.1, respectively. The empirical formula of the oxide of iron will be:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{Fe}_3\text{O}_2$, $\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_2$...
3
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7385
$\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{The empirical formula represents the simplest whole-number ratio of the various atoms present in a compound.}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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7384
$\text{An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.71\%, and H, 9.67\%. The empirical formula of the compound would be:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{CH}_3\text{O}$, $\text{CH}_2\text{O}$...
1
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7383
$\text{On complete combustion, 44 g of a sample of a compound gives 88 g CO}_2 \text{ and 36 g of H}_2\text{O. The molecular formula of the compound may be:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{C}_4\text{H}_6$, $\text{C}_2\text{H}_6\text{O}$...
3
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7382
$\text{The molar mass of naturally occurring Argon isotopes is:}$
$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline \text{Isotope} & \text{Isotopic molar mass} & \text{Abundance} \\ \hline \text{36-Ar} & 35.96755 \text{ g mol}^{-1} & 0.337\% \\ \hline \text{38-Ar} & 37.96272 \text{ g mol}^{-1} & 0.063\% \\ \hline \text{40-Ar} & 39.9624 \text{ g mol}^{-1} & 99.600\% \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$49.99947 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$, $39.99947 \text{ g mol}^{-1}$...
2
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7381
$\text{The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound are CH}_2\text{O and 180 g, respectively. The molecular formula of the compound is:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{C}_9\text{H}_{18}\text{O}_9$, $\text{CH}_2\text{O}$...
3
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7380
$\text{The mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$0.00177$, $0.0344$...
3
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7379
$\text{The number of gram molecules of oxygen in } 6.02 \times 10^{24} \text{ CO molecules are:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$10 \text{ g molecules}$, $5 \text{ g molecules}$...
2
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7378
$\text{Given below are two statements:}$ $\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{One atomic mass unit is defined as one-twelfth of the mass of one carbon-12 atom.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{The carbon-12 isotope is the most abundant isotope of carbon and has been chosen as the standard.}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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7377
$\text{Calculate the number of moles of oxygen (O) atoms in 126 amu of HNO}_3\text{.}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$2$, $\frac{2}{\text{N}_A}$...
4
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7376
$\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{1 a.m.u} = 1.66 \times 10^{-24} \text{ gram.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{The actual mass of one atom of C-12 is equal to } 1.99 \times 10^{-23} \text{ g.}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
1
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7375
$\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{1 g O}_2 \text{ and 1 g O}_3 \text{ have an equal number of oxygen atoms.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{O}_2 \text{ and O}_3 \text{ have different molar masses.}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
2
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7374
$\text{Which of the following statements is correct?}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{1 mole of electrons weights 5.4 mg .}$, $\text{1 mole of electrons weights 5.4 kg.}$...
3
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7373
$\text{The average molar mass of the mixture of CH}_4 \text{ and C}_2\text{H}_4 \text{ present in the mole ratio of a:b is 20 g mol}^{-1}\text{. When the mole ratio is reversed, the molar mass of the mixture will be:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$24 \text{ gram}$, $42 \text{ gram}$...
1
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7372
$\text{What is the ratio of the number of atoms in 2.2 g of CO}_2 \text{ and in 1.7 g of NH}_3\text{?}$
2
201
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$\frac{1}{2}$, $\frac{1}{8}$...
3
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7371
$\text{The maximum number of water molecules among the following is:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$18 \text{ mL of water}$, $0.18 \text{ g of water}$...
1
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7370
$100 \text{ mL of H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ solution having molarity of 1M and density 1.5 g/mL is mixed with 400 mL of water. The molarity of the H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ solution will be: (final density is 1.25 g/mL)}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$4.4 \text{ M}$, $0.145 \text{ M}$...
4
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7369
$\text{Assertion (A):}$ $\text{The combustion of 16 g of methane gives 18 g of water.}$ $\text{Reason (R):}$ $\text{In the combustion of methane, water is one of the products.}$
2
201
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
4
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7368
$\text{An element X has the following isotopic composition,}$\n\n$^{200}\text{X : 90\%, }^{199}\text{X : 8.0\%, }^{202}\text{X : 2.0\%}$\n\n$\text{The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$205 \text{ u}$, $220 \text{ u}$...
4
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7367
$\text{The number of valence electrons present in 0.53 grams of Na}_2\text{CO}_3 \text{ is:}$
2
201
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$3.01 \times 10^{23}$, $7.22 \times 10^{22}$...
2
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7366
$\text{Calculate the number of ions present in 2L of a solution of 1.6 M K}_4\text{[Fe(CN)}_6\text{]:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$4.8 \times 10^{22}$, $4.8 \times 10^{23}$...
3
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7365
$\text{If N}_A \text{ is Avogadro's number, then the number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of nitride ions (N}^{3-}\text{) will be:}$
2
201
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$3.2 \text{ N}_A$, $1.6 \text{ N}_A$...
3
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7364
$\text{At 100}^{\circ}\text{C and 1 atm, if the density of liquid water is 1.0 g cm}^{-3} \text{ and that of water vapor is 0.0006 g cm}^{-3}\text{, then the volume occupied by water molecules in 1 litre of steam at that temperature will be:}$
2
201
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$6 \text{ cm}^3$, $60 \text{ cm}^3$...
3
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7363
$\text{An organic substance containing C, H, and O gave the following percentage composition:}$\n\n$\text{C = 40.687\%, H = 5.085\% and O = 54.228\%. The vapour density of this organic substance is 59.}$\n\n$\text{The molecular formula of the compound will be:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{C}_4\text{H}_6\text{O}_4$, $\text{C}_4\text{H}_6\text{O}_2$...
1
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7362
\text{The number of atoms in 0.1 mole of a triatomic gas is:}
\text{(N}_A = 6.02 \times 10^{23} \text{ mol}^{-1}\text{)}
2
201
Recommended Questions
$6.026 \times 10^{22}$, $1.806 \times 10^{23}$...
2
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7361
$\text{If the Avogadro number N}_A\text{, is changed from } 6.022 \times 10^{23} \text{ mol}^{-1} \text{ to } 6.022 \times 10^{20} \text{ mol}^{-1} \text{ this would change:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{The definition of mass in units of grams.}$, $\text{The mass of one mole of carbon.}$...
2
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7360
$\text{The maximum number of molecules is present in which of the following?}$
2
201
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$\text{15 L of H}_2 \text{ gas at STP}$, $\text{5 L of N}_2 \text{ gas at STP}$...
1
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7359
$\text{1cc N}_2\text{O at STP contains:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\frac{1.32}{224} \times 10^{23} \text{ electrons}$, $\frac{6.02}{22400} \times 10^{23} \text{ molecules}$...
4
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7358
$6.02\times10^{20} \text{ molecules of urea are present in 100mL of its solution. The concentration of the solution is:}$
2
201
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$0.02\text{M}$, $0.01\text{M}$...
2
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7357
$\text{A mixture of gases contains H}_2 \text{ and O}_2 \text{ gases in the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). The molar ratio of the two gases in the mixture will be:}$
2
201
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$1:4$, $4:1$...
2
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7356
$\text{The haemoglobin from the red blood corpuscles contains approximately 0.33\% iron by mass. The molar mass of haemoglobin is 67,200. The number of iron atoms in each molecule of haemoglobin is:}$\n\n$(\text{atomic mass of iron}=56):$
2
201
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$2$, $3$...
3
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7355
$\text{The amount of copper (in grams) that can be obtained from 100 g of copper sulphate (CuSO}_4\text{) is:}$
2
201
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$54.00$, $39.81$...
2
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7354
$\text{The formula of an acid is HXO}_2\text{. The mass of 0.0242 moles of the acid is 1.657 g.}$\n\n$\text{The atomic weight of X is:}$
2
201
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$35.5$, $28.1$...
1
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7353
$\text{Mark the species among the following that contains the highest number of atoms:}$
2
201
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$\text{4 g He}$, $\text{46 g Na}$...
4
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7352
$\text{The number of moles present in 2.5 litres of 0.2 M H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ are:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$0.25$, $0.5$...
2
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7351
$4.4 \text{ g of an unknown gas occupies } 2.24 \text{ litres of volume at NTP. The gas may be:}$
2
201
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$\text{Carbon dioxide}$, $\text{Carbon monoxide}$...
1
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7350
$\text{Match the following:}$ $\text{COLUMN I}$ $\text{A. 88 g of } \text{CO}_2$ $\text{B. } 6.022 \times 10^{23} \text{ molecules of } \text{H}_2\text{O}$ $\text{C. 5.6 L of } \text{O}_2 \text{ at STP}$ $\text{D. 96 g of } \text{O}_2$ $\text{COLUMN II}$ $\text{1. 0.25 mol}$ $\text{2. 2 mol}$ $\text{3. 3 mol}$ $\text{4. 1 mol}$
2
201
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$\text{A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3}$, $\text{A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4}$...
1
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7349
$\text{A significant figure is defined as:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{The total number of digits in a number, including the last digit that represents the uncertainty of the result.}$, $\text{The total number of digits in a number, excluding the last digit, which represents the uncertainty of the result.}$...
1
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7348
$\text{Which of the following combinations illustrates the law of reciprocal proportions?}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$\text{N}_2\text{O}_3, \text{N}_2\text{O}_4, \text{N}_2\text{O}_5$, $\text{NaCl}, \text{NaBr}, \text{NaI}$...
3
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7347
$\text{The number of significant figures in the numbers 5005, 500.0, and 126,000 are, respectively:}$
2
201
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$\text{2, 4, and 3}$, $\text{4, 1, and 3}$...
4
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7346
$\text{Regarding significant figures:}$\n\n$\text{Assertion (A): The significant figure for 0.200 is 3, whereas the significant figure for 200 is 1.}$\n\n$\text{Reason (R): Zero at the end or right of a number is significant, provided it is not on the right side of the decimal point.}$
2
201
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$\text{Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).}$, $\text{Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).}$...
3
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7345
\text{In the final answer of the expression } \frac{(29.2-20.2) \times (1.79 \times 10^5)}{1.37} \text{ the number of significant figures after solving the expression is:}
2
201
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$2$, $4$...
1
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7344
$\text{The incorrect statement among the following is:}$
2
201
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$\text{A molecule of a compound has atoms of different elements.}$, $\text{A compound cannot be separated into its constituent elements by the physical method of separation.}$...
3
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7343
$\text{The number of significant figures present in the answer of the following calculations [(i), (ii), (iii)] are respectively -}$ $\text{1. } 0.02856 \times 298.15 \times 0.112 / 5785$ $\text{2. } 5 \times 5.364$ $\text{3. } 0.0125 + 0.7864 + 0.0215$
2
201
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$4, 4, 3$, $3, 3, 4$...
4
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7342
$\text{Round up the following number into three significant figures: i. } 10.4107 \text{ ii. } 0.04597 \text{ respectively are}$
2
201
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$10.4, 0.0460$, $10.41, 0.046$...
1
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7341
$\text{A reading on Fahrenheit scale is } 200^\circ\text{F}\text{. The same reading on celsius scale will be:}$
2
201
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$40^\circ\text{C}$, $94^\circ\text{C}$...
3
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7340
\text{Two students performed the same experiment separately, and each of them recorded two readings of mass, which are given below. The correct reading of mass is } 3.0 \text{ g.}
\text{Student A: Reading 1 = } 3.01, \text{ Reading 2 = } 2.99
\text{Student B: Reading 1 = } 3.05, \text{ Reading 2 = } 2.95
\text{On the basis of the given data, mark the correct option out of the following statements.}
2
201
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$\text{The results of both the students' are neither accurate nor precise.}$, $\text{The results of student A are both precise and accurate.}$...
2
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7339
$\text{If the mass of air at sea level is } 1034 \text{ g cm}^{-2}\text{, pressure in pascal will be:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$1.01332 \times 10^5 \text{ Pa}$, $1.01332 \times 10^6 \text{ Pa}$...
1
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7338
$15.15 \text{ pm in the basic unit will be}$
2
201
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$1.515 \times 10^{-12} \text{ m}$, $2.57 \times 10^{-11} \text{ m}$...
4
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7337
$\text{In sodium sulphate (}\text{Na}_2\text{SO}_4\text{), the mass percent of sodium, sulfur and oxygen is:}$
2
201
Recommended Questions
$32.4\%, 45.05\%, 22.6\%$, $22.6\%, 45.05\%, 32.4\%$...
3
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7336
$\text{Which of the following statement indicates that the law of multiple proportions is being followed?}$
2
201
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$\text{A sample of carbon dioxide taken from any source will always have carbon and oxygen in the ratio of } 1:2\text{.}$, $\text{Carbon forms two oxides namely, } \text{CO}_2 \text{ and } \text{CO} \text{ where masses of oxygen that combine with a fixed mass of carbon are in the simple ratio of } 2:1\text{.}$...
2
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7335
$\text{The following data was obtained when dinitrogen and dioxygen react together to form different compounds:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline & \text{Mass of dinitrogen} & \text{Mass of dioxygen} \\ \hline \text{i.} & 14 \text{ g} & 16 \text{ g} \\ \hline \text{ii.} & 14 \text{ g} & 32 \text{ g} \\ \hline \text{iii.} & 28 \text{ g} & 32 \text{ g} \\ \hline \text{iv.} & 28 \text{ g} & 80 \text{ g} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{The law of chemical combination applicable to the above experimental data is:}$
2
201
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$\text{Law of reciprocal proportions}$, $\text{Law of multiple proportions}$...
2
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7334
$\text{If the density of the solution is } 3.12 \text{ g ml}^{-1}\text{, then what will be the mass of the } 1.5 \text{ ml solution in two significant figures?}$
2
201
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$4.4 \text{ g}$, $4680 \times 10^3 \text{ g}$...
3
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7333
$\text{The numbers 234,000 and 6.0012 can be represented in scientific notation as:}$
2
201
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$2.34 \times 10^{-9} \text{ and } 6 \times 10^{3}$, $0.234 \times 10^{-6} \text{ and } 60012 \times 10^{-9}$...
4
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7332
$\text{Identify the reaction that does not obey the law of conservation of mass from the provided options:}$
2
201
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$2\text{Mg}_{(s)} + \text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightarrow 2\text{MgO}_{(s)}$, $\text{C}_3\text{H}_8\text{(g)} + \text{O}_2\text{(g)} \rightarrow \text{CO}_2\text{(g)} + \text{H}_2\text{O}_{(g)}$...
2
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7331
$\text{The correct match is:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline \text{List I} & & \text{List II} & \\ \hline \text{a.} & \text{Micro} & \text{i.} & 10^{-15} \text{ m} \\ \hline \text{b.} & \text{Mega} & \text{ii.} & 10^{-6} \text{ m} \\ \hline \text{c.} & \text{Giga} & \text{iii.} & 10^{6} \text{ m} \\ \hline \text{d.} & \text{Femto} & \text{iv.} & 10^{9} \text{ m} \\ \hline \end{array}$ $\text{Codes:}$ $\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|c|} \hline & \text{a} & \text{b} & \text{c} & \text{d} \\ \hline \text{1.} & \text{i} & \text{iv} & \text{iii} & \text{ii} \\ \hline \text{2.} & \text{iii} & \text{iv} & \text{ii} & \text{i} \\ \hline \text{3.} & \text{ii} & \text{iii} & \text{iv} & \text{i} \\ \hline \text{4.} & \text{i} & \text{iii} & \text{iv} & \text{ii} \\ \hline \end{array}$
2
201
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$\text{a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii}$, $\text{a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i}$...
3
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7330
$\text{If the speed of light is } 3.0 \times 10^8 \text{ m s}^{-1}\text{, then the distance covered by light in 2.00 nanoseconds will be -}$
2
201
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$0.500 \text{ m}$, $0.600 \text{ m}$...
2
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7329
$\text{The SI unit of mass is:}$
2
201
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$\text{Kilogram (kg)}$, $\text{Gram (g)}$...
1
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7328
126-4-96
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7327
126-4-95
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7326
126-4-94
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7325
126-4-93
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7324
126-4-92
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7323
126-4-91
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
4
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7322
126-4-90
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7321
126-4-89
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7320
126-4-88
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7319
126-4-87
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7318
126-4-86
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7317
126-4-85
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7316
126-4-84
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7315
126-4-83
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7314
126-4-82
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7313
126-4-81
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7312
126-4-80
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
4
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7311
126-4-79
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
4
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7310
126-4-78
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7309
126-4-77
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7308
126-4-76
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7307
126-4-75
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7306
126-4-74
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7305
126-4-73
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7304
126-4-72
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7303
126-4-71
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7302
126-4-70
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7301
126-4-69
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7300
126-4-68
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7299
126-4-67
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
4
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7298
126-4-66
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7297
126-4-65
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7296
126-4-64
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7295
126-4-63
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7294
126-4-62
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7293
126-4-61
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7292
126-4-60
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7291
126-4-59
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7290
126-4-58
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
4
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7289
126-4-57
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7288
126-4-56
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7287
126-4-55
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7286
126-4-54
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7285
126-4-53
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7284
126-4-52
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7283
126-4-51
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7282
126-4-50
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7281
126-4-49
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7280
126-4-48
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7279
126-4-47
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7278
126-4-46
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7277
126-4-45
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7276
126-4-44
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7275
126-4-43
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7274
126-4-42
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7273
126-4-41
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7272
126-4-40
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
4
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7271
126-4-39
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7270
126-4-38
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7269
126-4-37
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
4
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7268
126-4-36
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
4
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7267
126-4-35
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7266
126-4-34
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7265
126-4-33
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7264
126-4-32
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7263
126-4-31
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7262
126-4-30
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
4
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7261
126-4-29
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7260
126-4-28
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7259
126-4-27
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7258
126-4-26
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7257
126-4-25
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7256
126-4-24
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7255
126-4-23
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7254
126-4-22
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7253
126-4-21
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
4
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7252
126-4-20
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7251
126-4-19
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7250
126-4-18
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7249
126-4-17
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
4
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7248
126-4-16
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7247
126-4-15
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7246
126-4-14
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7245
126-4-13
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7244
126-4-12
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7243
126-4-11
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7242
126-4-10
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7241
126-4-9
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
4
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7240
126-4-8
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
1
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7239
126-4-7
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
4
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7238
126-4-6
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7237
126-4-5
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
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7236
126-4-4
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
4
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7235
126-4-3
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7234
126-4-2
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
3
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7233
126-4-1
1
126
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7232
125-4-97
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7231
125-4-96
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7230
125-4-95
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7229
125-4-94
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
7228
125-4-93
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7227
125-4-92
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7226
125-4-91
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7225
125-4-90
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7224
125-4-89
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7223
125-4-88
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
7222
125-4-87
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7221
125-4-86
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7220
125-4-85
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7219
125-4-84
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7218
125-4-83
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7217
125-4-82
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7216
125-4-81
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7215
125-4-80
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7214
125-4-79
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7213
125-4-78
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7212
125-4-77
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7211
125-4-76
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7210
125-4-75
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7209
125-4-74
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7208
125-4-73
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7207
125-4-72
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7206
125-4-71
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7205
125-4-70
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7204
125-4-69
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7203
125-4-68
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7202
125-4-67
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7201
125-4-66
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7200
125-4-65
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7199
125-4-64
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7198
125-4-63
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7197
125-4-62
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7196
125-4-61
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7195
125-4-60
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7194
125-4-59
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7193
125-4-58
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7192
125-4-57
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7191
125-4-56
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7190
125-4-55
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7189
125-4-54
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7188
125-4-53
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7187
125-4-52
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7186
125-4-51
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7185
125-4-50
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7184
125-4-49
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7183
125-4-48
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7182
125-4-47
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7181
125-4-46
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7180
125-4-45
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7179
125-4-44
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7178
125-4-43
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7177
125-4-42
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7176
125-4-41
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7175
125-4-40
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7174
125-4-39
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7173
125-4-38
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7172
125-4-37
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7171
125-4-36
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7170
125-4-35
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7169
125-4-34
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7168
125-4-33
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7167
125-4-32
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7166
125-4-31
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7165
125-4-30
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7164
125-4-29
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7163
125-4-28
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7162
125-4-27
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7161
125-4-26
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7160
125-4-25
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7159
125-4-24
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7158
125-4-23
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7157
125-4-22
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7156
125-4-21
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7155
125-4-20
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7154
125-4-19
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7153
125-4-18
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7152
125-4-17
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7151
125-4-16
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7150
125-4-15
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7149
125-4-14
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7148
125-4-13
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7147
125-4-12
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7146
125-4-11
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7145
125-4-10
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7144
125-4-9
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7143
125-4-8
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7142
125-4-7
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7141
125-4-6
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7140
125-4-5
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7139
125-4-4
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7138
125-4-3
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7137
125-4-2
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7136
125-4-1
1
125
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7135
124-4-100
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7134
124-4-99
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7133
124-4-98
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7132
124-4-97
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7131
124-4-96
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7130
124-4-95
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7129
124-4-94
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7128
124-4-93
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7127
124-4-92
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7126
124-4-91
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7125
124-4-90
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7124
124-4-89
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7123
124-4-88
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7122
124-4-87
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7121
124-4-86
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7120
124-4-85
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7119
124-4-84
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7118
124-4-83
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7117
124-4-82
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7116
124-4-81
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7115
124-4-80
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7114
124-4-79
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7113
124-4-78
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7112
124-4-77
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7111
124-4-76
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7110
124-4-75
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7109
124-4-74
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7108
124-4-73
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7107
124-4-72
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7106
124-4-71
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7105
124-4-70
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7104
124-4-69
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7103
124-4-68
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7102
124-4-67
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7101
124-4-66
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7100
124-4-65
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7099
124-4-64
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7098
124-4-63
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7097
124-4-62
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7096
124-4-61
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7095
124-4-60
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7094
124-4-59
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7093
124-4-58
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7092
124-4-57
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7091
124-4-56
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7090
124-4-55
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7089
124-4-54
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7088
124-4-53
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7087
124-4-52
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
7086
124-4-51
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7085
124-4-50
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7084
124-4-49
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7083
124-4-48
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7082
124-4-47
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7081
124-4-46
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7080
124-4-45
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7079
124-4-44
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7078
124-4-43
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7077
124-4-42
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7076
124-4-41
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7075
124-4-40
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7074
124-4-39
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7073
124-4-38
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7072
124-4-37
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7071
124-4-36
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7070
124-4-35
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7069
124-4-34
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7068
124-4-33
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7067
124-4-32
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7066
124-4-31
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7065
124-4-30
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7064
124-4-29
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7063
124-4-28
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7062
124-4-27
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7061
124-4-26
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7060
124-4-25
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7059
124-4-24
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7058
124-4-23
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7057
124-4-22
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7056
124-4-21
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7055
124-4-20
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7054
124-4-19
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7053
124-4-18
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7052
124-4-17
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7051
124-4-16
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7050
124-4-15
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7049
124-4-14
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7048
124-4-13
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7047
124-4-12
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7046
124-4-11
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7045
124-4-10
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7044
124-4-9
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7043
124-4-8
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7042
124-4-7
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7041
124-4-6
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7040
124-4-5
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7039
124-4-4
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7038
124-4-3
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7037
124-4-2
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7036
124-4-1
1
124
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7035
122-4-100
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7034
122-4-99
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7033
122-4-98
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
7032
122-4-97
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7031
122-4-96
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7030
122-4-95
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
7029
122-4-94
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7028
122-4-93
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7027
122-4-92
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7026
122-4-91
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7025
122-4-90
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7024
122-4-89
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7023
122-4-88
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7022
122-4-87
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7021
122-4-86
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7020
122-4-85
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7019
122-4-84
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7018
122-4-83
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7017
122-4-82
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7016
122-4-81
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7015
122-4-80
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7014
122-4-79
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7013
122-4-78
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7012
122-4-77
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7011
122-4-76
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7010
122-4-75
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7009
122-4-74
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7008
122-4-73
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7007
122-4-72
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
7006
122-4-71
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7005
122-4-70
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7004
122-4-69
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7003
122-4-68
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
7002
122-4-67
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
7001
122-4-66
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
7000
122-4-65
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6999
122-4-64
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6998
122-4-63
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6997
122-4-62
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6996
122-4-61
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6995
122-4-60
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6994
122-4-59
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6993
122-4-58
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6992
122-4-57
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6991
122-4-56
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6990
122-4-55
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6989
122-4-54
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6988
122-4-53
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6987
122-4-52
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6986
122-4-51
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6985
122-4-50
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6984
122-4-49
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6983
122-4-48
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6982
122-4-47
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6981
122-4-46
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6980
122-4-45
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6979
122-4-44
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6978
122-4-43
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6977
122-4-42
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6976
122-4-41
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6975
122-4-40
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6974
122-4-39
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6973
122-4-38
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6972
122-4-37
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6971
122-4-36
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6970
122-4-35
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6969
122-4-34
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6968
122-4-33
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6967
122-4-32
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6966
122-4-31
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6965
122-4-30
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6964
122-4-29
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6963
122-4-28
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6962
122-4-27
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6961
122-4-26
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6960
122-4-25
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6959
122-4-24
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6958
122-4-23
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6957
122-4-22
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6956
122-4-21
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6955
122-4-20
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6954
122-4-19
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6953
122-4-18
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6952
122-4-17
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6951
122-4-16
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6950
122-4-15
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6949
122-4-14
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6948
122-4-13
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6947
122-4-12
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6946
122-4-11
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6945
122-4-10
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6944
122-4-9
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6943
122-4-8
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6942
122-4-7
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6941
122-4-6
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6940
122-4-5
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6939
122-4-4
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6938
122-4-3
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6937
122-4-2
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6936
122-4-1
1
122
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6935
123-4-55
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6934
123-4-54
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6933
123-4-53
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6932
123-4-52
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6931
123-4-51
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6930
123-4-50
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6929
123-4-49
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6928
123-4-48
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6927
123-4-47
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6926
123-4-46
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6925
123-4-45
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6924
123-4-44
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6923
123-4-43
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6922
123-4-42
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6921
123-4-41
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6920
123-4-40
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6919
123-4-39
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6918
123-4-38
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6917
123-4-37
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6916
123-4-36
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6915
123-4-35
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6914
123-4-34
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6913
123-4-33
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6912
123-4-32
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6911
123-4-31
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6910
123-4-30
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6909
123-4-29
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6908
123-4-28
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6907
123-4-27
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6906
123-4-26
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6905
123-4-25
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6904
123-4-24
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6903
123-4-23
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6902
123-4-22
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6901
123-4-21
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6900
123-4-20
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6899
123-4-19
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6898
123-4-18
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6897
123-4-17
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6896
123-4-16
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6895
123-4-15
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6894
123-4-14
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6893
123-4-13
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6892
123-4-12
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6891
123-4-11
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6890
123-4-10
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6889
123-4-9
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6888
123-4-8
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6887
123-4-7
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6886
123-4-6
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6885
123-4-5
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6884
123-4-4
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6883
123-4-3
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6882
123-4-2
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6881
123-4-1
1
123
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6880
121-4-94
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6879
121-4-93
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6878
121-4-92
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6877
121-4-91
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6876
121-4-90
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6875
121-4-89
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6874
121-4-88
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6873
121-4-87
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6872
121-4-86
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6871
121-4-85
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6870
121-4-84
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6869
121-4-83
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6868
121-4-82
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6867
121-4-81
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6866
121-4-80
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6865
121-4-79
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6864
121-4-78
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6863
121-4-77
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6862
121-4-76
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6861
121-4-75
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6860
121-4-74
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6859
121-4-73
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6858
121-4-72
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6857
121-4-71
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6856
121-4-70
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6855
121-4-69
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6854
121-4-68
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6853
121-4-67
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6852
121-4-66
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6851
121-4-65
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6850
121-4-64
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6849
121-4-63
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6848
121-4-62
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6847
121-4-61
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6846
121-4-60
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6845
121-4-59
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6844
121-4-58
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6843
121-4-57
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6842
121-4-56
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6841
121-4-55
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6840
121-4-54
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6839
121-4-53
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6838
121-4-52
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6837
121-4-51
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6836
121-4-50
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6835
121-4-49
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6834
121-4-48
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6833
121-4-47
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6832
121-4-46
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6831
121-4-45
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6830
121-4-44
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6829
121-4-43
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6828
121-4-42
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6827
121-4-41
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6826
121-4-40
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6825
121-4-39
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6824
121-4-38
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6823
121-4-37
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6822
121-4-36
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6821
121-4-35
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6820
121-4-34
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6819
121-4-33
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6818
121-4-32
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6817
121-4-31
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6816
121-4-30
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6815
121-4-29
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6814
121-4-28
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6813
121-4-27
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6812
121-4-26
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6811
121-4-25
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6810
121-4-24
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6809
121-4-23
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6808
121-4-22
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6807
121-4-21
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6806
121-4-20
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6805
121-4-19
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6804
121-4-18
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6803
121-4-17
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6802
121-4-16
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6801
121-4-15
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6800
121-4-14
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6799
121-4-13
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6798
121-4-12
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6797
121-4-11
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6796
121-4-10
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6795
121-4-9
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6794
121-4-8
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6793
121-4-7
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6792
121-4-6
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6791
121-4-5
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6790
121-4-4
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6789
121-4-3
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6788
121-4-2
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6787
121-4-1
1
121
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6786
120-4-95
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6785
120-4-94
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6784
120-4-93
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6783
120-4-92
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6782
120-4-91
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6781
120-4-90
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6780
120-4-89
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6779
120-4-88
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6778
120-4-87
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6777
120-4-86
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6776
120-4-85
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6775
120-4-84
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6774
120-4-83
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6773
120-4-82
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6772
120-4-81
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6771
120-4-80
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6770
120-4-79
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6769
120-4-78
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6768
120-4-77
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6767
120-4-76
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6766
120-4-75
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6765
120-4-74
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6764
120-4-73
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6763
120-4-72
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6762
120-4-71
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6761
120-4-70
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6760
120-4-69
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6759
120-4-68
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6758
120-4-67
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6757
120-4-66
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6756
120-4-65
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6755
120-4-64
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6754
120-4-63
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6753
120-4-62
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6752
120-4-61
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6751
120-4-60
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6750
120-4-59
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6749
120-4-58
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6748
120-4-57
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6747
120-4-56
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6746
120-4-55
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6745
120-4-54
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6744
120-4-53
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6743
120-4-52
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6742
120-4-51
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6741
120-4-50
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6740
120-4-49
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6739
120-4-48
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6738
120-4-47
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6737
120-4-46
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6736
120-4-45
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6735
120-4-44
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6734
120-4-43
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6733
120-4-42
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6732
120-4-41
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6731
120-4-40
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6730
120-4-39
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6729
120-4-38
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6728
120-4-37
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6727
120-4-36
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6726
120-4-35
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6725
120-4-34
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6724
120-4-33
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6723
120-4-32
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6722
120-4-31
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6721
120-4-30
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6720
120-4-29
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6719
120-4-28
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6718
120-4-27
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6717
120-4-26
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6716
120-4-25
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6715
120-4-24
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6714
120-4-23
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6713
120-4-22
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6712
120-4-21
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6711
120-4-20
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6710
120-4-19
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6709
120-4-18
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6708
120-4-17
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6707
120-4-16
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6706
120-4-15
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6705
120-4-14
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6704
120-4-13
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6703
120-4-12
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6702
120-4-11
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6701
120-4-10
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6700
120-4-9
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6699
120-4-8
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6698
120-4-7
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6697
120-4-6
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6696
120-4-5
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6695
120-4-4
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6694
120-4-3
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6693
120-4-2
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6692
120-4-1
1
120
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6691
220-4-58
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6690
220-4-57
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6689
220-4-56
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6688
220-4-55
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6687
220-4-54
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6686
220-4-53
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6685
220-4-52
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6684
220-4-51
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6683
220-4-50
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6682
220-4-49
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6681
220-4-48
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6680
220-4-47
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6679
220-4-46
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6678
220-4-45
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6677
220-4-44
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6676
220-4-43
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6675
220-4-42
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6674
220-4-41
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6673
220-4-40
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6672
220-4-39
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6671
220-4-38
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6670
220-4-37
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6669
220-4-36
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6668
220-4-35
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6667
220-4-34
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6666
220-4-33
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6665
220-4-32
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6664
220-4-31
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6663
220-4-30
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6662
220-4-29
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6661
220-4-28
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6660
220-4-27
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6659
220-4-26
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6658
220-4-25
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6657
220-4-24
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6656
220-4-23
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6655
220-4-22
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6654
220-4-21
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6653
220-4-20
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6652
220-4-19
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6651
220-4-18
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6650
220-4-17
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6649
220-4-16
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6648
220-4-15
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6647
220-4-14
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6646
220-4-13
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6645
220-4-12
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6644
220-4-11
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6643
220-4-10
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6642
220-4-9
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6641
220-4-8
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6640
220-4-7
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6639
220-4-6
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6638
220-4-5
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6637
220-4-4
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6636
220-4-3
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6635
220-4-2
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6634
220-4-1
2
220
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6633
117-4-55
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6632
117-4-54
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6631
117-4-53
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6630
117-4-52
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6629
117-4-51
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6628
117-4-50
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6627
117-4-49
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6626
117-4-48
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6625
117-4-47
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6624
117-4-46
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6623
117-4-45
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6622
117-4-44
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6621
117-4-43
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6620
117-4-42
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6619
117-4-41
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6618
117-4-40
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6617
117-4-39
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6616
117-4-38
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6615
117-4-37
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6614
117-4-36
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6613
117-4-35
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6612
117-4-34
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6611
117-4-33
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6610
117-4-32
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6609
117-4-31
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6608
117-4-30
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6607
117-4-29
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6606
117-4-28
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6605
117-4-27
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6604
117-4-26
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6603
117-4-25
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6602
117-4-24
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6601
117-4-23
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6600
117-4-22
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6599
117-4-21
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6598
117-4-20
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6597
117-4-19
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6596
117-4-18
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6595
117-4-17
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6594
117-4-16
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6593
117-4-15
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6592
117-4-14
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6591
117-4-13
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6590
117-4-12
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6589
117-4-11
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6588
117-4-10
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6587
117-4-9
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6586
117-4-8
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6585
117-4-7
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6584
117-4-6
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6583
117-4-5
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6582
117-4-4
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6581
117-4-3
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6580
117-4-2
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6579
117-4-1
1
117
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6578
116-4-60
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6577
116-4-59
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6576
116-4-58
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6575
116-4-57
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6574
116-4-56
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6573
116-4-55
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6572
116-4-54
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6571
116-4-53
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6570
116-4-52
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6569
116-4-51
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6568
116-4-50
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6567
116-4-49
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6566
116-4-48
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6565
116-4-47
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6564
116-4-46
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6563
116-4-45
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6562
116-4-44
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6561
116-4-43
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6560
116-4-42
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6559
116-4-41
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6558
116-4-40
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6557
116-4-39
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6556
116-4-38
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6555
116-4-37
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6554
116-4-36
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6553
116-4-35
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6552
116-4-34
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6551
116-4-33
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6550
116-4-32
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6549
116-4-31
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6548
116-4-30
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6547
116-4-29
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6546
116-4-28
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6545
116-4-27
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6544
116-4-26
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6543
116-4-25
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6542
116-4-24
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6541
116-4-23
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6540
116-4-22
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6539
116-4-21
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6538
116-4-20
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6537
116-4-19
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6536
116-4-18
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6535
116-4-17
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6534
116-4-16
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6533
116-4-15
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6532
116-4-14
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6531
116-4-13
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6530
116-4-12
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6529
116-4-11
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6528
116-4-10
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6527
116-4-9
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6526
116-4-8
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6525
116-4-7
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6524
116-4-6
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6523
116-4-5
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6522
116-4-4
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6521
116-4-3
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6520
116-4-2
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6519
116-4-1
1
116
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6518
114-4-59
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6517
114-4-58
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6516
114-4-57
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6515
114-4-56
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6514
114-4-55
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6513
114-4-54
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6512
114-4-53
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6511
114-4-52
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6510
114-4-51
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6509
114-4-50
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6508
114-4-49
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6507
114-4-48
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6506
114-4-47
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6505
114-4-46
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6504
114-4-45
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6503
114-4-44
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6502
114-4-43
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6501
114-4-42
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6500
114-4-41
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6499
114-4-40
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6498
114-4-39
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6497
114-4-38
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6496
114-4-37
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6495
114-4-36
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6494
114-4-35
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6493
114-4-34
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6492
114-4-33
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6491
114-4-32
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6490
114-4-31
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6489
114-4-30
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6488
114-4-29
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6487
114-4-28
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6486
114-4-27
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6485
114-4-26
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6484
114-4-25
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6483
114-4-24
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6482
114-4-23
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6481
114-4-22
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6480
114-4-21
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6479
114-4-20
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6478
114-4-19
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6477
114-4-18
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6476
114-4-17
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6475
114-4-16
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6474
114-4-15
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6473
114-4-14
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6472
114-4-13
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6471
114-4-12
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6470
114-4-11
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6469
114-4-10
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6468
114-4-9
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6467
114-4-8
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6466
114-4-7
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6465
114-4-6
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6464
114-4-5
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6463
114-4-4
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6462
114-4-3
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6461
114-4-2
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6460
114-4-1
1
114
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6459
113-4-56
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6458
113-4-55
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6457
113-4-54
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6456
113-4-53
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6455
113-4-52
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6454
113-4-51
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6453
113-4-50
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6452
113-4-49
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6451
113-4-48
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6450
113-4-47
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6449
113-4-46
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6448
113-4-45
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6447
113-4-44
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6446
113-4-43
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6445
113-4-42
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6444
113-4-41
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6443
113-4-40
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6442
113-4-39
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6441
113-4-38
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6440
113-4-37
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6439
113-4-36
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6438
113-4-35
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6437
113-4-34
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6436
113-4-33
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6435
113-4-32
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6434
113-4-31
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6433
113-4-30
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6432
113-4-29
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6431
113-4-28
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6430
113-4-27
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6429
113-4-26
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6428
113-4-25
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6427
113-4-24
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6426
113-4-23
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6425
113-4-22
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6424
113-4-21
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6423
113-4-20
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6422
113-4-19
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6421
113-4-18
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6420
113-4-17
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6419
113-4-16
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6418
113-4-15
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6417
113-4-14
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6416
113-4-13
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6415
113-4-12
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6414
113-4-11
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6413
113-4-10
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6412
113-4-9
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6411
113-4-8
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6410
113-4-7
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6409
113-4-6
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6408
113-4-5
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6407
113-4-4
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6406
113-4-3
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6405
113-4-2
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6404
113-4-1
1
113
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6403
110-4-60
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6402
110-4-59
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6401
110-4-58
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6400
110-4-57
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6399
110-4-56
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6398
110-4-55
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6397
110-4-54
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6396
110-4-53
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6395
110-4-52
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6394
110-4-51
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6393
110-4-50
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6392
110-4-49
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6391
110-4-48
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6390
110-4-47
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6389
110-4-46
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6388
110-4-45
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6387
110-4-44
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6386
110-4-43
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6385
110-4-42
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6384
110-4-41
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6383
110-4-40
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6382
110-4-39
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6381
110-4-38
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6380
110-4-37
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6379
110-4-36
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6378
110-4-35
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6377
110-4-34
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6376
110-4-33
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6375
110-4-32
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6374
110-4-31
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6373
110-4-30
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6372
110-4-29
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6371
110-4-28
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6370
110-4-27
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6369
110-4-26
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6368
110-4-25
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6367
110-4-24
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6366
110-4-23
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6365
110-4-22
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6364
110-4-21
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6363
110-4-20
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6362
110-4-19
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6361
110-4-18
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6360
110-4-17
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6359
110-4-16
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6358
110-4-15
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6357
110-4-14
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6356
110-4-13
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6355
110-4-12
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6354
110-4-11
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6353
110-4-10
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6352
110-4-9
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6351
110-4-8
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6350
110-4-7
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6349
110-4-6
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6348
110-4-5
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6347
110-4-4
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6346
110-4-3
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6345
110-4-2
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6344
110-4-1
1
110
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6343
119-4-97
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6342
119-4-96
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6341
119-4-95
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6340
119-4-94
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6339
119-4-93
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6338
119-4-92
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
6337
119-4-91
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6336
119-4-90
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6335
119-4-89
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6334
119-4-88
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6333
119-4-87
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6332
119-4-86
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6331
119-4-85
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6330
119-4-84
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6329
119-4-83
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6328
119-4-82
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6327
119-4-81
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6326
119-4-80
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6325
119-4-79
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6324
119-4-78
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6323
119-4-77
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6322
119-4-76
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6321
119-4-75
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6320
119-4-74
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6319
119-4-73
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6318
119-4-72
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6317
119-4-71
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6316
119-4-70
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6315
119-4-69
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6314
119-4-68
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6313
119-4-67
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6312
119-4-66
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6311
119-4-65
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6310
119-4-64
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6309
119-4-63
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6308
119-4-62
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6307
119-4-61
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6306
119-4-60
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6305
119-4-59
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6304
119-4-58
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6303
119-4-57
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6302
119-4-56
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6301
119-4-55
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6300
119-4-54
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6299
119-4-53
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6298
119-4-52
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6297
119-4-51
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6296
119-4-50
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6295
119-4-49
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6294
119-4-48
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6293
119-4-47
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6292
119-4-46
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6291
119-4-45
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6290
119-4-44
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6289
119-4-43
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6288
119-4-42
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6287
119-4-41
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6286
119-4-40
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6285
119-4-39
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6284
119-4-38
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6283
119-4-37
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6282
119-4-36
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6281
119-4-35
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6280
119-4-34
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6279
119-4-33
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6278
119-4-32
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6277
119-4-31
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6276
119-4-30
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6275
119-4-29
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6274
119-4-28
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6273
119-4-27
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6272
119-4-26
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6271
119-4-25
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6270
119-4-24
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6269
119-4-23
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6268
119-4-22
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6267
119-4-21
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6266
119-4-20
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6265
119-4-19
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6264
119-4-18
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6263
119-4-17
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6262
119-4-16
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6261
119-4-15
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6260
119-4-14
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6259
119-4-13
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6258
119-4-12
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6257
119-4-11
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6256
119-4-10
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6255
119-4-9
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6254
119-4-8
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6253
119-4-7
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6252
119-4-6
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6251
119-4-5
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6250
119-4-4
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6249
119-4-3
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6248
119-4-2
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6247
119-4-1
1
119
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6246
118-4-177
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6245
118-4-176
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6244
118-4-175
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6243
118-4-174
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6242
118-4-173
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6241
118-4-172
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6240
118-4-171
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6239
118-4-170
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6238
118-4-169
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6237
118-4-168
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6236
118-4-167
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6235
118-4-166
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6234
118-4-165
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6233
118-4-164
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6232
118-4-163
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6231
118-4-162
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6230
118-4-161
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6229
118-4-160
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6228
118-4-159
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6227
118-4-158
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6226
118-4-157
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6225
118-4-156
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6224
118-4-155
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6223
118-4-154
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6222
118-4-153
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6221
118-4-152
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6220
118-4-151
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6219
118-4-150
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6218
118-4-149
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6217
118-4-148
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6216
118-4-147
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6215
118-4-146
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6214
118-4-145
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6213
118-4-144
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6212
118-4-143
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6211
118-4-142
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6210
118-4-141
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6209
118-4-140
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6208
118-4-139
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6207
118-4-138
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6206
118-4-137
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6205
118-4-136
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6204
118-4-135
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6203
118-4-134
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6202
118-4-133
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6201
118-4-132
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6200
118-4-131
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6199
118-4-130
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6198
118-4-129
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6197
118-4-128
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6196
118-4-127
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6195
118-4-126
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6194
118-4-125
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6193
118-4-124
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6192
118-4-123
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6191
118-4-122
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6190
118-4-121
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6189
118-4-120
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6188
118-4-119
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6187
118-4-118
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6186
118-4-117
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6185
118-4-116
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6184
118-4-115
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6183
118-4-114
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6182
118-4-113
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6181
118-4-112
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6180
118-4-111
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6179
118-4-110
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6178
118-4-109
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6177
118-4-108
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6176
118-4-107
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6175
118-4-106
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6174
118-4-105
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6173
118-4-104
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6172
118-4-103
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6171
118-4-102
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6170
118-4-101
1
118
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6169
112-4-44
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6168
112-4-43
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6167
112-4-42
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6166
112-4-41
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6165
112-4-40
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6164
112-4-39
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6163
112-4-38
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6162
112-4-37
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6161
112-4-36
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6160
112-4-35
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6159
112-4-34
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6158
112-4-33
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6157
112-4-32
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6156
112-4-31
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6155
112-4-30
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6154
112-4-29
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6153
112-4-28
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6152
112-4-27
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6151
112-4-26
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6150
112-4-25
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6149
112-4-24
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6148
112-4-23
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6147
112-4-22
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6146
112-4-21
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6145
112-4-20
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6144
112-4-19
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6143
112-4-18
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6142
112-4-17
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6141
112-4-16
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6140
112-4-15
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6139
112-4-14
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6138
112-4-13
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6137
112-4-12
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6136
112-4-11
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6135
112-4-10
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6134
112-4-9
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6133
112-4-8
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6132
112-4-7
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6131
112-4-6
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6130
112-4-5
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
6129
112-4-4
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
6128
112-4-3
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6127
112-4-2
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
6126
112-4-1
1
112
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
6065
109-4-32
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6064
109-4-31
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6063
109-4-30
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6062
109-4-29
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6061
109-4-28
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6060
109-4-27
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6059
109-4-26
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6058
109-4-25
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6057
109-4-24
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6056
109-4-23
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6055
109-4-22
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6054
109-4-21
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6053
109-4-20
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6052
109-4-19
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6051
109-4-18
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6050
109-4-17
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6049
109-4-16
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6048
109-4-15
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6047
109-4-14
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6046
109-4-13
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6045
109-4-12
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6044
109-4-11
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6043
109-4-10
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6042
109-4-9
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6041
109-4-8
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6040
109-4-7
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6039
109-4-6
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6038
109-4-5
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6037
109-4-4
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6036
109-4-3
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6035
109-4-2
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
6034
109-4-1
1
109
N/A
N/A
N/A
View
Edit
Delete
5941
108-4-45
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5940
108-4-44
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5939
108-4-43
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5938
108-4-42
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5937
108-4-41
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5936
108-4-40
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5935
108-4-39
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5934
108-4-38
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5933
108-4-37
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5932
108-4-36
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5931
108-4-35
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5930
108-4-34
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5929
108-4-33
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5928
108-4-32
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5927
108-4-31
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5926
108-4-30
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5925
108-4-29
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5924
108-4-28
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5923
108-4-27
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5922
108-4-26
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5921
108-4-25
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5920
108-4-24
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5919
108-4-23
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5918
108-4-22
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5917
108-4-21
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5916
108-4-20
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5915
108-4-19
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5914
108-4-18
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5913
108-4-17
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5912
108-4-16
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5911
108-4-15
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5910
108-4-14
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5909
108-4-13
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5908
108-4-12
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5907
108-4-11
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5906
108-4-10
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5905
108-4-9
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5904
108-4-8
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5903
108-4-7
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5902
108-4-6
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5901
108-4-5
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5900
108-4-4
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5899
108-4-3
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5898
108-4-2
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5897
108-4-1
1
108
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5896
107-4-24
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5895
107-4-23
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5894
107-4-22
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5893
107-4-21
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5892
107-4-20
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5891
107-4-19
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5890
107-4-18
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5889
107-4-17
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5888
107-4-16
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5887
107-4-15
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5886
107-4-14
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5885
107-4-13
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5884
107-4-12
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5883
107-4-11
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5882
107-4-10
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5881
107-4-9
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5880
107-4-8
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5879
107-4-7
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5878
107-4-6
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5877
107-4-5
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5876
107-4-4
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5875
107-4-3
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5874
107-4-2
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5873
107-4-1
1
107
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5872
106-4-60
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5871
106-4-59
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5870
106-4-58
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5869
106-4-57
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5868
106-4-56
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5867
106-4-55
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5866
106-4-54
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5865
106-4-53
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5864
106-4-52
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5863
106-4-51
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5862
106-4-50
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5861
106-4-49
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5860
106-4-48
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5859
106-4-47
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5858
106-4-46
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5857
106-4-45
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5856
106-4-44
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5855
106-4-43
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5854
106-4-42
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5853
106-4-41
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5852
106-4-40
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5851
106-4-39
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5850
106-4-38
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5849
106-4-37
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5848
106-4-36
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5847
106-4-35
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5846
106-4-34
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5845
106-4-33
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5844
106-4-32
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5843
106-4-31
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5842
106-4-30
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5841
106-4-29
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5840
106-4-28
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5839
106-4-27
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5838
106-4-26
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5837
106-4-25
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5836
106-4-24
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5835
106-4-23
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5834
106-4-22
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5833
106-4-21
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5832
106-4-20
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5831
106-4-19
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5830
106-4-18
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5829
106-4-17
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5828
106-4-16
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5827
106-4-15
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5826
106-4-14
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5825
106-4-13
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5824
106-4-12
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5823
106-4-11
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5822
106-4-10
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5821
106-4-9
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5820
106-4-8
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5819
106-4-7
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5818
106-4-6
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5817
106-4-5
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5816
106-4-4
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5815
106-4-3
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5814
106-4-2
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5813
106-4-1
1
106
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5812
105-4-60
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5811
105-4-59
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5810
105-4-58
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5809
105-4-57
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5808
105-4-56
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5807
105-4-55
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5806
105-4-54
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5805
105-4-53
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5804
105-4-52
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5803
105-4-51
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5802
105-4-50
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5801
105-4-49
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5800
105-4-48
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5799
105-4-47
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5798
105-4-46
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5797
105-4-45
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5796
105-4-44
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5795
105-4-43
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5794
105-4-42
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5793
105-4-41
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5792
105-4-40
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5791
105-4-39
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5790
105-4-38
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5789
105-4-37
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5788
105-4-36
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5787
105-4-35
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5786
105-4-34
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5785
105-4-33
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5784
105-4-32
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5783
105-4-31
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5782
105-4-30
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5781
105-4-29
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5780
105-4-28
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5779
105-4-27
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5778
105-4-26
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5777
105-4-25
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5776
105-4-24
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5775
105-4-23
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5774
105-4-22
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5773
105-4-21
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5772
105-4-20
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5771
105-4-19
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5770
105-4-18
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5769
105-4-17
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5768
105-4-16
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5767
105-4-15
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5766
105-4-14
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5765
105-4-13
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5764
105-4-12
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5763
105-4-11
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5762
105-4-10
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5761
105-4-9
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5760
105-4-8
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5759
105-4-7
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5758
105-4-6
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5757
105-4-5
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5756
105-4-4
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5755
105-4-3
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5754
105-4-2
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5753
105-4-1
1
105
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5752
104-4-60
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5751
104-4-59
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5750
104-4-58
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5749
104-4-57
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5748
104-4-56
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5747
104-4-55
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5746
104-4-54
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5745
104-4-53
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5744
104-4-52
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5743
104-4-51
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5742
104-4-50
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5741
104-4-49
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5740
104-4-48
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5739
104-4-47
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5738
104-4-46
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5737
104-4-45
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5736
104-4-44
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5735
104-4-43
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5734
104-4-42
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5733
104-4-41
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5732
104-4-40
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5731
104-4-39
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5730
104-4-38
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5729
104-4-37
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5728
104-4-36
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5727
104-4-35
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5726
104-4-34
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5725
104-4-33
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5724
104-4-32
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5723
104-4-31
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5722
104-4-30
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5721
104-4-29
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5720
104-4-28
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5719
104-4-27
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5718
104-4-26
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5717
104-4-25
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5716
104-4-24
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5715
104-4-23
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5714
104-4-22
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5713
104-4-21
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5712
104-4-20
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5711
104-4-19
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5710
104-4-18
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5709
104-4-17
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5708
104-4-16
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5707
104-4-15
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5706
104-4-14
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5705
104-4-13
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5704
104-4-12
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5703
104-4-11
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5702
104-4-10
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5701
104-4-9
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5700
104-4-8
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5699
104-4-7
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5698
104-4-6
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5697
104-4-5
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5696
104-4-4
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5695
104-4-3
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5694
104-4-2
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5693
104-4-1
1
104
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5692
103-4-57
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5691
103-4-56
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5690
103-4-55
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5689
103-4-54
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5688
103-4-53
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5687
103-4-52
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5686
103-4-51
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5685
103-4-50
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5684
103-4-49
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5683
103-4-48
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5682
103-4-47
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5681
103-4-46
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5680
103-4-45
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5679
103-4-44
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5678
103-4-43
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5677
103-4-42
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5676
103-4-41
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5675
103-4-40
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5674
103-4-39
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5673
103-4-38
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5672
103-4-37
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5671
103-4-36
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5670
103-4-35
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5669
103-4-34
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5668
103-4-33
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5667
103-4-32
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5666
103-4-31
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5665
103-4-30
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5664
103-4-29
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5663
103-4-28
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5662
103-4-27
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5661
103-4-26
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5660
103-4-25
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5659
103-4-24
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5658
103-4-23
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5657
103-4-22
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5656
103-4-21
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5655
103-4-20
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5654
103-4-19
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5653
103-4-18
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5652
103-4-17
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5651
103-4-16
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5650
103-4-15
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5649
103-4-14
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5648
103-4-13
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5647
103-4-12
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5646
103-4-11
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5645
103-4-10
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5644
103-4-9
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5643
103-4-8
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5642
103-4-7
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5641
103-4-6
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5640
103-4-5
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5639
103-4-4
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5638
103-4-3
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5637
103-4-2
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5636
103-4-1
1
103
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5635
219-4-100
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5634
219-4-99
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5633
219-4-98
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5632
219-4-97
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5631
219-4-96
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5630
219-4-95
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5629
219-4-94
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5628
219-4-93
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5627
219-4-92
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5626
219-4-91
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5625
219-4-90
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5624
219-4-89
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5623
219-4-88
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5622
219-4-87
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5621
219-4-86
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5620
219-4-85
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5619
219-4-84
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5618
219-4-83
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5617
219-4-82
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5616
219-4-81
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5615
219-4-80
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5614
219-4-79
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5613
219-4-78
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5612
219-4-77
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5611
219-4-76
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5610
219-4-75
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5609
219-4-74
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5608
219-4-73
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5607
219-4-72
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5606
219-4-71
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5605
219-4-70
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5604
219-4-69
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5603
219-4-68
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5602
219-4-67
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5601
219-4-66
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5600
219-4-65
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5599
219-4-64
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5598
219-4-63
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5597
219-4-62
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5596
219-4-61
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5595
219-4-60
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5594
219-4-59
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5593
219-4-58
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5592
219-4-57
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5591
219-4-56
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5590
219-4-55
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5589
219-4-54
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5588
219-4-53
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5587
219-4-52
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5586
219-4-51
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5585
219-4-50
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5584
219-4-49
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5583
219-4-48
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5582
219-4-47
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5581
219-4-46
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5580
219-4-45
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5579
219-4-44
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5578
219-4-43
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5577
219-4-42
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5576
219-4-41
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5575
219-4-40
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5574
219-4-39
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5573
219-4-38
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5572
219-4-37
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5571
219-4-36
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5570
219-4-35
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5569
219-4-34
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5568
219-4-33
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5567
219-4-32
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5566
219-4-31
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5565
219-4-30
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5564
219-4-29
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5563
219-4-28
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5562
219-4-27
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5561
219-4-26
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5560
219-4-25
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5559
219-4-24
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5558
219-4-23
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5557
219-4-22
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5556
219-4-21
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5555
219-4-20
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5554
219-4-19
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5553
219-4-18
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5552
219-4-17
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5551
219-4-16
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5550
219-4-15
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5549
219-4-14
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5548
219-4-13
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5547
219-4-12
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5546
219-4-11
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5545
219-4-10
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5544
219-4-9
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5543
219-4-8
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5542
219-4-7
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5541
219-4-6
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5540
219-4-5
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5539
219-4-4
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5538
219-4-3
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5537
219-4-2
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5536
219-4-1
2
219
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5535
218-4-90
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5534
218-4-89
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5533
218-4-88
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5532
218-4-87
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5531
218-4-86
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5530
218-4-85
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5529
218-4-84
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5528
218-4-83
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5527
218-4-82
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5526
218-4-81
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5525
218-4-80
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5524
218-4-79
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5523
218-4-78
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5522
218-4-77
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5521
218-4-76
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5520
218-4-75
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5519
218-4-74
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5518
218-4-73
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5517
218-4-72
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5516
218-4-71
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5515
218-4-70
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5514
218-4-69
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5513
218-4-68
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5512
218-4-67
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5511
218-4-66
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5510
218-4-65
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5509
218-4-64
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5508
218-4-63
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5507
218-4-62
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5506
218-4-61
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5505
218-4-60
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5504
218-4-59
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5503
218-4-58
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5502
218-4-57
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5501
218-4-56
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5500
218-4-55
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5499
218-4-54
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5498
218-4-53
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5497
218-4-52
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5496
218-4-51
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5495
218-4-50
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5494
218-4-49
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5493
218-4-48
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5492
218-4-47
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5491
218-4-46
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5490
218-4-45
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5489
218-4-44
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5488
218-4-43
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5487
218-4-42
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5486
218-4-41
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5485
218-4-40
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5484
218-4-39
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5483
218-4-38
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5482
218-4-37
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5481
218-4-36
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5480
218-4-35
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5479
218-4-34
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5478
218-4-33
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5477
218-4-32
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5476
218-4-31
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5475
218-4-30
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5474
218-4-29
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5473
218-4-28
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5472
218-4-27
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5471
218-4-26
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5470
218-4-25
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5469
218-4-24
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5468
218-4-23
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5467
218-4-22
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5466
218-4-21
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5465
218-4-20
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5464
218-4-19
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5463
218-4-18
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5462
218-4-17
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5461
218-4-16
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5460
218-4-15
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5459
218-4-14
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5458
218-4-13
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5457
218-4-12
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5456
218-4-11
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5455
218-4-10
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5454
218-4-9
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5453
218-4-8
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5452
218-4-7
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5451
218-4-6
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5450
218-4-5
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5449
218-4-4
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5448
218-4-3
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5447
218-4-2
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5446
218-4-1
2
218
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5445
203-4-53
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5444
203-4-52
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5443
203-4-51
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5442
203-4-50
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5441
203-4-49
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5440
203-4-48
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5439
203-4-47
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5438
203-4-46
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5437
203-4-45
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5436
203-4-44
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5435
203-4-43
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5434
203-4-42
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5433
203-4-41
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5432
203-4-40
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5431
203-4-39
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5430
203-4-38
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5429
203-4-37
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5428
203-4-36
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5427
203-4-35
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5426
203-4-34
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5425
203-4-33
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5424
203-4-32
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5423
203-4-31
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5422
203-4-30
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5421
203-4-29
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5420
203-4-28
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5419
203-4-27
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5418
203-4-26
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5417
203-4-25
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5416
203-4-24
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5415
203-4-23
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5414
203-4-22
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5413
203-4-21
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5412
203-4-20
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5411
203-4-19
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5410
203-4-18
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5409
203-4-17
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5408
203-4-16
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5407
203-4-15
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5406
203-4-14
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5405
203-4-13
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5404
203-4-12
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5403
203-4-11
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5402
203-4-10
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5401
203-4-9
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5400
203-4-8
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5399
203-4-7
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5398
203-4-6
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5397
203-4-5
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5396
203-4-4
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5395
203-4-3
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5394
203-4-2
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5393
203-4-1
2
203
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5392
717-4-48
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5391
717-4-47
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5390
717-4-46
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5389
717-4-45
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5388
717-4-44
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5387
717-4-43
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5386
717-4-42
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5385
717-4-41
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5384
717-4-40
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5383
717-4-39
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5382
717-4-38
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5381
717-4-37
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5380
717-4-36
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5379
717-4-35
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5378
717-4-34
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5377
717-4-33
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5376
717-4-32
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5375
717-4-31
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5374
717-4-30
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5373
717-4-29
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5372
717-4-28
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5371
717-4-27
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5370
717-4-26
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5369
717-4-25
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5368
717-4-24
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5367
717-4-23
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5366
717-4-22
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5365
717-4-21
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5364
717-4-20
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5363
717-4-19
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5362
717-4-18
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5361
717-4-17
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5360
717-4-16
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5359
717-4-15
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5358
717-4-14
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5357
717-4-13
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5356
717-4-12
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5355
717-4-11
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5354
717-4-10
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5353
717-4-9
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5352
717-4-8
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5351
717-4-7
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5350
717-4-6
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5349
717-4-5
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5348
717-4-4
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5347
717-4-3
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5346
717-4-2
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5345
717-4-1
7
717
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5344
716-4-60
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5343
716-4-59
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5342
716-4-58
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5341
716-4-57
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5340
716-4-56
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5339
716-4-55
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5338
716-4-54
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5337
716-4-53
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5336
716-4-52
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5335
716-4-51
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5334
716-4-50
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5333
716-4-49
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5332
716-4-48
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5331
716-4-47
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5330
716-4-46
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5329
716-4-45
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5328
716-4-44
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5327
716-4-43
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5326
716-4-42
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5325
716-4-41
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5324
716-4-40
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5323
716-4-39
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5322
716-4-38
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5321
716-4-37
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5320
716-4-36
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5319
716-4-35
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5318
716-4-34
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5317
716-4-33
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5316
716-4-32
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5315
716-4-31
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5314
716-4-30
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5313
716-4-29
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5312
716-4-28
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5311
716-4-27
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5310
716-4-26
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5309
716-4-25
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5308
716-4-24
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5307
716-4-23
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5306
716-4-22
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5305
716-4-21
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5304
716-4-20
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5303
716-4-19
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5302
716-4-18
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5301
716-4-17
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5300
716-4-16
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5299
716-4-15
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5298
716-4-14
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5297
716-4-13
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5296
716-4-12
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5295
716-4-11
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5294
716-4-10
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5293
716-4-9
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5292
716-4-8
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5291
716-4-7
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5290
716-4-6
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5289
716-4-5
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5288
716-4-4
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5287
716-4-3
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5286
716-4-2
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5285
716-4-1
7
716
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5224
715-4-59
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5223
715-4-58
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5222
715-4-57
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5221
715-4-56
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5220
715-4-55
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5219
715-4-54
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5218
715-4-53
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5217
715-4-52
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5216
715-4-51
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5215
715-4-50
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5214
715-4-49
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5213
715-4-48
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5212
715-4-47
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5211
715-4-46
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5210
715-4-45
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5209
715-4-44
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5208
715-4-43
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5207
715-4-42
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5206
715-4-41
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5205
715-4-40
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5204
715-4-39
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5203
715-4-38
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5202
715-4-37
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5201
715-4-36
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5200
715-4-35
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5199
715-4-34
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5198
715-4-33
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5197
715-4-32
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5196
715-4-31
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5195
715-4-30
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5194
715-4-29
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5193
715-4-28
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5192
715-4-27
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5191
715-4-26
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5190
715-4-25
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5189
715-4-24
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5188
715-4-23
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5187
715-4-22
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5186
715-4-21
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5185
715-4-20
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5184
715-4-19
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5183
715-4-18
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5182
715-4-17
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5181
715-4-16
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5180
715-4-15
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5179
715-4-14
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5178
715-4-13
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5177
715-4-12
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5176
715-4-11
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5175
715-4-10
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5174
715-4-9
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5173
715-4-8
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5172
715-4-7
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5171
715-4-6
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5170
715-4-5
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5169
715-4-4
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5168
715-4-3
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5167
715-4-2
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5166
715-4-1
7
715
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5165
714-4-60
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5164
714-4-59
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5163
714-4-58
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5162
714-4-57
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5161
714-4-56
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5160
714-4-55
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5159
714-4-54
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5158
714-4-53
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5157
714-4-52
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5156
714-4-51
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5155
714-4-50
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5154
714-4-49
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5153
714-4-48
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5152
714-4-47
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5151
714-4-46
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5150
714-4-45
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5149
714-4-44
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5148
714-4-43
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5147
714-4-42
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5146
714-4-41
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5145
714-4-40
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5144
714-4-39
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5143
714-4-38
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5142
714-4-37
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5141
714-4-36
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5140
714-4-35
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5139
714-4-34
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5138
714-4-33
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5137
714-4-32
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5136
714-4-31
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5135
714-4-30
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5134
714-4-29
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5133
714-4-28
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5132
714-4-27
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5131
714-4-26
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5130
714-4-25
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5129
714-4-24
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5128
714-4-23
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5127
714-4-22
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5126
714-4-21
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5125
714-4-20
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5124
714-4-19
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5123
714-4-18
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5122
714-4-17
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5121
714-4-16
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5120
714-4-15
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5119
714-4-14
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5118
714-4-13
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5117
714-4-12
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5116
714-4-11
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5115
714-4-10
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5114
714-4-9
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5113
714-4-8
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5112
714-4-7
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5111
714-4-6
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5110
714-4-5
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5109
714-4-4
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5108
714-4-3
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5107
714-4-2
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5106
714-4-1
7
714
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5105
713-4-60
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5104
713-4-59
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5103
713-4-58
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5102
713-4-57
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5101
713-4-56
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5100
713-4-55
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5099
713-4-54
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5098
713-4-53
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5097
713-4-52
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5096
713-4-51
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5095
713-4-50
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5094
713-4-49
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5093
713-4-48
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5092
713-4-47
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5091
713-4-46
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5090
713-4-45
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5089
713-4-44
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5088
713-4-43
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5087
713-4-42
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5086
713-4-41
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5085
713-4-40
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5084
713-4-39
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5083
713-4-38
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5082
713-4-37
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5081
713-4-36
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5080
713-4-35
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5079
713-4-34
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5078
713-4-33
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5077
713-4-32
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5076
713-4-31
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5075
713-4-30
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5074
713-4-29
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5073
713-4-28
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5072
713-4-27
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5071
713-4-26
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5070
713-4-25
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5069
713-4-24
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
5068
713-4-23
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5067
713-4-22
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5066
713-4-21
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5065
713-4-20
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5064
713-4-19
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5063
713-4-18
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5062
713-4-17
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5061
713-4-16
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5060
713-4-15
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5059
713-4-14
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5058
713-4-13
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5057
713-4-12
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5056
713-4-11
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5055
713-4-10
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5054
713-4-9
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5053
713-4-8
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5052
713-4-7
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5051
713-4-6
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5050
713-4-5
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5049
713-4-4
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5048
713-4-3
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5047
713-4-2
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5046
713-4-1
7
713
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5045
712-4-60
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5044
712-4-59
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5043
712-4-58
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5042
712-4-57
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5041
712-4-56
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5040
712-4-55
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5039
712-4-54
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5038
712-4-53
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5037
712-4-52
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5036
712-4-51
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5035
712-4-50
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5034
712-4-49
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5033
712-4-48
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5032
712-4-47
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5031
712-4-46
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5030
712-4-45
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5029
712-4-44
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5028
712-4-43
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5027
712-4-42
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5026
712-4-41
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5025
712-4-40
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5024
712-4-39
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5023
712-4-38
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5022
712-4-37
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5021
712-4-36
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5020
712-4-35
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5019
712-4-34
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5018
712-4-33
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5017
712-4-32
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5016
712-4-31
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5015
712-4-30
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5014
712-4-29
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5013
712-4-28
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5012
712-4-27
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5011
712-4-26
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5010
712-4-25
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5009
712-4-24
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
5008
712-4-23
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5007
712-4-22
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
5006
712-4-21
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5005
712-4-20
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5004
712-4-19
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
5003
712-4-18
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5002
712-4-17
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
5001
712-4-16
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
5000
712-4-15
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4999
712-4-14
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4998
712-4-13
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4997
712-4-12
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4996
712-4-11
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4995
712-4-10
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4994
712-4-9
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4993
712-4-8
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4992
712-4-7
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4991
712-4-6
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4990
712-4-5
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4989
712-4-4
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4988
712-4-3
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4987
712-4-2
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4986
712-4-1
7
712
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4985
711-4-33
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4984
711-4-32
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4983
711-4-31
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4982
711-4-30
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4981
711-4-29
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4980
711-4-28
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4979
711-4-27
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4978
711-4-26
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4977
711-4-25
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4976
711-4-24
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4975
711-4-23
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4974
711-4-22
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
4973
711-4-21
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4972
711-4-20
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4971
711-4-19
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4970
711-4-18
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4969
711-4-17
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4968
711-4-16
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4967
711-4-15
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4966
711-4-14
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4965
711-4-13
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4964
711-4-12
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4963
711-4-11
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4962
711-4-10
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4961
711-4-9
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4960
711-4-8
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4959
711-4-7
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4958
711-4-6
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4957
711-4-5
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4956
711-4-4
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4955
711-4-3
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4954
711-4-2
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4953
711-4-1
7
711
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4952
710-4-43
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4951
710-4-42
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4950
710-4-41
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4949
710-4-40
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4948
710-4-39
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4947
710-4-38
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4946
710-4-37
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4945
710-4-36
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4944
710-4-35
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4943
710-4-34
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
4942
710-4-33
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4941
710-4-32
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4940
710-4-31
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4939
710-4-30
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4938
710-4-29
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4937
710-4-28
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
4936
710-4-27
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4935
710-4-26
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4934
710-4-25
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4933
710-4-24
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4932
710-4-23
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4931
710-4-22
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4930
710-4-21
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4929
710-4-20
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4928
710-4-19
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4927
710-4-18
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4926
710-4-17
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4925
710-4-16
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4924
710-4-15
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
4923
710-4-14
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4922
710-4-13
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4921
710-4-12
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4920
710-4-11
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4919
710-4-10
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4918
710-4-9
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4917
710-4-8
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4916
710-4-7
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4915
710-4-6
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4914
710-4-5
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4913
710-4-4
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4912
710-4-3
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4911
710-4-2
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4910
710-4-1
7
710
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4909
709-4-50
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4908
709-4-49
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4907
709-4-48
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4906
709-4-47
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4905
709-4-46
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4904
709-4-45
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4903
709-4-44
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4902
709-4-43
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4901
709-4-42
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4900
709-4-41
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4899
709-4-40
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4898
709-4-39
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4897
709-4-38
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4896
709-4-37
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4895
709-4-36
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4894
709-4-35
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4893
709-4-34
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4892
709-4-33
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4891
709-4-32
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4890
709-4-31
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4889
709-4-30
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4888
709-4-29
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4887
709-4-28
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4886
709-4-27
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4885
709-4-26
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
4884
709-4-25
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4883
709-4-24
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4882
709-4-23
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4881
709-4-22
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4880
709-4-21
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4879
709-4-20
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4878
709-4-19
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4877
709-4-18
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4876
709-4-17
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4875
709-4-16
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4874
709-4-15
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4873
709-4-14
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4872
709-4-13
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4871
709-4-12
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4870
709-4-11
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4869
709-4-10
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4868
709-4-9
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4867
709-4-8
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4866
709-4-7
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4865
709-4-6
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4864
709-4-5
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4863
709-4-4
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4862
709-4-3
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4861
709-4-2
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4860
709-4-1
7
709
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4859
708-4-60
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4858
708-4-59
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4857
708-4-58
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4856
708-4-57
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4855
708-4-56
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4854
708-4-55
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4853
708-4-54
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4852
708-4-53
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4851
708-4-52
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4850
708-4-51
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4849
708-4-50
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4848
708-4-49
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4847
708-4-48
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4846
708-4-47
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4845
708-4-46
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4844
708-4-45
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4843
708-4-44
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4842
708-4-43
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4841
708-4-42
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4840
708-4-41
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4839
708-4-40
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4838
708-4-39
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4837
708-4-38
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4836
708-4-37
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4835
708-4-36
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4834
708-4-35
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4833
708-4-34
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4832
708-4-33
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4831
708-4-32
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4830
708-4-31
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4829
708-4-30
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4828
708-4-29
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4827
708-4-28
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4826
708-4-27
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4825
708-4-26
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4824
708-4-25
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4823
708-4-24
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4822
708-4-23
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4821
708-4-22
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4820
708-4-21
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4819
708-4-20
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4818
708-4-19
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4817
708-4-18
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4816
708-4-17
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4815
708-4-16
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4814
708-4-15
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4813
708-4-14
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4812
708-4-13
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4811
708-4-12
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4810
708-4-11
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4809
708-4-10
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4808
708-4-9
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4807
708-4-8
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4806
708-4-7
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4805
708-4-6
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4804
708-4-5
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4803
708-4-4
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4802
708-4-3
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4801
708-4-2
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4800
708-4-1
7
708
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4799
707-4-60
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4798
707-4-59
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4797
707-4-58
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4796
707-4-57
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4795
707-4-56
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4794
707-4-55
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4793
707-4-54
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4792
707-4-53
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4791
707-4-52
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4790
707-4-51
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4789
707-4-50
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4788
707-4-49
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4787
707-4-48
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4786
707-4-47
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4785
707-4-46
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4784
707-4-45
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4783
707-4-44
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4782
707-4-43
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4781
707-4-42
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4780
707-4-41
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4779
707-4-40
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4778
707-4-39
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4777
707-4-38
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4776
707-4-37
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4775
707-4-36
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4774
707-4-35
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4773
707-4-34
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4772
707-4-33
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
3
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4771
707-4-32
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Edit
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4770
707-4-31
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4769
707-4-30
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4768
707-4-29
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4767
707-4-28
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4766
707-4-27
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
4765
707-4-26
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Edit
Delete
4764
707-4-25
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
4763
707-4-24
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4762
707-4-23
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
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Edit
Delete
4761
707-4-22
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4760
707-4-21
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4759
707-4-20
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4758
707-4-19
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4757
707-4-18
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4756
707-4-17
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4755
707-4-16
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4754
707-4-15
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4753
707-4-14
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4752
707-4-13
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
4751
707-4-12
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4750
707-4-11
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4749
707-4-10
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4748
707-4-9
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4747
707-4-8
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4746
707-4-7
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4745
707-4-6
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4744
707-4-5
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4743
707-4-4
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4742
707-4-3
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
4741
707-4-2
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4740
707-4-1
7
707
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4739
706-4-45
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4738
706-4-44
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4737
706-4-43
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4736
706-4-42
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4735
706-4-41
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4734
706-4-40
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4733
706-4-39
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4732
706-4-38
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4731
706-4-37
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4730
706-4-36
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4729
706-4-35
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4728
706-4-34
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4727
706-4-33
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4726
706-4-32
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4725
706-4-31
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4724
706-4-30
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4723
706-4-29
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4722
706-4-28
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4721
706-4-27
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Edit
Delete
4720
706-4-26
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4719
706-4-25
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4718
706-4-24
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4717
706-4-23
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4716
706-4-22
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4715
706-4-21
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4714
706-4-20
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4713
706-4-19
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4712
706-4-18
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4711
706-4-17
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4710
706-4-16
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4709
706-4-15
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4708
706-4-14
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
4707
706-4-13
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4706
706-4-12
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4705
706-4-11
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4704
706-4-10
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4703
706-4-9
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4702
706-4-8
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4701
706-4-7
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4700
706-4-6
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4699
706-4-5
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4698
706-4-4
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4697
706-4-3
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4696
706-4-2
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4695
706-4-1
7
706
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4694
705-4-49
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4693
705-4-48
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4692
705-4-47
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4691
705-4-46
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4690
705-4-45
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4689
705-4-44
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4688
705-4-43
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4687
705-4-42
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4686
705-4-41
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4685
705-4-40
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4684
705-4-39
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4683
705-4-38
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4682
705-4-37
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4681
705-4-36
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4680
705-4-35
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4679
705-4-34
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4678
705-4-33
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4677
705-4-32
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4676
705-4-31
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4675
705-4-30
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4674
705-4-29
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4673
705-4-28
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4672
705-4-27
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4671
705-4-26
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4670
705-4-25
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4669
705-4-24
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4668
705-4-23
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4667
705-4-22
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4666
705-4-21
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4665
705-4-20
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4664
705-4-19
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4663
705-4-18
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4662
705-4-17
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4661
705-4-16
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4660
705-4-15
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4659
705-4-14
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4658
705-4-13
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4657
705-4-12
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4656
705-4-11
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4655
705-4-10
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4654
705-4-9
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4653
705-4-8
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4652
705-4-7
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4651
705-4-6
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4650
705-4-5
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4649
705-4-4
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4648
705-4-3
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4647
705-4-2
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4646
705-4-1
7
705
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4645
704-4-60
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4644
704-4-59
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4643
704-4-58
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4642
704-4-57
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4641
704-4-56
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4640
704-4-55
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4639
704-4-54
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4638
704-4-53
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4637
704-4-52
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4636
704-4-51
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4635
704-4-50
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
4634
704-4-49
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4633
704-4-48
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4632
704-4-47
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4631
704-4-46
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4630
704-4-45
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4629
704-4-44
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4628
704-4-43
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4627
704-4-42
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4626
704-4-41
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4625
704-4-40
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4624
704-4-39
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4623
704-4-38
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4622
704-4-37
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4621
704-4-36
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4620
704-4-35
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4619
704-4-34
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4618
704-4-33
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4617
704-4-32
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4616
704-4-31
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4615
704-4-30
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4614
704-4-29
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4613
704-4-28
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4612
704-4-27
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4611
704-4-26
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4610
704-4-25
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4609
704-4-24
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4608
704-4-23
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4607
704-4-22
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4606
704-4-21
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4605
704-4-20
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4604
704-4-19
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4603
704-4-18
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4602
704-4-17
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4601
704-4-16
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4600
704-4-15
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4599
704-4-14
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4598
704-4-13
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4597
704-4-12
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4596
704-4-11
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4595
704-4-10
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4594
704-4-9
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4593
704-4-8
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
4592
704-4-7
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4591
704-4-6
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4590
704-4-5
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4589
704-4-4
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4588
704-4-3
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4587
704-4-2
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4586
704-4-1
7
704
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4585
703-4-60
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
4584
703-4-59
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
4583
703-4-58
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
4582
703-4-57
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4581
703-4-56
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
4580
703-4-55
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
4579
703-4-54
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
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Edit
Delete
4578
703-4-53
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4577
703-4-52
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4576
703-4-51
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
4575
703-4-50
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4574
703-4-49
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
4573
703-4-48
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
4572
703-4-47
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
4571
703-4-46
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
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Edit
Delete
4570
703-4-45
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4569
703-4-44
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4568
703-4-43
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
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Edit
Delete
4567
703-4-42
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4566
703-4-41
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4565
703-4-40
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4564
703-4-39
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4563
703-4-38
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4562
703-4-37
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4561
703-4-36
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4560
703-4-35
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4559
703-4-34
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4558
703-4-33
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4557
703-4-32
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4556
703-4-31
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4555
703-4-30
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4554
703-4-29
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4553
703-4-28
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4552
703-4-27
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4551
703-4-26
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4550
703-4-25
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4549
703-4-24
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4548
703-4-23
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4547
703-4-22
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4546
703-4-21
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4545
703-4-20
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4544
703-4-19
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4543
703-4-18
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4542
703-4-17
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4541
703-4-16
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4540
703-4-15
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4539
703-4-14
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4538
703-4-13
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4537
703-4-12
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4536
703-4-11
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4535
703-4-10
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4534
703-4-9
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4533
703-4-8
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4532
703-4-7
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4531
703-4-6
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4530
703-4-5
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4529
703-4-4
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4528
703-4-3
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4527
703-4-2
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4526
703-4-1
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4525
703-4-60
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4524
703-4-59
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4523
703-4-58
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4522
703-4-57
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4521
703-4-56
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4520
703-4-55
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4519
703-4-54
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4518
703-4-53
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4517
703-4-52
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4516
703-4-51
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4515
703-4-50
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4514
703-4-49
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4513
703-4-48
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4512
703-4-47
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4511
703-4-46
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4510
703-4-45
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4509
703-4-44
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4508
703-4-43
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4507
703-4-42
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4506
703-4-41
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4505
703-4-40
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4504
703-4-39
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4503
703-4-38
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4502
703-4-37
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4501
703-4-36
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4500
703-4-35
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4499
703-4-34
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4498
703-4-33
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4497
703-4-32
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4496
703-4-31
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4495
703-4-30
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4494
703-4-29
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4493
703-4-28
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4492
703-4-27
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4491
703-4-26
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4490
703-4-25
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4489
703-4-24
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4488
703-4-23
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4487
703-4-22
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4486
703-4-21
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4485
703-4-20
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4484
703-4-19
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4483
703-4-18
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4482
703-4-17
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4481
703-4-16
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4480
703-4-15
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4479
703-4-14
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4478
703-4-13
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4477
703-4-12
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4476
703-4-11
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4475
703-4-10
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4474
703-4-9
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4473
703-4-8
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4472
703-4-7
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4471
703-4-6
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4470
703-4-5
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4469
703-4-4
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4468
703-4-3
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4467
703-4-2
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4466
703-4-1
7
703
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4465
702-4-61
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4464
702-4-60
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4463
702-4-59
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4462
702-4-58
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4461
702-4-57
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4460
702-4-56
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4459
702-4-55
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4458
702-4-54
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4457
702-4-53
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4456
702-4-52
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4455
702-4-51
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4454
702-4-50
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4453
702-4-49
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4452
702-4-48
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4451
702-4-47
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4450
702-4-46
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4449
702-4-45
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4448
702-4-44
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4447
702-4-43
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4446
702-4-42
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4445
702-4-41
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4444
702-4-40
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4443
702-4-39
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4442
702-4-38
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4441
702-4-37
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4440
702-4-36
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4439
702-4-35
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4438
702-4-34
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4437
702-4-33
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4436
702-4-32
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4435
702-4-31
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4434
702-4-30
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4433
702-4-29
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4432
702-4-28
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4431
702-4-27
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4430
702-4-26
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4429
702-4-25
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4428
702-4-24
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4427
702-4-23
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4426
702-4-22
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4425
702-4-21
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4424
702-4-20
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4423
702-4-19
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4422
702-4-18
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4421
702-4-17
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4420
702-4-16
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4419
702-4-15
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4418
702-4-14
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4417
702-4-13
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4416
702-4-12
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4415
702-4-11
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4414
702-4-10
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
4413
702-4-9
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4412
702-4-8
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4411
702-4-7
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4410
702-4-6
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4409
702-4-5
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4408
702-4-4
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4407
702-4-3
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4406
702-4-2
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4405
702-4-1
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4404
702-4-61
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4403
702-4-60
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4402
702-4-59
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4401
702-4-58
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4400
702-4-57
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4399
702-4-56
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4398
702-4-55
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4397
702-4-54
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4396
702-4-53
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4395
702-4-52
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4394
702-4-51
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4393
702-4-50
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4392
702-4-49
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4391
702-4-48
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4390
702-4-47
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4389
702-4-46
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4388
702-4-45
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4387
702-4-44
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4386
702-4-43
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4385
702-4-42
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4384
702-4-41
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4383
702-4-40
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4382
702-4-39
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4381
702-4-38
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4380
702-4-37
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4379
702-4-36
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4378
702-4-35
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4377
702-4-34
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4376
702-4-33
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4375
702-4-32
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4374
702-4-31
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4373
702-4-30
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4372
702-4-29
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4371
702-4-28
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4370
702-4-27
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4369
702-4-26
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4368
702-4-25
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4367
702-4-24
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4366
702-4-23
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4365
702-4-22
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4364
702-4-21
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4363
702-4-20
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4362
702-4-19
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4361
702-4-18
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4360
702-4-17
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4359
702-4-16
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4358
702-4-15
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4357
702-4-14
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4356
702-4-13
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4355
702-4-12
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4354
702-4-11
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4353
702-4-10
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
4352
702-4-9
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4351
702-4-8
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4350
702-4-7
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4349
702-4-6
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4348
702-4-5
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4347
702-4-4
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4346
702-4-3
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4345
702-4-2
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4344
702-4-1
7
702
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4343
701-4-60
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4342
701-4-59
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4341
701-4-58
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4340
701-4-57
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4339
701-4-56
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4338
701-4-55
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4337
701-4-54
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4336
701-4-53
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4335
701-4-52
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4334
701-4-51
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4333
701-4-50
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4332
701-4-49
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4331
701-4-48
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4330
701-4-47
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4329
701-4-46
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4328
701-4-45
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4327
701-4-44
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4326
701-4-43
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4325
701-4-42
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4324
701-4-41
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4323
701-4-40
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
4322
701-4-39
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4321
701-4-38
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4320
701-4-37
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4319
701-4-36
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4318
701-4-35
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4317
701-4-34
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4316
701-4-33
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4315
701-4-32
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4314
701-4-31
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4313
701-4-30
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4312
701-4-29
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4311
701-4-28
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4310
701-4-27
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4309
701-4-26
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4308
701-4-25
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4307
701-4-24
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4306
701-4-23
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4305
701-4-22
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4304
701-4-21
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4303
701-4-20
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4302
701-4-19
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4301
701-4-18
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
4300
701-4-17
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4299
701-4-16
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4298
701-4-15
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4297
701-4-14
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4296
701-4-13
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4295
701-4-12
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4294
701-4-11
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4293
701-4-10
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4292
701-4-9
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4291
701-4-8
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4290
701-4-7
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4289
701-4-6
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4288
701-4-5
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4287
701-4-4
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4286
701-4-3
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4285
701-4-2
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4284
701-4-1
7
701
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4281
202-4-60
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4280
202-4-59
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4279
202-4-58
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4278
202-4-57
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4277
202-4-56
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4276
202-4-55
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4275
202-4-54
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4274
202-4-53
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4273
202-4-52
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4272
202-4-51
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4271
202-4-50
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4270
202-4-49
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4269
202-4-48
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4268
202-4-47
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4267
202-4-46
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4266
202-4-45
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4265
202-4-44
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4264
202-4-43
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4263
202-4-42
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4262
202-4-41
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4261
202-4-40
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4260
202-4-39
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4259
202-4-38
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4258
202-4-37
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4257
202-4-36
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4256
202-4-35
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4255
202-4-34
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4254
202-4-33
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4253
202-4-32
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4252
202-4-31
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4251
202-4-30
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4250
202-4-29
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4249
202-4-28
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4248
202-4-27
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4247
202-4-26
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4246
202-4-25
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4245
202-4-24
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4244
202-4-23
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4243
202-4-22
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4242
202-4-21
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4241
202-4-20
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4240
202-4-19
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4239
202-4-18
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4238
202-4-17
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4237
202-4-16
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4236
202-4-15
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4235
202-4-14
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4234
202-4-13
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4233
202-4-12
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4232
202-4-11
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4231
202-4-10
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4230
202-4-9
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4229
202-4-8
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4228
202-4-7
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4227
202-4-6
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4226
202-4-5
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4225
202-4-4
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4224
202-4-3
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4223
202-4-2
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4222
202-4-1
2
202
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4221
201-4-60
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4220
201-4-59
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4219
201-4-58
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4218
201-4-57
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4217
201-4-56
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4216
201-4-55
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4215
201-4-54
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4214
201-4-53
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4213
201-4-52
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4212
201-4-51
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4211
201-4-50
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4210
201-4-49
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4209
201-4-48
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4208
201-4-47
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4207
201-4-46
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4206
201-4-45
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4205
201-4-44
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4204
201-4-43
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4203
201-4-42
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4202
201-4-41
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4201
201-4-40
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4200
201-4-39
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4199
201-4-38
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4198
201-4-37
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4197
201-4-36
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4196
201-4-35
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4195
201-4-34
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4194
201-4-33
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4193
201-4-32
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4192
201-4-31
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4191
201-4-30
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4190
201-4-29
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4189
201-4-28
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4188
201-4-27
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4187
201-4-26
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4186
201-4-25
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4185
201-4-24
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4184
201-4-23
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4183
201-4-22
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4182
201-4-21
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4181
201-4-20
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4180
201-4-19
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4179
201-4-18
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4178
201-4-17
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4177
201-4-16
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4176
201-4-15
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4175
201-4-14
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4174
201-4-13
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4173
201-4-12
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4172
201-4-11
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4171
201-4-10
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4170
201-4-9
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4169
201-4-8
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4168
201-4-7
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4167
201-4-6
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4166
201-4-5
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4165
201-4-4
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4164
201-4-3
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
4163
201-4-2
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4162
201-4-1
2
201
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4161
207-4-54
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4160
207-4-53
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4159
207-4-52
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4158
207-4-51
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4157
207-4-50
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4156
207-4-49
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4155
207-4-48
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4154
207-4-47
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4153
207-4-46
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4152
207-4-45
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4151
207-4-44
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4150
207-4-43
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4149
207-4-42
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4148
207-4-41
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4147
207-4-40
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4146
207-4-39
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4145
207-4-38
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4144
207-4-37
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4143
207-4-36
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4142
207-4-35
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4141
207-4-34
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4140
207-4-33
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4139
207-4-32
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4138
207-4-31
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4137
207-4-30
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4136
207-4-29
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4135
207-4-28
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4134
207-4-27
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4133
207-4-26
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4132
207-4-25
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4131
207-4-24
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4130
207-4-23
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4129
207-4-22
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4128
207-4-21
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4127
207-4-20
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4126
207-4-19
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4125
207-4-18
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4124
207-4-17
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4123
207-4-16
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4122
207-4-15
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4121
207-4-14
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4120
207-4-13
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4119
207-4-12
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4118
207-4-11
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4117
207-4-10
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4116
207-4-9
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4115
207-4-8
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4114
207-4-7
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4113
207-4-6
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4112
207-4-5
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4111
207-4-4
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4110
207-4-3
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4109
207-4-2
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4108
207-4-1
2
207
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4107
208-4-23
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4106
208-4-22
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4105
208-4-21
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4104
208-4-20
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4103
208-4-19
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4102
208-4-18
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4101
208-4-17
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4100
208-4-16
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4099
208-4-15
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4098
208-4-14
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4097
208-4-13
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4096
208-4-12
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4095
208-4-11
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4094
208-4-10
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4093
208-4-9
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4092
208-4-8
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4091
208-4-7
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4090
208-4-6
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4089
208-4-5
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4088
208-4-4
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4087
208-4-3
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4086
208-4-2
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4085
208-4-1
2
208
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4084
209-4-13
2
209
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4083
209-4-12
2
209
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4082
209-4-11
2
209
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4081
209-4-10
2
209
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4080
209-4-9
2
209
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4079
209-4-8
2
209
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4078
209-4-7
2
209
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4077
209-4-6
2
209
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4076
209-4-5
2
209
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4075
209-4-4
2
209
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4074
209-4-3
2
209
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4073
209-4-2
2
209
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4072
209-4-1
2
209
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4071
210-4-60
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4070
210-4-59
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4069
210-4-58
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4068
210-4-57
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4067
210-4-56
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4066
210-4-55
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4065
210-4-54
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4064
210-4-53
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4063
210-4-52
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4062
210-4-51
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4061
210-4-50
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4060
210-4-49
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4059
210-4-48
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4058
210-4-47
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4057
210-4-46
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4056
210-4-45
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4055
210-4-44
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4054
210-4-43
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4053
210-4-42
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4052
210-4-41
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4051
210-4-40
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4050
210-4-39
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4049
210-4-38
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4048
210-4-37
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4047
210-4-36
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4046
210-4-35
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4045
210-4-34
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4044
210-4-33
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4043
210-4-32
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4042
210-4-31
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4041
210-4-30
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4040
210-4-29
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4039
210-4-28
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4038
210-4-27
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4037
210-4-26
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4036
210-4-25
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4035
210-4-24
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4034
210-4-23
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4033
210-4-22
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4032
210-4-21
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4031
210-4-20
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4030
210-4-19
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4029
210-4-18
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4028
210-4-17
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4027
210-4-16
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4026
210-4-15
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4025
210-4-14
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4024
210-4-13
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4023
210-4-12
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4022
210-4-11
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4021
210-4-10
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4020
210-4-9
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4019
210-4-8
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4018
210-4-7
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4017
210-4-6
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4016
210-4-5
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4015
210-4-4
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4014
210-4-3
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4013
210-4-2
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4012
210-4-1
2
210
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4011
211-4-60
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4010
211-4-59
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4009
211-4-58
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4008
211-4-57
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
4007
211-4-56
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4006
211-4-55
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
4005
211-4-54
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4004
211-4-53
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4003
211-4-52
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4002
211-4-51
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
4001
211-4-50
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
4000
211-4-49
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3999
211-4-48
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3998
211-4-47
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3997
211-4-46
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3996
211-4-45
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
3995
211-4-44
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3994
211-4-43
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3993
211-4-42
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3992
211-4-41
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3991
211-4-40
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3990
211-4-39
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3989
211-4-38
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3988
211-4-37
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3987
211-4-36
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3986
211-4-35
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3985
211-4-34
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3984
211-4-33
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3983
211-4-32
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3982
211-4-31
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3981
211-4-30
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3980
211-4-29
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3979
211-4-28
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3978
211-4-27
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
3977
211-4-26
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3976
211-4-25
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3975
211-4-24
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3974
211-4-23
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3973
211-4-22
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3972
211-4-21
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3971
211-4-20
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3970
211-4-19
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3969
211-4-18
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3968
211-4-17
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3967
211-4-16
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3966
211-4-15
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3965
211-4-14
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3964
211-4-13
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3963
211-4-12
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3962
211-4-11
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3961
211-4-10
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3960
211-4-9
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3959
211-4-8
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3958
211-4-7
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3957
211-4-6
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3956
211-4-5
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3955
211-4-4
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3954
211-4-3
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3953
211-4-2
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3952
211-4-1
2
211
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3951
212-4-60
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3950
212-4-59
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3949
212-4-58
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3948
212-4-57
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3947
212-4-56
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3946
212-4-55
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3945
212-4-54
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3944
212-4-53
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3943
212-4-52
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3942
212-4-51
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3941
212-4-50
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3940
212-4-49
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3939
212-4-48
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3938
212-4-47
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3937
212-4-46
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3936
212-4-45
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3935
212-4-44
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3934
212-4-43
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3933
212-4-42
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3932
212-4-41
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3931
212-4-40
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3930
212-4-39
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3929
212-4-38
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3928
212-4-37
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3927
212-4-36
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3926
212-4-35
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3925
212-4-34
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3924
212-4-33
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3923
212-4-32
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3922
212-4-31
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3921
212-4-30
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
3920
212-4-29
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3919
212-4-28
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3918
212-4-27
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3917
212-4-26
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3916
212-4-25
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3915
212-4-24
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3914
212-4-23
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3913
212-4-22
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3912
212-4-21
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3911
212-4-20
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3910
212-4-19
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3909
212-4-18
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3908
212-4-17
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3907
212-4-16
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3906
212-4-15
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3905
212-4-14
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3904
212-4-13
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3903
212-4-12
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3902
212-4-11
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3901
212-4-10
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3900
212-4-9
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3899
212-4-8
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3898
212-4-7
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3897
212-4-6
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3896
212-4-5
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3895
212-4-4
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3894
212-4-3
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3893
212-4-2
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3892
212-4-1
2
212
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3891
213-4-49
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3890
213-4-48
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3889
213-4-47
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3888
213-4-46
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3887
213-4-45
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3886
213-4-44
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3885
213-4-43
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3884
213-4-42
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3883
213-4-41
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3882
213-4-40
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3881
213-4-39
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3880
213-4-38
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3879
213-4-37
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3878
213-4-36
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3877
213-4-35
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3876
213-4-34
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3875
213-4-33
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3874
213-4-32
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3873
213-4-31
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3872
213-4-30
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3871
213-4-29
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3870
213-4-28
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3869
213-4-27
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3868
213-4-26
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3867
213-4-25
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3866
213-4-24
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3865
213-4-23
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3864
213-4-22
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3863
213-4-21
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3862
213-4-20
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3861
213-4-19
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3860
213-4-18
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3859
213-4-17
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3858
213-4-16
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3857
213-4-15
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3856
213-4-14
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3855
213-4-13
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3854
213-4-12
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3853
213-4-11
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3852
213-4-10
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3851
213-4-9
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3850
213-4-8
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3849
213-4-7
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3848
213-4-6
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3847
213-4-5
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3846
213-4-4
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3845
213-4-3
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3844
213-4-2
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3843
213-4-1
2
213
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3842
217-4-54
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3841
217-4-53
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3840
217-4-52
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3839
217-4-51
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3838
217-4-50
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3837
217-4-49
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3836
217-4-48
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3835
217-4-47
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3834
217-4-46
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3833
217-4-45
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3832
217-4-44
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3831
217-4-43
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3830
217-4-42
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3829
217-4-41
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3828
217-4-40
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3827
217-4-39
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3826
217-4-38
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3825
217-4-37
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3824
217-4-36
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3823
217-4-35
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3822
217-4-34
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3821
217-4-33
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3820
217-4-32
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3819
217-4-31
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3818
217-4-30
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3817
217-4-29
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3816
217-4-28
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3815
217-4-27
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3814
217-4-26
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3813
217-4-25
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3812
217-4-24
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3811
217-4-23
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3810
217-4-22
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3809
217-4-21
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3808
217-4-20
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3807
217-4-19
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3806
217-4-18
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3805
217-4-17
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3804
217-4-16
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3803
217-4-15
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3802
217-4-14
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3801
217-4-13
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3800
217-4-12
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3799
217-4-11
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3798
217-4-10
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3797
217-4-9
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3796
217-4-8
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3795
217-4-7
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3794
217-4-6
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3793
217-4-5
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3792
217-4-4
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3791
217-4-3
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3790
217-4-2
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3789
217-4-1
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3788
215-4-58
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3787
215-4-57
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3786
215-4-56
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3785
215-4-55
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3784
215-4-54
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3783
215-4-53
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3782
215-4-52
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3781
215-4-51
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3780
215-4-50
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3779
215-4-49
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3778
215-4-48
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3777
215-4-47
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3776
215-4-46
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3775
215-4-45
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3774
215-4-44
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3773
215-4-43
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3772
215-4-42
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3771
215-4-41
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3770
215-4-40
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3769
215-4-39
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3768
215-4-38
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3767
215-4-37
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3766
215-4-36
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3765
215-4-35
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3764
215-4-34
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3763
215-4-33
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3762
215-4-32
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3761
215-4-31
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3760
215-4-30
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3759
215-4-29
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3758
215-4-28
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3757
215-4-27
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3756
215-4-26
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3755
215-4-25
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3754
215-4-24
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3753
215-4-23
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3752
215-4-22
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3751
215-4-21
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3750
215-4-20
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3749
215-4-19
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3748
215-4-18
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3747
215-4-17
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3746
215-4-16
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3745
215-4-15
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3744
215-4-14
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3743
215-4-13
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3742
215-4-12
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3741
215-4-11
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3740
215-4-10
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3739
215-4-9
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3738
215-4-8
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3737
215-4-7
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3736
215-4-6
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3735
215-4-5
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3734
215-4-4
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3733
215-4-3
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3732
215-4-2
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3731
215-4-1
2
215
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3730
216-4-52
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3729
216-4-51
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3728
216-4-50
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3727
216-4-49
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3726
216-4-48
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3725
216-4-47
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3724
216-4-46
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3723
216-4-45
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3722
216-4-44
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3721
216-4-43
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3720
216-4-42
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3719
216-4-41
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3718
216-4-40
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3717
216-4-39
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3716
216-4-38
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3715
216-4-37
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3714
216-4-36
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3713
216-4-35
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3712
216-4-34
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3711
216-4-33
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3710
216-4-32
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
3709
216-4-31
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3708
216-4-30
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3707
216-4-29
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3706
216-4-28
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3705
216-4-27
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3704
216-4-26
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3703
216-4-25
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3702
216-4-24
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3701
216-4-23
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3700
216-4-22
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3699
216-4-21
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3698
216-4-20
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3697
216-4-19
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3696
216-4-18
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3695
216-4-17
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3694
216-4-16
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3693
216-4-15
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3692
216-4-14
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3691
216-4-13
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3690
216-4-12
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3689
216-4-11
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3688
216-4-10
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3687
216-4-9
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3686
216-4-8
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3685
216-4-7
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3684
216-4-6
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3683
216-4-5
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3682
216-4-4
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3681
216-4-3
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3680
216-4-2
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3679
216-4-1
2
216
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3678
217-4-54
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3677
217-4-53
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3676
217-4-52
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3675
217-4-51
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3674
217-4-50
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3673
217-4-49
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3672
217-4-48
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3671
217-4-47
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3670
217-4-46
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3669
217-4-45
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3668
217-4-44
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3667
217-4-43
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3666
217-4-42
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3665
217-4-41
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3664
217-4-40
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3663
217-4-39
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3662
217-4-38
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3661
217-4-37
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3660
217-4-36
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3659
217-4-35
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3658
217-4-34
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3657
217-4-33
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3656
217-4-32
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3655
217-4-31
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3654
217-4-30
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3653
217-4-29
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3652
217-4-28
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3651
217-4-27
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3650
217-4-26
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3649
217-4-25
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3648
217-4-24
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3647
217-4-23
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3646
217-4-22
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3645
217-4-21
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3644
217-4-20
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3643
217-4-19
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3642
217-4-18
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3641
217-4-17
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3640
217-4-16
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3639
217-4-15
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3638
217-4-14
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3637
217-4-13
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3636
217-4-12
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3635
217-4-11
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3634
217-4-10
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3633
217-4-9
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3632
217-4-8
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3631
217-4-7
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3630
217-4-6
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3629
217-4-5
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3628
217-4-4
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3627
217-4-3
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3626
217-4-2
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3625
217-4-1
2
217
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3402
102-4-52
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3401
102-4-51
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3400
102-4-50
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3399
102-4-49
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3398
102-4-48
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3397
102-4-47
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3396
102-4-46
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3395
102-4-45
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3394
102-4-44
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3393
102-4-43
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3392
102-4-42
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3391
102-4-41
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3390
102-4-40
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3389
102-4-39
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3388
102-4-38
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3387
102-4-37
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3386
102-4-36
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3385
102-4-35
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3384
102-4-34
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3383
102-4-33
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3382
102-4-32
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3381
102-4-31
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3380
102-4-30
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3379
102-4-29
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3378
102-4-28
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3377
102-4-27
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3376
102-4-26
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3375
102-4-25
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3374
102-4-24
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3373
102-4-23
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3372
102-4-22
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3371
102-4-21
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3370
102-4-20
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3369
102-4-19
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3368
102-4-18
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3367
102-4-17
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3366
102-4-16
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3365
102-4-15
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3364
102-4-14
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3363
102-4-13
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3362
102-4-12
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3361
102-4-11
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3360
102-4-10
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3359
102-4-9
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3358
102-4-8
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3357
102-4-7
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3356
102-4-6
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3355
102-4-5
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3354
102-4-4
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3353
102-4-3
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3352
102-4-2
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3351
102-4-1
1
102
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3350
101-4-60
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3349
101-4-59
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3348
101-4-58
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3347
101-4-57
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
3346
101-4-56
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3345
101-4-55
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3344
101-4-54
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3343
101-4-53
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3342
101-4-52
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3341
101-4-51
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3340
101-4-50
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3339
101-4-49
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3338
101-4-48
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3337
101-4-47
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3336
101-4-46
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3335
101-4-45
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3334
101-4-44
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3333
101-4-43
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3332
101-4-42
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3331
101-4-41
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3330
101-4-40
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3329
101-4-39
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3328
101-4-38
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
3327
101-4-37
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3326
101-4-36
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3325
101-4-35
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3324
101-4-34
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3323
101-4-33
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3322
101-4-32
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
3321
101-4-31
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3320
101-4-30
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3319
101-4-29
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3318
101-4-28
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3317
101-4-27
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3316
101-4-26
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3315
101-4-25
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3314
101-4-24
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3313
101-4-23
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3312
101-4-22
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3311
101-4-21
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3310
101-4-20
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3309
101-4-19
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3308
101-4-18
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3307
101-4-17
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3306
101-4-16
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3305
101-4-15
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3304
101-4-14
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3303
101-4-13
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3302
101-4-12
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3301
101-4-11
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3300
101-4-10
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3299
101-4-9
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3298
101-4-8
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3297
101-4-7
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3296
101-4-6
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3295
101-4-5
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3294
101-4-4
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3293
101-4-3
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3292
101-4-2
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3291
101-4-1
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3290
101-4-60
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3289
101-4-59
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3288
101-4-58
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3287
101-4-57
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
3286
101-4-56
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3285
101-4-55
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3284
101-4-54
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3283
101-4-53
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3282
101-4-52
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3281
101-4-51
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3280
101-4-50
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3279
101-4-49
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3278
101-4-48
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3277
101-4-47
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3276
101-4-46
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3275
101-4-45
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3274
101-4-44
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3273
101-4-43
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3272
101-4-42
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3271
101-4-41
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3270
101-4-40
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3269
101-4-39
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3268
101-4-38
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
3267
101-4-37
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3266
101-4-36
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3265
101-4-35
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3264
101-4-34
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3263
101-4-33
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3262
101-4-32
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
3261
101-4-31
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3260
101-4-30
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3259
101-4-29
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3258
101-4-28
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3257
101-4-27
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3256
101-4-26
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3255
101-4-25
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3254
101-4-24
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3253
101-4-23
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3252
101-4-22
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3251
101-4-21
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3250
101-4-20
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3249
101-4-19
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3248
101-4-18
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3247
101-4-17
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3246
101-4-16
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3245
101-4-15
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3244
101-4-14
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3243
101-4-13
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3242
101-4-12
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3241
101-4-11
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3240
101-4-10
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3239
101-4-9
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3238
101-4-8
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3237
101-4-7
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3236
101-4-6
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3235
101-4-5
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3234
101-4-4
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3233
101-4-3
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3232
101-4-2
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3231
101-4-1
1
101
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3230
206-4-54
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3229
206-4-53
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3228
206-4-52
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3227
206-4-51
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3226
206-4-50
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3225
206-4-49
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3224
206-4-48
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3223
206-4-47
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3222
206-4-46
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3221
206-4-45
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3220
206-4-44
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3219
206-4-43
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3218
206-4-42
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3217
206-4-41
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3216
206-4-40
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3215
206-4-39
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3214
206-4-38
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3213
206-4-37
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3212
206-4-36
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3211
206-4-35
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3210
206-4-34
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3209
206-4-33
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3208
206-4-32
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3207
206-4-31
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3206
206-4-30
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3205
206-4-29
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3204
206-4-28
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3203
206-4-27
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3202
206-4-26
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3201
206-4-25
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3200
206-4-24
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3199
206-4-23
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3198
206-4-22
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3197
206-4-21
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3196
206-4-20
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3195
206-4-19
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3194
206-4-18
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3193
206-4-17
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3192
206-4-16
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3191
206-4-15
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3190
206-4-14
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3189
206-4-13
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3188
206-4-12
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3187
206-4-11
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3186
206-4-10
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3185
206-4-9
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3184
206-4-8
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3183
206-4-7
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3182
206-4-6
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3181
206-4-5
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3180
206-4-4
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3179
206-4-3
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3178
206-4-2
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3177
206-4-1
2
206
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3176
204-4-51
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3175
204-4-50
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3174
204-4-49
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3173
204-4-48
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3172
204-4-47
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3171
204-4-46
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3170
204-4-45
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3169
204-4-44
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3168
204-4-43
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3167
204-4-42
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3166
204-4-41
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3165
204-4-40
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3164
204-4-39
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3163
204-4-38
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3162
204-4-37
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3161
204-4-36
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3160
204-4-35
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3159
204-4-34
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3158
204-4-33
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3157
204-4-32
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3156
204-4-31
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3155
204-4-30
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3154
204-4-29
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3153
204-4-28
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3152
204-4-27
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3151
204-4-26
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3150
204-4-25
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3149
204-4-24
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3148
204-4-23
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3147
204-4-22
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3146
204-4-21
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3145
204-4-20
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3144
204-4-19
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3143
204-4-18
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3142
204-4-17
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3141
204-4-16
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3140
204-4-15
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3139
204-4-14
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3138
204-4-13
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3137
204-4-12
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3136
204-4-11
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3135
204-4-10
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3134
204-4-9
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3133
204-4-8
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3132
204-4-7
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3131
204-4-6
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3130
204-4-5
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3129
204-4-4
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
4
View
Edit
Delete
3128
204-4-3
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3127
204-4-2
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
3126
204-4-1
2
204
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3125
205-4-38
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3124
205-4-37
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3123
205-4-36
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
5
View
Edit
Delete
3122
205-4-35
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3121
205-4-34
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3120
205-4-33
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
1
View
Edit
Delete
3119
205-4-32
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3118
205-4-31
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
View
Edit
Delete
3117
205-4-30
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
2
View
Edit
Delete
3116
205-4-29
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
4
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3115
205-4-28
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
1
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3114
205-4-27
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
4
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3113
205-4-26
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
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3112
205-4-25
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
1
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3111
205-4-24
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
4
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3110
205-4-23
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
2
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3109
205-4-22
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
1
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3108
205-4-21
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
1
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3107
205-4-20
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
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3106
205-4-19
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
4
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3105
205-4-18
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
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3104
205-4-17
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
1
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3103
205-4-16
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
2
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3102
205-4-15
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
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3101
205-4-14
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
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3100
205-4-13
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
1
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3099
205-4-12
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
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3098
205-4-11
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
1
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3097
205-4-10
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
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3096
205-4-9
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
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3095
205-4-8
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
1
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3094
205-4-7
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
2
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3093
205-4-6
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
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3092
205-4-5
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
1
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3091
205-4-4
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
1
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3090
205-4-3
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
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3089
205-4-2
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
4
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3088
205-4-1
2
205
N/A
1, 2...
3
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3011
109-2-25
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
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3010
109-2-24
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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3009
109-2-23
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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3008
109-2-22
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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3007
109-2-21
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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3006
109-2-20
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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3005
109-2-19
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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3004
109-2-18
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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3003
109-2-17
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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3002
109-2-16
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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3001
109-2-15
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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3000
109-2-14
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2999
109-2-13
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2998
109-2-12
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2997
109-2-11
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2996
109-2-10
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2995
109-2-9
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2994
109-2-8
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2993
109-2-7
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2992
109-2-6
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2991
109-2-5
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2990
109-2-4
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2989
109-2-3
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2988
109-2-2
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2987
109-2-1
1
109
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2986
211-2-59
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2985
211-2-58
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2984
211-2-57
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2983
211-2-56
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2982
211-2-55
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2981
211-2-54
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2980
211-2-53
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2979
211-2-52
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2978
211-2-51
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2977
211-2-50
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2976
211-2-49
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2975
211-2-48
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2974
211-2-47
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2973
211-2-46
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2972
211-2-45
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2971
211-2-44
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2970
211-2-43
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2969
211-2-42
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2968
211-2-41
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2967
211-2-40
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2966
211-2-39
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2965
211-2-38
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2964
211-2-37
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2963
211-2-36
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2962
211-2-35
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2961
211-2-34
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
2960
211-2-33
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2959
211-2-32
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2958
211-2-31
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2957
211-2-30
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2956
211-2-29
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2955
211-2-28
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2954
211-2-27
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2953
211-2-26
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2952
211-2-25
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2951
211-2-24
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2950
211-2-23
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2949
211-2-22
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2948
523-2-26
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2947
523-2-25
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2946
523-2-24
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2945
523-2-23
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2944
523-2-22
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2943
523-2-21
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2942
523-2-20
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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Delete
2941
523-2-19
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2940
523-2-18
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2939
523-2-17
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
2938
523-2-16
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2937
523-2-15
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2936
523-2-14
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2935
523-2-13
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2934
523-2-12
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2933
523-2-11
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2932
523-2-10
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2931
523-2-9
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
2930
523-2-8
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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Delete
2929
523-2-7
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2928
523-2-6
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2927
523-2-5
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2926
523-2-4
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2925
523-2-3
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2924
523-2-2
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2923
523-2-1
5
523
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2922
208-2-16
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2921
208-2-15
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2920
208-2-14
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2919
208-2-13
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2918
208-2-12
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2917
208-2-11
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2916
208-2-10
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2915
208-2-9
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2914
208-2-8
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2913
208-2-7
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2912
208-2-6
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2911
208-2-5
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2910
208-2-4
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2909
208-2-3
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2908
208-2-2
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2907
208-2-1
2
208
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2906
207-2-35
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2905
207-2-34
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2904
207-2-33
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2903
207-2-32
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2902
207-2-31
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2901
207-2-30
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2900
207-2-29
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2899
207-2-28
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2898
207-2-27
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2897
207-2-26
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2896
207-2-25
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2895
207-2-24
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2894
207-2-23
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2893
207-2-22
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2892
207-2-21
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2891
207-2-20
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2890
207-2-19
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2889
207-2-18
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2888
207-2-17
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2887
207-2-16
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2886
207-2-15
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2885
207-2-14
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2884
207-2-13
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2883
207-2-12
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2882
207-2-11
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2881
207-2-10
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2880
207-2-9
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2879
207-2-8
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2878
207-2-7
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2877
207-2-6
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2876
207-2-5
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2875
207-2-4
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2874
207-2-3
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2873
207-2-2
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2872
207-2-1
2
207
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2871
107-2-27
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2870
107-2-26
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2869
107-2-25
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2868
107-2-24
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2867
107-2-23
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2866
107-2-22
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2865
107-2-21
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2864
107-2-20
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2863
107-2-19
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
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2862
107-2-18
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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Edit
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2861
107-2-17
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
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2860
107-2-16
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
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2859
107-2-15
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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Edit
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2858
107-2-14
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
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2857
107-2-13
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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Edit
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2856
107-2-12
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
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2855
107-2-11
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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Edit
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2854
107-2-10
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
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2853
107-2-9
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2852
107-2-8
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2851
107-2-7
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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Edit
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2850
107-2-6
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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Edit
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2849
107-2-5
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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Edit
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2848
107-2-4
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2847
107-2-3
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2846
107-2-2
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2845
107-2-1
1
107
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2844
106-2-33
1
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106-2-32
1
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1
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2842
106-2-31
1
106
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1
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2841
106-2-30
1
106
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2840
106-2-29
1
106
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2839
106-2-28
1
106
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2838
106-2-27
1
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2837
106-2-26
1
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2836
106-2-25
1
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1
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2835
106-2-24
1
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2834
106-2-23
1
106
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2833
106-2-22
1
106
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2832
106-2-21
1
106
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1
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2831
106-2-20
1
106
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2
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2830
106-2-19
1
106
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2829
106-2-18
1
106
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1
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2828
106-2-17
1
106
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2827
106-2-16
1
106
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2826
106-2-15
1
106
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1
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2825
106-2-14
1
106
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2
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2824
106-2-13
1
106
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2823
106-2-12
1
106
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2822
106-2-11
1
106
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2821
106-2-10
1
106
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1
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2820
106-2-9
1
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4
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2819
106-2-8
1
106
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2818
106-2-7
1
106
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3
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2817
106-2-6
1
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2816
106-2-5
1
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3
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2815
106-2-4
1
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2814
106-2-3
1
106
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1
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2813
106-2-2
1
106
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2812
106-2-1
1
106
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2811
515-2-65
5
515
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3
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2810
515-2-64
5
515
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1
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2809
515-2-63
5
515
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1
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2808
515-2-62
5
515
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2807
515-2-61
5
515
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2806
129-2-37
1
129
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2805
129-2-36
1
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2804
129-2-35
1
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2803
129-2-34
1
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2802
129-2-33
1
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2801
129-2-32
1
129
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1
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2800
129-2-31
1
129
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4
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2799
129-2-30
1
129
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2
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2798
129-2-29
1
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1
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2797
129-2-28
1
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2796
129-2-27
1
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2
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2795
129-2-26
1
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1
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2794
129-2-25
1
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2
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2793
129-2-24
1
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2792
129-2-23
1
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3
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2791
129-2-22
1
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1
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2790
129-2-21
1
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3
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2789
129-2-20
1
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4
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2788
129-2-19
1
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3
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2787
129-2-18
1
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1
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2786
129-2-17
1
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4
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2785
129-2-16
1
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3
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2784
129-2-15
1
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1
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2783
129-2-14
1
129
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1
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2782
129-2-13
1
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1
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2781
129-2-12
1
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3
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2780
129-2-11
1
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1
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2779
129-2-10
1
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1
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2778
129-2-9
1
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4
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2777
129-2-8
1
129
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1
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2776
129-2-7
1
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4
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2775
129-2-6
1
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4
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2774
129-2-5
1
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4
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2773
129-2-4
1
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2772
129-2-3
1
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3
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2771
129-2-2
1
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2
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2770
129-2-1
1
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4
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2769
128-2-7
1
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2
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2768
128-2-6
1
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4
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2767
128-2-5
1
128
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1
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2766
128-2-4
1
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1
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2765
128-2-3
1
128
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2
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2764
128-2-2
1
128
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4
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2763
128-2-1
1
128
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4
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2762
127-2-18
1
127
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4
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2761
127-2-17
1
127
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2
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2760
127-2-16
1
127
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3
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2759
127-2-15
1
127
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2
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2758
127-2-14
1
127
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2
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2757
127-2-13
1
127
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3
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2756
127-2-12
1
127
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2
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2755
127-2-11
1
127
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4
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2754
127-2-10
1
127
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2
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2753
127-2-9
1
127
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3
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2752
127-2-8
1
127
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1
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2751
127-2-7
1
127
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4
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2750
127-2-6
1
127
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1
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2749
127-2-5
1
127
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1
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2748
127-2-4
1
127
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3
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2747
127-2-3
1
127
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3
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2746
127-2-2
1
127
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1
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2745
127-2-1
1
127
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3
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2744
126-2-25
1
126
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3
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2743
126-2-24
1
126
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4
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2742
126-2-23
1
126
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4
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2741
126-2-22
1
126
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1
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2740
126-2-21
1
126
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1
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2739
126-2-20
1
126
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2
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2738
126-2-19
1
126
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1
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2737
126-2-18
1
126
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1
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2736
126-2-17
1
126
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1
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2735
126-2-16
1
126
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4
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2734
126-2-15
1
126
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3
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2733
126-2-14
1
126
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1
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2732
126-2-13
1
126
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3
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2731
126-2-12
1
126
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3
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2730
126-2-11
1
126
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1, 2...
1
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2729
126-2-10
1
126
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1, 2...
1
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2728
126-2-9
1
126
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3
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2727
126-2-8
1
126
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2
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2726
126-2-7
1
126
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3
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2725
126-2-6
1
126
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3
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2724
126-2-5
1
126
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1
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2723
126-2-4
1
126
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1
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2722
126-2-3
1
126
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2
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2721
126-2-2
1
126
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4
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2720
126-2-1
1
126
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2
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2719
125-2-20
1
125
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3
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2718
125-2-19
1
125
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3
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2717
125-2-18
1
125
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4
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2716
125-2-17
1
125
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2
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2715
125-2-16
1
125
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2
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2714
125-2-15
1
125
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3
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2713
125-2-14
1
125
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2
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2712
125-2-13
1
125
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2
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2711
125-2-12
1
125
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2
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2710
125-2-11
1
125
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3
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2709
125-2-10
1
125
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3
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2708
125-2-9
1
125
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1, 2...
1
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2707
125-2-8
1
125
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2
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2706
125-2-7
1
125
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2
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2705
125-2-6
1
125
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3
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2704
125-2-5
1
125
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3
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2703
125-2-4
1
125
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3
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2702
125-2-3
1
125
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2701
125-2-2
1
125
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1, 2...
1
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2700
125-2-1
1
125
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4
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2699
124-2-41
1
124
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2
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2698
124-2-40
1
124
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4
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2697
124-2-39
1
124
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3
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2696
124-2-38
1
124
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2
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2695
124-2-37
1
124
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3
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2694
124-2-36
1
124
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1
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2693
124-2-35
1
124
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4
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2692
124-2-34
1
124
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4
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2691
124-2-33
1
124
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1, 2...
1
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2690
124-2-32
1
124
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4
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2689
124-2-31
1
124
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3
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2688
124-2-30
1
124
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2
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2687
124-2-29
1
124
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2
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2686
124-2-28
1
124
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1, 2...
1
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2685
124-2-27
1
124
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3
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2684
124-2-26
1
124
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4
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2683
124-2-25
1
124
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3
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2682
124-2-24
1
124
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1, 2...
1
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2681
124-2-23
1
124
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4
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2680
124-2-22
1
124
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4
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2679
124-2-21
1
124
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2
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2678
124-2-20
1
124
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1, 2...
1
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2677
124-2-19
1
124
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2
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2676
124-2-18
1
124
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2
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2675
124-2-17
1
124
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4
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2674
124-2-16
1
124
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3
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2673
124-2-15
1
124
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2
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2672
124-2-14
1
124
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4
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2671
124-2-13
1
124
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3
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2670
124-2-12
1
124
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4
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2669
124-2-11
1
124
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3
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2668
124-2-10
1
124
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3
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2667
124-2-9
1
124
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4
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2666
124-2-8
1
124
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4
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2665
124-2-7
1
124
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3
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2664
124-2-6
1
124
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1, 2...
1
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2663
124-2-5
1
124
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1
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2662
124-2-4
1
124
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4
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2661
124-2-3
1
124
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1, 2...
1
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2660
124-2-2
1
124
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4
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2659
124-2-1
1
124
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1
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2658
123-2-21
1
123
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3
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2657
123-2-20
1
123
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2
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2656
123-2-19
1
123
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2
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2655
123-2-18
1
123
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1, 2...
1
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2654
123-2-17
1
123
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3
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2653
123-2-16
1
123
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2
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2652
123-2-15
1
123
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2
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2651
123-2-14
1
123
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3
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2650
123-2-13
1
123
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2
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2649
123-2-12
1
123
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2648
123-2-11
1
123
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2647
123-2-10
1
123
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4
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2646
123-2-9
1
123
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2
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2645
123-2-8
1
123
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4
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2644
123-2-7
1
123
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1
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2643
123-2-6
1
123
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1
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2642
123-2-5
1
123
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1
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2641
123-2-4
1
123
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1
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2640
123-2-3
1
123
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2639
123-2-2
1
123
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2
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2638
123-2-1
1
123
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2637
230-2-12
2
230
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2636
230-2-11
2
230
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2635
230-2-10
2
230
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2634
230-2-9
2
230
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2633
230-2-8
2
230
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2632
230-2-7
2
230
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2631
230-2-6
2
230
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2630
230-2-5
2
230
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2629
230-2-4
2
230
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2628
230-2-3
2
230
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2627
230-2-2
2
230
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2626
230-2-1
2
230
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2625
229-2-13
2
229
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4
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2624
229-2-12
2
229
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2623
229-2-11
2
229
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2622
229-2-10
2
229
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2621
229-2-9
2
229
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2620
229-2-8
2
229
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2619
229-2-7
2
229
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4
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2618
229-2-6
2
229
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3
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2617
229-2-5
2
229
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2
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2616
229-2-4
2
229
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2615
229-2-3
2
229
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2614
229-2-2
2
229
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2613
229-2-1
2
229
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3
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2612
224-2-23
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2611
224-2-22
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2610
224-2-21
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2609
224-2-20
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2608
224-2-19
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2607
224-2-18
2
224
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3
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2606
224-2-17
2
224
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3
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2605
224-2-16
2
224
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4
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2604
224-2-15
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2603
224-2-14
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2602
224-2-13
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2601
224-2-12
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2600
224-2-11
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2599
224-2-10
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2598
224-2-9
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2597
224-2-8
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2596
224-2-7
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2595
224-2-6
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2594
224-2-5
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2593
224-2-4
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2592
224-2-3
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2591
224-2-2
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2590
224-2-1
2
224
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2589
223-2-29
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2588
223-2-28
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2587
223-2-27
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2586
223-2-26
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2585
223-2-25
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2584
223-2-24
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2583
223-2-23
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2582
223-2-22
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2581
223-2-21
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2580
223-2-20
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2579
223-2-19
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2578
223-2-18
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2577
223-2-17
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2576
223-2-16
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2575
223-2-15
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2574
223-2-14
2
223
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4
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2573
223-2-13
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2572
223-2-12
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2571
223-2-11
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2570
223-2-10
2
223
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3
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2569
223-2-9
2
223
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4
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2568
223-2-8
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2567
223-2-7
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2566
223-2-6
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2565
223-2-5
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2564
223-2-4
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2563
223-2-3
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2562
223-2-2
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2561
223-2-1
2
223
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2560
222-2-32
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2559
222-2-31
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2558
222-2-30
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2557
222-2-29
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2556
222-2-28
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2555
222-2-27
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2554
222-2-26
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2553
222-2-25
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2552
222-2-24
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2551
222-2-23
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2550
222-2-22
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2549
222-2-21
2
222
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3
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2548
222-2-20
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2547
222-2-19
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2546
222-2-18
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2545
222-2-17
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2544
222-2-16
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2543
222-2-15
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2542
222-2-14
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2541
222-2-13
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2540
222-2-12
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2539
222-2-11
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2538
222-2-10
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2537
222-2-9
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2536
222-2-8
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2535
222-2-7
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2534
222-2-6
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2533
222-2-5
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2532
222-2-4
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2531
222-2-3
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2530
222-2-2
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2529
222-2-1
2
222
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2528
221-2-38
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2527
221-2-37
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2526
221-2-36
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2525
221-2-35
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2524
221-2-34
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2523
221-2-33
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2522
221-2-32
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2521
221-2-31
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2520
221-2-30
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2519
221-2-29
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2518
221-2-28
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2517
221-2-27
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2516
221-2-26
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2515
221-2-25
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2514
221-2-24
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2513
221-2-23
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2512
221-2-22
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2511
221-2-21
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2510
221-2-20
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2509
221-2-19
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2508
221-2-18
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2507
221-2-17
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2506
221-2-16
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2505
221-2-15
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2504
221-2-14
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2503
221-2-13
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2502
221-2-12
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2501
221-2-11
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2500
221-2-10
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2499
221-2-9
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2498
221-2-8
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2497
221-2-7
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2496
221-2-6
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2495
221-2-5
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2494
221-2-4
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2493
221-2-3
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2492
221-2-2
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2491
221-2-1
2
221
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2456
220-2-14
2
220
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2455
220-2-13
2
220
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2454
220-2-12
2
220
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2453
220-2-11
2
220
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2452
220-2-10
2
220
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2451
220-2-9
2
220
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2450
220-2-8
2
220
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2449
220-2-7
2
220
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2448
220-2-6
2
220
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2447
220-2-5
2
220
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2446
220-2-4
2
220
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2445
220-2-3
2
220
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2444
220-2-2
2
220
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2443
220-2-1
2
220
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2442
219-2-20
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2441
219-2-19
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2440
219-2-18
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2439
219-2-17
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2438
219-2-16
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2437
219-2-15
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2436
219-2-14
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2435
219-2-13
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2434
219-2-12
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2433
219-2-11
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2432
219-2-10
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2431
219-2-9
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2430
219-2-8
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2429
219-2-7
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2428
219-2-6
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2427
219-2-5
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2426
219-2-4
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2425
219-2-3
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2424
219-2-2
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2423
219-2-1
2
219
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2422
218-2-30
2
218
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2421
218-2-29
2
218
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2420
218-2-28
2
218
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2419
218-2-27
2
218
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2418
218-2-26
2
218
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2417
218-2-25
2
218
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3
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2416
218-2-24
2
218
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2
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2415
218-2-23
2
218
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2414
218-2-22
2
218
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2413
218-2-21
2
218
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2412
218-2-20
2
218
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2
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2411
218-2-19
2
218
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2410
218-2-18
2
218
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2409
218-2-17
2
218
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2408
218-2-16
2
218
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2407
218-2-15
2
218
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2406
218-2-14
2
218
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3
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2405
218-2-13
2
218
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2404
218-2-12
2
218
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3
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2403
218-2-11
2
218
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2402
218-2-10
2
218
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2401
218-2-9
2
218
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2400
218-2-8
2
218
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2399
218-2-7
2
218
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2398
218-2-6
2
218
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3
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2397
218-2-5
2
218
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2396
218-2-4
2
218
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3
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2395
218-2-3
2
218
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2394
218-2-2
2
218
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4
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2393
218-2-1
2
218
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2392
217-2-28
2
217
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2391
217-2-27
2
217
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2390
217-2-26
2
217
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2389
217-2-25
2
217
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2388
217-2-24
2
217
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3
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2387
217-2-23
2
217
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2386
217-2-22
2
217
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2
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2385
217-2-21
2
217
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2384
217-2-20
2
217
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3
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2383
217-2-19
2
217
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2382
217-2-18
2
217
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2381
217-2-17
2
217
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2380
217-2-16
2
217
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2379
217-2-15
2
217
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2378
217-2-14
2
217
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2377
217-2-13
2
217
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4
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2376
217-2-12
2
217
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1
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2375
217-2-11
2
217
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2374
217-2-10
2
217
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2
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2373
217-2-9
2
217
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3
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2372
217-2-8
2
217
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3
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2371
217-2-7
2
217
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2370
217-2-6
2
217
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4
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2369
217-2-5
2
217
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2368
217-2-4
2
217
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1
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2367
217-2-3
2
217
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4
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2366
217-2-2
2
217
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4
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2365
217-2-1
2
217
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2
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2364
216-2-21
2
216
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3
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2363
216-2-20
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2362
216-2-19
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2361
216-2-18
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2360
216-2-17
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2359
216-2-16
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2358
216-2-15
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2357
216-2-14
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2356
216-2-13
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2355
216-2-12
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2354
216-2-11
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2353
216-2-10
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2352
216-2-9
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2351
216-2-8
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2350
216-2-7
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2349
216-2-6
2
216
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3
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2348
216-2-5
2
216
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1
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2347
216-2-4
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2346
216-2-3
2
216
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3
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2345
216-2-2
2
216
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1
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2344
216-2-1
2
216
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2343
215-2-21
2
215
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3
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2342
215-2-20
2
215
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1
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2341
215-2-19
2
215
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3
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2340
215-2-18
2
215
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4
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2339
215-2-17
2
215
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3
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2338
215-2-16
2
215
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2337
215-2-15
2
215
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2336
215-2-14
2
215
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2335
215-2-13
2
215
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2334
215-2-12
2
215
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2333
215-2-11
2
215
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2332
215-2-10
2
215
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2331
215-2-9
2
215
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2330
215-2-8
2
215
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2329
215-2-7
2
215
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2328
215-2-6
2
215
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2327
215-2-5
2
215
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2326
215-2-4
2
215
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4
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2325
215-2-3
2
215
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4
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2324
215-2-2
2
215
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2323
215-2-1
2
215
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2322
214-2-11
2
214
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2321
214-2-10
2
214
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2320
214-2-9
2
214
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2319
214-2-8
2
214
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2318
214-2-7
2
214
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2317
214-2-6
2
214
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2316
214-2-5
2
214
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2315
214-2-4
2
214
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2314
214-2-3
2
214
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3
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2313
214-2-2
2
214
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1
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2312
214-2-1
2
214
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2311
213-2-30
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2310
213-2-29
2
213
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3
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2309
213-2-28
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2308
213-2-27
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2307
213-2-26
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2306
213-2-25
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2305
213-2-24
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2304
213-2-23
2
213
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4
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2303
213-2-22
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2302
213-2-21
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2301
213-2-20
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2300
213-2-19
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2299
213-2-18
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2298
213-2-17
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2297
213-2-16
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2296
213-2-15
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2295
213-2-14
2
213
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4
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2294
213-2-13
2
213
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3
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2293
213-2-12
2
213
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2
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2292
213-2-11
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2291
213-2-10
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2290
213-2-9
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2289
213-2-8
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2288
213-2-7
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2287
213-2-6
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2286
213-2-5
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2285
213-2-4
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2284
213-2-3
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2283
213-2-2
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2282
213-2-1
2
213
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2281
212-2-29
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2280
212-2-28
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2279
212-2-27
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2278
212-2-26
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2277
212-2-25
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2276
212-2-24
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2275
212-2-23
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2274
212-2-22
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2273
212-2-21
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2272
212-2-20
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2271
212-2-19
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2270
212-2-18
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2269
212-2-17
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2268
212-2-16
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2267
212-2-15
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2266
212-2-14
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2265
212-2-13
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2264
212-2-12
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2263
212-2-11
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2262
212-2-10
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2261
212-2-9
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2260
212-2-8
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2259
212-2-7
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2258
212-2-6
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2257
212-2-5
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2256
212-2-4
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2255
212-2-3
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2254
212-2-2
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2253
212-2-1
2
212
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2252
211-2-21
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2251
211-2-20
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2250
211-2-19
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2249
211-2-18
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2248
211-2-17
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2247
211-2-16
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2246
211-2-15
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2245
211-2-14
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2244
211-2-13
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2243
211-2-12
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2242
211-2-11
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2241
211-2-10
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2240
211-2-9
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2239
211-2-8
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2238
211-2-7
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2237
211-2-6
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2236
211-2-5
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2235
211-2-4
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2234
211-2-3
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2233
211-2-2
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2232
211-2-1
2
211
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2231
210-2-22
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2230
210-2-21
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2229
210-2-20
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2228
210-2-19
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2227
210-2-18
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2226
210-2-17
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2225
210-2-16
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2224
210-2-15
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2223
210-2-14
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2222
210-2-13
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2221
210-2-12
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2220
210-2-11
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2219
210-2-10
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2218
210-2-9
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2217
210-2-8
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2216
210-2-7
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2215
210-2-6
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2214
210-2-5
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2213
210-2-4
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2212
210-2-3
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2211
210-2-2
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2210
210-2-1
2
210
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2209
209-2-9
2
209
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2208
209-2-8
2
209
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2207
209-2-7
2
209
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2206
209-2-6
2
209
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2205
209-2-5
2
209
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2204
209-2-4
2
209
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2203
209-2-3
2
209
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2202
209-2-2
2
209
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2201
209-2-1
2
209
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2200
228-2-28
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2199
228-2-27
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2198
228-2-26
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2197
228-2-25
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2196
228-2-24
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2195
228-2-23
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2194
228-2-22
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2193
228-2-21
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2192
228-2-20
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2191
228-2-19
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2190
228-2-18
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2189
228-2-17
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2188
228-2-16
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2187
228-2-15
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2186
228-2-14
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2185
228-2-13
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2184
228-2-12
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2183
228-2-11
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2182
228-2-10
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2181
228-2-9
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2180
228-2-8
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2179
228-2-7
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2178
228-2-6
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2177
228-2-5
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2176
228-2-4
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2175
228-2-3
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2174
228-2-2
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2173
228-2-1
2
228
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2172
227-2-22
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2171
227-2-21
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2170
227-2-20
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2169
227-2-19
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2168
227-2-18
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2167
227-2-17
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2166
227-2-16
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2165
227-2-15
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2164
227-2-14
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2163
227-2-13
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2162
227-2-12
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2161
227-2-11
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2160
227-2-10
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2159
227-2-9
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2158
227-2-8
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2157
227-2-7
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2156
227-2-6
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2155
227-2-5
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2154
227-2-4
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2153
227-2-3
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2152
227-2-2
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2151
227-2-1
2
227
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2150
226-2-38
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2149
226-2-37
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2148
226-2-36
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2147
226-2-35
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2146
226-2-34
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2145
226-2-33
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2144
226-2-32
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2143
226-2-31
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2142
226-2-30
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2141
226-2-29
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2140
226-2-28
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2139
226-2-27
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2138
226-2-26
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2137
226-2-25
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2136
226-2-24
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2135
226-2-23
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2134
226-2-22
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2133
226-2-21
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2132
226-2-20
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2131
226-2-19
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2130
226-2-18
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2129
226-2-17
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2128
226-2-16
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2127
226-2-15
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2126
226-2-14
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2125
226-2-13
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2124
226-2-12
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2123
226-2-11
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2122
226-2-10
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2121
226-2-9
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2120
226-2-8
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2119
226-2-7
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2118
226-2-6
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2117
226-2-5
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2116
226-2-4
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2115
226-2-3
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2114
226-2-2
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2113
226-2-1
2
226
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2112
225-2-34
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2111
225-2-33
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2110
225-2-32
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2109
225-2-31
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2108
225-2-30
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2107
225-2-29
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2106
225-2-28
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2105
225-2-27
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2104
225-2-26
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2103
225-2-25
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2102
225-2-24
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2101
225-2-23
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2100
225-2-22
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2099
225-2-21
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2098
225-2-20
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2097
225-2-19
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2096
225-2-18
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2095
225-2-17
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2094
225-2-16
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2093
225-2-15
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2092
225-2-14
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2091
225-2-13
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2090
225-2-12
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2089
225-2-11
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2088
225-2-10
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2087
225-2-9
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2086
225-2-8
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2085
225-2-7
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2084
225-2-6
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2083
225-2-5
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2082
225-2-4
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2081
225-2-3
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2080
225-2-2
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2079
225-2-1
2
225
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2078
616-2-36
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2077
616-2-35
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2076
616-2-34
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2075
616-2-33
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2074
616-2-32
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2073
616-2-31
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2072
616-2-30
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2071
616-2-29
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2070
616-2-28
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2069
616-2-27
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2068
616-2-26
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2067
616-2-25
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2066
616-2-24
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2065
616-2-23
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2064
616-2-22
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2063
616-2-21
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2062
616-2-20
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2061
616-2-19
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2060
616-2-18
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2059
616-2-17
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2058
616-2-16
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2057
616-2-15
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2056
616-2-14
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2055
616-2-13
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2054
616-2-12
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2053
616-2-11
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2052
616-2-10
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2051
616-2-9
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2050
616-2-8
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2049
616-2-7
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2048
616-2-6
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2047
616-2-5
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2046
616-2-4
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2045
616-2-3
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2044
616-2-2
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2043
616-2-1
6
616
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2042
615-2-62
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2041
615-2-61
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2040
615-2-60
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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2039
615-2-59
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2038
615-2-58
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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2037
615-2-57
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2036
615-2-56
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2035
615-2-55
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2034
615-2-54
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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2033
615-2-53
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2032
615-2-52
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2031
615-2-51
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2030
615-2-50
6
615
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4
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2029
615-2-49
6
615
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3
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2028
615-2-48
6
615
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4
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2027
615-2-47
6
615
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1
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2026
615-2-46
6
615
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1
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2025
615-2-45
6
615
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2
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2024
615-2-44
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2023
615-2-43
6
615
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3
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2022
615-2-42
6
615
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3
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2021
615-2-41
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2020
615-2-40
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2019
615-2-39
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2018
615-2-38
6
615
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2
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2017
615-2-37
6
615
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2
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2016
615-2-36
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2015
615-2-35
6
615
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4
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2014
615-2-34
6
615
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3
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2013
615-2-33
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2012
615-2-32
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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2011
615-2-31
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2010
615-2-30
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2009
615-2-29
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2008
615-2-28
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2007
615-2-27
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2006
615-2-26
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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2005
615-2-25
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2004
615-2-24
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2003
615-2-23
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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2002
615-2-22
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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2001
615-2-21
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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2000
615-2-20
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1999
615-2-19
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1998
615-2-18
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1997
615-2-17
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1996
615-2-16
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1995
615-2-15
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1994
615-2-14
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1993
615-2-13
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1992
615-2-12
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1991
615-2-11
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1990
615-2-10
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1989
615-2-9
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1988
615-2-8
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1987
615-2-7
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1986
615-2-6
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1985
615-2-5
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1984
615-2-4
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1983
615-2-3
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1982
615-2-2
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1981
615-2-1
6
615
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1980
614-2-35
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1979
614-2-34
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1978
614-2-33
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1977
614-2-32
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1976
614-2-31
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1975
614-2-30
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1974
614-2-29
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1973
614-2-28
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1972
614-2-27
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1971
614-2-26
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1970
614-2-25
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1969
614-2-24
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1968
614-2-23
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1967
614-2-22
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1966
614-2-21
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1965
614-2-20
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1964
614-2-19
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1963
614-2-18
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1962
614-2-17
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1961
614-2-16
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1960
614-2-15
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1959
614-2-14
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1958
614-2-13
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1957
614-2-12
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1956
614-2-11
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1955
614-2-10
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1954
614-2-9
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1953
614-2-8
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1952
614-2-7
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1951
614-2-6
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1950
614-2-5
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1949
614-2-4
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1948
614-2-3
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1947
614-2-2
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1946
614-2-1
6
614
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1945
122-2-29
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
1944
122-2-28
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1943
122-2-27
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1942
122-2-26
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1941
122-2-25
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1940
122-2-24
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1939
122-2-23
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1938
122-2-22
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1937
122-2-21
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1936
122-2-20
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1935
122-2-19
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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Delete
1934
122-2-18
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1933
122-2-17
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
1932
122-2-16
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1931
122-2-15
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1930
122-2-14
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1929
122-2-13
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1928
122-2-12
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1927
122-2-11
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1926
122-2-10
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1925
122-2-9
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1924
122-2-8
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1923
122-2-7
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1922
122-2-6
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1921
122-2-5
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1920
122-2-4
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1919
122-2-3
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1918
122-2-2
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1917
122-2-1
1
122
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1916
121-2-18
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1915
121-2-17
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1914
121-2-16
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1913
121-2-15
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1912
121-2-14
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1911
121-2-13
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1910
121-2-12
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1909
121-2-11
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1908
121-2-10
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1907
121-2-9
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1906
121-2-8
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1905
121-2-7
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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Delete
1904
121-2-6
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1903
121-2-5
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1902
121-2-4
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1901
121-2-3
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1900
121-2-2
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1899
121-2-1
1
121
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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Delete
1898
613-2-38
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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Delete
1897
613-2-37
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1896
613-2-36
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1895
613-2-35
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1894
613-2-34
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1893
613-2-33
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1892
613-2-32
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1891
613-2-31
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1890
613-2-30
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1889
613-2-29
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1888
613-2-28
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1887
613-2-27
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1886
613-2-26
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1885
613-2-25
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1884
613-2-24
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1883
613-2-23
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1882
613-2-22
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1881
613-2-21
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1880
613-2-20
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1879
613-2-19
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1878
613-2-18
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1877
613-2-17
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1876
613-2-16
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1875
613-2-15
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1874
613-2-14
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1873
613-2-13
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1872
613-2-12
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1871
613-2-11
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1870
613-2-10
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1869
613-2-9
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1868
613-2-8
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1867
613-2-7
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1866
613-2-6
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1865
613-2-5
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1864
613-2-4
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1863
613-2-3
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1862
613-2-2
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1861
613-2-1
6
613
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1860
120-2-10
1
120
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1859
120-2-9
1
120
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1858
120-2-8
1
120
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1857
120-2-7
1
120
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1856
120-2-6
1
120
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1855
120-2-5
1
120
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1854
120-2-4
1
120
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1853
120-2-3
1
120
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1852
120-2-2
1
120
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1851
120-2-1
1
120
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1850
119-2-33
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1849
119-2-32
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1848
119-2-31
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1847
119-2-30
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1846
119-2-29
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1845
119-2-28
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1844
119-2-27
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1843
119-2-26
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1842
119-2-25
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1841
119-2-24
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1840
119-2-23
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1839
119-2-22
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1838
119-2-21
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1837
119-2-20
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1836
119-2-19
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1835
119-2-18
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1834
119-2-17
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1833
119-2-16
1
119
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1832
119-2-15
1
119
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2
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1831
119-2-14
1
119
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1
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1830
119-2-13
1
119
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1
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1829
119-2-12
1
119
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3
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1828
119-2-11
1
119
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2
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1827
119-2-10
1
119
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4
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1826
119-2-9
1
119
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2
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1825
119-2-8
1
119
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1
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1824
119-2-7
1
119
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4
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1823
119-2-6
1
119
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4
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1822
119-2-5
1
119
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3
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1821
119-2-4
1
119
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3
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1820
119-2-3
1
119
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4
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1819
119-2-2
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1818
119-2-1
1
119
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1817
118-2-45
1
118
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4
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1816
118-2-44
1
118
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3
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1815
118-2-43
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1814
118-2-42
1
118
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4
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1813
118-2-41
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1812
118-2-40
1
118
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3
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1811
118-2-39
1
118
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2
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1810
118-2-38
1
118
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1809
118-2-37
1
118
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3
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1808
118-2-36
1
118
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1
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1807
118-2-35
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1806
118-2-34
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1805
118-2-33
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1804
118-2-32
1
118
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3
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1803
118-2-31
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1802
118-2-30
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1801
118-2-29
1
118
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2
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1800
118-2-28
1
118
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2
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1799
118-2-27
1
118
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2
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1798
118-2-26
1
118
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2
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1797
118-2-25
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1796
118-2-24
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1795
118-2-23
1
118
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2
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1794
118-2-22
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1793
118-2-21
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1792
118-2-20
1
118
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3
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1791
118-2-19
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1790
118-2-18
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1789
118-2-17
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1788
118-2-16
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1787
118-2-15
1
118
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1
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1786
118-2-14
1
118
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3
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1785
118-2-13
1
118
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1
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1784
118-2-12
1
118
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1
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1783
118-2-11
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1782
118-2-10
1
118
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1
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1781
118-2-9
1
118
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3
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1780
118-2-8
1
118
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1
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1779
118-2-7
1
118
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2
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1778
118-2-6
1
118
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2
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1777
118-2-5
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1776
118-2-4
1
118
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1775
118-2-3
1
118
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3
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1774
118-2-2
1
118
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4
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1773
118-2-1
1
118
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3
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1772
612-2-35
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1771
612-2-34
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1770
612-2-33
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1769
612-2-32
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1768
612-2-31
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1767
612-2-30
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1766
612-2-29
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1765
612-2-28
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1764
612-2-27
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1763
612-2-26
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1762
612-2-25
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1761
612-2-24
6
612
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3
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1760
612-2-23
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1759
612-2-22
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1758
612-2-21
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1757
612-2-20
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1756
612-2-19
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1755
612-2-18
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1754
612-2-17
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1753
612-2-16
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1752
612-2-15
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1751
612-2-14
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1750
612-2-13
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1749
612-2-12
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1748
612-2-11
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1747
612-2-10
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1746
612-2-9
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1745
612-2-8
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1744
612-2-7
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1743
612-2-6
6
612
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2
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1742
612-2-5
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1741
612-2-4
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1740
612-2-3
6
612
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3
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1739
612-2-2
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1738
612-2-1
6
612
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1737
611-2-41
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1736
611-2-40
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1735
611-2-39
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1734
611-2-38
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1733
611-2-37
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1732
611-2-36
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1731
611-2-35
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1730
611-2-34
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1729
611-2-33
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1728
611-2-32
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1727
611-2-31
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1726
611-2-30
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1725
611-2-29
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1724
611-2-28
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1723
611-2-27
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1722
611-2-26
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1721
611-2-25
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1720
611-2-24
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1719
611-2-23
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1718
611-2-22
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1717
611-2-21
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1716
611-2-20
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1715
611-2-19
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1714
611-2-18
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1713
611-2-17
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1712
611-2-16
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1711
611-2-15
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1710
611-2-14
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1709
611-2-13
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1708
611-2-12
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1707
611-2-11
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1706
611-2-10
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1705
611-2-9
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1704
611-2-8
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1703
611-2-7
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1702
611-2-6
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1701
611-2-5
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1700
611-2-4
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1699
611-2-3
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1698
611-2-2
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1697
611-2-1
6
611
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1696
610-2-31
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1695
610-2-30
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1694
610-2-29
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1693
610-2-28
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1692
610-2-27
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1691
610-2-26
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1690
610-2-25
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1689
610-2-24
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1688
610-2-23
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1687
610-2-22
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1686
610-2-21
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1685
610-2-20
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1684
610-2-19
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1683
610-2-18
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1682
610-2-17
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1681
610-2-16
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1680
610-2-15
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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Edit
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1679
610-2-14
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1678
610-2-13
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
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1677
610-2-12
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1676
610-2-11
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1675
610-2-10
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1674
610-2-9
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1673
610-2-8
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1672
610-2-7
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1671
610-2-6
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1670
610-2-5
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1669
610-2-4
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1668
610-2-3
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1667
610-2-2
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1666
610-2-1
6
610
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1665
609-2-9
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1664
609-2-8
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1663
609-2-7
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1662
609-2-6
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1661
609-2-5
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1660
609-2-4
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1659
609-2-3
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1658
609-2-2
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1657
609-2-1
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1656
609-2-9
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1655
609-2-8
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1654
609-2-7
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1653
609-2-6
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1652
609-2-5
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1651
609-2-4
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1650
609-2-3
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1649
609-2-2
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1648
609-2-1
6
609
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1647
608-2-25
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1646
608-2-24
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1645
608-2-23
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1644
608-2-22
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1643
608-2-21
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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Edit
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1642
608-2-20
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1641
608-2-19
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1640
608-2-18
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1639
608-2-17
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1638
608-2-16
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1637
608-2-15
6
608
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3
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1636
608-2-14
6
608
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2
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1635
608-2-13
6
608
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3
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1634
608-2-12
6
608
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3
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1633
608-2-11
6
608
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2
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1632
608-2-10
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1631
608-2-9
6
608
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1
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1630
608-2-8
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1629
608-2-7
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1628
608-2-6
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1627
608-2-5
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1626
608-2-4
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1625
608-2-3
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1624
608-2-2
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1623
608-2-1
6
608
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1622
117-2-30
1
117
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1621
117-2-29
1
117
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3
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1620
117-2-28
1
117
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2
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1619
117-2-27
1
117
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1
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1618
117-2-26
1
117
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2
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1617
117-2-25
1
117
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1
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1616
117-2-24
1
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1615
117-2-23
1
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3
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1614
117-2-22
1
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1613
117-2-21
1
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1612
117-2-20
1
117
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1611
117-2-19
1
117
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2
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1610
117-2-18
1
117
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1609
117-2-17
1
117
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1608
117-2-16
1
117
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2
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1607
117-2-15
1
117
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1606
117-2-14
1
117
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1605
117-2-13
1
117
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1604
117-2-12
1
117
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3
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1603
117-2-11
1
117
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4
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1602
117-2-10
1
117
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1601
117-2-9
1
117
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2
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1600
117-2-8
1
117
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1599
117-2-7
1
117
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1598
117-2-6
1
117
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1597
117-2-5
1
117
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3
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1596
117-2-4
1
117
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3
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1595
117-2-3
1
117
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4
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1594
117-2-2
1
117
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2
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1593
117-2-1
1
117
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2
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1592
116-2-21
1
116
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2
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1591
116-2-20
1
116
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2
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1590
116-2-19
1
116
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2
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1589
116-2-18
1
116
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2
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1588
116-2-17
1
116
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1587
116-2-16
1
116
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2
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1586
116-2-15
1
116
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2
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1585
116-2-14
1
116
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1584
116-2-13
1
116
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3
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1583
116-2-12
1
116
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3
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1582
116-2-11
1
116
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1581
116-2-10
1
116
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1580
116-2-9
1
116
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4
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1579
116-2-8
1
116
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2
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1578
116-2-7
1
116
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1
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1577
116-2-6
1
116
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3
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1576
116-2-5
1
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3
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1575
116-2-4
1
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4
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1574
116-2-3
1
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2
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1573
116-2-2
1
116
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1
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1572
116-2-1
1
116
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2
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1571
114-2-15
1
114
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4
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1570
114-2-14
1
114
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2
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1569
114-2-13
1
114
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1568
114-2-12
1
114
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1567
114-2-11
1
114
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1566
114-2-10
1
114
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1
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1565
114-2-9
1
114
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2
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1564
114-2-8
1
114
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3
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1563
114-2-7
1
114
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2
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1562
114-2-6
1
114
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1561
114-2-5
1
114
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2
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1560
114-2-4
1
114
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3
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1559
114-2-3
1
114
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4
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1558
114-2-2
1
114
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3
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1557
114-2-1
1
114
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3
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1556
607-2-22
6
607
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2
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1555
607-2-21
6
607
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1554
607-2-20
6
607
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1553
607-2-19
6
607
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1552
607-2-18
6
607
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2
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1551
607-2-17
6
607
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4
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1550
607-2-16
6
607
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1549
607-2-15
6
607
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1548
607-2-14
6
607
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4
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1547
607-2-13
6
607
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3
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1546
607-2-12
6
607
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4
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1545
607-2-11
6
607
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4
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1544
607-2-10
6
607
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1
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1543
607-2-9
6
607
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1542
607-2-8
6
607
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4
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1541
607-2-7
6
607
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2
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1540
607-2-6
6
607
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2
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1539
607-2-5
6
607
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1
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1538
607-2-4
6
607
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1537
607-2-3
6
607
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1536
607-2-2
6
607
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1535
607-2-1
6
607
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4
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1534
110-2-16
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1533
110-2-15
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1532
110-2-14
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1531
110-2-13
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1530
110-2-12
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1529
110-2-11
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1528
110-2-10
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1527
110-2-9
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1526
110-2-8
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1525
110-2-7
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1524
110-2-6
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1523
110-2-5
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1522
110-2-4
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1521
110-2-3
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1520
110-2-2
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1519
110-2-1
1
110
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1518
111-2-16
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1517
111-2-15
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1516
111-2-14
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1515
111-2-13
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1514
111-2-12
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1513
111-2-11
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1512
111-2-10
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1511
111-2-9
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1510
111-2-8
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1509
111-2-7
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1508
111-2-6
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1507
111-2-5
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1506
111-2-4
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1505
111-2-3
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1504
111-2-2
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1503
111-2-1
1
111
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1502
606-2-25
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1501
606-2-24
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1500
606-2-23
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1499
606-2-22
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1498
606-2-21
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1497
606-2-20
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1496
606-2-19
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1495
606-2-18
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1494
606-2-17
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1493
606-2-16
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1492
606-2-15
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1491
606-2-14
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1490
606-2-13
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1489
606-2-12
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1488
606-2-11
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1487
606-2-10
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1486
606-2-9
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1485
606-2-8
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1484
606-2-7
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1483
606-2-6
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1482
606-2-5
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1481
606-2-4
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1480
606-2-3
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1479
606-2-2
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1478
606-2-1
6
606
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1477
112-2-20
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1476
112-2-19
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1475
112-2-18
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1474
112-2-17
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1473
112-2-16
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1472
112-2-15
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1471
112-2-14
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1470
112-2-13
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1469
112-2-12
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1468
112-2-11
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1467
112-2-10
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1466
112-2-9
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1465
112-2-8
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1464
112-2-7
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1463
112-2-6
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1462
112-2-5
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1461
112-2-4
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1460
112-2-3
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1459
112-2-2
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1458
112-2-1
1
112
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1457
113-2-20
1
113
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1456
113-2-19
1
113
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1455
113-2-18
1
113
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1454
113-2-17
1
113
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1453
113-2-16
1
113
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1452
113-2-15
1
113
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1451
113-2-14
1
113
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1450
113-2-13
1
113
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1449
113-2-12
1
113
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1448
113-2-11
1
113
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1447
113-2-10
1
113
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1446
113-2-9
1
113
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1445
113-2-8
1
113
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1444
113-2-7
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113-2-6
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113-2-5
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113-2-4
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113-2-3
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113-2-2
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113-2-1
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1437
522-2-42
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522
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522-2-41
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522
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522-2-40
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522-2-39
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1433
522-2-38
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522-2-37
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522-2-36
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522-2-35
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522-2-34
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1428
522-2-33
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522-2-32
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522
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522-2-31
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522-2-30
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522
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522-2-29
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522
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1423
522-2-28
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522
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522-2-27
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522-2-26
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522-2-25
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522-2-24
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522
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522-2-23
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522-2-22
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522-2-21
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522-2-20
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522-2-19
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522-2-18
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522-2-17
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522-2-16
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522-2-15
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522-2-14
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522-2-13
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1407
522-2-12
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1406
522-2-11
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522
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1405
522-2-10
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1404
522-2-9
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1403
522-2-8
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522
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1402
522-2-7
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1401
522-2-6
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1
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522-2-5
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1399
522-2-4
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522
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3
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1398
522-2-3
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522
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1397
522-2-2
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522
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1396
522-2-1
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1395
521-2-34
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2
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1394
521-2-33
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1393
521-2-32
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1
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1392
521-2-31
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3
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1391
521-2-30
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521
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1390
521-2-29
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2
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1389
521-2-28
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2
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1388
521-2-27
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1
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1387
521-2-26
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1
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1386
521-2-25
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2
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1385
521-2-24
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1384
521-2-23
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1383
521-2-22
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1
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521-2-21
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521-2-20
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1380
521-2-19
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1379
521-2-18
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1378
521-2-17
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521-2-15
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521-2-14
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521-2-13
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1
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521-2-12
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1372
521-2-11
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1371
521-2-10
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3
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1370
521-2-9
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521
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3
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1369
521-2-8
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521
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3
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1368
521-2-7
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521
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2
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1367
521-2-6
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521
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3
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1366
521-2-5
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521
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4
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1365
521-2-4
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1
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1364
521-2-3
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1
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1363
521-2-2
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521
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2
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1362
521-2-1
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521
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3
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1361
520-2-23
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520
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1
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1360
520-2-22
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520
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1
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1359
520-2-21
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2
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1358
520-2-20
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1
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1357
520-2-19
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4
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1356
520-2-18
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1
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1355
520-2-17
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1
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1354
520-2-16
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4
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520-2-15
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2
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1352
520-2-14
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4
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520-2-13
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1
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520-2-12
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4
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1349
520-2-11
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2
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1348
520-2-10
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2
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1347
520-2-9
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520-2-4
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520-2-3
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1340
520-2-2
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2
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1339
520-2-1
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1338
519-2-34
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4
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1337
519-2-33
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519
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2
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1336
519-2-32
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519
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4
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1335
519-2-31
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519
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1
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1334
519-2-30
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519
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2
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1333
519-2-29
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519
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1
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1332
519-2-28
5
519
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4
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1331
519-2-27
5
519
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4
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1330
519-2-26
5
519
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1
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1329
519-2-25
5
519
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2
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1328
519-2-24
5
519
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4
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1327
519-2-23
5
519
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4
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1326
519-2-22
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519
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3
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1325
519-2-21
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519
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4
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1324
519-2-20
5
519
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2
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1323
519-2-19
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519
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4
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1322
519-2-18
5
519
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3
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1321
519-2-17
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519
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1
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1320
519-2-16
5
519
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3
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1319
519-2-15
5
519
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3
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1318
519-2-14
5
519
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2
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1317
519-2-13
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4
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1316
519-2-12
5
519
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4
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1315
519-2-11
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519
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4
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1314
519-2-10
5
519
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2
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1313
519-2-9
5
519
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2
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1312
519-2-8
5
519
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4
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1311
519-2-7
5
519
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2
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1310
519-2-6
5
519
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1
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1309
519-2-5
5
519
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4
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1308
519-2-4
5
519
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2
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1307
519-2-3
5
519
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2
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1306
519-2-2
5
519
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4
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1305
519-2-1
5
519
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3
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1304
518-2-15
5
518
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2
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1303
518-2-14
5
518
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3
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1302
518-2-13
5
518
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4
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1301
518-2-12
5
518
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3
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1300
518-2-11
5
518
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3
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1299
518-2-10
5
518
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3
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1298
518-2-9
5
518
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3
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1297
518-2-8
5
518
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2
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1296
518-2-7
5
518
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4
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1295
518-2-6
5
518
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4
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1294
518-2-5
5
518
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1
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1293
518-2-4
5
518
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3
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1292
518-2-3
5
518
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1
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1291
518-2-2
5
518
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3
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1290
518-2-1
5
518
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2
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1289
517-2-1
5
517
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4
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1288
516-2-89
5
516
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4
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1287
516-2-88
5
516
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1
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1286
516-2-87
5
516
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2
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1285
516-2-86
5
516
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1
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1284
516-2-85
5
516
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3
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1283
516-2-84
5
516
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2
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1282
516-2-83
5
516
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4
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1281
516-2-82
5
516
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3
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1280
516-2-81
5
516
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3
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1279
516-2-80
5
516
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2
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1278
516-2-79
5
516
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2
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1277
516-2-78
5
516
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3
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1276
516-2-77
5
516
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2
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1275
516-2-76
5
516
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3
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1274
516-2-75
5
516
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2
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1273
516-2-74
5
516
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1
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1272
516-2-73
5
516
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1
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1271
516-2-72
5
516
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3
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1270
516-2-71
5
516
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2
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1269
516-2-70
5
516
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3
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1268
516-2-69
5
516
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1
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1267
516-2-68
5
516
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1
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1266
516-2-67
5
516
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4
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1265
516-2-66
5
516
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2
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1264
516-2-65
5
516
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1
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1263
516-2-64
5
516
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3
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1262
516-2-63
5
516
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3
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1261
516-2-62
5
516
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4
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1260
516-2-61
5
516
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3
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1259
516-2-60
5
516
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2
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1258
516-2-59
5
516
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4
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1257
516-2-58
5
516
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2
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1256
516-2-57
5
516
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1
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1255
516-2-56
5
516
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3
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1254
516-2-55
5
516
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4
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1253
516-2-54
5
516
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1
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1252
516-2-53
5
516
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1
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1251
516-2-52
5
516
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4
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516-2-51
5
516
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2
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516-2-49
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516-2-42
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516-2-41
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516-2-40
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516-2-39
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516-2-38
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516-2-37
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516-2-36
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516-2-35
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516-2-34
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1
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516-2-33
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1231
516-2-32
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1
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516-2-31
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1229
516-2-30
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1228
516-2-29
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1
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1227
516-2-28
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1226
516-2-27
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1225
516-2-26
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1224
516-2-25
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1223
516-2-24
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1
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1222
516-2-23
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1221
516-2-22
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1220
516-2-21
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516-2-19
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516-2-18
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516-2-17
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516-2-16
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516-2-15
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516-2-14
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516-2-13
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516-2-12
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516-2-11
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1209
516-2-10
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1208
516-2-9
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1207
516-2-8
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1206
516-2-7
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516-2-6
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1
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1204
516-2-5
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1203
516-2-4
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516-2-3
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1201
516-2-2
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1200
516-2-1
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1199
515-2-60
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1198
515-2-59
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1197
515-2-58
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1196
515-2-57
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515-2-56
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515-2-55
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515-2-54
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1
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515-2-53
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515-2-52
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1190
515-2-51
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1189
515-2-50
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1188
515-2-49
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2
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1187
515-2-48
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1
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1186
515-2-47
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1185
515-2-46
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1184
515-2-45
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1183
515-2-44
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1
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515-2-43
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1181
515-2-42
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1180
515-2-41
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1179
515-2-40
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1178
515-2-39
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1177
515-2-38
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1
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1176
515-2-37
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1175
515-2-36
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1174
515-2-35
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1
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1173
515-2-34
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1172
515-2-33
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1171
515-2-32
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2
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1170
515-2-31
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3
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1169
515-2-30
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1
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1168
515-2-29
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2
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1167
515-2-28
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3
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1166
515-2-27
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3
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1165
515-2-26
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4
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1164
515-2-25
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2
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1163
515-2-24
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4
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1162
515-2-23
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2
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1161
515-2-22
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4
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1160
515-2-21
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1
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1159
515-2-20
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1
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1158
515-2-19
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3
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1157
515-2-18
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1
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1156
515-2-17
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1
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1155
515-2-16
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1
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1154
515-2-15
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4
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1153
515-2-14
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3
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1152
515-2-13
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2
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1151
515-2-12
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1150
515-2-11
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1
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1149
515-2-10
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4
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1148
515-2-9
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4
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1147
515-2-8
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2
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1146
515-2-7
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2
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1145
515-2-6
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1
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1144
515-2-5
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1143
515-2-4
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1142
515-2-3
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4
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1141
515-2-2
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4
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1140
515-2-1
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4
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1139
514-2-53
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3
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1138
514-2-52
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514
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4
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1137
514-2-51
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514
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3
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1136
514-2-50
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3
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1135
514-2-49
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514
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4
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1134
514-2-48
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514
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1
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1133
514-2-47
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3
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1132
514-2-46
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514
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3
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1131
514-2-45
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514
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3
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1130
514-2-44
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514
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2
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1129
514-2-43
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1
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1128
514-2-42
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514
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2
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1127
514-2-41
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1
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1126
514-2-40
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2
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1125
514-2-39
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3
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1124
514-2-38
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3
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1123
514-2-37
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514
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3
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1122
514-2-36
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2
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1121
514-2-35
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4
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1120
514-2-34
5
514
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3
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1119
514-2-33
5
514
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4
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1118
514-2-32
5
514
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4
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1117
514-2-31
5
514
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2
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1116
514-2-30
5
514
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4
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1115
514-2-29
5
514
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2
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1114
514-2-28
5
514
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1
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1113
514-2-27
5
514
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1
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1112
514-2-26
5
514
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1
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1111
514-2-25
5
514
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3
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1110
514-2-24
5
514
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2
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1109
514-2-23
5
514
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1
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1108
514-2-22
5
514
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4
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1107
514-2-21
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514
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4
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1106
514-2-20
5
514
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3
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1105
514-2-19
5
514
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2
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1104
514-2-18
5
514
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3
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1103
514-2-17
5
514
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3
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1102
514-2-16
5
514
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3
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1101
514-2-15
5
514
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3
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1100
514-2-14
5
514
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2
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1099
514-2-13
5
514
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1
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1098
514-2-12
5
514
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1
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1097
514-2-11
5
514
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1
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1096
514-2-10
5
514
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2
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1095
514-2-9
5
514
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4
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1094
514-2-8
5
514
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2
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1093
514-2-7
5
514
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1092
514-2-6
5
514
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4
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1091
514-2-5
5
514
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1, 2...
1
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1090
514-2-4
5
514
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1089
514-2-3
5
514
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1, 2...
2
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1088
514-2-2
5
514
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1087
514-2-1
5
514
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1, 2...
3
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1086
513-2-11
5
513
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1085
513-2-10
5
513
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1084
513-2-9
5
513
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1083
513-2-8
5
513
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1, 2...
1
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1082
513-2-7
5
513
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1081
513-2-6
5
513
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1080
513-2-5
5
513
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1079
513-2-4
5
513
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1078
513-2-3
5
513
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1077
513-2-2
5
513
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1076
513-2-1
5
513
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1075
512-2-31
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1074
512-2-30
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1073
512-2-29
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1072
512-2-28
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1071
512-2-27
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1070
512-2-26
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1069
512-2-25
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1068
512-2-24
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1067
512-2-23
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1066
512-2-22
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1065
512-2-21
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1064
512-2-20
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1063
512-2-19
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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1062
512-2-18
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1061
512-2-17
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1060
512-2-16
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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1059
512-2-15
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1058
512-2-14
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1057
512-2-13
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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1056
512-2-12
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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1055
512-2-11
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1054
512-2-10
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1053
512-2-9
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1052
512-2-8
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1051
512-2-7
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1050
512-2-6
5
512
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1049
512-2-5
5
512
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2
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1048
512-2-4
5
512
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1
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1047
512-2-3
5
512
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3
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1046
512-2-2
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512
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3
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1045
512-2-1
5
512
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1044
506-2-22
5
506
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4
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1043
506-2-21
5
506
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1042
506-2-20
5
506
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3
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1041
506-2-19
5
506
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4
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1040
506-2-18
5
506
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2
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1039
506-2-17
5
506
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1038
506-2-16
5
506
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1037
506-2-15
5
506
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1036
506-2-14
5
506
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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1035
506-2-13
5
506
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4
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1034
506-2-12
5
506
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1033
506-2-11
5
506
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1032
506-2-10
5
506
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1031
506-2-9
5
506
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1030
506-2-8
5
506
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4
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1029
506-2-7
5
506
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4
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1028
506-2-6
5
506
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4
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1027
506-2-5
5
506
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1026
506-2-4
5
506
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1025
506-2-3
5
506
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4
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1024
506-2-2
5
506
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1023
506-2-1
5
506
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2
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1022
505-2-31
5
505
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1
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1021
505-2-30
5
505
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1020
505-2-29
5
505
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3
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1019
505-2-28
5
505
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1
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1018
505-2-27
5
505
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1
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1017
505-2-26
5
505
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1
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1016
505-2-25
5
505
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3
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1015
505-2-24
5
505
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1
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1014
505-2-23
5
505
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2
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1013
505-2-22
5
505
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4
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1012
505-2-21
5
505
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3
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1011
505-2-20
5
505
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2
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1010
505-2-19
5
505
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2
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1009
505-2-18
5
505
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1
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1008
505-2-17
5
505
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4
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1007
505-2-16
5
505
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2
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1006
505-2-15
5
505
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1005
505-2-14
5
505
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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1004
505-2-13
5
505
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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1003
505-2-12
5
505
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1
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1002
505-2-11
5
505
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1
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1001
505-2-10
5
505
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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1000
505-2-9
5
505
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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999
505-2-8
5
505
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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998
505-2-7
5
505
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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997
505-2-6
5
505
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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996
505-2-5
5
505
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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995
505-2-4
5
505
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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994
505-2-3
5
505
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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993
505-2-2
5
505
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3
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992
505-2-1
5
505
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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991
504-2-24
5
504
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3
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990
504-2-23
5
504
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3
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989
504-2-22
5
504
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2
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988
504-2-21
5
504
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3
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987
504-2-20
5
504
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1
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986
504-2-19
5
504
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2
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985
504-2-18
5
504
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1
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984
504-2-17
5
504
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1
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983
504-2-16
5
504
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4
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982
504-2-15
5
504
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2
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981
504-2-14
5
504
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3
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980
504-2-13
5
504
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3
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979
504-2-12
5
504
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2
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978
504-2-11
5
504
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2
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977
504-2-10
5
504
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2
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976
504-2-9
5
504
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2
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975
504-2-8
5
504
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4
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974
504-2-7
5
504
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3
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973
504-2-6
5
504
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3
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972
504-2-5
5
504
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3
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971
504-2-4
5
504
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3
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970
504-2-3
5
504
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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969
504-2-2
5
504
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4
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968
504-2-1
5
504
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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967
503-2-53
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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966
503-2-52
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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965
503-2-51
5
503
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3
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964
503-2-50
5
503
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1
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963
503-2-49
5
503
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2
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962
503-2-48
5
503
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1
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961
503-2-47
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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960
503-2-46
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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959
503-2-45
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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958
503-2-44
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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957
503-2-43
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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956
503-2-42
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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955
503-2-41
5
503
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3
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954
503-2-40
5
503
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2
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953
503-2-39
5
503
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2
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952
503-2-38
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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951
503-2-37
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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950
503-2-36
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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949
503-2-35
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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948
503-2-34
5
503
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1, 2...
2
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947
503-2-33
5
503
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4
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946
503-2-32
5
503
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1, 2...
1
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945
503-2-31
5
503
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1, 2...
2
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944
503-2-30
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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943
503-2-29
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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942
503-2-28
5
503
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1, 2...
3
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941
503-2-27
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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940
503-2-26
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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939
503-2-25
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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938
503-2-24
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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937
503-2-23
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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936
503-2-22
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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935
503-2-21
5
503
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1, 2...
3
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934
503-2-20
5
503
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1, 2...
1
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933
503-2-19
5
503
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1, 2...
2
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932
503-2-18
5
503
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1, 2...
4
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931
503-2-17
5
503
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1, 2...
3
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930
503-2-16
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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929
503-2-15
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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928
503-2-14
5
503
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1, 2...
3
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927
503-2-13
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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926
503-2-12
5
503
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1, 2...
4
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925
503-2-11
5
503
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3
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924
503-2-10
5
503
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1, 2...
4
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923
503-2-9
5
503
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1, 2...
4
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922
503-2-8
5
503
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1, 2...
4
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921
503-2-7
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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920
503-2-6
5
503
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1, 2...
1
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919
503-2-5
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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918
503-2-4
5
503
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1, 2...
4
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917
503-2-3
5
503
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4
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916
503-2-2
5
503
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3
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915
503-2-1
5
503
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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914
511-2-48
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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913
511-2-47
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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912
511-2-46
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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911
511-2-45
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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910
511-2-44
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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909
511-2-43
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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908
511-2-42
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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907
511-2-41
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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906
511-2-40
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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905
511-2-39
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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904
511-2-38
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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903
511-2-37
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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902
511-2-36
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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901
511-2-35
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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900
511-2-34
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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899
511-2-33
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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898
511-2-32
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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897
511-2-31
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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896
511-2-30
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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895
511-2-29
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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894
511-2-28
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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893
511-2-27
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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892
511-2-26
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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891
511-2-25
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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890
511-2-24
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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889
511-2-23
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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888
511-2-22
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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887
511-2-21
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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886
511-2-20
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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885
511-2-19
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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884
511-2-18
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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883
511-2-17
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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882
511-2-16
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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881
511-2-15
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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880
511-2-14
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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879
511-2-13
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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878
511-2-12
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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877
511-2-11
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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876
511-2-10
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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875
511-2-9
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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874
511-2-8
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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873
511-2-7
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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872
511-2-6
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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871
511-2-5
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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870
511-2-4
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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869
511-2-3
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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868
511-2-2
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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867
511-2-1
5
511
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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866
204-2-51
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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865
204-2-50
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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864
204-2-49
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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863
204-2-48
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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862
204-2-47
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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861
204-2-46
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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860
204-2-45
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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859
204-2-44
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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858
204-2-43
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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857
204-2-42
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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856
204-2-41
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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855
204-2-40
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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854
204-2-39
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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853
204-2-38
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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852
204-2-37
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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851
204-2-36
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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850
204-2-35
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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849
204-2-34
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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848
204-2-33
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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847
204-2-32
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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846
204-2-31
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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845
204-2-30
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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844
204-2-29
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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843
204-2-28
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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842
204-2-27
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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841
204-2-26
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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840
204-2-25
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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839
204-2-24
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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838
204-2-23
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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837
204-2-22
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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836
204-2-21
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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835
204-2-20
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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834
204-2-19
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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833
204-2-18
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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832
204-2-17
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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831
204-2-16
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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830
204-2-15
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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829
204-2-14
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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828
204-2-13
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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827
204-2-12
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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826
204-2-11
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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825
204-2-10
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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824
204-2-9
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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823
204-2-8
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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822
204-2-7
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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821
204-2-6
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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820
204-2-5
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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819
204-2-4
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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818
204-2-3
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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817
204-2-2
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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816
204-2-1
2
204
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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815
206-2-24
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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814
206-2-23
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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813
206-2-22
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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812
206-2-21
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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811
206-2-20
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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810
206-2-19
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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809
206-2-18
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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808
206-2-17
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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807
206-2-16
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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806
206-2-15
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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805
206-2-14
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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804
206-2-13
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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803
206-2-12
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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802
206-2-11
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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801
206-2-10
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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800
206-2-9
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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799
206-2-8
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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798
206-2-7
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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797
206-2-6
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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796
206-2-5
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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795
206-2-4
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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794
206-2-3
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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793
206-2-2
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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792
206-2-1
2
206
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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767
205-2-20
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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766
205-2-19
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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765
205-2-18
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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764
205-2-17
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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763
205-2-16
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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762
205-2-15
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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761
205-2-14
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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760
205-2-13
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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759
205-2-12
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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758
205-2-11
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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757
205-2-10
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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756
205-2-9
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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755
205-2-8
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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754
205-2-7
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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753
205-2-6
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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752
205-2-5
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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751
205-2-4
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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750
205-2-3
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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749
205-2-2
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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748
205-2-1
2
205
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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747
202-2-25
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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746
202-2-24
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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745
202-2-23
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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744
202-2-22
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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743
202-2-21
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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742
202-2-20
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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741
202-2-19
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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740
202-2-18
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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739
202-2-17
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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738
202-2-16
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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737
202-2-15
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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736
202-2-14
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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735
202-2-13
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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734
202-2-12
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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733
202-2-11
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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732
202-2-10
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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731
202-2-9
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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730
202-2-8
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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729
202-2-7
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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728
202-2-6
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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727
202-2-5
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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726
202-2-4
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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725
202-2-3
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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724
202-2-2
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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723
202-2-1
2
202
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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722
201-2-15
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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721
201-2-14
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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720
201-2-13
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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719
201-2-12
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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718
201-2-11
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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717
201-2-10
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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716
201-2-9
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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715
201-2-8
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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714
201-2-7
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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713
201-2-6
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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712
201-2-5
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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711
201-2-4
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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710
201-2-3
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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709
201-2-2
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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708
201-2-1
2
201
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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707
103-2-21
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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706
103-2-20
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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705
103-2-19
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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704
103-2-18
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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703
103-2-17
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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702
103-2-16
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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701
103-2-15
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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700
103-2-14
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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699
103-2-13
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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698
103-2-12
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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697
103-2-11
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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696
103-2-10
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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695
103-2-9
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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694
103-2-8
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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693
103-2-7
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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692
103-2-6
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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691
103-2-5
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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690
103-2-4
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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689
103-2-3
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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688
103-2-2
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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687
103-2-1
1
103
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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686
101-2-27
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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685
101-2-26
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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684
101-2-25
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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683
101-2-24
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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682
101-2-23
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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681
101-2-22
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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680
101-2-21
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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679
101-2-20
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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678
101-2-19
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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677
101-2-18
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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676
101-2-17
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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675
101-2-16
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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674
101-2-15
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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673
101-2-14
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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672
101-2-13
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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671
101-2-12
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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670
101-2-11
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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669
101-2-10
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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668
101-2-9
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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667
101-2-8
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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666
101-2-7
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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665
101-2-6
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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664
101-2-5
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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663
101-2-4
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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662
101-2-3
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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661
101-2-2
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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660
101-2-1
1
101
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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659
105-2-26
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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658
105-2-25
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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657
105-2-24
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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656
105-2-23
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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655
105-2-22
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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654
105-2-21
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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653
105-2-20
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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652
105-2-19
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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651
105-2-18
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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650
105-2-17
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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649
105-2-16
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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648
105-2-15
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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647
105-2-14
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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646
105-2-13
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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645
105-2-12
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
3
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644
105-2-11
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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643
105-2-10
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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642
105-2-9
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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641
105-2-8
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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640
105-2-7
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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639
105-2-6
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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638
105-2-5
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
2
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637
105-2-4
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
4
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636
105-2-3
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
1, 2...
1
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635
105-2-2
1
105
NEET Previous Year Questions
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105-2-1
1
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NEET Previous Year Questions
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633
605-2-30
6
605
Recommended Questions
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632
605-2-29
6
605
Recommended Questions
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2
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631
605-2-28
6
605
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630
605-2-27
6
605
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629
605-2-26
6
605
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628
605-2-25
6
605
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627
605-2-24
6
605
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626
605-2-23
6
605
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625
605-2-22
6
605
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1
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624
605-2-21
6
605
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623
605-2-20
6
605
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622
605-2-19
6
605
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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621
605-2-18
6
605
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620
605-2-17
6
605
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619
605-2-16
6
605
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618
605-2-15
6
605
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617
605-2-14
6
605
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2
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616
605-2-13
6
605
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615
605-2-12
6
605
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2
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614
605-2-11
6
605
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613
605-2-10
6
605
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612
605-2-9
6
605
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611
605-2-8
6
605
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2
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610
605-2-7
6
605
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609
605-2-6
6
605
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608
605-2-5
6
605
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607
605-2-4
6
605
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1
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606
605-2-3
6
605
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605
605-2-2
6
605
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1
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604
605-2-1
6
605
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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603
604-2-30
6
604
Recommended Questions
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3
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602
604-2-29
6
604
Recommended Questions
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1
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601
604-2-28
6
604
Recommended Questions
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600
604-2-27
6
604
Recommended Questions
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599
604-2-26
6
604
NEET Previous Year Questions
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598
604-2-25
6
604
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3
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597
604-2-24
6
604
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596
604-2-23
6
604
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3
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595
604-2-22
6
604
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594
604-2-21
6
604
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593
604-2-20
6
604
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592
604-2-19
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604
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591
604-2-18
6
604
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590
604-2-17
6
604
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589
604-2-16
6
604
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588
604-2-15
6
604
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587
604-2-14
6
604
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586
604-2-13
6
604
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585
604-2-12
6
604
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1
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584
604-2-11
6
604
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583
604-2-10
6
604
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582
604-2-9
6
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581
604-2-8
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580
604-2-7
6
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1
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579
604-2-6
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604
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578
604-2-5
6
604
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604-2-4
6
604
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576
604-2-3
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604
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575
604-2-2
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604
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574
604-2-1
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604
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573
603-2-47
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603
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572
603-2-46
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603
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603-2-45
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603
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570
603-2-44
6
603
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569
603-2-43
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603
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568
603-2-42
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603
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567
603-2-41
6
603
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566
603-2-40
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603
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565
603-2-39
6
603
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564
603-2-38
6
603
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563
603-2-37
6
603
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562
603-2-36
6
603
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603-2-35
6
603
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560
603-2-34
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603
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559
603-2-33
6
603
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558
603-2-32
6
603
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557
603-2-31
6
603
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1
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556
603-2-30
6
603
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1
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555
603-2-29
6
603
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2
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554
603-2-28
6
603
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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553
603-2-27
6
603
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2
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552
603-2-26
6
603
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3
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551
603-2-25
6
603
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4
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550
603-2-24
6
603
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1
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549
603-2-23
6
603
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2
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548
603-2-22
6
603
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3
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547
603-2-21
6
603
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4
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546
603-2-20
6
603
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2
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545
603-2-19
6
603
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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544
603-2-18
6
603
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3
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543
603-2-17
6
603
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1
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542
603-2-16
6
603
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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541
603-2-15
6
603
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4
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540
603-2-14
6
603
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3
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539
603-2-13
6
603
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1
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538
603-2-12
6
603
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4
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537
603-2-11
6
603
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4
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536
603-2-10
6
603
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535
603-2-9
6
603
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4
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534
603-2-8
6
603
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4
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533
603-2-7
6
603
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1
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532
603-2-6
6
603
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3
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531
603-2-5
6
603
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1
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530
603-2-4
6
603
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2
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529
603-2-3
6
603
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528
603-2-2
6
603
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2
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527
603-2-1
6
603
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451
601-2-41
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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601-2-40
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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449
601-2-39
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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448
601-2-38
6
601
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4
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447
601-2-37
6
601
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2
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601-2-36
6
601
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2
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445
601-2-35
6
601
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2
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601-2-34
6
601
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2
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601-2-33
6
601
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2
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442
601-2-32
6
601
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2
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441
601-2-31
6
601
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3
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601-2-30
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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439
601-2-29
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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4
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438
601-2-28
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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601-2-27
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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436
601-2-26
6
601
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2
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435
601-2-25
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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601-2-24
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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601-2-23
6
601
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1
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432
601-2-22
6
601
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2
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601-2-21
6
601
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4
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430
601-2-20
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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601-2-19
6
601
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1
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601-2-18
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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601-2-17
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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601-2-16
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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2
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601-2-15
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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601-2-14
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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601-2-13
6
601
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3
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601-2-12
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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3
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601-2-11
6
601
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4
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601-2-10
6
601
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1
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419
601-2-9
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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601-2-8
6
601
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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601-2-7
6
601
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2
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601-2-6
6
601
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601-2-5
6
601
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601-2-4
6
601
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601-2-3
6
601
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601-2-2
6
601
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601-2-1
6
601
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4
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510-2-25
5
510
NEET Previous Year Questions
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510-2-24
5
510
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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510-2-23
5
510
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3
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407
510-2-22
5
510
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510-2-21
5
510
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510-2-20
5
510
NEET Previous Year Questions
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1
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510-2-19
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510-2-18
5
510
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1
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510-2-17
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510
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510-2-16
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510
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1
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510-2-15
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510
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510-2-14
5
510
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1
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510-2-13
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2
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510-2-12
5
510
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510-2-11
5
510
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510-2-10
5
510
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4
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510-2-9
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510-2-8
5
510
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510-2-7
5
510
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510-2-6
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510-2-5
5
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510-2-4
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510-2-3
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510-2-2
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510-2-1
5
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1
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510-2-25
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510-2-24
5
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510-2-23
5
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510-2-22
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1
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510-2-21
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2
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510-2-20
5
510
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1
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510-2-19
5
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510-2-18
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1
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510-2-17
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510-2-16
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1
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510-2-15
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510-2-14
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510-2-13
5
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510-2-12
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4
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510-2-11
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510
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510-2-10
5
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510-2-9
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4
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510-2-8
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4
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510-2-7
5
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510-2-6
5
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2
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510-2-5
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4
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510-2-4
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510-2-3
5
510
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1
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510-2-2
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3
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510-2-1
5
510
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NEET Previous Year Questions
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NEET Previous Year Questions
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77
The length, breadth and thickness of a block are given by $l = 12\,cm,\,b = 6\,cm$ and $t = 2.45\,cm$ ,The volume of the block according to the idea of significant figures should be,
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101
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$1 \times {10^2}\,c{m^3}$, $2 \times {10^2}\,c{m^3}$...
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76
While measuring the acceleration due to gravity by a simple pendulum, a student makes a positive error of 1% in the length of the pendulum and a negative error of 3% in the value of time period. His percentage error in the measurement of $g$by the relation $g = 4{\pi ^2}\left( {l/{T^2}} \right)$ will be
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2%, 4%...
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75
The pressure on a square plate is measured by measuring the force on the plate and the length of the sides of the plate. If the maximum error in the measurement of force and length are respectively 4% and 2%, The maximum error in the measurement of pressure is
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101
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1%, 2%...
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74
If radius of the sphere is $(5.3 \pm 0.1)$cm. Then percentage error in its volume will be
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101
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$3 + 6.01 \times \frac{{100}}{{5.3}}$, $\frac{1}{3} \times 0.01 \times \frac{{100}}{{5.3}}$...
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73
The dimensions of ${e^2}/4\pi {\varepsilon _0}hc$, where $e,\,{\varepsilon _0},\,h$ and c are electronic charge, electric permittivity, Planck’s constant and velocity of light in vacuum respectively
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101
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$[{M^0}{L^0}{T^0}]$, $[{M^1}{L^0}{T^0}]$...
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72
Dimensions of $\frac{1}{{{\mu _0}{\varepsilon _0}}}$, where symbols have their usual meaning, are
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101
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$[L{T^{ - 1}}]$, $[{L^{ - 1}}T]$...
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71
The dimensions of $\frac{a}{b}$ in the equation $P = \frac{{a - {t^2}}}{{bx}}$, where $P$ is pressure, $x$ is distance and $t$ is time, are
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101
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$M{T^{ - 2}}$, ${M^2}L{T^{ - 3}}$...
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70
The equation of state of some gases can be expressed as $\left( {P + \frac{a}{{{V^2}}}} \right) = \frac{{R\theta }}{V}$ Where $P$ is the pressure, $V$ the volume, $\theta $ the absolute temperature and $a$ and $b$ are constants. The dimensional formula of $a$ is
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$[M{L^5}{T^{ - 2}}]$, $[{M^{ - 1}}{L^5}{T^{ - 2}}]$...
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69
The position of a particle at time $t$ is given by the relation $x(t) = \left( {\frac{{{v_0}}}{\alpha }} \right)\,\,(1 - {c^{ - \alpha t}})$, where ${v_0}$ is a constant and $\alpha > 0$. The dimensions of ${v_0}$ and $\alpha $ are respectively
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${M^0}{L^1}{T^{ - 1}}$ and ${T^{ - 1}}$, ${M^0}{L^1}{T^0}$ and ${T^{ - 1}}$...
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68
From the dimensional consideration, which of the following equation is correct
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101
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$T = 2\pi \sqrt {\frac{{{R^3}}}{{GM}}} $, $T = 2\pi \sqrt {\frac{{GM}}{{{R^3}}}} $...
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67
The velocity $v$ (in $cm/\sec $) of a particle is given in terms of time $t$ (in sec) by the relation $v = at + \frac{b}{{t + c}}$ ; the dimensions of $a,\,b$ and $c$ are
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$a = {L^2},\,b = T,\,c = L{T^2}$, $a = L{T^2},\,b = LT,\,c = L$...
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66
A dimensionally consistent relation for the volume $V$ of a liquid of coefficient of viscosity $\eta $ flowing per second through a tube of radius $r$ and length $l$ and having a pressure difference $p$ across its end, is
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$V = \frac{{\pi p{r^4}}}{{8\eta l}}$, $V = \frac{{\pi \eta l}}{{8p{r^4}}}$...
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65
From the equation $\tan \theta = \frac{{rg}}{{{v^2}}}$, one can obtain the angle of banking $\theta $ for a cyclist taking a curve (the symbols have their usual meanings). Then say, it is
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Recommended Questions
Both dimensionally and numerically correct, Neither numerically nor dimensionally correct...
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64
$E,\,m,\,l$ and $G$ denote energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational constant respectively, then the dimension of $\frac{{E{l^2}}}{{{m^5}{G^2}}}$ are
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Angle, Length...
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63
The SI unit of surface tension is
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Dyne/cm, Newton/cm...
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62
What are the units of $K = 1/4\pi {\varepsilon _0}$
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Recommended Questions
${C^2}{N^{ - 1}}{m^{ - 2}}$, $N{m^2}{C^{ - 2}}$...
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61
The temperature of a body on Kelvin scale is found to be $X\;K$. When it is measured by a Fahrenheit thermometer, it is found to be ${X^0}F$. Then $X$ is
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Recommended Questions
301.25, 574.25...
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The unit of permittivity of free space ${\varepsilon _0}$ is
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Coulomb/Newton-metre, Newton-$metr{e^2}/Coulom{b^{\rm{2}}}$...
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59
The SI unit of universal gas constant $(R)$ is
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Recommended Questions
$Watt\,{K^{ - 1}}mo{l^{ - 1}}$, $Newton\,{K^{ - 1}}mo{l^{ - 1}}$...
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58
The surface tension of a liquid is $70\,dyne/cm$. In MKS system its value is
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$70N/m$, $7 \times {10^{ - 2}}\,N/m$...
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57
question
subjectId
chapterId
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option1, option2...
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chapterId
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option1, option2...
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53
There is a small bubble at one end and bigger bubble at other end of a rod. What will happen?
3
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Smaller will grow until they collapse, Bigger will grow until they collapse...
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51
N/A
N/A
option4
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50
The probability of throwing an ace in a single throw of an unbiased dice is
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$\frac{1}{6}$, 1...
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49
\(\tan \,{{75}^{0}}+\cot \,{{75}^{0}}\)is equal to
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3
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2$\sqrt{3}$, 2 + $\sqrt{3}$...
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48
If det A = 3 and A is of ordr 2 x 2 , then det 4 A is equal to
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3
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3, 12...
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47
The system of equations
x + y + z = 6
x + 2y + 3z =14
x + 3y + 5z = 20 has
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A unique solution, Only finitely many solutions...
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46
The equation of the curve which passes through the point (1,1) and for which $\frac{dy}{dx}=2x+2$is
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\(y={{x}^{2}}+2x\), \(y={{x}^{2}}+2x-3\)...
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45
If A = $\left( \begin{matrix}
1 & 2 \\
3 & 4 \\
\end{matrix} \right)$,then adj (adj A) is equal to
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$\left( \begin{matrix}
1 & -2 \\
-3 & 4 \\
\end{matrix} \right)$
, $\left( \begin{matrix}
1 & 2 \\
3 & 4 \\
\end{matrix} \right)$ ...
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44
If sec $\theta $-tan $\theta $= -$\frac{2}{3}$, then $\theta $ lies in the
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First quadrant, Second quadrant...
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43
The distance of the point $\left( \alpha ,\beta \right)$from X-axis is
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$\alpha $, $\beta $...
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42
In three-dimensional space, the locus of the equation x2 + y2 = 0 is
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{(0,0.0)}, XY – plane...
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41
If $\frac{dy}{dx}={{e}^{-\,\,2y}}$and y = 0, when x = 5, then the value of x when y = 3 is
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e5, e6 + 1...
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40
The points on the curve y = x3 - 3x at which the normal are parallel to the line 2x + 18y = 9 are
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3
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(2,2), (2, -2)...
option4
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39
$\underset{x\to e}{\mathop{Lt}}\,\frac{\log x-1}{x-e}$is equal to
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3
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1, $\frac{1}{2}$...
option3
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38
Let $\vec{a},\vec{b},\vec{c}$be three vectors such that $\vec{a}\bullet (\vec{b}+\vec{c})+\vec{b}\bullet (\vec{c}+\vec{a})+\vec{c}\bullet
(\vec{a}+\vec{b})=0$and $\left| {\vec{a}} \right|=1,\,\left| {\vec{b}} \right|=4,\left| {\vec{c}} \right|=8,$then $\left| \vec{a}+\vec{b}+\vec{c} \right|$equals
2
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13, 81...
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37
The general solution of the trigonometric equation sin x + cos x = 1 is given by
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x = 2n$\pi ,\,n\,\in \,I$, $x=n\pi +{{(-1)}^{n}}\,\frac{\pi }{4}-\frac{\pi }{4},n\,\in \,I$...
option2
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36
There is a small bubble at one end and bigger bubble at other end of a rod. What will happen?
2
3
N/A
\(\frac{{0.1\pi }}{{{\mu _0}}}\), \(\frac{{0.2\pi }}{{{\mu _0}}}\)...
option4
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35
The equation of the line with gradient (slope) $-\frac{3}{2}$ and which is concurrent with the lines 4x +3y-7 = 0 and 8x + 5y -1 = 0 is
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3x + 2y - 2 = 0, 3x + 2y - 63 = 0...
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34
If f(x) = log $\left( \frac{1+x}{1-x} \right)$and g(x) = $\frac{3x+{{x}^{3}}}{1+3{{x}^{2}}}$, then f(g(x)) equals
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–f(x), 3f(x)...
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33
2
4
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1, 2...
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32
If Lt f(x) = a2 then $\underset{x\to 0}{\mathop{Lt}}\,f\left( \frac{x}{2} \right)$is equal to
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3
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2a2, $\frac{{{a}^{2}}}{2}$...
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31
"$\underset{x\to 0}{\mathop{Lt}}\
\left( \frac{\tan x-x}{{{x}^{2}}\tan x} \right)$is equal to"
N/A
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22
Palisade tissue in dicot leaf is
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21
In dicot stem, starch sheath is
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Outer cortex, Middle cortex...
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20
Endodermal cells in dicot root is the
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First layer of stele made up of barrel shaped cells with intercellular space, Last layer of cortex made up of barrel shaped cells with intercellular space...
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19
Epidermis of root is known as
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Epiblema, Rhizodermis...
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18
Name the inflorescence and select the name of plant with this inflorescence
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Cymose - Allium sativum, Racemose - Atropa belladonna...
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17
In following plants how many of them have axile placentation
Allium, Solanum, Potato, Tobacco, Brassica
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2, 3...
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16
Obligately placed ovary is the character of
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Brassicaceae, Solanaceae...
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15
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Makoi, Allium Sativum...
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14
In pumpkin the tendril is the modification of
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Terminal bud, Apical bud...
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13
Like gymnosperms an alga, Fucus sp. represents diplontic life cycle. But it differ from gymnosperms and angiosperms
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In single to few celled gametophyte, In few to multicelled gametophyte...
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12
Microspores are found in …….. and produces …….
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Pistil, egg, Pistil, male gametes...
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11
Trimerous flowers are the character of
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Solanum, Pisum...
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10
The gametes of Ulothrix and Spirogyra are
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Non flagellated similar and flagellated similar respectively, Flagellated similar and non flagellated similar respectively...
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9
Match
1
2
N/A
A Q N
B R P
C S O
D T M
, A R N
B Q M
C T O
D S P...
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8
Identify diagram a and b
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Volvox, Spirogyra, Nostoc, Spirogyra...
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7
Analogous variant of mad cow diseases of cattles in humans is
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101
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Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE), Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)...
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6
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101
Recommended Questions
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5
\text{In an experiment the initial number of radioactive nuclei is 3000, It is found that } 1000 \pm 40 \text{ nuclei decayed in the first } 1.0 \text{ s. For } |x| \ll 1, \ln(1 + x) = x \text{ up to first power in } x. \text{ The error } \Delta\lambda, \text{ in the determination of the decay constant } \lambda, \text{ in } s^{-1}, \text{ is}
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NEET Previous Year Questions
0.04, 0.03...
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Identify a, b, c, d
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Slime mould, Euglenoids, Dianoflagellates, Paramoecium, Dianoflagellates, Euglenoids, Slime mould, Paramoecium...
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\text{The relation between } [\varepsilon_0] \text{ and } [\mu_0] \text{ is}
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NEET Previous Year Questions
\; [\mu_0] = [\varepsilon_0] [L]^2 [T]^{-2}, \; [\mu_0] = [\varepsilon_0] [L]^{-2} [T]^2...
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1
Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is true?
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Previous Year Questions
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Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is true?
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101
Previous Year Questions
mtDNA is always inherited from the father., mtDNA is double-stranded and circular....
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